Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives, 11/e, Global Edition
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Derivatives Textbook Front Matter
- Presents the 11th Edition of John C. Hull's textbook on options, futures, and risk management, including a comprehensive table of contents covering 37 chapters.
- Highlights major updates such as the transition from LIBOR to new reference rates, the inclusion of machine learning in finance, and coverage of fractional Brownian motion.
- Outlines pedagogical resources including the DerivaGem software, PowerPoint slides, and technical notes available on the author's website.
- Provides administrative details including copyright information, ISBNs, global publication locations, and a preface discussing employability in the derivatives market.
OPTIONS, FUTURES,
AND OTHER DERIVATIVES
John C. Hull
Maple Financial Group Professor of Derivatives and Risk Management
Joseph L. Rotman School of Management
University of Toronto
ELEVENTH EDITION
GLOBAL EDITION
Harlow, England ⢠London ⢠New York ⢠Boston ⢠San Francisco ⢠Toronto ⢠Sydney ⢠Dubai ⢠Singapore ⢠Hong Kong
Tokyo ⢠Seoul ⢠Taipei ⢠New Delhi ⢠Cape Town ⢠S ão Paulo ⢠Mexico City ⢠Madrid ⢠Amsterdam ⢠Munich ⢠Paris ⢠Milan
A01_HULL0654_11_GE_FM.indd 1 03/05/2021 14:52
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4CONTENTS IN BRIEF
List of business snapshots .................................................................................................. 15
L
ist of technical notes
........................................................................................................ 16
Preface
............................................................................................................
...................... 17
1.I
ntroduction
......................................................................................................................... 23
2
.F
utures markets and central counterparties
................................................................... 46
3
.H
edging strategies using futures
...................................................................................... 70
4
.I
nterest rates
........................................................................................................................ 98
5
.D
etermination of forward and futures prices
............................................................... 124
6
.I
nterest rate futures
.......................................................................................................... 152
7.S
waps
.................................................................................................................................. 172
8
.S
ecuritization and the financial crisis of 2007ā8
.......................................................... 201
9.X
VAs
.................................................................................................................................. 216
1
0.M
echanics of options markets
......................................................................................... 227
1
1.P
roperties of stock options
.............................................................................................. 247
1
2.T
rading strategies involving options
..............................................................................268
13. B
inomial trees
................................................................................................................... 288
1
4.W
iener processes and ItĆ“ās lemma
................................................................................. 316
1
5.T
he BlackāScholesāMerton model
................................................................................ 338
1
6.E
mployee stock options
................................................................................................... 371
1
7.O
ptions on stock indices and currencies
.......................................................................384
1
8.F
utures options and Blackās model ................................................................................. 401
1
9.T
he Greek letters
.............................................................................................................. 417
2
0.V
olatility smiles and volatility surfaces
......................................................................... 451
2
1.B
asic numerical procedures
............................................................................................ 470
2
2.V
alue at risk and expected shortfall
............................................................................... 514
2
3.E
stimating volatilities and correlations
......................................................................... 542
2
4.
C
redit risk
.......................................................................................................................... 562
2
5. C
redit derivatives
.............................................................................................................. 587
2
6.
E
xotic options
.................................................................................................................... 614
2
7.M
ore on models and numerical procedures
................................................................. 6
40
2
8.M
artingales and measures
............................................................................................... 670
2
9.I
nterest rate derivatives: The standard market models
............................................... 688
3
0.C
onvexity, timing, and quanto adjustments
.................................................................. 707
3
1.E
quilibrium models of the short rate
............................................................................. 7
19
3
2.N
o-arbitrage models of the short rate
............................................................................ 732
3
3.M
odeling forward rates
.................................................................................................... 755
3
4.
S
waps revisited
.................................................................................................................. 773
3
5.E
nergy and commodity derivatives
................................................................................ 785
3
6.
R
eal options
...................................................................................................................... 802
3
7.D
erivatives mishaps and what we can learn from them
.............................................. 815
Glossary of terms
.............................................................................................................. 827
DerivaGem software
........................................................................................................ 851
Exchanges trading futures and options
......................................................................... 856
Table for N (x) When xā¦0 ............................................................................................. 8 57
Author index ...................................................................................................................... 859
Subject index
..................................................................................................................... 863
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5CONTENTS
List of business snapshots .................................................................................................. 15
List of technical notes ......................................................................................................... 16
Preface .................................................................................................................................. 17
Chapter 1. Introduction .......................................................................................................................... 23
1.1 Ex change-traded markets ....................................................................................... 24
1.2 Over-the-counter markets ...................................................................................... 25
1.3 Forward contracts .................................................................................................... 28
1.4 Futures contracts ..................................................................................................... 30
1.5 Options ...................................................................................................................... 31
1.6 Types of traders ........................................................................................................ 33
1.7 Hedgers ..................................................................................................................... 34
1.8 Speculators ............................................................................................................... 36
1.9 Arbitrageurs ............................................................................................................. 39
1.10 Dangers ..................................................................................................................... 39
Summary ................................................................................................................... 41
Further reading ........................................................................................................ 41
Practice q uestions .................................................................................................... 42
Chapter 2. Futures markets and central counterparties ..................................................................... 46
2.1 B ackground .............................................................................................................. 46
2.2 Specification of a futures contract ......................................................................... 48
2.3 Convergence of futures price to spot price .......................................................... 50
2.4 The operation of margin accounts ........................................................................ 51
2.5 OTC markets ............................................................................................................ 54
2.6 Market quotes .......................................................................................................... 57
2.7 Delivery ..................................................................................................................... 60
2.8 Types of traders and types of orders ..................................................................... 61
2.9 Regulation ................................................................................................................ 62
2.10 Accounting and tax ................................................................................................. 63
2.11 Forward vs. futures contracts ................................................................................. 64
Summary ................................................................................................................... 65
Further reading ........................................................................................................ 66
Practice questions .................................................................................................... 67
Chapter 3. Hedging strategies using futures ........................................................................................ 70
3.1 Bas ic principles ........................................................................................................ 70
3.2 Arguments for and against hedging ...................................................................... 72
3.3 Basis risk ................................................................................................................... 75
3.4 Cross hedging ........................................................................................................... 79
3.5 Stock index futures .................................................................................................. 84
3.6 Stack and roll ............................................................................................................ 89
Summary ................................................................................................................... 90
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6 Contents
Further reading ........................................................................................................ 92
Practice questions .................................................................................................... 93
Appendix: Capital asset pricing model ................................................................. 96
Chapter 4. Interest rates ......................................................................................................................... 98
4.1 Types of rates ............................................................................................................ 98
4.2 Reference rates ........................................................................................................ 99
4.3 The risk-free rate ................................................................................................... 101
4.4 Measuring interest rates ....................................................................................... 101
4.5 Zero rates ................................................................................................................ 104
4.6 Bond pricing ........................................................................................................... 105
4.7 Determining zero rates ......................................................................................... 106
4.8 Forward rates ......................................................................................................... 109
4.9 Forward rate agreements ...................................................................................... 110
4.10 Duration .................................................................................................................. 112
4.11 Convexity ................................................................................................................ 116
4.12 Theories of the term structure of interest rates ................................................. 117
Summary ................................................................................................................. 119
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 120
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 121
Chapter 5. Determination of forward and futures prices ................................................................. 124
5.1 Investment assets vs. consumption assets ........................................................... 124
5.2 Short selling ............................................................................................................ 125
5.3 Assumptions and notation .................................................................................... 126
5.4 Forward price for an investment asset ................................................................ 127
5.5 Known income ....................................................................................................... 130
5.6 Known yield ............................................................................................................ 132
5.7 Valuing forward contracts .................................................................................... 133
5.8 Are forward prices and futures prices equal? ................................................... 135
5.9 Futures prices of stock indices ............................................................................. 135
5.10 Forward and futures contracts on currencies .................................................... 137
5.11 Futures on commodities ....................................................................................... 141
5.12 The cost of carry .................................................................................................... 143
5.13 Delivery options ..................................................................................................... 144
5.14 Futures prices and expected future spot prices ................................................. 144
Summary ................................................................................................................. 147
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 148
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 149
Chapter 6. Interest rate futures ........................................................................................................... 152
6.1 Day count and quotation conventions ................................................................ 152
6.2 Treasury bond futures ........................................................................................... 155
6.3 Eurodollar and SOFR futures ............................................................................. 160
6.4 Duration-based hedging strategies using futures .............................................. 165
6.5 Hedging portfolios of assets and liabilities ........................................................ 167
Summary ................................................................................................................. 168
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 168
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 169
Chapter 7. Swaps ................................................................................................................................... 172
7.1 Mechanics of interest rate swaps ......................................................................... 172
7.2 Determining risk-free rates .................................................................................. 175
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Contents 7
7.3 Reasons for trading interest rate swaps .............................................................. 176
7.4 The organization of trading ................................................................................. 178
7.5 The comparative-advantage argument ............................................................... 181
7.6 Valuation of interest rate swaps ........................................................................... 183
7.7 How the value changes through time .................................................................. 185
7.8 Fixed-for-fixed currency swaps ............................................................................ 186
7.9 Valuation of fixed-for-fixed currency swaps ....................................................... 190
7.10 Other currency swaps ............................................................................................ 192
7.11 Credit risk ............................................................................................................... 193
7.12 Credit default swaps .............................................................................................. 193
7.13 Other types of swaps ............................................................................................. 194
Summary ................................................................................................................. 196
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 196
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 197
Chapter 8. Securitization and the financial crisis of 2007ā8 ............................................................. 201
8.1 Securitization ......................................................................................................... 201
8.2 The U.S. housing market ...................................................................................... 205
8.3 What went wrong? ................................................................................................. 209
8.4 The aftermath ........................................................................................................ 211
Summary ................................................................................................................. 213
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 213
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 215
Chapter 9. XVAs ................................................................................................................................... 216
9.1 CVA and DVA ....................................................................................................... 216
9.2 FVA and MVA ....................................................................................................... 219
9.3 KVA ......................................................................................................................... 222
9.4 Calculation issues .................................................................................................. 223
Summary ................................................................................................................. 224
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 225
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 226
Chapter 10. Mechanics of options markets .......................................................................................... 227
10.1 Types of options ..................................................................................................... 227
10.2 Option positions ..................................................................................................... 229
10.3 Underlying assets ................................................................................................... 231
10.4 Specification of stock options .............................................................................. 233
10.5 Trading .................................................................................................................... 236
10.6 Trading costs .......................................................................................................... 237
10.7 Margin requirements ............................................................................................. 237
10.8 The options clearing corporation ........................................................................ 239
10.9 Regulation .............................................................................................................. 239
10.10 Taxation .................................................................................................................. 240
10.11 Warrants, employee stock options, and convertibles ........................................ 241
10.12 Over-the-counter options markets ...................................................................... 242
Summary ................................................................................................................. 243
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 243
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 244
Chapter 11. Properties of stock options ............................................................................................... 247
11.1 Factors affecting option prices ............................................................................. 247
11.2 Assumptions and notation .................................................................................... 251
A01_HULL0654_11_GE_FM.indd 7 03/05/2021 14:52
8 Contents
11.3 Upper and lower bounds for option prices ......................................................... 252
11.4 Putācall parity ........................................................................................................ 255
11.5 Calls on a non-dividend-paying stock ................................................................. 257
11.6 Puts on a non-dividend-paying stock .................................................................. 260
11.7 Effect of dividends ................................................................................................. 262
Summary ................................................................................................................. 263
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 264
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 265
Chapter 12. Trading strategies involving options ................................................................................ 268
12.1 Principal-protected notes ..................................................................................... 268
12.2 Trading an option and the underlying asset ....................................................... 270
12.3 Spreads .................................................................................................................... 272
12.4 Combinations ......................................................................................................... 280
12.5 Other payoffs .......................................................................................................... 283
Summary ................................................................................................................. 284
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 285
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 285
Chapter 13. Binomial trees ..................................................................................................................... 288
13.1 A one-step binomial model and a no-arbitrage argument ............................... 288
13.2 Risk-neutral valuation ........................................................................................... 292
13.3 Two-step binomial trees ........................................................................................ 294
13.4 A put example ........................................................................................................ 297
13.5 American options .................................................................................................. 298
13.6 Delta ........................................................................................................................ 299
13.7 Matching volatility with u and d .......................................................................... 300
13.8 The binomial tree formulas .................................................................................. 302
13.9 Increasing the number of steps ............................................................................ 302
13.10 Using DerivaGem .................................................................................................. 303
13.11 Options on other assets ......................................................................................... 304
Summary ................................................................................................................. 308
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 308
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 309
Appendix: Derivation of the BlackāScholesāMerton option-pricing
formula from a binomial tree ........................................................... 312
Chapter 14. Wiener processes and ItĆ“ās lemma ................................................................................... 316
14.1 The Markov property ............................................................................................ 316
14.2 Continuous-time stochastic processes ................................................................ 317
14.3 The process for a stock price ................................................................................ 322
14.4 The parameters ...................................................................................................... 325
14.5 Correlated processes ............................................................................................. 326
14.6 ItĆ“ās lemma ............................................................................................................. 327
14.7 The lognormal property ....................................................................................... 328
14.8 Fractional Brownian motion ................................................................................ 329
Summary ................................................................................................................. 330
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 332
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 333
Appendix: A nonrigorous derivation of ItĆ“ās lemma ........................................ 336
Chapter 15. The BlackāScholesāMerton model .................................................................................. 338
15.1 Lognormal property of stock prices .................................................................... 339
15.2 The distribution of the rate of return .................................................................. 340
A01_HULL0654_11_GE_FM.indd 8 03/05/2021 14:52
Contents 9
15.3 The expected return .............................................................................................. 341
15.4 Volatility ................................................................................................................. 342
15.5 The idea underlying the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation .......... 346
15.6 Derivation of the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation ..................... 348
15.7 Risk-neutral valuation ........................................................................................... 351
15.8 BlackāScholesāMerton pricing formulas ........................................................... 352
15.9 Cumulative normal distribution function .......................................................... 355
15.10 Warrants and employee stock options ................................................................ 356
15.11 Implied volatilities ................................................................................................. 358
15.12 Dividends ................................................................................................................ 360
Summary ................................................................................................................. 363
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 364
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 365
Appendix: Proof of the BlackāScholesāMerton formula using risk-neutral
valuation .............................................................................................. 369
Chapter 16. Employee stock options .................................................................................................... 371
16.1 Contractual arrangements .................................................................................... 371
16.2 Do options align the interests of shareholders and managers? ....................... 373
16.3 Accounting issues .................................................................................................. 374
16.4 Valuation ................................................................................................................. 375
16.5 The backdating scandal ........................................................................................ 380
Summary ................................................................................................................. 381
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 381
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 382
Chapter 17. Options on stock indices and currencies ......................................................................... 384
17.1 Options on stock indices ....................................................................................... 384
17.2 Currency options ................................................................................................... 386
17.3 Options on stocks paying known dividend yields .............................................. 389
17.4 Valuation of European stock index options ....................................................... 391
17.5 Valuation of European currency options ........................................................... 394
17.6 American options .................................................................................................. 395
Summary ................................................................................................................. 396
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 397
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 397
Chapter 18. Futures options and Blackās model .................................................................................. 401
18.1 Nature of futures options ...................................................................................... 401
18.2 Reasons for the popularity of futures options ................................................... 404
18.3 European spot and futures options ..................................................................... 404
18.4 Putācall parity ........................................................................................................ 405
18.5 Bounds for futures options ................................................................................... 406
18.6 Drift of a futures price in a risk-neutral world .................................................. 407
18.7 Blackās model for valuing futures options .......................................................... 408
18.8 Using Blackās model instead of BlackāScholesāMerton .................................. 409
18.9 Valuation of futures options using binomial trees ............................................ 410
18.10 American futures options vs. American spot options ...................................... 412
18.11 Futures-style options ............................................................................................. 413
Summary ................................................................................................................. 413
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 414
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 414
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10 Contents
Chapter 19. The Greek letters ............................................................................................................... 417
19.1 Illustration .............................................................................................................. 417
19.2 Naked and covered positions ............................................................................... 418
19.3 Greek letter calculation ........................................................................................ 420
19.4 Delta hedging ......................................................................................................... 421
19.5 Theta ........................................................................................................................ 427
19.6 Gamma .................................................................................................................... 429
19.7 Relationship between delta, theta, and gamma ................................................. 433
19.8 Vega ......................................................................................................................... 434
19.9 Rho .......................................................................................................................... 436
19.10 The realities of hedging ........................................................................................ 437
19.11 Scenario analysis .................................................................................................... 437
19.12 Extension of formulas ........................................................................................... 439
19.13 Portfolio insurance ................................................................................................ 441
19.14 Application of machine learning to hedging ..................................................... 443
Summary ................................................................................................................. 444
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 445
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 446
Appendix: Taylor series expansions and Greek letters .................................... 450
Chapter 20. Volatility smiles and volatility surfaces ............................................................................ 451
20.1 Implied volatilities of calls and puts .................................................................... 451
20.2 Volatility smile for foreign currency options ..................................................... 453
20.3 Volatility smile for equity options ....................................................................... 456
20.4 Alternative ways of characterizing the volatility smile .................................... 458
20.5 The volatility term structure and volatility surfaces ......................................... 458
20.6 Minimum variance delta ....................................................................................... 460
20.7 The role of the model ............................................................................................ 460
20.8 When a single large jump is anticipated ............................................................. 460
Summary ................................................................................................................. 462
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 463
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 464
Appendix: Determining implied risk-neutral distributions from
volatility smiles ................................................................................... 467
Chapter 21. Basic numerical procedures .............................................................................................. 470
21.1 Binomial trees ........................................................................................................ 470
21.2 Using the binomial tree for options on indices, currencies, and futures
contracts .................................................................................................................. 478
21.3 Binomial model for a dividend-paying stock ..................................................... 480
21.4 Alternative procedures for constructing trees ................................................... 485
21.5 Time-dependent parameters ................................................................................ 488
21.6 Monte Carlo simulation ........................................................................................ 489
21.7 Variance reduction procedures ............................................................................ 495
21.8 Finite difference methods ..................................................................................... 498
Summary ................................................................................................................. 508
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 509
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 510
Chapter 22. Value at risk and expected shortfall ................................................................................. 514
22.1 The VaR and ES measures ................................................................................... 514
22.2 Historical simulation ............................................................................................. 517
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Contents 11
22.3 Model-building approach ..................................................................................... 521
22.4 The linear model .................................................................................................... 524
22.5 The quadratic model ............................................................................................. 530
22.6 Monte Carlo simulation ........................................................................................ 533
22.7 Comparison of approaches ................................................................................... 533
22.8 Back testing ............................................................................................................ 534
22.9 Principal components analysis ............................................................................. 534
Summary ................................................................................................................. 537
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 538
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 539
Chapter 23. Estimating volatilities and correlations ........................................................................... 542
23.1 Estimating volatility .............................................................................................. 542
23.2 The exponentially weighted moving average model ......................................... 544
23.3 The GARCH(1,1) model ...................................................................................... 546
23.4 Choosing between the models ............................................................................. 547
23.5 Maximum likelihood methods ............................................................................. 548
23.6 Using GARCH(1,1) to forecast future volatility ............................................... 553
23.7 Correlations ............................................................................................................ 556
Summary ................................................................................................................. 558
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 559
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 559
Chapter 24. Credit risk ............................................................................................................................ 562
24.1 Credit ratings .......................................................................................................... 562
24.2 Historical default probabilities ............................................................................ 563
24.3 Recovery rates ........................................................................................................ 564
24.4 Estimating default probabilities from bond yield spreads ............................... 564
24.5 Comparison of default probability estimates ..................................................... 567
24.6 Using equity prices to estimate default probabilities ....................................... 570
24.7 Credit risk in derivatives transactions ................................................................ 571
24.8 Default correlation ................................................................................................ 577
24.9 Credit VaR .............................................................................................................. 580
Summary ................................................................................................................. 582
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 583
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 583
Chapter 25. Credit derivatives ............................................................................................................... 587
25.1 Credit default swaps .............................................................................................. 588
25.2 Valuation of credit default swaps ........................................................................ 591
25.3 Credit indices ......................................................................................................... 595
25.4 The use of fixed coupons ...................................................................................... 596
25.5 CDS forwards and options ................................................................................... 597
25.6 Basket credit default swaps .................................................................................. 597
25.7 Total return swaps ................................................................................................. 597
25.8 Collateralized debt obligations ............................................................................ 599
25.9 Role of correlation in a basket CDS and CDO ................................................. 601
25.10 Valuation of a synthetic CDO .............................................................................. 601
25.11 Alternatives to the standard market model ....................................................... 608
Summary ................................................................................................................. 610
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 610
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 611
A01_HULL0654_11_GE_FM.indd 11 03/05/2021 14:52
12 Contents
Chapter 26. Exotic options ..................................................................................................................... 614
26.1 Packages .................................................................................................................. 614
26.2 Perpetual American call and put options .......................................................... 615
26.3 Nonstandard American options .......................................................................... 616
26.4 Gap options ............................................................................................................ 617
26.5 Forward start options ............................................................................................ 618
26.6 Cliquet options ....................................................................................................... 618
26.7 Compound options ................................................................................................ 618
26.8 Chooser options ..................................................................................................... 619
26.9 Barrier options ....................................................................................................... 620
26.10 Binary options ........................................................................................................ 622
26.11 Lookback options .................................................................................................. 623
26.12 Shout options .......................................................................................................... 625
26.13 Asian options ......................................................................................................... 626
26.14 Options to exchange one asset for another ........................................................ 627
26.15 Options involving several assets .......................................................................... 628
26.16 Volatility and variance swaps ............................................................................... 629
26.17 Static options replication ...................................................................................... 632
Summary ................................................................................................................. 634
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 635
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 635
Chapter 27. More on models and numerical procedures .................................................................... 640
27.1 Alternatives to BlackāScholesāMerton .............................................................. 641
27.2 Stochastic volatility models .................................................................................. 646
27.3 The IVF model ...................................................................................................... 649
27.4 Convertible bonds .................................................................................................. 650
27.5 Path-dependent derivatives .................................................................................. 653
27.6 Barrier options ....................................................................................................... 656
27.7 Options on two correlated assets ......................................................................... 658
27.8 Monte Carlo simulation and American options ................................................ 660
Summary ................................................................................................................. 665
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 666
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 667
Chapter 28. Martingales and measures ................................................................................................. 670
28.1 The market price of risk ....................................................................................... 671
28.2 Several state variables ........................................................................................... 674
28.3 Martingales ............................................................................................................. 675
28.4 Alternative choices for the numeraire ................................................................ 676
28.5 Extension to several factors ................................................................................. 679
28.6 Blackās model revisited ......................................................................................... 680
28.7 Option to exchange one asset for another .......................................................... 681
28.8 Change of numeraire ............................................................................................. 682
Summary ................................................................................................................. 684
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 685
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 685
Chapter 29. Interest rate derivatives: The standard market models ................................................. 688
29.1 Bond options .......................................................................................................... 688
29.2 Interest rate caps and floors ................................................................................. 693
29.3 European swap options ......................................................................................... 699
29.4 Hedging interest rate derivatives ......................................................................... 703
A01_HULL0654_11_GE_FM.indd 12 03/05/2021 14:52
Contents 13
Summary ................................................................................................................. 703
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 704
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 704
Chapter 30. Convexity, timing, and quanto adjustments ................................................................... 707
30.1 Convexity adjustments .......................................................................................... 707
30.2 Timing adjustments ............................................................................................... 710
30.3 Quantos ................................................................................................................... 711
Summary ................................................................................................................. 714
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 715
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 715
Appendix: Proof of the convexity adjustment formula .................................... 718
Chapter 31. Equilibrium models of the short rate ............................................................................... 719
31.1 Background ............................................................................................................ 719
31.2 One-factor models ................................................................................................. 721
31.3 Real-world vs. risk-neutral processes .................................................................. 726
31.4 Estimating parameters .......................................................................................... 727
31.5 More sophisticated models ................................................................................... 728
Summary ................................................................................................................. 729
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 729
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 729
Chapter 32. No-arbitrage models of the short rate ............................................................................. 732
32.1 Extensions of equilibrium models ....................................................................... 732
32.2 Options on bonds ................................................................................................... 736
32.3 Volatility structures ............................................................................................... 737
32.4 Interest rate trees ................................................................................................... 738
32.5 A general tree-building procedure ...................................................................... 740
32.6 Calibration .............................................................................................................. 749
32.7 Hedging using a one-factor model ...................................................................... 751
Summary ................................................................................................................. 752
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 752
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 752
Chapter 33. Modeling forward rates ..................................................................................................... 755
33.1 The Heath, Jarrow, and Morton model .............................................................. 755
33.2 The BGM model .................................................................................................... 758
33.3 Agency mortgage-backed securities ................................................................... 768
Summary ................................................................................................................. 770
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 770
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 771
Chapter 34. Swaps revisited ................................................................................................................... 773
34.1 Variations on the vanilla deal .............................................................................. 773
34.2 Compounding swaps ............................................................................................. 775
34.3 Currency and nonstandard swaps ....................................................................... 776
34.4 Equity swaps ........................................................................................................... 777
34.5 Swaps with embedded options ............................................................................. 779
34.6 Other swaps ............................................................................................................ 781
Summary ................................................................................................................. 782
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 783
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 783
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14 Contents
Chapter 35. Energy and commodity derivatives ................................................................................. 785
35.1 Agricultural commodities .................................................................................... 785
35.2 Metals ...................................................................................................................... 786
35.3 Energy products ..................................................................................................... 787
35.4 Modeling commodity prices ................................................................................. 789
35.5 Weather derivatives ............................................................................................... 795
35.6 Insurance derivatives ............................................................................................ 796
35.7 Pricing weather and insurance derivatives ......................................................... 797
35.8 How an energy producer can hedge risks ........................................................... 798
Summary ................................................................................................................. 799
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 799
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 800
Chapter 36. Real options ........................................................................................................................ 802
36.1 Capital investment appraisal ................................................................................ 802
36.2 Extension of the risk-neutral valuation framework .......................................... 803
36.3 Estimating the market price of risk .................................................................... 805
36.4 Application to the valuation of a business ......................................................... 806
36.5 Evaluating options in an investment opportunity ............................................. 806
Summary ................................................................................................................. 813
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 813
Practice questions .................................................................................................. 814
Chapter 37. Derivatives mishaps and what we can learn from them ................................................ 815
37.1 Lessons for all users of derivatives ...................................................................... 815
37.2 Lessons for financial institutions ......................................................................... 819
37.3 Lessons for nonfinancial corporations ............................................................... 824
Summary ................................................................................................................. 826
Further reading ...................................................................................................... 826
Glossary of terms .............................................................................................................. 827
DerivaGem software ......................................................................................................... 851
Exchanges trading futures and options ......................................................................... 856
Table for N (x) When x"0 ............................................................................................ 857
Author index ...................................................................................................................... 859
Subject index ...................................................................................................................... 863
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15BUSINESS SNAPSHOTS
1.1 The Lehman Bankruptcy ................................................................................................ 26
1.2 Systemic Risk .................................................................................................................... 27
1.3 Hedge Funds ..................................................................................................................... 34
1.4 SocGenās Big Loss in 2008 .............................................................................................. 40
2.1 The Unanticipated Delivery of a Futures Contract ..................................................... 47
2.2 Long-Term Capital Managementās Big Loss ................................................................ 56
3.1 Hedging by Gold Mining Companies ............................................................................ 75
3.2 Metallgesellschaft: Hedging Gone Awry ...................................................................... 91
4.1 Orange Countyās Yield Curve Plays ............................................................................ 111
4.2 Liquidity and the 2007ā2009 Financial Crisis ............................................................. 119
5.1 Kidder Peabodyās Embarrassing Mistake ................................................................... 129
5.2 A Systems Error? ........................................................................................................... 134
5.3 The CME Nikkei 225 Futures Contract ...................................................................... 136
5.4 Index Arbitrage in October 1987 ................................................................................. 137
6.1 Day Counts Can Be Deceptive .................................................................................... 153
6.2 The Wild Card Play ....................................................................................................... 159
6.3 AssetāLiability Management by Banks ....................................................................... 167
7.1 Extract from Hypothetical Swap Confirmation ......................................................... 180
7.2 The Hammersmith and Fulham Story ......................................................................... 194
8.1 The Basel Committee .................................................................................................... 212
10.1 Tax Planning Using Options ......................................................................................... 241
11.1 PutāCall Parity and Capital Structure ......................................................................... 258
12.1 Losing Money with Box Spreads .................................................................................. 277
12.2 How to Make Money from Trading Straddles ........................................................... 282
15.1 Mutual Fund Returns Can be Misleading ................................................................... 343
15.2 What Causes Volatility? ................................................................................................ 346
15.3 Warrants, Employee Stock Options, and Dilution .................................................... 357
17.1 Can We Guarantee that Stocks Will Beat Bonds in the Long Run? ....................... 393
19.1 Dynamic Hedging in Practice ....................................................................................... 438
19.2 Was Portfolio Insurance to Blame for the 1987 Crash? ............................................ 444
20.1 Making Money from Foreign Currency Options ....................................................... 455
20.2 Crashophobia .................................................................................................................. 458
21.1 Calculating Pi with Monte Carlo Simulation .............................................................. 489
21.2 Checking BlackāScholesāMerton in Excel ................................................................. 492
22.1 How Bank Regulators Use VaR .................................................................................. 515
24.1 Downgrade Triggers and AIG ..................................................................................... 575
25.1 Who Bears the Credit Risk? ......................................................................................... 588
25.2 The CDS Market ............................................................................................................ 590
26.1 Is Delta Hedging Easier or More Difficult for Exotics? ............................................ 633
29.1 PutāCall Parity for Caps and Floors ............................................................................ 695
29.2 Swaptions and Bond Options ....................................................................................... 700
30.1 Siegelās Paradox ............................................................................................................. 714
33.1 IOs and POs .................................................................................................................... 769
34.1 Hypothetical Confirmation for Nonstandard Swap ................................................... 774
34.2 Hypothetical Confirmation for Compounding Swap ................................................. 775
34.3 Hypothetical Confirmation for an Equity Swap ......................................................... 778
34.4 Procter and Gambleās Bizarre Deal ............................................................................. 782
36.1 Valuing Amazon.com .................................................................................................... 807
37.1 Big Losses by Financial Institutions ............................................................................ 816
37.2 Big Losses by Nonfinancial Organizations .................................................................. 817
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16TECHNICAL NOTES
Available on the Authorās Website
www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/technicalnotes
1. Convexity Adjustments to Eurodollar Futures
2. Properties of the Lognormal Distribution
3. Warrant Valuation When Value of Equity plus Warrants Is Lognormal
4. Exact Procedure for Valuing American Calls on Stocks Paying a Single Dividend
5. Calculation of the Cumulative Probability in a Bivariate Normal Distribution
6. Differential Equation for Price of a Derivative on a Stock Paying a Known Dividend
Yield
7. Differential Equation for Price of a Derivative on a Futures Price
8. Analytic Approximation for Valuing American Options
9. Generalized Tree-Building Procedure
10. The CornishāFisher Expansion to Estimate VaR
11. Manipulation of Credit Transition Matrices
12. Calculation of Cumulative Noncentral Chi-Square Distribution
13. Efficient Procedure for Valuing American-Style Lookback Options
14. The HullāWhite Two-Factor Model
15. Valuing Options on Coupon-Bearing Bonds in a One-Factor Interest Rate Model
16. Construction of an Interest Rate Tree with Nonconstant Time Steps and Nonconstant Parameters
17. The Process for the Short Rate in an HJM Term Structure Model
18. Valuation of a Compounding Swap
19. Valuation of an Equity Swap
20. Changing the Market Price of Risk for Variables That Are Not the Prices of Traded Securities
21. Hermite Polynomials and Their Use for Integration
22. Valuation of a Variance Swap
23. The Black, Derman, Toy Model
24. Proof that Forward and Futures Prices are Equal When Interest Rates Are Constant
25. A Cash-Flow Mapping Procedure
26. A Binomial Measure of Credit Correlation
27. Calculation of Moments for Valuing Asian Options
28. Calculation of Moments for Valuing Basket Options
29. Proof of Extensions to ItĆās Lemma
30. The Return of a Security Dependent on Multiple Sources of Uncertainty
31. Properties of HoāLee and HullāWhite Interest Rate Models
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17Derivatives markets have seen many changes over the last 30 years. Successive editions
of Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives have managed to keep up to date. The book
has an applied approach. It is a very popular college text, but it can also be found on trading-room desks throughout the world. (Indeed, I receive emails from derivatives practitioners about the book almost every day.) The blending of material useful for practitioners with material appropriate for university courses is what makes the book unique.PREFACE
NEW TO THIS EDITION
ā¢A major change in financial markets will be the phase-out of LIBOR. This has led to important changes throughout the 11th edition. The overnight reference rates that will replace LIBOR, and the way they are used to determine zero
curves, are discussed carefully.
ā¢Within-chapter examples and end-of-chapter problems that were previously based on LIBOR have been largely replaced by examples based on the new reference rates or by generic examples.
ā¢The likely impact of the new reference rates on valuation models is discussed.
ā¢The new reference rates are considered to be risk-free whereas LIBOR incorporates a time-varying credit spread. The book discusses the desire on the part of banks to augment the new reference rates with a measure of the level of credit spreads in the market.
ā¢The chapter on Wiener processes now covers fractional Brownian motion. This is becoming increasingly used in modeling volatility.
ā¢Rough volatility models which have in the last few years been found to fit volatility surfaces well are added to the models considered in Chapter 27.
ā¢Machine learning is becoming increasingly used in pricing and hedging deriva- tives. The reader is introduced to these applications at various points in the book.
ā¢Changes in the regulatory environment, including Basel IV , are covered.
ā¢The end-of-chapter problems have been updated. To make the book as easy to
use as possible, solutions to all end-of-chapter problems are now on www .pearsonglobaleditions.com and www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull.
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18 Preface
ā¢Instructor support material has been revised. In particular, there are now many
more suggestions on assignment questions that can be used in conjunction with chapters.
ā¢The DerivaGem software is less LIBOR-focused and is available for download from www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/software.
ā¢Tables, charts, market data, and examples have been updated throughout the book.
SOLVING TEACHING AND LEARNING CHALLENGES
Most instructors find that courses in derivatives are fun to teach. There is not a big gap between theory and practice. Most students know a little about the subject and are motivated to learn more. Usually there is some current news that can be discussed in class, e.g., the level of the VIX index or events that affect particular option prices.
Math Knowledge
Math is the key challenge for many students taking a course in derivatives. I have kept this in mind in the way material is presented throughout the book. Instructors are often faced with a trade-off between mathematical rigor and the simplicity with which an idea
is explained. My preference is always to look for the simplest way of explaining an idea
in the first instance. Sometimes using words rather than equations is effective. I avoid using notation that has lots of subscripts, superscripts, and function arguments as far as
possible because this can be off-putting to a reader who is new to the material.
Nonessential mathematical material has been either eliminated or included in technical notes on my website.
The reality is that many students only understand an equation when they have seen
numbers substituted into it. For that reason, many numerical examples have been included in the text. The software DerivaGem (discussed below) allows students to
get a feel for equations by trying different inputs.
I am often asked about the math prerequisites for Options, Futures and Other
Derivatives. Students will be able to cope with a course based on this book if they
are comfortable with algebra and understand probabilities and probability distribu-tions. A knowledge of calculus concepts is useful for parts of the book. But no knowledge of stochastic calculus is assumed. The basic knowledge of stochastic
processes that is needed for a more advanced understanding of derivatives is explained carefully in Chapter 14.
End of Chapter Problems
As in earlier editions, there are many other end-of-chapter problems to help students apply the ideas presented in the chapters. These have been updated. The distinction between āprac-tice questionsā and āfurther questionsā has been eliminated. Answers to all end-of-chapter
problems are on my website and available through www.pearsonglobaleditions.com.
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Preface 19
Designing a Course
There are many ways in which the material in the book can be used. Instructors
teaching an introductory course in derivatives tend to spend most time on the first
20 chapters, and often choose to omit Chapter 14 and Section 15.6. Instructors teaching
a more advanced course find that many different combinations of chapters in the
second half of the book can be used. I find that Chapter 37 is a fun chapter that works
well at the end of either an introductory or an advanced course.
Software
The DerivaGem software is an important part of the book. Students get comfortable with the models presented in the book when they use DerivaGem to value transactions under different assumptions. The use of the software is explained at the end of the book.
I recommend giving students assignments that involve using the basic DG400a.xls
software. There are many types of assignments that can be developed. For example, students can be asked to compare American or European option prices given by a binomial model with those from the BlackāScholesāMerton model. They can be asked to report what happens as the number of time steps is increased in a binomial model and can use the software to display trees. (DerivaGem can display trees with up to
10 time steps and can calculate prices and Greek letters using up to 500 time steps.)
Many charts can be produced using the software and students can include those
charts in reports produced for the instructor. The calculation of zero curves and swap valuation is made easy with DerivaGem. I like to use DerivaGem in class when I
illustrate some key concepts.
Students taking a more advanced course in derivatives can be asked to compare
prices given by different models using the Alternative Models worksheet in DG400a.xls.
Alternatives to BlackāScholes that are covered include CEV , Merton mixed jumpā diffusion, variance gamma, Heston, and SABR. Students can also be asked to carry
out assignments concerned with the use of different models for pricing bond options. The CDS and CDO worksheets can be used in conjunction with each other for an assignment if CDOs are covered.
DerivaGem can be used in conjunction with current market data that can be down-
loaded from Yahoo Finance or other providers. For example, students can be asked to
compare implied volatilities for options on different stocks that have been in the news. They can also be asked to calculate volatility term structures and volatility smiles for stock indices. Assignments such as these can be important because they make the underlying concepts more ārealā and lead to interesting classroom discussions.
The DG400 Applications software enables students to carry out assignments where
they are asked investigate issues such as how the performance of delta hedging is improved as the interval between rebalancing is decreased or how managing gamma
can improve the performance of delta hedging. Assuming students have a basic
knowledge of Excel, they should have no difficulty using this software and changing instructions as necessary.
The DG400 Functions software is a little more challenging. It contains the functions
used by DG400a.xls. Students can use these functions to develop their own Excel work-sheets in order to investigate particular issues and answer assignment questions.
Many instructors find DerivaGem to be a really useful resource. DerivaGem can be
downloaded from www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/software.
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20 Preface
Slides
Several hundred PowerPoint slides accompany this book. They can be a useful starting
point for instructors. Those who adopt the text are welcome to adapt the slides to
meet their needs. These slides are available on www.pearsonglobaleditions.com and www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull.
Technical Notes
There are over 30 technical notes available. They are referred to in the text and can be downloaded from www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
By not including the Technical Notes in the book, I am able to streamline the
presentation of material so that it is more reader-friendly.
EMPLOYABILITY
A natural question for students is: āWill a course in derivatives improve my chances of
a getting a job in finance?ā The answer is an overwhelming yes. Probably the first thing
many students think about when considering options or other derivatives is an
exchange such as the CBOE. In fact, as Chapter 1 makes clear, the over-the-counter (OTC) market is much larger than the exchange-traded market and likely to be much more important to students in their first job (or subsequent jobs). Options, Futures, and
Other Derivatives has a much bigger focus on the OTC market than most other
derivatives texts.
Derivatives have steadily increased in importance. Potential employers can be
classified as ābuy sideā and āsell sideā . The buy side includes nonfinancial corpora- tions, insurance companies, fund managers, and some other financial institutions. The
sell side consists of large financial institutions who act as market makers. Many
students who take courses in derivatives may not become derivatives traders or
derivatives analysts. However, derivatives now permeate all aspects of finance. If you work in investment banking, there is likely to be a derivatives component to some of the
deals you are involved in; if you work in fund management, you will probably find
derivatives to be convenient tools for some purposes; if you work for a nonfinancial
corporation, you may be involved in using derivative contracts for hedging and
negotiating with a sell-side institution; and so on. Whatever your role in finance, it is
important that you be able to talk about derivatives knowledgeably, use the right
words, and understand the motivations of a counterparty to a transaction. A course based on Options, Futures, and Other Derivatives will help you do this.
What about those of you who want to specialize in derivatives? I have literally lost
count of the many successful derivative executives who have told me āThank you for your book. I read it before the interview, and it got me my first job in derivatives. ā (My joking response has typically been: āGreat, but you realize that means you owe me 20% of your first yearās salary. ā) The people I am talking about typically had engineering, physics, or other quantitative backgrounds at the time of the interview but had never taken a course in finance! So, while the book is important for those planning a career in finance, it is absolutely essential reading for all those aspiring to a career in derivatives. As mentioned earlier, it is found on trading-room desks throughout the world.
This book will help you develop your quant skills so that you become more market-
able in finance. But other skills are of course important. Good communication skills are
A01_HULL0654_11_GE_FM.indd 20 03/05/2021 14:52
Preface 21
necessary. Many instructors ask students to present the results of projects in class.
Students should take full advantage of these opportunities to practice and improve. If
presentations are recorded, they should review the recording carefully.
At my business school, we used to run optional mock interviews and other self-
development activities for students. Interestingly, the students that took advantage of them tended to be the ones that already had fairly good skills. The students that really needed help did not participate. (We have since made the activities mandatory.) I would urge all students to take advantage of all opportunities to improve their soft skills. Do not dismiss them as unimportant.
What are other important skills? The book discusses the regulatory environment for
derivatives which changed a lot following the 2008 financial crisis. Make sure you understand the issues and are familiar with the latest developments. You should also use a derivatives course to help develop your critical thinking skills. Ask questions in class and do not be afraid to express an opinion about an issue.
A potential employer will want to be convinced that you can work well with others.
While at university you will be involved in many group projects and should take this opportunity to develop good collaboration skills. You may find some members of your group difficult to work with, but this is also likely to be true in your first full-time job.
Go to an interview prepared to talk about your experiences working with other students.
In addition to quant skills and knowledge of derivatives, I have mentioned that
communication skills, the ability to work collaboratively, and critical thinking are soft skills that you should try and develop to make sure you get that first job. Another
I might add is social responsibility. It is not an accident that most successful corporate
executives are actively involved in community activities. Be prepared to talk about sustainable finance, which is an aspect of social responsibility and becoming an
increasingly important area within finance.
ACKNOWLEDGMENTS
Many people have played a part in the development of successive editions of this book. Indeed, the list of people who have provided me with feedback on the book is now so long that it is not possible to mention everyone. I have benefited from the advice of
many academics who have taught from the book and from the comments of many
derivatives practitioners. I would like to thank the students in my courses at the
University of Toronto who have made many suggestions on how the material can be improved. Eddie Mizzi from The Geometric Press did an excellent job editing the final manuscript and handling page composition. Emilio Barone from Luiss Guido Carli
University in Rome provided many detailed comments. AndrƩs OlivƩ provided valuable research assistance.
Alan White, a colleague at the University of Toronto, deserves a special acknowledg-
ment. Alan and I have been carrying out joint research and consulting in the areas of derivatives and risk management for over 30 years. During that time, we have spent many hours discussing key issues. Many of the new ideas in this book, and many of the new ways used to explain old ideas, are as much Alanās as mine. Alan has done most of the development work on the DerivaGem software.
Special thanks are due to the many people at Pearson I have worked with for over
30 years. Those who have worked with me on the 11th edition include Neeraj Bhalla,
A01_HULL0654_11_GE_FM.indd 21 03/05/2021 14:52
22 Preface
Sugandh Juneja, and Emily Biberger. I would like to thank them for their enthusiasm,
advice, and encouragement.
I welcome comments on the book from readers. My e-mail address is:
hull@rotman.utoronto.ca
John Hull
About the Author
John Hull is the Maple Financial Professor of Derivatives and Risk Management at the
Joseph L. Rotman School of Management, University of Toronto. He was in 2016 awarded the title of University Professor (an honor granted to only 2% of faculty at the
University of Toronto). He is an internationally recognized authority on derivatives and
risk management and has many publications in this area. His work has an applied
focus. He has acted as consultant to many financial institutions throughout the world and has won many teaching awards, including the University of Torontoās prestigious Northrop Frye award. His research and teaching activities include risk management, regulation, and machine learning, as well as derivatives. He is co-director of Rotmanās Master of Finance and Master of Financial Risk Management programs.
A01_HULL0654_11_GE_FM.indd 22 03/05/2021 14:52
23
The Rise of Derivatives
- Derivatives have become essential financial tools used for hedging, speculation, and arbitrage across global markets.
- The derivatives market is now significantly larger than the stock market, with underlying asset values exceeding the world's gross domestic product.
- Modern derivatives have expanded beyond traditional stocks to include variables like weather, electricity, and insurance risks.
- The 2008 financial crisis and subsequent regulatory shifts have fundamentally changed how derivatives are priced, traded, and collateralized.
- Technological advancements, including machine learning, are now being integrated into the management of complex derivative portfolios.
Whether you love derivatives or hate them, you cannot ignore them!
In the last 40 years, derivatives have become increasingly important in finance. Futures
and options are actively traded on many exchanges throughout the world. Many
different types of forward contracts, swaps, options, and other derivatives are entered into by financial institutions, fund managers, and corporate treasurers in the over-the-counter market. Derivatives are added to bond issues, used in executive compensation plans, embedded in capital investment opportunities, used to transfer risks in mortgages from the original lenders to investors, and so on. We have now reached the stage where those who work in finance, and many who work outside finance, need to understand how derivatives work, how they are used, and how they are priced.
Whether you love derivatives or hate them, you cannot ignore them! The derivatives
market is hugeāmuch bigger than the stock market when measured in terms of
underlying assets. The value of the assets underlying outstanding derivatives trans-actions is several times the world gross domestic product. As we shall see in this chapter, derivatives can be used for hedging or speculation or arbitrage. They can transfer a wide range of risks in the economy from one entity to another.
A derivative involves two parties agreeing to a future tranasaction. Its value depends
on (or derives from) the values of other underlying variables. Very often the variables underlying derivatives are the prices of traded assets. A stock option, for example, is a derivative whose value is dependent on the price of a stock. However, derivatives can be dependent on almost any variable, from the price of hogs to the amount of snow falling at a certain ski resort.
Since the first edition of this book was published in 1988 there have been many
developments in derivatives markets. For example:
⢠Many new instruments such as credit derivatives, electricity derivatives, weather derivatives, and insurance derivatives have been developed.
⢠Many new types of interest rate, foreign exchange, and equity derivatives now
trade.
⢠There have been many new ideas in risk management and risk measurement.
⢠Real option methods for capital investment appraisal have been developed.
⢠The financial crisis of 2008 occurred, with derivatives (perhaps unfairly) getting much of the blame.Introduction1 CHAPTER
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 23 30/04/2021 16:38
24 CHAPTER 1
⢠Many regulations affecting the over-the-counter derivatives market have been
introduced.
⢠The ārisk-freeā discount rate used to value derivatives has changed and the
decision has been taken to phase out LIBOR.
⢠Derivatives dealers now adjust the way they price derivatives to allow for credit risks, funding costs, and capital requirements.
⢠Collateral and credit issues are now given much more attention and have led to changes in the way derivatives are traded.
⢠Machine learning is now becoming widely used for managing derivatives
portfolios.
The book has evolved to keep up to date with these developments. For example: the
2008 financial crisis is discussed in Chapter 8; changes in the interest rates used for derivatives pricing are discussed in Chapter 4; valuation adjustments are covered in Chapter 9; real options are explained in Chapter 36; credit derivatives are covered in Chapter 25; energy, weather, and insurance derivatives are covered in Chapter 35. Machine learning applications are discussed at various points in the book.
In this opening chapter, we take a first look at derivatives markets and how they are
changing. We contrast exchange-traded and over-the-counter derivatives markets and review recent regulatory changes affecting the markets. We describe forward, futures, and options markets and provide examples of how they are used by hedgers, specu-lators, and arbitrageurs. Later in the book we will elaborate on many of the points
made in this chapter.
A derivatives exchange is a market where individuals and companies trade standard-
Evolution of Derivatives Exchanges
- The text introduces the fundamental distinction between exchange-traded and over-the-counter derivatives markets.
- Derivatives exchanges like the Chicago Board of Trade originated in the mid-19th century to standardize grain trading through 'to-arrive' contracts.
- The Chicago Board Options Exchange revolutionized the industry in 1973 by creating an orderly, standardized market for stock options.
- Exchange clearing houses mitigate counterparty credit risk by acting as an intermediary between buyers and sellers.
- Margin requirements are utilized by clearing houses to ensure all trading parties fulfill their financial obligations.
The result of this trade will be that A has a contract to buy 100 ounces of gold from the clearing house at $1,750 per ounce in six months and B has a contract to sell 100 ounces of gold to the clearing house for $1,750 per ounce in six months.
2008 financial crisis is discussed in Chapter 8; changes in the interest rates used for derivatives pricing are discussed in Chapter 4; valuation adjustments are covered in Chapter 9; real options are explained in Chapter 36; credit derivatives are covered in Chapter 25; energy, weather, and insurance derivatives are covered in Chapter 35. Machine learning applications are discussed at various points in the book.
In this opening chapter, we take a first look at derivatives markets and how they are
changing. We contrast exchange-traded and over-the-counter derivatives markets and review recent regulatory changes affecting the markets. We describe forward, futures, and options markets and provide examples of how they are used by hedgers, specu-lators, and arbitrageurs. Later in the book we will elaborate on many of the points
made in this chapter.
A derivatives exchange is a market where individuals and companies trade standard-
ized contracts that have been defined by the exchange. Derivatives exchanges have existed for a long time. The Chicago Board of Trade (CBOT) was established in 1848 to bring farmers and merchants together. Initially its main task was to standardize the quantities and qualities of the grains that were traded. Within a few years, the first futures-type contract was developed. It was known as a to-arrive contract.
Speculators soon became interested in the contract and found trading the contract to be an attractive alternative to trading the grain itself. A rival futures exchange, the Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME), was established in 1919. Now futures ex -
changes exist all over the world. (See table at the end of the book.) The CME
and CBOT have merged to form the CME Group (www.cmegroup.com), which also includes the New York Mercantile Exchange (NYMEX), and the Kansas City Board of Trade (KCBT).
The Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE, www.cboe.com) started trading call
option contracts on 16 stocks in 1973. Options had traded prior to 1973, but the CBOE succeeded in creating an orderly market with well-defined contracts. Put option
contracts started trading on the exchange in 1977. The CBOE now trades options on thousands of stocks and many different stock indices. Like futures, options have proved to be very popular contracts. Many other exchanges throughout the world now trade 1.1 EXCHANGE-TRADED MARKETS
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 24 30/04/2021 16:38
Introduction 25
options. (See table at the end of the book.) The underlying assets include foreign
currencies and futures contracts as well as stocks and stock indices.
Once two traders have agreed to trade a product offered by an exchange, it is handled
by the exchange clearing house. This stands between the two traders and manages the risks. Suppose, for example, that trader A enters into a futures contract to buy
100 ounces of gold from trader B in six months for $1,750 per ounce. The result of this trade will be that A has a contract to buy 100 ounces of gold from the clearing house at $1,750 per ounce in six months and B has a contract to sell 100 ounces of gold to the clearing house for $1,750 per ounce in six months. The advantage of this
arrangement is that traders do not have to worry about the creditworthiness of the people they are trading with. The clearing house takes care of credit risk by requiring each of the two traders to deposit funds (known as margin) with the clearing house to ensure that they will live up to their obligations. Margin requirements and the operation of clearing houses are discussed in more detail in Chapter 2.
Electronic Markets
Exchange and OTC Market Structures
- Exchange clearing houses act as intermediaries between traders to eliminate credit risk by becoming the counterparty to every transaction.
- The traditional open outcry system of physical floor trading has been largely superseded by electronic matching and high-frequency algorithmic trading.
- Over-the-counter (OTC) markets allow for private bilateral agreements or the use of central counterparties (CCPs) to manage default risks.
- Post-2007 financial crisis regulations have forced OTC markets to adopt greater transparency and systemic risk protections similar to formal exchanges.
- Market makers, typically large banks, facilitate liquidity by consistently quoting bid and ask prices for commonly traded derivatives.
This involves traders physically meeting on the floor of the exchange, shouting, and using a complicated set of hand signals to indicate the trades they would like to carry out.
options. (See table at the end of the book.) The underlying assets include foreign
currencies and futures contracts as well as stocks and stock indices.
Once two traders have agreed to trade a product offered by an exchange, it is handled
by the exchange clearing house. This stands between the two traders and manages the risks. Suppose, for example, that trader A enters into a futures contract to buy
100 ounces of gold from trader B in six months for $1,750 per ounce. The result of this trade will be that A has a contract to buy 100 ounces of gold from the clearing house at $1,750 per ounce in six months and B has a contract to sell 100 ounces of gold to the clearing house for $1,750 per ounce in six months. The advantage of this
arrangement is that traders do not have to worry about the creditworthiness of the people they are trading with. The clearing house takes care of credit risk by requiring each of the two traders to deposit funds (known as margin) with the clearing house to ensure that they will live up to their obligations. Margin requirements and the operation of clearing houses are discussed in more detail in Chapter 2.
Electronic Markets
Traditionally derivatives exchanges have used what is known as the open outcry system. This involves traders physically meeting on the floor of the exchange, shouting, and using a complicated set of hand signals to indicate the trades they would like to carry out. Exchanges have largely replaced the open outcry system by electronic trading. This involves traders entering their desired trades at a keyboard and a computer being used to match buyers and sellers. The open outcry system has its advocates, but, as time passes, it is becoming less and less used.
Electronic trading has led to a growth in high-frequency trading. This involves the
use of algorithms to initiate trades, often without human intervention, and has become an important feature of derivatives markets.
Not all derivatives trading is on exchanges. Many trades take place in the over-the-
counter (OTC) market. Banks, other large financial institutions, fund managers, and corporations are the main participants in OTC derivatives markets. Once an OTC trade has been agreed, the two parties can either present it to a central counterparty (CCP) or clear the trade bilaterally. A CCP is like an exchange clearing house. It stands between the two parties to the derivatives transaction so that one party does not have to bear the risk that the other party will default. When trades are cleared
bilaterally, the two parties have usually signed an agreement covering all their trans-actions with each other. The issues covered in the agreement include the circumstances under which outstanding transactions can be terminated, how settlement amounts are calculated in the event of a termination, and how the collateral (if any) that must be posted by each side is calculated. CCPs and bilateral clearing are discussed in more detail in Chapter 2.
Large banks often act as market makers for the more commonly traded instruments.
This means that they are always prepared to quote a bid price (at which they are
prepared to take one side of a derivatives transaction) and an ask price (at which they are prepared to take the other side).1.2 OVER-THE-COUNTER MARKETS
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26 CHAPTER 1
Prior to the financial crisis, which started in 2007 and is discussed in some detail in
Chapter 8, OTC derivatives markets were largely unregulated. Following the financial
crisis and the failure of Lehman Brothers (see Business Snapshot 1. 1), we have seen the
development of many new regulations affecting the operation of OTC markets. The main objectives of the regulations are to improve the transparency of OTC markets and reduce systemic risk (see Business Snapshot 1.2). The over-the-counter market in some
respects is being forced to become more like the exchange-traded market. Three
important changes are:
OTC Regulation and Lehman's Fall
- The 2008 financial crisis and the collapse of Lehman Brothers triggered a shift toward stricter regulation of over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives markets.
- New regulations aim to reduce systemic risk and increase transparency by forcing OTC markets to adopt exchange-like characteristics.
- Key reforms include mandatory trading on swap execution facilities (SEFs), the use of central counterparties (CCPs), and reporting all trades to central repositories.
- Lehman Brothers' failure was driven by extreme 31:1 leverage, aggressive risk-taking, and a reliance on short-term debt that evaporated during a loss of confidence.
- The complexity of Lehman's million-plus outstanding derivatives contracts led to years of litigation regarding collateral and counterparty obligations.
He is reported to have told his executives: āEvery day is a battle. You have to kill the enemy.ā
Chapter 8, OTC derivatives markets were largely unregulated. Following the financial
crisis and the failure of Lehman Brothers (see Business Snapshot 1. 1), we have seen the
development of many new regulations affecting the operation of OTC markets. The main objectives of the regulations are to improve the transparency of OTC markets and reduce systemic risk (see Business Snapshot 1.2). The over-the-counter market in some
respects is being forced to become more like the exchange-traded market. Three
important changes are:
1. Standardized OTC derivatives between two financial institutions in the United States must, whenever possible, be traded on what are referred to a swap execution
facilities (SEFs). These are platforms similar to exchanges where market
participants can post bid and ask quotes and where market participants can
trade by accepting the quotes of other market participants.
2. There is a requirement in most parts of the world that a CCP be used for most
standardized derivatives transactions between financial institutions.
3. All trades must be reported to a central repository.Business Snapshot 1.1 The Lehman Bankruptcy
On September 15, 2008, Lehman Brothers filed for bankruptcy. This was the largest
bankruptcy in U.S. history and its ramifications were felt throughout derivatives markets. Almost until the end, it seemed as though there was a good chance that Lehman would survive. A number of companies (e.g., the Korean Development Bank, Barclays Bank in the United Kingdom, and Bank of America) expressed interest in buying it, but none of these was able to close a deal. Many people thought that Lehman was ātoo big to failā and that the U.S. government would have to bail it out if no purchaser could be found. This proved not to be the case.
How did this happen? It was a combination of high leverage, risky investments, and
liquidity problems. Commercial banks that take deposits are subject to regulations on the amount of capital they must keep. Lehman was an investment bank and not subject to these regulations. By 2007, its leverage ratio had increased to 31:1, which means that a 3ā4% decline in the value of its assets would wipe out its capital. Dick Fuld, Lehmanās Chairman and Chief Executive Officer, encouraged an aggressive deal-making, risk-taking culture. He is reported to have told his executives: āEvery day is a battle. You have to kill the enemy. ā The Chief Risk Officer at Lehman was competent, but did not have much influence and was even removed from the executive committee in 2007. The risks taken by Lehman included large positions in the
instruments created from subprime mortgages, which will be described in Chapter 8. Lehman funded much of its operations with short-term debt. When there was a loss of confidence in the company, lenders refused to renew this funding, forcing it into bankruptcy.
Lehman was very active in the over-the-counter derivatives markets. It had over a
million transactions outstanding with about 8,000 different counterparties. Lehmanās counterparties were often required to post collateral and this collateral had in many cases been used by Lehman for various purposes. Litigation aimed at determining who owes what to whom continued for many years after the bankruptcy filing.
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Introduction 27
Market Size
Both the over-the-counter and the exchange-traded market for derivatives are huge. The
The Fall of Lehman Brothers
- Lehman Brothers' 2008 bankruptcy was the largest in U.S. history, triggered by high leverage, risky subprime mortgage investments, and a sudden loss of liquidity.
- The firm operated with a dangerous 31:1 leverage ratio, meaning a minor 3ā4% decline in asset value was sufficient to entirely wipe out its capital base.
- Despite being active in over-the-counter derivatives with 8,000 counterparties, the U.S. government declined to bail out the firm, defying 'too big to fail' expectations.
- The collapse highlighted the dangers of systemic risk, where the failure of one interconnected institution threatens to trigger a ripple effect of defaults across the global financial system.
- Lehman's aggressive corporate culture prioritized deal-making over risk management, leading to the marginalization of its Chief Risk Officer prior to the crisis.
He is reported to have told his executives: āEvery day is a battle. You have to kill the enemy.ā
On September 15, 2008, Lehman Brothers filed for bankruptcy. This was the largest
bankruptcy in U.S. history and its ramifications were felt throughout derivatives markets. Almost until the end, it seemed as though there was a good chance that Lehman would survive. A number of companies (e.g., the Korean Development Bank, Barclays Bank in the United Kingdom, and Bank of America) expressed interest in buying it, but none of these was able to close a deal. Many people thought that Lehman was ātoo big to failā and that the U.S. government would have to bail it out if no purchaser could be found. This proved not to be the case.
How did this happen? It was a combination of high leverage, risky investments, and
liquidity problems. Commercial banks that take deposits are subject to regulations on the amount of capital they must keep. Lehman was an investment bank and not subject to these regulations. By 2007, its leverage ratio had increased to 31:1, which means that a 3ā4% decline in the value of its assets would wipe out its capital. Dick Fuld, Lehmanās Chairman and Chief Executive Officer, encouraged an aggressive deal-making, risk-taking culture. He is reported to have told his executives: āEvery day is a battle. You have to kill the enemy. ā The Chief Risk Officer at Lehman was competent, but did not have much influence and was even removed from the executive committee in 2007. The risks taken by Lehman included large positions in the
instruments created from subprime mortgages, which will be described in Chapter 8. Lehman funded much of its operations with short-term debt. When there was a loss of confidence in the company, lenders refused to renew this funding, forcing it into bankruptcy.
Lehman was very active in the over-the-counter derivatives markets. It had over a
million transactions outstanding with about 8,000 different counterparties. Lehmanās counterparties were often required to post collateral and this collateral had in many cases been used by Lehman for various purposes. Litigation aimed at determining who owes what to whom continued for many years after the bankruptcy filing.
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Introduction 27
Market Size
Both the over-the-counter and the exchange-traded market for derivatives are huge. The
number of derivatives transactions per year in OTC markets is smaller than in exchange-traded markets, but the average size of the transactions is much greater. Although the statistics that are collected for the two markets are not exactly comparable, it is clear that the volume of business in the over-the-counter market is much larger than in the exchange-traded market. The Bank for International Settlements (www.bis.org) started collecting statistics on the markets in 1998. Figure 1. 1 compares (a) the estimated total
principal amounts underlying transactions that were outstanding in the over-the-counter markets between June 1998 and December 2019 and (b) the estimated total value of the assets underlying exchange-traded contracts during the same period. Using these
measures, the size of the over-the-counter market in December 2019 was $558.5 trillion Business Snapshot 1.2 Systemic Risk
Systemic risk is the risk that a default by one financial institution will create a āripple effectā that leads to defaults by other financial institutions and threatens the stability of the financial system. There are huge numbers of over-the-counter transactions between banks. If Bank A fails, Bank B may take a huge loss on the transactions it has with Bank A. This in turn could lead to Bank B failing. Bank C that has many outstanding transactions with both Bank A and Bank B might then take a large loss and experience severe financial difficulties; and so on.
The financial system has survived defaults such as Drexel in 1990 and Lehman
Brothers in 2008, but regulators continue to be concerned. During the market turmoil of 2007 and 2008, many large financial institutions were bailed out, rather than being allowed to fail, because governments were concerned about systemic risk.
OTC Markets and Systemic Risk
- The over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives market is significantly larger than the exchange-traded market, reaching a principal value of $558.5 trillion in 2019.
- While OTC transactions are fewer in number compared to exchanges, their average size is much greater, leading to higher concentrations of risk.
- Systemic risk arises when the failure of one financial institution triggers a ripple effect of defaults across the interconnected global banking network.
- The rapid growth of the OTC market stalled after 2007 due to compression, a process where counterparties restructure deals to reduce underlying principal.
- Regulators often bail out large institutions because the collapse of a single bank with numerous outstanding OTC contracts could destabilize the entire financial system.
Systemic risk is the risk that a default by one financial institution will create a āripple effectā that leads to defaults by other financial institutions and threatens the stability of the financial system.
number of derivatives transactions per year in OTC markets is smaller than in exchange-traded markets, but the average size of the transactions is much greater. Although the statistics that are collected for the two markets are not exactly comparable, it is clear that the volume of business in the over-the-counter market is much larger than in the exchange-traded market. The Bank for International Settlements (www.bis.org) started collecting statistics on the markets in 1998. Figure 1. 1 compares (a) the estimated total
principal amounts underlying transactions that were outstanding in the over-the-counter markets between June 1998 and December 2019 and (b) the estimated total value of the assets underlying exchange-traded contracts during the same period. Using these
measures, the size of the over-the-counter market in December 2019 was $558.5 trillion Business Snapshot 1.2 Systemic Risk
Systemic risk is the risk that a default by one financial institution will create a āripple effectā that leads to defaults by other financial institutions and threatens the stability of the financial system. There are huge numbers of over-the-counter transactions between banks. If Bank A fails, Bank B may take a huge loss on the transactions it has with Bank A. This in turn could lead to Bank B failing. Bank C that has many outstanding transactions with both Bank A and Bank B might then take a large loss and experience severe financial difficulties; and so on.
The financial system has survived defaults such as Drexel in 1990 and Lehman
Brothers in 2008, but regulators continue to be concerned. During the market turmoil of 2007 and 2008, many large financial institutions were bailed out, rather than being allowed to fail, because governments were concerned about systemic risk.
0100200300400500600700800
Jun
19Jun
18Jun
17Jun
16Jun
15Jun
14Jun
13Jun
12Jun
11Jun
10Jun
09Jun
08Jun
07Jun
06Jun
05Jun
04Jun
03Jun
02Jun
01Jun
00Jun
99Jun
98OTC
ExchangeSize of
market($ trillion)Figure 1.1 Size of over-the-counter and exchange-traded derivatives markets.
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 27 30/04/2021 16:38
28 CHAPTER 1
and the size of the exchange-traded market was $96.5 trillion.1 Figure 1. 1 shows that the
OTC market grew rapidly up to 2007, but has seen very little net growth since then. One
reason for the lack of growth is the popularity of compression. This is a procedure where two or more counterparties restructure transactions with each other with the result that the underlying principal is reduced.
In interpreting Figure 1. 1, we should bear in mind that the principal underlying an
over-the-counter transaction is not the same as its value. An example of an over-the-counter transaction is an agreement to buy 100 million U.S. dollars with British pounds at a predetermined exchange rate in 1 year. The total principal amount underlying this transaction is $100 million. However, the value of the transaction might be only
$1 million. The Bank for International Settlements estimates the gross market value of all over-the-counter transactions outstanding in December 2019 to be about
$11.6 trillion.
2
OTC Markets and Forward Contracts
- The over-the-counter (OTC) market grew rapidly until 2007 but has since plateaued due to the practice of compression, which reduces underlying principal.
- There is a significant distinction between the principal amount of a derivative and its actual market value, with the latter often being a small fraction of the former.
- Forward contracts are private OTC agreements to buy or sell assets at a future date, distinct from spot contracts which involve immediate transactions.
- Currency forward contracts allow parties to lock in exchange rates, with prices determined by the relationship between spot rates and interest rates.
- Market participants in forward contracts take either a long position to buy or a short position to sell the underlying asset at a specified price.
The total principal amount underlying this transaction is $100 million. However, the value of the transaction might be only $1 million.
and the size of the exchange-traded market was $96.5 trillion.1 Figure 1. 1 shows that the
OTC market grew rapidly up to 2007, but has seen very little net growth since then. One
reason for the lack of growth is the popularity of compression. This is a procedure where two or more counterparties restructure transactions with each other with the result that the underlying principal is reduced.
In interpreting Figure 1. 1, we should bear in mind that the principal underlying an
over-the-counter transaction is not the same as its value. An example of an over-the-counter transaction is an agreement to buy 100 million U.S. dollars with British pounds at a predetermined exchange rate in 1 year. The total principal amount underlying this transaction is $100 million. However, the value of the transaction might be only
$1 million. The Bank for International Settlements estimates the gross market value of all over-the-counter transactions outstanding in December 2019 to be about
$11.6 trillion.
2
1 When a CCP stands between two sides in an OTC transaction, two transactions are considered to have
been created for the purposes of the BIS statistics.
2 A contract that is worth $1 million to one side and -+1 million to the other side would be counted as
having a gross market value of $1 million.A relatively simple derivative is a forward contract. It is an agreement to buy or sell an asset at a certain future time for a certain price. It can be contrasted with a spot
contract, which is an agreement to buy or sell an asset almost immediately. A forward contract is traded in the over-the-counter marketāusually between two financial
institutions or between a financial institution and one of its clients.
One of the parties to a forward contract assumes a long position and agrees to buy
the underlying asset on a certain specified future date for a certain specified price. The other party assumes a short position and agrees to sell the asset on the same date for the same price.
Forward contracts on foreign exchange are very popular. Most large banks employ
both spot and forward foreign-exchange traders. As we shall see in Chapter 5, there is a relationship between forward prices, spot prices, and interest rates in the two currencies. Table 1.1 provides quotes for the exchange rate between the British pound (GBP) and
the U.S. dollar (USD) that might be made by a large international bank on May 21, 2020. The quote is for the number of USD per GBP . The first row indicates that the 1.3 FORWARD CONTRACTS
Table 1.1 Spot and forward quotes for the exchange rate between
USD and GBP on May 21, 2020 ( GBP=British pound; USD =
U.S. dollar; quote is number of USD per GBP).
Bid Ask
Spot 1.2217 1.2220
1 -month forward 1.2218 1.2222
3-month forward 1.2220 1.2225
6-month forward 1.2224 1.2230
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Introduction 29
Mechanics of Forward Contracts
- Forward contracts allow market participants to lock in exchange rates for future delivery, effectively hedging against currency fluctuations.
- Banks provide bid and ask quotes for spot and forward markets, representing the prices at which they are willing to buy or sell currencies.
- A long position in a forward contract results in a payoff calculated as the difference between the final spot price and the agreed delivery price.
- Because entering a forward contract typically costs nothing upfront, the final payoff represents the trader's total gain or loss.
- The relationship between spot and forward prices is fundamentally linked to interest rates and the cost of carry for the underlying asset.
Both sides have made a binding commitment.
both spot and forward foreign-exchange traders. As we shall see in Chapter 5, there is a relationship between forward prices, spot prices, and interest rates in the two currencies. Table 1.1 provides quotes for the exchange rate between the British pound (GBP) and
the U.S. dollar (USD) that might be made by a large international bank on May 21, 2020. The quote is for the number of USD per GBP . The first row indicates that the 1.3 FORWARD CONTRACTS
Table 1.1 Spot and forward quotes for the exchange rate between
USD and GBP on May 21, 2020 ( GBP=British pound; USD =
U.S. dollar; quote is number of USD per GBP).
Bid Ask
Spot 1.2217 1.2220
1 -month forward 1.2218 1.2222
3-month forward 1.2220 1.2225
6-month forward 1.2224 1.2230
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 28 30/04/2021 16:38
Introduction 29
bank is prepared to buy GBP (also known as sterling) in the spot market (i.e., for
virtually immediate delivery) at the rate of $1.2217 per GBP and sell sterling in the spot
market at $1.2220 per GBP . The second, third, and fourth rows indicate that the bank is prepared to buy sterling in 1, 3, and 6 months at $1.2218, $1.2220, and $1.2224 per
GBP , respectively, and to sell sterling in 1, 3, and 6 months at $1.2222, $1.2225, and $1.2230 per GBP , respectively.
Forward contracts can be used to hedge foreign currency risk. Suppose that, on
May 21, 2020, the treasurer of a U.S. corporation knows that the corporation will pay
Ā£1 million in 6 months (i.e., on November 21, 2020) and wants to hedge against
exchange rate moves. Using the quotes in Table 1. 1, the treasurer can agree to buy
Ā£1 million 6 months forward at an exchange rate of 1.2230. The corporation then has a long forward contract on GBP . It has agreed that on November 21, 2020, it will buy
£1 million from the bank for $1.2230 million. The bank has a short forward contract on GBP . It has agreed that on November 21, 2020, it will sell £1 million for $1.2230 million. Both sides have made a binding commitment.
Payoffs from Forward Contracts
Consider the position of the corporation in the trade we have just described. What are the possible outcomes? The forward contract obligates the corporation to buy £1 million for $1,223,000. If the spot exchange rate rose to, say, 1.3000, at the end of the 6 months, the forward contract would be worth
+77,000 1= +1,300,000-+1,223,0002 to the
corporation. It would enable £1 million to be purchased at an exchange rate of
1.2230 rather than 1.3000. Similarly, if the spot exchange rate fell to 1.2000 at the
end of the 6 months, the forward contract would have a negative value to the
corporation of $23,000 because it would lead to the corporation paying $23,000 more than the market price for the sterling.
In general, the payoff from a long position in a forward contract on one unit of an
asset is
ST-K
where K is the delivery price and ST is the spot price of the asset at maturity of the
contract. This is because the holder of the contract is obligated to buy an asset worth ST
for K. Similarly, the payoff from a short position in a forward contract on one unit of
an asset is
K-ST
These payoffs can be positive or negative. They are illustrated in Figure 1. 2. Because it
costs nothing to enter into a forward contract, the payoff from the contract is also the traderās total gain or loss from the contract.
In the example just considered,
K=1.2230 and the corporation has a long contract.
When ST=1.3000, the payoff is $0.077 per £1; when ST=1.2000, it is -+0.023 per £1.
Forward Prices and Spot Prices
We shall be discussing in some detail the relationship between spot and forward prices in Chapter 5. For a quick preview of why the two are related, consider a stock that pays no dividend and is worth $60. You can borrow or lend money for 1 year at 5%. What should the 1 -year forward price of the stock be?
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 29 30/04/2021 16:38
30 CHAPTER 1
Forwards, Futures, and Options
- The relationship between spot and forward prices is governed by arbitrage, where discrepancies allow for risk-free profits through borrowing and asset acquisition.
- Futures contracts differ from forwards by being traded on standardized exchanges with a clearing house acting as an intermediary between parties.
- Major exchanges like the CME Group facilitate trading for a diverse range of underlying assets, from agricultural commodities to financial indices.
- Options provide the right, but not the obligation, to trade an asset, with American options offering more flexibility than European options regarding exercise dates.
If the forward price is more than this, say $67, you could borrow $60, buy one share of the stock, and sell it forward for $67.
K=1.2230 and the corporation has a long contract.
When ST=1.3000, the payoff is $0.077 per £1; when ST=1.2000, it is -+0.023 per £1.
Forward Prices and Spot Prices
We shall be discussing in some detail the relationship between spot and forward prices in Chapter 5. For a quick preview of why the two are related, consider a stock that pays no dividend and is worth $60. You can borrow or lend money for 1 year at 5%. What should the 1 -year forward price of the stock be?
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 29 30/04/2021 16:38
30 CHAPTER 1
The answer is $60 grossed up at 5% for 1 year, or $63. If the forward price is more
than this, say $67, you could borrow $60, buy one share of the stock, and sell it forward
for $67. After paying off the loan, you would net a profit of $4 in 1 year. If the forward price is less than $63, say $58, an investor owning the stock as part of a portfolio would sell the stock for $60 and enter into a forward contract to buy it back for $58 in 1 year. The proceeds of investment would be invested at 5% to earn $3. The investor would end up $5 better off than if the stock were kept in the portfolio for the year.STKPayof f
0
(a)STKPayof f
0
(b)Figure 1.2 Payoffs from forward contracts: (a) long position, (b) short position.
Delivery price=K; price of asset at contract maturity=ST.
Like a forward contract, a futures contract is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a certain time in the future for a certain price. Unlike forward contracts, futures contracts are normally traded on an exchange. To make trading possible, the exchange specifies certain standardized features of the contract. As the two parties to the contract do not necessarily know each other, the exchange clearing house stands between them as mentioned earlier.
Two large exchanges on which futures contracts are traded are the Chicago Board of
Trade (CBOT) and the Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME), which have now merged to form the CME Group. On these and other exchanges throughout the world, a very wide range of commodities and financial assets form the underlying assets in the various contracts. The commodities include pork bellies, live cattle, sugar, wool, lumber,
copper, aluminum, gold, and tin. The financial assets include stock indices, currencies, and Treasury bonds. Futures prices are regularly reported in the financial press. Suppose that, on September 1, the December futures price of gold is quoted as $1,750. This is the price, exclusive of commissions, at which traders can agree to buy or sell gold for December delivery. It is determined in the same way as other prices (i.e., by the laws of supply and demand). If more traders want to go long than to go short, the price goes up; if the reverse is true, then the price goes down.1.4 FUTURES CONTRACTS
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 30 30/04/2021 16:38
Introduction 31
Further details on issues such as margin requirements, daily settlement procedures,
delivery procedures, bidāask spreads, and the role of the exchange clearing house are
given in Chapter 2.
Options are traded both on exchanges and in the over-the-counter market. There are
two types of option. A call option gives the holder the right to buy the underlying asset by a certain date for a certain price. A put option gives the holder the right to sell the underlying asset by a certain date for a certain price. The price in the contract is known as the exercise price or strike price; the date in the contract is known as the expiration
date or maturity. American options can be exercised at any time up to the expiration date.
European options can be exercised only on the expiration date itself.
3 Most of the options
that are traded on exchanges are American. In the exchange-traded equity option
Fundamentals of Options Contracts
- Options are financial derivatives traded on both exchanges and over-the-counter markets, categorized primarily as call options or put options.
- A call option provides the right to buy an asset at a strike price, while a put option provides the right to sell it by a specific expiration date.
- American options allow for exercise at any time before expiration, whereas European options can only be exercised on the expiration date itself.
- Unlike forwards and futures, options grant a right rather than an obligation, meaning they require an upfront cost to acquire.
- The bid-ask spread for options is typically much higher as a percentage of the price compared to the underlying stock.
It should be emphasized that an option gives the holder the right to do something.
delivery procedures, bidāask spreads, and the role of the exchange clearing house are
given in Chapter 2.
Options are traded both on exchanges and in the over-the-counter market. There are
two types of option. A call option gives the holder the right to buy the underlying asset by a certain date for a certain price. A put option gives the holder the right to sell the underlying asset by a certain date for a certain price. The price in the contract is known as the exercise price or strike price; the date in the contract is known as the expiration
date or maturity. American options can be exercised at any time up to the expiration date.
European options can be exercised only on the expiration date itself.
3 Most of the options
that are traded on exchanges are American. In the exchange-traded equity option
market, one contract is usually an agreement to buy or sell 100 shares. European
options are generally easier to analyze than American options, and some of the
properties of an American option are frequently deduced from those of its European counterpart.
It should be emphasized that an option gives the holder the right to do something.
The holder does not have to exercise this right. This is what distinguishes options from forwards and futures, where the holder is obligated to buy or sell the underlying asset. Whereas it costs nothing to enter into a forward or futures contract, except for margin requirements which will be discussed in Chapter 2, there is a cost to acquiring an option.
The largest exchange in the world for trading stock options is the Chicago Board
Options Exchange (CBOE; www.cboe.com). Table 1. 2 gives the bid and ask quotes for
some of the call options trading on Apple (ticker symbol: AAPL), on May 21, 2020. Table 1.3 does the same for put options trading on Apple on that date. The quotes are
taken from the CBOE website. The Apple stock price at the time of the quotes was bid 316.23, ask 316.50. The bidāask spread for an option (as a percent of the price) is usually 1.5 OPTIONS
3 Note that the terms American and European do not refer to the location of the option or the exchange.
Some options trading on North American exchanges are European.Table 1.2 Prices of call options on Apple, May 21, 2020; stock price: bid $316.23, ask
$316.50 (Source: CBOE).
Strike price June 2020 September 2020 December 2020
($) Bid Ask Bid Ask Bid Ask
290 29.80 30.85 39.35 40.40 46.20 47.60
300 21.55 22.40 32.50 33.90 40.00 41.15
310 14.35 15.30 26.35 27.25 34.25 35.65
320 8.65 9.00 20.45 21.70 28.65 29.75
330 4.20 5.00 15.85 16.25 23.90 24.75
340 1.90 2.12 11.35 12.00 19.50 20.30
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 31 30/04/2021 16:38
32 CHAPTER 1
much greater than that for the underlying stock and depends on the volume of trading.
The option strike prices in Tables 1. 2 and 1. 3 are $290, $300, $310, $320, $330, and $340.
The maturities are June 2020, September 2020, and December 2020. The precise
Mechanics of Option Trading
- The text explains the fundamental relationship between strike prices and option premiums, noting that call prices decrease while put prices increase as strike prices rise.
- Standardized option contracts in the United States typically represent the right to buy or sell 100 shares of the underlying stock.
- The value of both call and put options generally increases as the time to maturity lengthens, reflecting the greater probability of price movement.
- Practical examples demonstrate how traders can achieve significant leverage, such as turning a $2,030 investment into a $3,970 net profit if the stock price moves favorably.
- The text highlights the risks of selling options, where a trader receives an upfront premium but faces substantial potential losses if the market moves against their position.
If the price of Apple does not rise above $340 by December 18, 2020, the option is not exercised and the trader loses $2,030.
300 21.55 22.40 32.50 33.90 40.00 41.15
310 14.35 15.30 26.35 27.25 34.25 35.65
320 8.65 9.00 20.45 21.70 28.65 29.75
330 4.20 5.00 15.85 16.25 23.90 24.75
340 1.90 2.12 11.35 12.00 19.50 20.30
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32 CHAPTER 1
much greater than that for the underlying stock and depends on the volume of trading.
The option strike prices in Tables 1. 2 and 1. 3 are $290, $300, $310, $320, $330, and $340.
The maturities are June 2020, September 2020, and December 2020. The precise
expiration day is the third Friday of the expiration month. The June options expire on June 19, 2020, the September options on September 18, 2020, and the December options on December 18, 2020.
The tables illustrate a number of properties of options. The price of a call option
decreases as the strike price increases, while the price of a put option increases as the strike price increases. Both types of option tend to become more valuable as their time to maturity increases. These properties of options will be discussed further in Chapter 11.
Suppose a trader instructs a broker to buy one December call option contract on
Apple with a strike price of $340. The broker will relay these instructions to a trader at the CBOE and the deal will be done. The (ask) price indicated in Table 1. 2 is $20.30.
This is the price for an option to buy one share. In the United States, an option contract is a contract to buy or sell 100 shares. Therefore, the trader must arrange for $2,030 to be remitted to the exchange through the broker. The exchange will then arrange for this amount to be passed on to the party on the other side of the transaction.
In our example, the trader has obtained at a cost of $2,030 the right to buy 100 Apple
shares for $340 each. If the price of Apple does not rise above $340 by December 18, 2020, the option is not exercised and the trader loses $2,030.
4 But if Apple does well
and the option is exercised when the bid price for the stock is $400, the trader is able to buy 100 shares at $340 and immediately sell them for $400 for a profit of $6,000, or $3,970 when the initial cost of the option contract is taken into account.
5
An alternative trade would be to sell one September put option contract with a strike
price of $290 at the bid price of $12.70. The trader receives 100*12.70=+1,270. If the
Apple stock price stays above $290, the option is not exercised and the trader makes a $1,270 profit. However, if stock price falls and the option is exercised when the stock price is $250, there is a loss. The trader must buy 100 shares at $290 when they are worth only $250. This leads to a loss of $4,000, or $2,730 when the initial amount received for the option contract is taken into account.Table 1.3 Prices of put options on Apple, May 21, 2020; stock price: bid $316.23,
ask $316.50 (Source: CBOE).
Strike price June 2020 September 2020 December 2020
($) Bid Ask Bid Ask Bid Ask
290 3.00 3.30 12.70 13.65 20.05 21.30
300 4.80 5.20 15.85 16.85 23.60 24.90
310 7.15 7.85 19.75 20.50 28.00 28.95
320 11.25 12.05 24.05 24.80 32.45 33.35
330 17.10 17.85 28.75 29.85 37.45 38.40
340 24.40 25.45 34.45 35.65 42.95 44.05
4 The calculations here ignore any commissions paid by the trader.
5 The calculations here ignore the effect of discounting. The $6,000 should be discounted from the time of
exercise to the purchase date when calculating the profit.
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Introduction 33
The stock options trading on the CBOE are American. If we assume for simplicity
that they are European, so that they can be exercised only at maturity, the traderās profit
as a function of the final stock price for the two trades we have considered is shown in Figure 1. 3.
Further details about the operation of options markets and how prices such as those
in Tables 1.2 and 1. 3 are determined by traders are given in later chapters. At this stage
Options Markets and Trader Categories
- Options market participants are classified into four primary roles: buyers and sellers of both call and put options.
- Traders are broadly categorized as hedgers who reduce risk, speculators who bet on market direction, and arbitrageurs who lock in profits from price discrepancies.
- Hedge funds operate with significantly less regulatory oversight than mutual funds, allowing for unconventional and highly leveraged investment strategies.
- The success of derivatives markets is largely attributed to high liquidity and the diverse motivations of its various participants.
- Hedge fund managers typically charge high performance-based fees, often structured as 2% of assets and 20% of profits.
Hedge funds are relatively free of these regulations. This gives them a great deal of freedom to develop sophisticated, unconventional, and proprietary investment strategies.
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Introduction 33
The stock options trading on the CBOE are American. If we assume for simplicity
that they are European, so that they can be exercised only at maturity, the traderās profit
as a function of the final stock price for the two trades we have considered is shown in Figure 1. 3.
Further details about the operation of options markets and how prices such as those
in Tables 1.2 and 1. 3 are determined by traders are given in later chapters. At this stage
we note that there are four types of participants in options markets:
1. Buyers of calls
2. Sellers of calls
3. Buyers of puts
4. Sellers of puts.
Buyers are referred to as having long positions; sellers are referred to as having short positions. Selling an option is also known as writing the option.
Derivatives markets have been outstandingly successful. The main reason is that they
have attracted many different types of traders and have a great deal of liquidity. When a trader wants to take one side of a contract, there is usually no problem in finding
someone who is prepared to take the other side.
Three broad categories of traders can be identified: hedgers, speculators, and
arbitrageurs. Hedgers use derivatives to reduce the risk that they face from potential future movements in a market variable. Speculators use them to bet on the future
direction of a market variable. Arbitrageurs take offsetting positions in two or more instruments to lock in a profit. As described in Business Snapshot 1. 3, hedge funds have
become big users of derivatives for all three purposes.
In the next few sections, we will consider the activities of each type of trader in more
detail.1.6 TYPES OF TRADERS28,00026,00024,00022,00002,0004,0006,0008,00010,00012,00014,00016,000
500 400 300 200Profit ($)
Stock price ($)
(a)28,00026,00024,00022,00002,0004,0006,0008,00010,00012,00014,00016,000
500 400 300 200Profi t ($)
Stock price ($)
(b)Figure 1.3 Net profit from (a) purchasing a contract consisting of 100 Apple
December call options with a strike price of $340 and (b) selling a contract consisting of
100 Apple September put options with a strike price of $290.
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34 CHAPTER 1
Business Snapshot 1.3 Hedge Funds
Hedge funds have become major users of derivatives for hedging, speculation, and
arbitrage. They are similar to mutual funds in that they invest funds on behalf of
clients. However, they accept funds only from professional fund managers or finan-cially sophisticated individuals and do not publicly offer their securities. Mutual funds are subject to regulations requiring that the shares be redeemable at any time, that investment policies be disclosed, that the use of leverage be limited, and so on. Hedge funds are relatively free of these regulations. This gives them a great deal of freedom to develop sophisticated, unconventional, and proprietary investment strategies. The fees charged by hedge fund managers are dependent on the fundās performance and are relatively highātypically 1 to 2% of the amount invested plus 20% of the profits. Hedge funds have grown in popularity, with about $2 trillion being invested in them throughout the world. āFunds of fundsā have been set up to invest in a portfolio of hedge funds.
The investment strategy followed by a hedge fund manager often involves using
derivatives to set up a speculative or arbitrage position. Once the strategy has been defined, the hedge fund manager must:
1. Evaluate the risks to which the fund is exposed
2. Decide which risks are acceptable and which will be hedged
3. Devise strategies (usually involving derivatives) to hedge the unacceptable risks.
Here are some examples of the labels used for hedge funds together with the trading strategies followed:
Long/Short Equities: Purchase securities considered to be undervalued and short
Hedge Fund Strategies and Risk Management
- Hedge fund managers must systematically evaluate risks, decide which are acceptable, and use derivatives to hedge those that are not.
- Common hedge fund labels include Long/Short Equities, Convertible Arbitrage, Distressed Securities, and Global Macro, each utilizing distinct trading strategies.
- Forward contracts allow companies like ImportCo and ExportCo to lock in exchange rates, effectively eliminating the uncertainty of future currency fluctuations.
- Hedging does not guarantee a more profitable outcome than remaining unhedged; rather, its primary purpose is the reduction of financial risk.
- Options provide an alternative hedging mechanism, such as using put options to protect a stock portfolio against potential price declines.
The purpose of hedging is to reduce risk. There is no guarantee that the outcome with hedging will be better than the outcome without hedging.
derivatives to set up a speculative or arbitrage position. Once the strategy has been defined, the hedge fund manager must:
1. Evaluate the risks to which the fund is exposed
2. Decide which risks are acceptable and which will be hedged
3. Devise strategies (usually involving derivatives) to hedge the unacceptable risks.
Here are some examples of the labels used for hedge funds together with the trading strategies followed:
Long/Short Equities: Purchase securities considered to be undervalued and short
those considered to be overvalued in such a way that the exposure to the overall
direction of the market is small.
Convertible Arbitrage: Take a long position in a thought-to-be-undervalued convert-
ible bond combined with an actively managed short position in the underlying equity.Distressed Securities: Buy securities issued by companies in, or close to, bankruptcy.
Emerging Markets: Invest in debt and equity of companies in developing or emerging
countries and in the debt of the countries themselves.Global Macro: Carry out trades that reflect anticipated global macroeconomic trends.
Merger Arbitrage: Trade after a possible merger or acquisition is announced so that a
profit is made if the announced deal takes place.
In this section we illustrate how hedgers can reduce their risks with forward contracts
and options.
Hedging Using Forward Contracts
Suppose that it is May 21, 2020, and ImportCo, a company based in the United States, knows that it will have to pay £10 million on August 21, 2020, for goods it has 1.7 HEDGERS
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Introduction 35
purchased from a British supplier. The GBP/USD exchange rate quotes made by a
financial institution are shown in Table 1. 1. ImportCo could hedge its foreign exchange
risk by buying pounds (GBP) from the financial institution in the 3-month forward market at 1.2225. This would have the effect of fixing the price to be paid to the British exporter at $12,225,000.
Consider next another U.S. company, which we will refer to as ExportCo, that is
exporting goods to the United Kingdom and, on May 21, 2020, knows that it will receive £30 million 3 months later. ExportCo can hedge its foreign exchange risk by selling
Ā£30 million in the 3-month forward market at an exchange rate of 1.2220. This would have the effect of locking in the U.S. dollars to be realized for the sterling at $36,660,000.
Note that a company might do better if it chooses not to hedge than if it chooses to
hedge. Alternatively, it might do worse. Consider ImportCo. If the exchange rate is 1.2000 on August 21 and the company has not hedged, the Ā£10 million that it has to pay will cost $12,000,000, which is less than $12,225,000. On the other hand, if the exchange rate is 1.3000, the Ā£10 million will cost $13,000,000āand the company will wish that it had hedged! The position of ExportCo if it does not hedge is the reverse. If the exchange rate in August proves to be less than 1.2220, the company will wish that it had hedged; if the rate is greater than 1.2220, it will be pleased that it has not done so.
This example illustrates a key aspect of hedging. The purpose of hedging is to reduce
risk. There is no guarantee that the outcome with hedging will be better than the
outcome without hedging.
Hedging Using Options
Options can also be used for hedging. Consider an investor who in May of a particular year owns 1,000 shares of a particular company. The share price is $28 per share. The investor is concerned about a possible share price decline in the next 2 months and wants protection. The investor could buy ten July put option contracts on the
20 25 30 35 4020,00025,00030,00035,00040,000Value of
holding ($)
Stock price ($)Hedging
No hedgingFigure 1.4 Value of the stock holding in 2 months with and without hedging.
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36 CHAPTER 1
Hedging and Speculation Strategies
- Investors use put options as a form of insurance to protect stock holdings against potential price declines while maintaining the ability to profit from price increases.
- There is a fundamental distinction between forward contracts, which neutralize risk by fixing a price, and options, which provide protection against adverse movements for an upfront fee.
- Speculators actively seek market exposure to profit from price fluctuations rather than trying to avoid risk like hedgers.
- Speculation can be conducted through the spot market or futures contracts, with the latter allowing for significant positions without purchasing the underlying asset immediately.
- The cost of hedging with options acts as a premium that reduces the total realized value of a portfolio in exchange for a guaranteed price floor.
Option contracts, by contrast, provide insurance. They offer a way for investors to protect themselves against adverse price movements in the future while still allowing them to benefit from favorable price movements.
Options can also be used for hedging. Consider an investor who in May of a particular year owns 1,000 shares of a particular company. The share price is $28 per share. The investor is concerned about a possible share price decline in the next 2 months and wants protection. The investor could buy ten July put option contracts on the
20 25 30 35 4020,00025,00030,00035,00040,000Value of
holding ($)
Stock price ($)Hedging
No hedgingFigure 1.4 Value of the stock holding in 2 months with and without hedging.
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36 CHAPTER 1
companyās stock with a strike price of $27.50. Each contract is on 100 shares, so this
would give the investor the right to sell a total of 1,000 shares for a price of $27.50. If the quoted option price is $1, then each option contract would cost
100*+1=+100
and the total cost of the hedging strategy would be 10*+100=+1,000.
The strategy costs $1,000 but guarantees that the shares can be sold for at least $27.50
per share during the life of the option. If the market price of the stock falls below $27.50, the options will be exercised, so that $27,500 is realized for the entire holding. When the cost of the options is taken into account, the amount realized is $26,500. If the market price stays above $27.50, the options are not exercised and expire worthless. However, in this case the value of the holding is always above $27,500 (or above $26,500 when the cost of the options is taken into account). Figure 1.4 shows the net value of the portfolio (after
taking the cost of the options into account) as a function of the stock price in 2 months. The dotted line shows the value of the portfolio assuming no hedging.
A Comparison
There is a fundamental difference between the use of forward contracts and options
for hedging. Forward contracts are designed to neutralize risk by fixing the price that the hedger will pay or receive for the underlying asset. Option contracts, by contrast, provide insurance. They offer a way for investors to protect themselves against adverse price movements in the future while still allowing them to benefit from favorable price movements. Unlike forwards, options involve the payment of an up-front fee.
We now move on to consider how futures and options markets can be used by specu-
lators. Whereas hedgers want to avoid exposure to adverse movements in the price of an asset, speculators wish to take a position in the market. Either they are betting that the price of the asset will go up or they are betting that it will go down.
Speculation Using Futures
Consider a U.S. speculator who in May thinks that the British pound will strengthen relative to the U.S. dollar over the next 2 months and is prepared to back that hunch to the tune of £250,000. One thing the speculator can do is purchase £250,000 in the spot market in the hope that the sterling can be sold later at a higher price. (The sterling once purchased would be kept in an interest-bearing account.) Another possibility is to take a long position in four CME July futures contracts on sterling. (Each futures contract is for the purchase of £62,500 in July.) Table 1. 4 summarizes the two alternatives on the
assumption that the current exchange rate is 1.2220 dollars per pound and the July futures price is 1.2223 dollars per pound. If the exchange rate turns out to be 1.3000 dollars per pound in July, the futures contract alternative enables the speculator to realize a profit of
11.3000-1.22232*250,000=+19,425. The spot market alternative
leads to 250,000 units of an asset being purchased for $1.2220 in May and sold for $1.3000 in July, so that a profit of
11.3000-1.22202*250,000=+19,500 is made. If
the exchange rate falls to 1.2000 dollars per pound, the futures contract gives rise to a
11.2223-1.20002*250,000=+5,575 loss, whereas the spot market alternative gives 1.8 SPECULATORS
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Introduction 37
Speculation and Financial Leverage
- Speculators can bet on currency movements by either purchasing assets in the spot market or taking positions in futures contracts.
- The primary advantage of futures over spot market purchases is the ability to use leverage through margin accounts.
- While spot market trades require the full value of the asset upfront, futures allow for large positions with a relatively small initial cash outlay.
- Options provide an even more aggressive form of speculation, offering significantly higher potential returns than direct stock ownership if the market moves favorably.
- The high potential for profit in derivative markets is balanced by the risk of losing the entire initial investment if the market moves against the speculator.
The futures market allows the speculator to obtain leverage. With a relatively small initial outlay, a large speculative position can be taken.
Consider a U.S. speculator who in May thinks that the British pound will strengthen relative to the U.S. dollar over the next 2 months and is prepared to back that hunch to the tune of £250,000. One thing the speculator can do is purchase £250,000 in the spot market in the hope that the sterling can be sold later at a higher price. (The sterling once purchased would be kept in an interest-bearing account.) Another possibility is to take a long position in four CME July futures contracts on sterling. (Each futures contract is for the purchase of £62,500 in July.) Table 1. 4 summarizes the two alternatives on the
assumption that the current exchange rate is 1.2220 dollars per pound and the July futures price is 1.2223 dollars per pound. If the exchange rate turns out to be 1.3000 dollars per pound in July, the futures contract alternative enables the speculator to realize a profit of
11.3000-1.22232*250,000=+19,425. The spot market alternative
leads to 250,000 units of an asset being purchased for $1.2220 in May and sold for $1.3000 in July, so that a profit of
11.3000-1.22202*250,000=+19,500 is made. If
the exchange rate falls to 1.2000 dollars per pound, the futures contract gives rise to a
11.2223-1.20002*250,000=+5,575 loss, whereas the spot market alternative gives 1.8 SPECULATORS
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 36 30/04/2021 16:38
Introduction 37
rise to a loss of 11.2220-1.20002*250,000=+5,500. The futures market alternative
appears to give rise to slightly worse outcomes for both scenarios. But this is because
the calculations do not reflect the interest that is earned or paid.
What then is the difference between the two alternatives? The first alternative of
buying sterling requires an up-front investment of 250,000*1.2220=+305,500. In
contrast, the second alternative requires only a small amount of cash to be deposited by the speculator in what is termed a āmargin accountā . (The operation of margin accounts is explained in Chapter 2.) In Table 1. 4, the initial margin requirement is
assumed to be $5,000 per contract, or $20,000 in total. The futures market allows the speculator to obtain leverage. With a relatively small initial outlay, a large speculative position can be taken.
Speculation Using Options
Options can also be used for speculation. Suppose that it is October and a speculator considers that a stock is likely to increase in value over the next 2 months. The stock price is currently $20, and a 2-month call option with a $22.50 strike price is currently selling for $1. Table 1. 5 illustrates two possible alternatives, assuming that the specu-
lator is willing to invest $2,000. One alternative is to purchase 100 shares; the other involves the purchase of 2,000 call options (i.e., 20 call option contracts). Suppose that the speculatorās hunch is correct and the price of the stock rises to $27 by December. The first alternative of buying the stock yields a profit of
100*1+27-+202=+700
However, the second alternative is far more profitable. A call option on the stock with a strike price of $22.50 gives a payoff of $4.50, because it enables something worth $27 to Table 1.4 Speculation using spot and futures contracts. One futures contract
is on £62,500. Initial margin on four futures contracts=+20,000.
Possible trades
Buy £250,000 Buy 4 futures contracts
Spot price=1.2220 Futures price=1.2223
Investment $305,500 $20,000
Profit if July spot=1.3000 $19,500 $19,425
Profit if July spot=1.2000 -$5,500 -$5,575
Table 1.5 Comparison of profits from two alternative strategies for using $2,000 to
speculate on a stock worth $20 in October.
December stock price
Speculatorās strategy $15 $27
Buy 100 shares -$500 $700
Buy 2,000 call options -$2,000 $7,000
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38 CHAPTER 1
be bought for $22.50. The total payoff from the 2,000 options that are purchased under
the second alternative is
2,000*+4.50=+9,000
Speculation and Arbitrage Strategies
- Options provide significant leverage compared to direct stock purchases, potentially magnifying profits by a factor of ten.
- While options offer higher returns in favorable conditions, they also carry the risk of losing the entire initial investment if the asset price falls.
- A key distinction between futures and options is that an option buyer's loss is strictly limited to the initial premium paid.
- Arbitrageurs exploit price discrepancies across different markets to lock in riskless profits through simultaneous transactions.
- The text illustrates arbitrage by showing how a stock traded in both New York and London can yield profit if exchange rates create a price mismatch.
Good outcomes become very good, while bad outcomes result in the whole initial investment being lost.
Profit if July spot=1.3000 $19,500 $19,425
Profit if July spot=1.2000 -$5,500 -$5,575
Table 1.5 Comparison of profits from two alternative strategies for using $2,000 to
speculate on a stock worth $20 in October.
December stock price
Speculatorās strategy $15 $27
Buy 100 shares -$500 $700
Buy 2,000 call options -$2,000 $7,000
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38 CHAPTER 1
be bought for $22.50. The total payoff from the 2,000 options that are purchased under
the second alternative is
2,000*+4.50=+9,000
Subtracting the original cost of the options yields a net profit of
+9,000-+2,000=+7,000
The options strategy is, therefore, 10 times more profitable than directly buying the stock.
Options also give rise to a greater potential loss. Suppose the stock price falls to $15
by December. The first alternative of buying stock yields a loss of
100*1+20-+152=+500
Because the call options expire without being exercised, the options strategy would lead to a loss of $2,000āthe original amount paid for the options. Figure 1. 5 shows the profit
or loss from the two strategies as a function of the stock price in 2 months.
Options like futures provide a form of leverage. For a given investment, the use of
options magnifies the financial consequences. Good outcomes become very good, while bad outcomes result in the whole initial investment being lost.
A Comparison
Futures and options are similar instruments for speculators in that they both provide a way in which a type of leverage can be obtained. However, there is an important
difference between the two. When a speculator uses futures, the potential loss as well as the potential gain is very large. When options are purchased, no matter how bad things get, the speculatorās loss is limited to the amount paid for the options.15 20 25 30
24000220000200040006000800010000Profit ($)
Stock price ($)Buy shares
Buy optionsFigure 1.5 Profit or loss from two alternative strategies for speculating on a stock
currently worth $20.
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Introduction 39
Arbitrageurs are a third important group of participants in futures, forward, and
options markets. Arbitrage involves locking in a riskless profit by simultaneously entering into transactions in two or more markets. In later chapters we will see how arbitrage is sometimes possible when the futures price of an asset gets out of line with its spot price. We will also examine how arbitrage can be used in options markets. This section illustrates the concept of arbitrage with a very simple example.
Let us consider a stock that is traded on both the New York Stock Exchange
(www.nyse.com) and the London Stock Exchange (www.londonstockexchange.com). Suppose that the stock price is $120 in New York and £100 in London at a time when the exchange rate is $1.2300 per pound. An arbitrageur could simultaneously buy 100 shares of the stock in New York and sell them in London to obtain a risk-free profit of
100*31+1.23*1002-+1204
or $300 in the absence of transactions costs. Transactions costs would probably
Arbitrage and Derivative Dangers
- Arbitrage involves locking in riskless profits by exploiting price discrepancies for the same asset across different markets.
- The actions of profit-seeking arbitrageurs naturally force market prices into alignment, making significant opportunities rare and short-lived.
- While derivatives are versatile tools for hedging and arbitrage, they pose severe risks when traders pivot into unauthorized speculation.
- Effective corporate oversight and strict risk limits are essential to prevent disastrous financial losses caused by the misuse of derivative instruments.
Indeed, the existence of profit-hungry arbitrageurs makes it unlikely that a major disparity between the sterling price and the dollar price could ever exist in the first place.
options markets. Arbitrage involves locking in a riskless profit by simultaneously entering into transactions in two or more markets. In later chapters we will see how arbitrage is sometimes possible when the futures price of an asset gets out of line with its spot price. We will also examine how arbitrage can be used in options markets. This section illustrates the concept of arbitrage with a very simple example.
Let us consider a stock that is traded on both the New York Stock Exchange
(www.nyse.com) and the London Stock Exchange (www.londonstockexchange.com). Suppose that the stock price is $120 in New York and £100 in London at a time when the exchange rate is $1.2300 per pound. An arbitrageur could simultaneously buy 100 shares of the stock in New York and sell them in London to obtain a risk-free profit of
100*31+1.23*1002-+1204
or $300 in the absence of transactions costs. Transactions costs would probably
eliminate the profit for a small trader. However, a large investment bank faces very low transactions costs in both the stock market and the foreign exchange market. It would find the arbitrage opportunity very attractive and would try to take as much advantage of it as possible.
Arbitrage opportunities such as the one just described cannot last for long. As
arbitrageurs buy the stock in New York, the forces of supply and demand will cause the dollar price to rise. Similarly, as they sell the stock in London, the sterling price will be driven down. Very quickly the two prices will become equivalent at the current exchange rate. Indeed, the existence of profit-hungry arbitrageurs makes it unlikely that a major disparity between the sterling price and the dollar price could ever exist in the first place. Generalizing from this example, we can say that the very existence of
arbitrageurs means that in practice only very small arbitrage opportunities are observed in the prices that are quoted in most financial markets. In this book most of the
arguments concerning futures prices, forward prices, and the values of option contracts will be based on the assumption that no arbitrage opportunities exist.1.9 ARBITRAGEURS
Derivatives are very versatile instruments. As we have seen, they can be used for hedging, for speculation, and for arbitrage. It is this very versatility that can cause problems. Sometimes traders who have a mandate to hedge risks or follow an
arbitrage strategy become (consciously or unconsciously) speculators. The results
can be disastrous. One example of this is provided by the activities of Jérà me Kerviel
at SociƩtƩ GƩnƩral (see Business Snapshot 1. 4).
To avoid the sort of problems SociƩtƩ GƩnƩral encountered, it is very important for
both financial and nonfinancial corporations to set up controls to ensure that derivatives are being used for their intended purpose. Risk limits should be set and the activities of traders should be monitored daily to ensure that these risk limits are adhered to.
Unfortunately, even when traders follow the risk limits that have been specified, big
mistakes can happen. Some of the activities of traders in the derivatives market during 1.10 DANGERS
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40 CHAPTER 1
the period leading up to the start of the financial crisis in July 2007 proved to be much
riskier than they were thought to be by the financial institutions they worked for. As will be discussed in Chapter 8, house prices in the United States had been rising fast. Most people thought that the increases would continueāor, at worst, that house prices would simply level off. Very few were prepared for the steep decline that actually
happened. Furthermore, very few were prepared for the high correlation between
Risk Management and Rogue Traders
- Financial institutions underestimated the risk of a steep decline in U.S. house prices and the high correlation of mortgage defaults across different regions.
- During periods of perceived prosperity, companies often ignore the warnings of risk managers, leading to catastrophic exposures.
- JƩrƓme Kerviel at SociƩtƩ GƩnƩrale exploited his knowledge of compliance procedures to mask massive speculative bets as arbitrage, resulting in a 4.9 billion euro loss.
- The history of rogue traders like Nick Leeson and John Rusnak highlights the critical need for unambiguous risk limits and rigorous monitoring of trading activity.
- A fundamental lesson for financial institutions is to dispassionately ask what can go wrong and quantify potential losses before they occur.
But, when times are good (or appear to be good), there is an unfortunate tendency to ignore risk managers and this is what happened at many financial institutions during the 2006ā2007 period.
the period leading up to the start of the financial crisis in July 2007 proved to be much
riskier than they were thought to be by the financial institutions they worked for. As will be discussed in Chapter 8, house prices in the United States had been rising fast. Most people thought that the increases would continueāor, at worst, that house prices would simply level off. Very few were prepared for the steep decline that actually
happened. Furthermore, very few were prepared for the high correlation between
mortgage default rates in different parts of the country. Some risk managers did express reservations about the exposures of the companies for which they worked to the U.S. real estate market. But, when times are good (or appear to be good), there is an
unfortunate tendency to ignore risk managers and this is what happened at many
financial institutions during the 2006ā2007 period. The key lesson from the financial crisis is that financial institutions should always be dispassionately asking āWhat can go wrong?ā , and they should follow that up with the question āIf it does go wrong, how much will we lose?āBusiness Snapshot 1.4 SocGenās Big Loss in 2008
Derivatives are very versatile instruments. They can be used for hedging, speculation, and arbitrage. One of the risks faced by a company that trades derivatives is that an employee who has a mandate to hedge or to look for arbitrage opportunities may become a speculator.
JĆ©rĆme Kerviel joined SociĆ©tĆ© GĆ©nĆ©ral (SocGen) in 2000 to work in the compliance
area. In 2005, he was promoted and became a junior trader in the bankās Delta One products team. He traded equity indices such as the German DAX index, the French CAC 40, and the Euro Stoxx 50. His job was to look for arbitrage opportunities.
These might arise if a futures contract on an equity index was trading for a different price on two different exchanges. They might also arise if equity index futures prices were not consistent with the prices of the shares constituting the index. (This type of arbitrage is discussed in Chapter 5.)
Kerviel used his knowledge of the bankās procedures to speculate while giving the
appearance of arbitraging. He took big positions in equity indices and created
fictitious trades to make it appear that he was hedged. In reality, he had large bets
on the direction in which the indices would move. The size of his unhedged position grew over time to tens of billions of euros.
In January 2008, his unauthorized trading was uncovered by SocGen. Over a three-
day period, the bank unwound his position for a loss of 4.9 billion euros. This was at the time the biggest loss created by fraudulent activity in the history of finance. (Later in the year, a much bigger loss from Bernard Madoffās Ponzi scheme came to light.)
Rogue trader losses were not unknown at banks prior to 2008. For example, in the
1990s, Nick Leeson, who worked at Barings Bank, had a mandate similar to that of Jérà me Kerviel. His job was to arbitrage between Nikkei 225 futures quotes in
Singapore and Osaka. Instead he found a way to make big bets on the direction of the Nikkei 225 using futures and options, losing $1 billion and destroying the 200-year old bank in the process. In 2002, it was found that John Rusnak at Allied Irish Bank had lost $700 million from unauthorized foreign exchange trading. The lessons from these losses are that it is important to define unambiguous risk limits for traders and then to monitor what they do very carefully to make sure that the limits are adhered to.
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Introduction 41
SUMMARY
Rogue Traders and Derivatives
- JƩrƓme Kerviel's unauthorized trading at SociƩtƩ GƩnƩrale resulted in a record-breaking 4.9 billion euro loss in 2008.
- Historical precedents like Nick Leeson's destruction of Barings Bank highlight the catastrophic risk of unmonitored speculative bets.
- Derivatives markets have grown significantly because they offer versatile tools for hedging, speculation, and arbitrage.
- Effective risk management requires financial institutions to set unambiguous limits and rigorously monitor trader activity.
- While hedgers use derivatives to eliminate risk, speculators utilize them for leverage to bet on future price movements.
Instead he found a way to make big bets on the direction of the Nikkei 225 using futures and options, losing $1 billion and destroying the 200-year old bank in the process.
fictitious trades to make it appear that he was hedged. In reality, he had large bets
on the direction in which the indices would move. The size of his unhedged position grew over time to tens of billions of euros.
In January 2008, his unauthorized trading was uncovered by SocGen. Over a three-
day period, the bank unwound his position for a loss of 4.9 billion euros. This was at the time the biggest loss created by fraudulent activity in the history of finance. (Later in the year, a much bigger loss from Bernard Madoffās Ponzi scheme came to light.)
Rogue trader losses were not unknown at banks prior to 2008. For example, in the
1990s, Nick Leeson, who worked at Barings Bank, had a mandate similar to that of Jérà me Kerviel. His job was to arbitrage between Nikkei 225 futures quotes in
Singapore and Osaka. Instead he found a way to make big bets on the direction of the Nikkei 225 using futures and options, losing $1 billion and destroying the 200-year old bank in the process. In 2002, it was found that John Rusnak at Allied Irish Bank had lost $700 million from unauthorized foreign exchange trading. The lessons from these losses are that it is important to define unambiguous risk limits for traders and then to monitor what they do very carefully to make sure that the limits are adhered to.
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Introduction 41
SUMMARY
One of the exciting developments in finance over the last 40 years has been the growth
of derivatives markets. In many situations, both hedgers and speculators find it more attractive to trade a derivative on an asset than to trade the asset itself. Some derivatives are traded on exchanges; others are traded by financial institutions, fund managers, and corporations in the over-the-counter market, or added to new issues of debt and equity securities. Much of this book is concerned with the valuation of derivatives. The aim is to present a unifying framework within which all derivativesānot just options or futuresācan be valued.
In this chapter we have taken a first look at forward, futures, and option contracts.
A forward or futures contract involves an obligation to buy or sell an asset at a certain time in the future for a certain price. There are two types of options: calls and puts. A call option gives the holder the right to buy an asset by a certain date for a certain price.
A put option gives the holder the right to sell an asset by a certain date for a certain price. Forwards, futures, and options trade on a wide range of different underlying assets.
The success of derivatives can be attributed to their versatility. They can be used by:
hedgers, speculators, and arbitrageurs. Hedgers are in the position where they face risk associated with the price of an asset. They use derivatives to reduce or eliminate this risk. Speculators wish to bet on future movements in the price of an asset. They use derivatives to get extra leverage. Arbitrageurs are in business to take advantage of a discrepancy between prices in two different markets. If, for example, they see the futures price of an asset getting out of line with the cash price, they will take offsetting
positions in the two markets to lock in a profit.
FURTHER READING
Chancellor, E. Devil Take the HindmostāA History of Financial Speculation. New York: Farra
Straus Giroux, 2000.
Hull, J. C. Machine Learning in Business: An Introduction to the World of Data Science, 2nd edn.,
2020. Available from Amazon. See: www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull.
Merton, R. C. āFinance Theory and Future Trends: The Shift to Integration, ā Risk, 12, 7 (July
1999): 48ā51.
Miller, M. H. āFinancial Innovation: Achievements and Prospects, ā Journal of Applied
Corporate Finance, 4 (Winter 1992): 4ā11.
Zingales, L., āCauses and Effects of the Lehman Bankruptcy, ā Testimony before Committee on
Oversight and Government Reform, United States House of Representatives, October 6, 2008.
Foundations of Financial Derivatives
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of financial history and theory, citing works on speculation, machine learning, and the Lehman Brothers bankruptcy.
- Practice questions challenge students to distinguish between the mechanics of selling call options and buying put options.
- Quantitative exercises illustrate the profit and loss profiles of short forward and futures contracts using currency and commodity examples.
- The material explores the dual nature of derivatives as tools for both speculative profit-seeking and risk-mitigating insurance.
- Conceptual problems address the fundamental difference between primary stock issuance, which funds companies, and secondary option trading.
Explain why a futures contract can be used for either speculation or hedging.
Chancellor, E. Devil Take the HindmostāA History of Financial Speculation. New York: Farra
Straus Giroux, 2000.
Hull, J. C. Machine Learning in Business: An Introduction to the World of Data Science, 2nd edn.,
2020. Available from Amazon. See: www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull.
Merton, R. C. āFinance Theory and Future Trends: The Shift to Integration, ā Risk, 12, 7 (July
1999): 48ā51.
Miller, M. H. āFinancial Innovation: Achievements and Prospects, ā Journal of Applied
Corporate Finance, 4 (Winter 1992): 4ā11.
Zingales, L., āCauses and Effects of the Lehman Bankruptcy, ā Testimony before Committee on
Oversight and Government Reform, United States House of Representatives, October 6, 2008.
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42 CHAPTER 1
Practice Questions
1.1. Explain carefully the difference between selling a call option and buying a put option.
1.2. An investor enters into a short forward contract to sell 100,000 British pounds for U.S .
dollars at an exchange rate of 1.3000 USD per pound . How much does the investor gain
or lose if the exchange rate at the end of the contract is (a) 1.2900 and (b) 1.3200?
1.3. A trader enters into a short cotton futures contract when the futures price is 50 cents per
pound . The contract is for the delivery of 50,000 pounds . How much does the trader gain
or lose if the cotton price at the end of the contract is (a) 48.20 cents per pound and (b) 51.30 cents per pound?
1.4. Suppose that you write a put contract with a strike price of $40 and an expiration date in 3 months
. The current stock price is $41 and the contract is on 100 shares . What have you
committed yourself to? How much could you gain or lose?
1.5. You would like to speculate on a rise in the price of a certain stock . The current stock
price is $29 and a 3-month call with a strike price of $30 costs $2.90 . You have $5,800 to
invest . Identify two alternative investment strategies, one in the stock and the other in an
option on the stock . What are the potential gains and losses from each?
1.6. Suppose that you own 5,000 shares worth $25 each . How can put options be used to
provide you with insurance against a decline in the value of your holding over the next 4 months?
1.7. When first issued, a stock provides funds for a company
. Is the same true of a stock
option? Discuss.
1.8. Explain why a futures contract can be used for either speculation or hedging.
1.9. Suppose that a March call option to buy a share for $50 costs $2.50 and is held until
March . Under what circumstances will the holder of the option make a profit? Under what
circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a long position in the option depends on the stock price at maturity of the option.
1.10. Suppose that a June put option to sell a share for $60 costs $4 and is held until June.
Under what circumstances will the seller of the option (i.e., the party with the short
position) make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a short position in the option depends on the
stock price at maturity of the option.
1.11. It is May and a trader writes a September call option with a strike price of $20
. The stock
price is $18 and the option price is $2 . Describe the traderās cash flows if the option is held
until September and the stock price is $25 at that time.
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Introduction 43
Derivatives Practice and Applications
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems designed to test understanding of call and put options, including profit calculations and exercise conditions.
- It explores the practical application of forward and futures contracts for both speculative trading and corporate hedging against foreign exchange risk.
- The concept of derivatives as a 'zero-sum game' is introduced to highlight the transfer of wealth between parties in a contract.
- Complex financial instruments like Index Currency Option Notes (ICONs) are analyzed to show how they decompose into combinations of bonds and options.
- The exercises demonstrate how traders can lock in payoffs or mitigate losses by entering into offsetting forward positions at different points in time.
āOptions and futures are zero-sum games.ā What do you think is meant by this?
option? Discuss.
1.8. Explain why a futures contract can be used for either speculation or hedging.
1.9. Suppose that a March call option to buy a share for $50 costs $2.50 and is held until
March . Under what circumstances will the holder of the option make a profit? Under what
circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a long position in the option depends on the stock price at maturity of the option.
1.10. Suppose that a June put option to sell a share for $60 costs $4 and is held until June.
Under what circumstances will the seller of the option (i.e., the party with the short
position) make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a short position in the option depends on the
stock price at maturity of the option.
1.11. It is May and a trader writes a September call option with a strike price of $20
. The stock
price is $18 and the option price is $2 . Describe the traderās cash flows if the option is held
until September and the stock price is $25 at that time.
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Introduction 43
1.12. A trader writes a December put option with a strike price of $30 . The price of the option
is $4 . Under what circumstances does the trader make a gain?
1.13. A company knows that it is due to receive a certain amount of a foreign currency in
4 months . What type of option contract is appropriate for hedging?
1.14. A U.S . company expects to have to pay 1 million Canadian dollars in 6 months . Explain
how the exchange rate risk can be hedged using (a) a forward contract and (b) an option.
1.15. A trader enters into a short forward contract on 100 million yen . The forward exchange
rate is $0.0090 per yen . How much does the trader gain or lose if the exchange rate at the
end of the contract is (a) $0.0084 per yen and (b) $0.0101 per yen?
1.16. The CME Group offers a futures contract on long-term Treasury bonds . Characterize the
traders likely to use this contract.
1.17. āOptions and futures are zero-sum games.ā What do you think is meant by this?
1.18. Describe the profit from the following portfolio: a long forward contract on an asset and a
long European put option on the asset with the same maturity as the forward contract and a strike price that is equal to the forward price of the asset at the time the portfolio is set up.
1.19. In the 1980s, Bankers Trust developed index currency option notes (ICONs)
. These were
bonds in which the amount received by the holder at maturity varied with a foreign exchange rate
. One example was its trade with the Long Term Credit Bank of Japan . The
ICON specified that if the yen/USD exchange rate, ST, is greater than 169 yen per dollar
at maturity (in 1995), the holder of the bond receives $1,000 . If it is less than 169 yen per
dollar, the amount received by the holder of the bond is
1,000-maxc0, 1,000a169
ST-1bd
When the exchange rate is below 84.5, nothing is received by the holder at maturity . Show
that this ICON is a combination of a regular bond and two options.
1.20. On July 1, 2021, a company enters into a forward contract to buy 10 million Japanese yen on January 1, 2022
. On September 1, 2021, it enters into a forward contract to sell
10 million Japanese yen on January 1, 2022 . Describe the payoff from this strategy.
1.21. Suppose that USD/sterling spot and forward exchange rates are as follows:
Spot 1.2580
90-day forward 1.2556
180-day forward 1.2518
Derivatives and Arbitrage Exercises
- The text presents various quantitative problems involving forward contracts, exchange rates, and option pricing strategies.
- It explores the mechanics of arbitrage by comparing dually listed stock prices across different currencies and exchanges.
- The exercises distinguish between the risk profiles of buying stocks versus buying call options, highlighting differences in upfront costs and potential losses.
- The concept of a put option is framed as a form of insurance for investors who already own the underlying asset.
- Calculations are required to determine maximum gains and losses for both buyers and sellers of call and put options.
āBuying a put option on a stock when the stock is owned is a form of insurance.ā
When the exchange rate is below 84.5, nothing is received by the holder at maturity . Show
that this ICON is a combination of a regular bond and two options.
1.20. On July 1, 2021, a company enters into a forward contract to buy 10 million Japanese yen on January 1, 2022
. On September 1, 2021, it enters into a forward contract to sell
10 million Japanese yen on January 1, 2022 . Describe the payoff from this strategy.
1.21. Suppose that USD/sterling spot and forward exchange rates are as follows:
Spot 1.2580
90-day forward 1.2556
180-day forward 1.2518
What opportunities are open to an arbitrageur in the following situations?
(a) A 180-day European call option to buy £1 for $1.22 costs 2 cents.
(b) A 90-day European put option to sell £1 for $1.29 costs 2 cents.
1.22. A trader buys a call option with a strike price of $30 for $3 . Does the trader ever exercise
the option and lose money on the trade? Explain your answer.
1.23. A trader sells a put option with a strike price of $40 for $5 . What is the traderās maximum
gain and maximum loss? How does your answer change if it is a call option?
1.24. āBuying a put option on a stock when the stock is owned is a form of insurance. ā Explain this statement.
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44 CHAPTER 1
1.25. On May 21, 2020, as indicated in Table 1. 2, the spot ask price of Apple stock is $316.50
and the ask price of a call option with a strike price of $320 and a maturity date of
September is $21.70 . A trader is considering two alternatives: buy 100 shares of the stock
and buy 100 September call options . For each alternative, what is (a) the upfront cost,
(b) the total gain if the stock price in September is $400, and (c) the total loss if the stock
price in September is $300 . Assume that the option is not exercised before September and
positions are unwound at option maturity.
1.26. What is arbitrage? Explain the arbitrage opportunity when the price of a dually listed mining company stock is $50 (USD) on the New York Stock Exchange and $60 (CAD)
on the Toronto Stock Exchange
. Assume that the exchange rate is such that 1 U.S . dollar
equals 1.21 Canadian dollars . Explain what is likely to happen to prices as traders take
advantage of this opportunity.
1.27. Trader A enters into a forward contract to buy an asset for $1,000 in one year . Trader B
buys a call option to buy the asset for $1,000 in one year . The cost of the option is $100 .
What is the difference between the positions of the traders? Show the profit as a function of the price of the asset in one year for the two traders.
1.28. In March, a U.S
Derivatives and Hedging Strategies
- The text presents various financial scenarios comparing the risk profiles of forward contracts versus call options.
- Practical exercises explore how arbitrageurs exploit price discrepancies between spot prices, forward prices, and interest rates.
- Hedging techniques are examined through the use of put options and stop-loss orders to protect against downside risk in equity and currency markets.
- Complex financial instruments, such as oil-linked bonds, are decomposed into combinations of standard bonds and multiple option positions.
- The transition from introductory concepts to Chapter 2 highlights the distinction between standardized exchange-traded futures and private forward contracts.
Show that the bond is a combination of a regular bond, a long position in call options on oil with a strike price of $25, and a short position in call options on oil with a strike price of $40.
. Assume that the exchange rate is such that 1 U.S . dollar
equals 1.21 Canadian dollars . Explain what is likely to happen to prices as traders take
advantage of this opportunity.
1.27. Trader A enters into a forward contract to buy an asset for $1,000 in one year . Trader B
buys a call option to buy the asset for $1,000 in one year . The cost of the option is $100 .
What is the difference between the positions of the traders? Show the profit as a function of the price of the asset in one year for the two traders.
1.28. In March, a U.S
. investor instructs a broker to sell one July put option contract on a
stock . The stock price is $42 and the strike price is $40 . The option price is $3 . Explain
what the investor has agreed to . Under what circumstances will the trade prove to be
profitable? What are the risks?
1.29. A U.S . company knows it will have to pay 3 million euros in three months . The current
exchange rate is 1.1500 dollars per euro . Discuss how forward and options contracts can
be used by the company to hedge its exposure.
1.30. A stock price is $29 . A trader buys one call option contract on the stock with a strike price
of $30 and sells a call option contract on the stock with a strike price of $32.50 . The
market prices of the options are $2.75 and $1.50, respectively . The options have the same
maturity date . Describe the traderās position.
1.31. The price of gold is currently $1,200 per ounce . The forward price for delivery in 1 year is
$1,300 per ounce . An arbitrageur can borrow money at 3% per annum . What should the
arbitrageur do? Assume that the cost of storing gold is zero and that gold provides no income.
1.32. On May 21, 2020, an investor owns 100 Apple shares. As indicated in Table 1.3, the share price is about $316 and a December put option with a strike price of $290 costs $21.30.
The investor is comparing two alternatives to limit downside risk. The first involves
buying one December put option contract with a strike price of $290. The second involves instructing a broker to sell the 100 shares as soon as Appleās price reaches $290. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the two strategies.
1.33. A bond issued by Standard Oil some time ago worked as follows
. The holder received no
interest . At the bondās maturity the company promised to pay $1,000 plus an additional
amount based on the price of oil at that time . The additional amount was equal to the
product of 170 and the excess (if any) of the price of a barrel of oil at maturity over $25 .
The maximum additional amount paid was $2,550 (which corresponds to a price of $40
per barrel) . Show that the bond is a combination of a regular bond, a long position in call
options on oil with a strike price of $25, and a short position in call options on oil with a strike price of $40.
M01_HULL0654_11_GE_C01.indd 44 30/04/2021 16:38
Introduction 45
1.34. Suppose that in the situation of Table 1. 1 a corporate treasurer said: āI will have
Ā£1 million to sell in 6 months . If the exchange rate is less than 1.19, I want you to give
me 1.19 . If it is greater than 1.25, I will accept 1.25 . If the exchange rate is between 1.19
and 1.25, I will sell the sterling for the exchange rate. ā How could you use options to
satisfy the treasurer?
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46
Futures Markets
and Central
Counterparties2CHAPTER
In Chapter 1 we explained that both futures and forward contracts are agreements to
buy or sell an asset at a future time for a certain price. A futures contract is traded on an
exchange, and the contract terms are standardized by that exchange. A forward
Futures Markets and Counterparties
- Futures contracts are standardized agreements traded on exchanges, whereas forward contracts are customized for the over-the-counter market.
- The chapter explores the operational mechanics of futures, including margin accounts, exchange organization, and regulatory frameworks.
- A long position represents an agreement to buy an asset, while a short position represents an agreement to sell at a future date.
- Futures prices are determined by supply and demand, with electronic systems or floor traders matching buyers and sellers to maintain market balance.
Under the traditional open outcry system, floor traders representing each party would physically meet to determine the price.
1.34. Suppose that in the situation of Table 1. 1 a corporate treasurer said: āI will have
Ā£1 million to sell in 6 months . If the exchange rate is less than 1.19, I want you to give
me 1.19 . If it is greater than 1.25, I will accept 1.25 . If the exchange rate is between 1.19
and 1.25, I will sell the sterling for the exchange rate. ā How could you use options to
satisfy the treasurer?
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46
Futures Markets
and Central
Counterparties2CHAPTER
In Chapter 1 we explained that both futures and forward contracts are agreements to
buy or sell an asset at a future time for a certain price. A futures contract is traded on an
exchange, and the contract terms are standardized by that exchange. A forward
contract is traded in the over-the-counter market and can be customized to meet the needs of users.
This chapter covers the details of how futures markets work. We examine issues such
as the specification of contracts, the operation of margin accounts, the organization of exchanges, the regulation of markets, the way in which quotes are made, and the treatment of futures transactions for accounting and tax purposes. We explain how some of the ideas pioneered by futures exchanges have been adopted by over-the-counter markets.
2.1 BACKGROUND
Examples of large futures exchanges are the CME Group (www.cmegroup.com), the Intercontinental Exchange (www.theice.com), Eurex (www.eurexchange.com), B3,
Brazil (www.b3.com.br), the National Stock Exchange of India (www.nse-india .com), the China Financial Futures Exchange (www.cffex.com.cn), and the Tokyo Financial Exchange (www.tfx.co.jp). (See the table at the end of this book for a more complete list.)
We examine how a futures contract comes into existence by considering the corn
futures contract traded by the CME Group. On June 5, a trader in New York might call a broker with instructions to buy 5,000 bushels of corn for delivery in September of the same year. The broker would immediately issue instructions to a trader to buy (i.e., take a long position in) one September corn contract. (Each corn contract is for the delivery
of exactly 5,000 bushels.) At about the same time, another trader in Kansas might instruct a broker to sell 5,000 bushels of corn for September delivery. This broker
would then issue instructions to sell (i.e., take a short position in) one corn contract. A price would be determined and the deal would be done. Under the traditional open outcry system, floor traders representing each party would physically meet to determine the price. With electronic trading, a computer matches the traders.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 47
The trader in New York who agreed to buy has a long futures position in one
contract; the trader in Kansas who agreed to sell has a short futures position in one
contract. The price agreed to is the current futures price for September corn, say
600 cents per bushel. This price, like any other price, is determined by the laws of
supply and demand. If, at a particular time, more traders wish to sell rather than buy September corn, the price will go down. New buyers then enter the market so that a balance between buyers and sellers is maintained. If more traders wish to buy rather than sell September corn, the price goes up. New sellers then enter the market and a balance between buyers and sellers is maintained.
Closing Out Positions
Futures Positions and Delivery
- Futures contracts involve a long position for the buyer and a short position for the seller, with prices dictated by supply and demand.
- The majority of futures contracts are closed out before the delivery period to avoid the physical exchange of goods.
- Closing a position requires taking an offsetting action, such as selling a contract if one was previously bought.
- Errors in closing out positions can lead to unintended physical delivery, forcing financial institutions to manage physical commodities.
- A specific anecdote illustrates how a clerical error resulted in a financial firm having to house and feed live cattle for a week.
The employee was therefore faced with the problem of making arrangements for the cattle to be housed and fed for a week.
The trader in New York who agreed to buy has a long futures position in one
contract; the trader in Kansas who agreed to sell has a short futures position in one
contract. The price agreed to is the current futures price for September corn, say
600 cents per bushel. This price, like any other price, is determined by the laws of
supply and demand. If, at a particular time, more traders wish to sell rather than buy September corn, the price will go down. New buyers then enter the market so that a balance between buyers and sellers is maintained. If more traders wish to buy rather than sell September corn, the price goes up. New sellers then enter the market and a balance between buyers and sellers is maintained.
Closing Out Positions
The vast majority of futures contracts do not lead to delivery. The reason is that most traders choose to close out their positions prior to the delivery period specified in the Business Snapshot 2.1 The Unanticipated Delivery of a Futures Contract
This story (which may well be apocryphal) was told to the author of this book a long time ago by a senior executive of a financial institution. It concerns a new employee of the financial institution who had not previously worked in the financial sector. One of the clients of the financial institution regularly entered into a long futures contract on live cattle for hedging purposes and issued instructions to close out the position on the last day of trading. (Live cattle futures contracts are traded by the CME Group and each contract is on 40,000 pounds of cattle.) The new employee was given responsibility for handling the account.
When the time came to close out a contract the employee noted that the client was
long one contract and instructed a trader at the exchange to buy (not sell) one contract. The result of this mistake was that the financial institution ended up with a long position in two live cattle futures contracts. By the time the mistake was spotted trading in the contract had ceased.
The financial institution (not the client) was responsible for the mistake. As a
result, it started to look into the details of the delivery arrangements for live cattle
futures contractsāsomething it had never done before. Under the terms of the
contract, cattle could be delivered by the party with the short position to a number
of different locations in the United States during the delivery month. Because it was long, the financial institution could do nothing but wait for a party with a short position to issue a notice of intention to deliver to the exchange and for the exchange to assign that notice to the financial institution.
It eventually received a notice from the exchange and found that it would receive
live cattle at a location 2,000 miles away the following Tuesday. The new employee was sent to the location to handle things. It turned out that the location had a cattle auction every Tuesday. The party with the short position that was making delivery bought cattle at the auction and then immediately delivered them. Unfortunately the
cattle could not be resold until the next cattle auction the following Tuesday. The employee was therefore faced with the problem of making arrangements for the cattle
to be housed and fed for a week. This was a great start to a first job in the financial sector!
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48 CHAPTER 2
Futures Delivery and Specifications
- Traders typically close out futures positions by entering into an opposite trade rather than taking physical delivery of the asset.
- The exchange must strictly define contract specifications including the asset grade, contract size, delivery location, and delivery timing.
- The party with the short position generally holds the right to choose the specific delivery location and asset grade from the exchange's approved list.
- The possibility of physical delivery is the mechanism that ensures the futures price remains tied to the spot price of the underlying asset.
This was a great start to a first job in the financial sector!
contract, cattle could be delivered by the party with the short position to a number
of different locations in the United States during the delivery month. Because it was long, the financial institution could do nothing but wait for a party with a short position to issue a notice of intention to deliver to the exchange and for the exchange to assign that notice to the financial institution.
It eventually received a notice from the exchange and found that it would receive
live cattle at a location 2,000 miles away the following Tuesday. The new employee was sent to the location to handle things. It turned out that the location had a cattle auction every Tuesday. The party with the short position that was making delivery bought cattle at the auction and then immediately delivered them. Unfortunately the
cattle could not be resold until the next cattle auction the following Tuesday. The employee was therefore faced with the problem of making arrangements for the cattle
to be housed and fed for a week. This was a great start to a first job in the financial sector!
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48 CHAPTER 2
contract. Closing out a position means entering into the opposite trade to the original
one. For example, the New York trader who bought a September corn futures contract on June 5 can close out the position by selling (i.e., shorting) one September corn futures contract on, say, July 20. The Kansas trader who sold (i.e., shorted) a September contract on June 5 can close out the position by buying one September contract on, say,
August 25. In each case, the traderās total gain or loss is determined by the change in
the futures price between June 5 and the day when the contract is closed out.
Delivery is so unusual that traders sometimes forget how the delivery process works
(see Business Snapshot 2.1). Nevertheless, we will review delivery procedures later in
this chapter. This is because it is the possibility of final delivery that ties the futures price to the spot price.
1
1 As mentioned in Chapter 1, the spot price is the price for almost immediate delivery.
2 There are rare exceptions. As pointed out by J. E. Newsome, G. H. F. Wang, M. E. Boyd, and M. J. Fuller
in āContract Modifications and the Basic Behavior of Live Cattle Futures, ā Journal of Futures Markets, 24, 6
(2004), 557ā90, the CME gave the buyer some delivery options in live cattle futures starting in 1995.2.2 SPECIFICATION OF A FUTURES CONTRACT
When developing a new contract, the exchange must specify in some detail the exact
nature of the agreement between the two parties. In particular, it must specify the asset, the contract size (exactly how much of the asset will be delivered under one contract), where delivery can be made, and when delivery can be made.
Sometimes alternatives are specified for the grade of the asset that will be delivered or
for the delivery locations. As a general rule, it is the party with the short position (the party that has agreed to sell the asset) that chooses what will happen when alternatives are specified by the exchange.
2 When the party with the short position is ready to
deliver, it files a notice of intention to deliver with the exchange. This notice indicates any selections it has made with respect to the grade of asset that will be delivered and the delivery location.
The Asset
Futures Contract Specifications
- Exchanges must define specific details for futures contracts, including the asset type, contract size, delivery location, and delivery timing.
- For commodity futures, exchanges stipulate acceptable grades to account for variations in marketplace quality.
- The party with the short position generally holds the right to choose between delivery alternatives specified by the exchange.
- Price adjustments are often applied when a seller delivers a grade of a commodity that differs from the standard benchmark.
- Financial assets like currency are unambiguous, but Treasury bond futures allow for a range of maturities with specific price-adjustment formulas.
As a general rule, it is the party with the short position (the party that has agreed to sell the asset) that chooses what will happen when alternatives are specified by the exchange.
1 As mentioned in Chapter 1, the spot price is the price for almost immediate delivery.
2 There are rare exceptions. As pointed out by J. E. Newsome, G. H. F. Wang, M. E. Boyd, and M. J. Fuller
in āContract Modifications and the Basic Behavior of Live Cattle Futures, ā Journal of Futures Markets, 24, 6
(2004), 557ā90, the CME gave the buyer some delivery options in live cattle futures starting in 1995.2.2 SPECIFICATION OF A FUTURES CONTRACT
When developing a new contract, the exchange must specify in some detail the exact
nature of the agreement between the two parties. In particular, it must specify the asset, the contract size (exactly how much of the asset will be delivered under one contract), where delivery can be made, and when delivery can be made.
Sometimes alternatives are specified for the grade of the asset that will be delivered or
for the delivery locations. As a general rule, it is the party with the short position (the party that has agreed to sell the asset) that chooses what will happen when alternatives are specified by the exchange.
2 When the party with the short position is ready to
deliver, it files a notice of intention to deliver with the exchange. This notice indicates any selections it has made with respect to the grade of asset that will be delivered and the delivery location.
The Asset
When the asset is a commodity, there may be quite a variation in the quality of what is available in the marketplace. When the asset is specified, it is therefore important that the exchange stipulate the grade or grades of the commodity that are acceptable. The
Intercontinental Exchange (ICE) has specified the asset in its orange juice futures contract as frozen concentrates that are U.S. Grade A with Brix value of not less than 62.5 degrees.
For some commodities a range of grades can be delivered, but the price received
depends on the grade chosen. For example, in the CME Groupās corn futures contract, the standard grade is āNo. 2 Yellow, ā but substitutions are allowed with the price being adjusted in a way established by the exchange. No. 1 Yellow is deliverable for 1.5 cents per bushel more than No. 2 Yellow. No. 3 Yellow is deliverable for 2 to 4 cents per bushel less than No. 2 Yellow depending on indicators of quality.
The financial assets in futures contracts are generally well defined and unambiguous.
For example, there is no need to specify the grade of a Japanese yen. However, there are
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 49
some interesting features of the Treasury bond and Treasury note futures contracts
traded on the Chicago Board of Trade. For example, the underlying asset in the
Treasury bond contract is any U.S. Treasury bond that has a maturity between 15
and 25 years; in the 10-year Treasury note futures contract, the underlying asset is any Treasury note with a maturity of between 6.5 and 10 years. The exchange has a formula for adjusting the price received according to the coupon and maturity date of the bond delivered. This is discussed in Chapter 6.
The Contract Size
Futures Contract Specifications
- Exchanges must carefully balance contract sizes to accommodate both small speculators and large institutional hedgers.
- The underlying assets for Treasury futures are flexible, allowing delivery of any bond or note within a specific maturity range.
- Delivery arrangements for physical commodities are strictly defined, often including price adjustments based on the chosen warehouse location.
- Exchanges determine specific delivery months and trading windows to meet the seasonal or logistical needs of market participants.
- Price quotation methods vary significantly by asset class, such as Treasury bonds being quoted in thirty-seconds of a dollar.
If the contract size is too large, many traders who wish to hedge relatively small exposures or who wish to take relatively small speculative positions will be unable to use the exchange.
some interesting features of the Treasury bond and Treasury note futures contracts
traded on the Chicago Board of Trade. For example, the underlying asset in the
Treasury bond contract is any U.S. Treasury bond that has a maturity between 15
and 25 years; in the 10-year Treasury note futures contract, the underlying asset is any Treasury note with a maturity of between 6.5 and 10 years. The exchange has a formula for adjusting the price received according to the coupon and maturity date of the bond delivered. This is discussed in Chapter 6.
The Contract Size
The contract size specifies the amount of the asset that has to be delivered under one contract. This is an important decision for the exchange. If the contract size is too large, many traders who wish to hedge relatively small exposures or who wish to take
relatively small speculative positions will be unable to use the exchange. On the other hand, if the contract size is too small, trading may be expensive as there is a cost associated with each contract traded.
The correct size for a contract clearly depends on the likely user. Whereas the value of
what is delivered under a futures contract on an agricultural product might be $10,000 to $20,000, it is much higher for some financial futures. For example, under the Treasury bond futures contract traded by the CME Group, instruments with a face value of $100,000 are delivered.
In some cases exchanges have introduced āminiā contracts to attract smaller traders.
For example, the CME Groupās Mini Nasdaq 100 contract is on 20 times the Nasdaq 100 index, whereas the regular contract is on 100 times the index. (We will cover futures on indices more fully in Chapter 3.)
Delivery Arrangements
The place where delivery will be made must be specified by the exchange. This is particularly important for commodities that involve significant transportation costs. In
the case of the ICE frozen concentrate orange juice contract, delivery is to exchange- licensed warehouses in Florida, New Jersey, or Delaware.
When alternative delivery locations are specified, the price received by the party with
the short position is sometimes adjusted according to the location chosen by that party. The price tends to be higher for delivery locations that are relatively far from the main sources of the commodity.
Delivery Months
A futures contract is referred to by its delivery month. The exchange must specify the
precise period during the month when delivery can be made. For many futures
contracts, the delivery period is the whole month.
The delivery months vary from contract to contract and are chosen by the exchange
to meet the needs of market participants. For example, corn futures traded by the CME Group have delivery months of March, May, July, September, and December. At any given time, contracts trade for the closest delivery month and a number of subsequent delivery months. The exchange specifies when trading in a particular monthās contract will begin. The exchange also specifies the last day on which trading can take place for a
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50 CHAPTER 2
given contract. Trading generally ceases a few days before the last day on which delivery
can be made.
Price Quotes
The exchange defines how prices will be quoted. For example, crude oil futures prices are quoted in dollars and cents. Treasury bond and Treasury note futures prices are quoted in dollars and thirty-seconds of a dollar.
Price Limits and Position Limits
Futures Contracts and Price Convergence
- Exchanges define specific delivery months and periods for futures contracts to meet the diverse needs of market participants.
- Daily price limits are established to curb speculative excesses, though they can sometimes act as artificial barriers to trading during rapid market shifts.
- Position limits restrict the number of contracts a speculator can hold to prevent any single entity from exercising undue influence on the market.
- As a contract nears its delivery period, the futures price naturally converges toward the spot price due to arbitrage opportunities.
- If the futures price significantly exceeds the spot price during delivery, traders can guarantee a profit by shorting the contract and buying the asset.
Whether price limits are, on balance, good for futures markets is controversial.
A futures contract is referred to by its delivery month. The exchange must specify the
precise period during the month when delivery can be made. For many futures
contracts, the delivery period is the whole month.
The delivery months vary from contract to contract and are chosen by the exchange
to meet the needs of market participants. For example, corn futures traded by the CME Group have delivery months of March, May, July, September, and December. At any given time, contracts trade for the closest delivery month and a number of subsequent delivery months. The exchange specifies when trading in a particular monthās contract will begin. The exchange also specifies the last day on which trading can take place for a
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50 CHAPTER 2
given contract. Trading generally ceases a few days before the last day on which delivery
can be made.
Price Quotes
The exchange defines how prices will be quoted. For example, crude oil futures prices are quoted in dollars and cents. Treasury bond and Treasury note futures prices are quoted in dollars and thirty-seconds of a dollar.
Price Limits and Position Limits
For most contracts, daily price movement limits are specified by the exchange. If in a day the price moves down from the previous dayās close by an amount equal to the daily price limit, the contract is said to be limit down. If it moves up by the limit, it is said to be limit up. A limit move is a move in either direction equal to the daily price
limit. Normally, trading ceases for the day once the contract is limit up or limit down. However, in some instances the exchange has the authority to step in and change the limits.
The purpose of daily price limits is to prevent large price movements from occurring
because of speculative excesses. However, limits can become an artificial barrier to trading when the price of the underlying commodity is advancing or declining rapidly. Whether price limits are, on balance, good for futures markets is controversial.
Position limits are the maximum number of contracts that a speculator may hold.
The purpose of these limits is to prevent speculators from exercising undue influence on
the market.
2.3 CONVERGENCE OF FUTURES PRICE TO SPOT PRICE
As the delivery period for a futures contract is approached, the futures price converges to the spot price of the underlying asset. When the delivery period is reached, the
futures price equalsāor is very close toāthe spot price.
To see why this is so, we first suppose that the futures price is above the spot price
during the delivery period. Traders then have a clear arbitrage opportunity:
1. Sell (i.e., short) a futures contract
2. Buy the asset
3. Make delivery.
These steps are certain to lead to a profit equal to the amount by which the futures price exceeds the spot price. As traders exploit this arbitrage opportunity, the futures price will fall. Suppose next that the futures price is below the spot price during the delivery period. Companies interested in acquiring the asset will find it attractive to enter into a long futures contract and then wait for delivery to be made. As they do so, the futures price will tend to rise.
The result is that the futures price is very close to the spot price during the delivery
period. Figure 2.1 illustrates the convergence of the futures price to the spot price. In Figure 2.1a the futures price is above the spot price prior to the delivery period. In
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 51
Figure 2.1b the futures price is below the spot price prior to the delivery period. The
circumstances under which these two patterns are observed are discussed in Chapter 5.Figure 2.1 Relationship between futures price and spot price as the delivery period is
approached: (a) Futures price above spot price; (b) futures price below spot price.
Time
(a) (b)Futures
price
Spot
price
TimeFutures
priceSpot
price
Convergence and Margin Accounts
- Arbitrage opportunities ensure that the futures price and spot price converge as the delivery period is approached.
- If the futures price is higher than the spot price, traders sell futures to drive the price down; if lower, they buy to drive it up.
- Exchanges utilize margin accounts to mitigate the risk of contract defaults and ensure traders honor their financial agreements.
- Initial margin is the deposit required at the start of a contract, which is then adjusted daily through a process called marking to market.
- Daily settlement reflects gains or losses in the margin account based on the movement of the futures price at the end of each trading day.
At the end of each trading day, the margin account is adjusted to reflect the traderās gain or loss.
These steps are certain to lead to a profit equal to the amount by which the futures price exceeds the spot price. As traders exploit this arbitrage opportunity, the futures price will fall. Suppose next that the futures price is below the spot price during the delivery period. Companies interested in acquiring the asset will find it attractive to enter into a long futures contract and then wait for delivery to be made. As they do so, the futures price will tend to rise.
The result is that the futures price is very close to the spot price during the delivery
period. Figure 2.1 illustrates the convergence of the futures price to the spot price. In Figure 2.1a the futures price is above the spot price prior to the delivery period. In
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 51
Figure 2.1b the futures price is below the spot price prior to the delivery period. The
circumstances under which these two patterns are observed are discussed in Chapter 5.Figure 2.1 Relationship between futures price and spot price as the delivery period is
approached: (a) Futures price above spot price; (b) futures price below spot price.
Time
(a) (b)Futures
price
Spot
price
TimeFutures
priceSpot
price
2.4 THE OPERATION OF MARGIN ACCOUNTS
If two traders get in touch with each other directly and agree to trade an asset in the
future for a certain price, there are obvious risks. One of the traders may regret the deal
and try to back out. Alternatively, the trader simply may not have the financial
resources to honor the agreement. One of the key roles of the exchange is to organize trading so that contract defaults are avoided. This is where margin accounts come in.
Daily Settlement
To illustrate how margin accounts work, we consider a trader who buys (i.e., takes a long position in) two December gold futures contracts. We suppose that the current futures price is $1,750 per ounce. Because the contract size is 100 ounces, the trader has
contracted to buy a total of 200 ounces at this price. The trader has to keep funds in what is known as a margin account. The amount that must be deposited at the time the
contract is entered into is known as the initial margin. We suppose this is $6,000 per contract, or $12,000 in total. At the end of each trading day, the margin account is adjusted to reflect the traderās gain or loss. This practice is referred to as daily settlement or marking to market.
Suppose, for example, that by the end of the first day the futures price has dropped by
$9 from $1,750 to $1,741. The trader has a loss of
+1,800 1= 200*+92, because the
200 ounces of December gold, which the trader contracted to buy at $1,750, can now be sold for only $1,741. The balance in the margin account would therefore be reduced by $1,800 to $10,200. Similarly, if the price of December gold rose to $1,759 by the end of
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52 CHAPTER 2
Mechanics of Margin Accounts
- Traders must deposit an initial margin to enter a futures contract, which acts as collateral for potential losses.
- The practice of daily settlement, or marking to market, adjusts the margin account balance at the end of every trading day to reflect price fluctuations.
- A maintenance margin serves as a floor; if the account balance drops below this level, the trader receives a margin call to top up the funds.
- Failure to meet a margin call results in the broker closing out the position to neutralize further risk.
- Daily settlement facilitates a continuous flow of funds between long and short position holders based on market movements.
If the trader does not provide this variation margin, the broker closes out the position.
To illustrate how margin accounts work, we consider a trader who buys (i.e., takes a long position in) two December gold futures contracts. We suppose that the current futures price is $1,750 per ounce. Because the contract size is 100 ounces, the trader has
contracted to buy a total of 200 ounces at this price. The trader has to keep funds in what is known as a margin account. The amount that must be deposited at the time the
contract is entered into is known as the initial margin. We suppose this is $6,000 per contract, or $12,000 in total. At the end of each trading day, the margin account is adjusted to reflect the traderās gain or loss. This practice is referred to as daily settlement or marking to market.
Suppose, for example, that by the end of the first day the futures price has dropped by
$9 from $1,750 to $1,741. The trader has a loss of
+1,800 1= 200*+92, because the
200 ounces of December gold, which the trader contracted to buy at $1,750, can now be sold for only $1,741. The balance in the margin account would therefore be reduced by $1,800 to $10,200. Similarly, if the price of December gold rose to $1,759 by the end of
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52 CHAPTER 2
the first day, the balance in the margin account would be increased by $1,800 to $13,800.
A trade is first settled at the close of the day on which it takes place. It is then settled at the
close of trading on each subsequent day.
Daily settlement leads to funds flowing each day between traders with long positions
and traders with short positions. If the futures price increases from one day to the next,
funds flow from traders with short positions to traders with long positions. If the
futures price decreases from one day to the next, funds flow in the opposite direction, from traders with short positions to traders with long positions. This daily flow of funds between traders to reflect gains and losses is known as variation margin.
Most individuals have to contact their brokers to trade. They are subject to what is
termed a maintenance margin. This is somewhat lower than the initial margin. If the balance in the margin account falls below the maintenance margin, the trader receives a
margin call and is expected to top up the margin account to the initial margin level within
a short period of time. If the trader does not provide this variation margin, the broker closes out the position. In the case of the trader considered earlier, closing out the position would involve neutralizing the existing contract by selling 200 ounces of gold for
delivery in December.
If the traderās contract increases in value, the balance in the margin account increases.
The trader is entitled to withdraw any balance in the margin account that is in excess of
the initial margin.
DayTrade
price ($)Settlement
price ($)Daily
gain ($)Cumulative
gain ($)Margin account
balance ($)Margin
call ($)
11,750.00 12,000
1 1,741.00 -1,800 -1,800 10,200
2 1,738.30 -540 -2,340 9,660
3 1,744.60 1,260 -1,080 10,920
4 1,741.30 -660 -1,740 10,260
5 1,740.10 -240 -1,980 10,020
6 1,736.20 -780 -2,760 9,240
7 1,729.90 -1,260 -4,020 7,980 4,020
8 1,730.80 180 -3,840 12,180
9 1,725.40 -1,080 -4,920 11,100
10 1,728.10 540 -4,380 11,640
11 1,711.00 -3,420 -7,800 8,220 3,780
12 1,711.00 0 -7,800 12,000
13 1,714.30 660 -7,140 12,660
14 1,716.10 360 -6,780 13,020
15 1,723.00 1,380 -5,400 14,400
16 1,726.90 780 -4,620 15,180Table 2.1 Operation of margin account for a long position in two gold futures
contracts. The initial margin is $6,000 per contract, or $12,000 in total; the maintenance margin is $4,500 per contract, or $9,000 in total. The contract is entered
into on Day 1 at $1,750 and closed out on Day 16 at $1,726.90.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 53
Futures Margin and Daily Settlement
- Margin accounts act as a safeguard in futures trading, requiring an initial deposit and a maintenance level to cover potential losses.
- Unlike forward contracts which settle at expiration, futures contracts are settled daily, effectively being closed out and rewritten at new prices each day.
- Margin calls are triggered when an account balance falls below the maintenance level, requiring the trader to restore the balance to the initial margin amount.
- The exchange clearing house sets minimum margin levels based on the price volatility of the underlying asset, with higher variability necessitating higher margins.
- Futures markets offer a unique symmetry where taking a short position is as simple as taking a long position, unlike the complexities of shorting in the spot market.
A futures contract is in effect closed out and rewritten at a new price each day.
13 1,714.30 660 -7,140 12,660
14 1,716.10 360 -6,780 13,020
15 1,723.00 1,380 -5,400 14,400
16 1,726.90 780 -4,620 15,180Table 2.1 Operation of margin account for a long position in two gold futures
contracts. The initial margin is $6,000 per contract, or $12,000 in total; the maintenance margin is $4,500 per contract, or $9,000 in total. The contract is entered
into on Day 1 at $1,750 and closed out on Day 16 at $1,726.90.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 53
Table 2.1 illustrates the operation of the margin account for one possible sequence of
futures prices in the case of the trader considered earlier who buys two gold futures
contracts. The maintenance margin is assumed to be $4,500 per contract, or $9,000 in total. On Day 7 , the balance in the margin account falls $1,020 below the maintenance margin level. This drop triggers a margin call from the broker for an additional $4,020 to bring the account balance up to the initial margin level of $12,000. It is assumed that the trader provides this margin by the close of trading on Day 8. On Day 11, the balance in
the margin account again falls below the maintenance margin level, and a margin call for $3,780 is sent out. The trader provides this margin by the close of trading on Day 12. On Day 16, the trader decides to close out the position by selling two contracts. The futures price on that day is $1,726.90, and the trader has a cumulative loss of $4,620. Note that
the trader has excess margin on Days 8, 13, 14, and 15. It is assumed that the excess is not withdrawn.
Most brokers pay traders interest on the balance in a margin account. The balance in
the account does not, therefore, represent a true cost, provided that the interest rate is competitive with what could be earned elsewhere. To satisfy the initial margin require-ments, but not subsequent margin calls, a trader can usually deposit securities with the broker. Treasury bills are usually accepted in lieu of cash at about 90% of their market value. Shares are also sometimes accepted in lieu of cash, but at about 50% of their market value.
Whereas a forward contract is settled at the end of its life, a futures contract is, as we
have seen, settled daily. At the end of each day, the traderās gain (loss) is added to
(subtracted from) the margin account, bringing the value of the contract back to zero. A futures contract is in effect closed out and rewritten at a new price each day.
Minimum levels for the initial and maintenance margin are set by the exchange
clearing house. Individual brokers may require greater margins from their clients than the minimum levels specified by the exchange clearing house. Minimum margin levels are determined by the variability of the price of the underlying asset and are revised when necessary. The higher the variability, the higher the margin levels. The mainten- ance margin is usually about 75% of the initial margin.
Note that margin requirements are the same on short futures positions as they are on
long futures positions. It is just as easy to take a short futures position as it is to take a long one. The spot market does not have this symmetry. Taking a long position in the spot market involves buying the asset for immediate delivery and presents no problems. Taking a short position involves selling an asset that you do not own. This is a more
complex transaction that may or may not be possible in a particular market. It is discussed further in Chapter 5.
The Clearing House and Its Members
Margin Accounts and Clearing Houses
- Margin accounts are adjusted daily based on futures price fluctuations, requiring traders to replenish funds if the balance falls below a specific maintenance level.
- Unlike forward contracts which settle at expiration, futures contracts are effectively closed out and rewritten at a new price every single day.
- Margin requirements are determined by the price volatility of the underlying asset, with higher variability necessitating higher initial and maintenance margins.
- Futures markets offer a unique symmetry where taking a short position is just as simple as taking a long position, unlike the complexities of shorting in spot markets.
- The clearing house acts as a central intermediary that guarantees transaction performance and tracks the net positions of all its members.
A futures contract is in effect closed out and rewritten at a new price each day.
Table 2.1 illustrates the operation of the margin account for one possible sequence of
futures prices in the case of the trader considered earlier who buys two gold futures
contracts. The maintenance margin is assumed to be $4,500 per contract, or $9,000 in total. On Day 7 , the balance in the margin account falls $1,020 below the maintenance margin level. This drop triggers a margin call from the broker for an additional $4,020 to bring the account balance up to the initial margin level of $12,000. It is assumed that the trader provides this margin by the close of trading on Day 8. On Day 11, the balance in
the margin account again falls below the maintenance margin level, and a margin call for $3,780 is sent out. The trader provides this margin by the close of trading on Day 12. On Day 16, the trader decides to close out the position by selling two contracts. The futures price on that day is $1,726.90, and the trader has a cumulative loss of $4,620. Note that
the trader has excess margin on Days 8, 13, 14, and 15. It is assumed that the excess is not withdrawn.
Most brokers pay traders interest on the balance in a margin account. The balance in
the account does not, therefore, represent a true cost, provided that the interest rate is competitive with what could be earned elsewhere. To satisfy the initial margin require-ments, but not subsequent margin calls, a trader can usually deposit securities with the broker. Treasury bills are usually accepted in lieu of cash at about 90% of their market value. Shares are also sometimes accepted in lieu of cash, but at about 50% of their market value.
Whereas a forward contract is settled at the end of its life, a futures contract is, as we
have seen, settled daily. At the end of each day, the traderās gain (loss) is added to
(subtracted from) the margin account, bringing the value of the contract back to zero. A futures contract is in effect closed out and rewritten at a new price each day.
Minimum levels for the initial and maintenance margin are set by the exchange
clearing house. Individual brokers may require greater margins from their clients than the minimum levels specified by the exchange clearing house. Minimum margin levels are determined by the variability of the price of the underlying asset and are revised when necessary. The higher the variability, the higher the margin levels. The mainten- ance margin is usually about 75% of the initial margin.
Note that margin requirements are the same on short futures positions as they are on
long futures positions. It is just as easy to take a short futures position as it is to take a long one. The spot market does not have this symmetry. Taking a long position in the spot market involves buying the asset for immediate delivery and presents no problems. Taking a short position involves selling an asset that you do not own. This is a more
complex transaction that may or may not be possible in a particular market. It is discussed further in Chapter 5.
The Clearing House and Its Members
A clearing house acts as an intermediary in futures transactions. It guarantees the
performance of the parties to each transaction. The clearing house has a number of
members. Brokers who are not members themselves must channel their business through a member and post margin with the member. The main task of the clearing house is to keep track of all the transactions that take place during a day, so that it can calculate the net position of each of its members.
The clearing house member is required to provide to the clearing house initial margin
(sometimes referred to as clearing margin) reflecting the total number of contracts that
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54 CHAPTER 2
Clearing Houses and Credit Risk
- The clearing house acts as a central intermediary that guarantees the performance of all parties in futures transactions.
- Clearing house members must provide initial and variation margins, often calculated on a net basis, to cover potential losses from daily price fluctuations.
- A guaranty fund serves as a secondary layer of protection to ensure market stability if a member's margin is insufficient during a default.
- The effectiveness of the margining system was historically proven during the 1987 market crash, where clearing houses ensured all winning positions were paid despite broker bankruptcies.
- Unlike exchange-traded markets, over-the-counter (OTC) markets involve direct bilateral credit risk between companies, though they are increasingly adopting exchange-like safeguards.
However, the clearing houses had sufficient funds to ensure that everyone who had a short futures position on the S&P 500 got paid.
A clearing house acts as an intermediary in futures transactions. It guarantees the
performance of the parties to each transaction. The clearing house has a number of
members. Brokers who are not members themselves must channel their business through a member and post margin with the member. The main task of the clearing house is to keep track of all the transactions that take place during a day, so that it can calculate the net position of each of its members.
The clearing house member is required to provide to the clearing house initial margin
(sometimes referred to as clearing margin) reflecting the total number of contracts that
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54 CHAPTER 2
are being cleared. The maintenance margin is set equal to the initial margin. At the end
of each day, the transactions being handled by the clearing house member are settled through the clearing house. If in total the transactions have lost money, the member is required to provide variation margin to the exchange clearing house equal to the loss; if
there has been a gain on the transactions, the member receives variation margin from the clearing house equal to the gain. Intraday variation margin payments may also be required by a clearing house from its members in times of significant price volatility; if margin requirements are not met, a member is closed out.
In determining margin requirements, the number of contracts outstanding is
usually calculated on a net basis rather than a gross basis. This means that short positions the clearing house member is handling for clients are netted against long positions. Suppose, for example, that the clearing house member has two clients: one with a long position in 20 contracts, the other with a short position in 15 contracts. The initial margin would be calculated on the basis of five contracts. The calculation of the margin requirement is usually designed to ensure that the clearing house is about 99% certain that the margin will be sufficient to cover any losses in the event that the member defaults and has to be closed out. Clearing house members are required to contribute to a guaranty fund. This may be used by the clearing house in
the event that a member defaults and the memberās margin proves insufficient to cover losses.
Credit Risk
The whole purpose of the margining system is to ensure that funds are available to pay traders when they make a profit. Overall the system has been very successful. Traders entering into contracts at major exchanges have always had their contracts honored. Futures markets were tested on October 19, 1987 , when the S&P 500 index declined by over 20% and traders with long positions in S&P 500 futures found they had negative margin balances with their brokers. Traders who did not meet margin calls were closed out but still owed their brokers money. Some did not pay and as a result some brokers went bankrupt because, without their clientsā money, they were unable to meet margin calls on contracts they entered into on behalf of their clients. However, the clearing houses had sufficient funds to ensure that everyone who had a short futures position on
the S&P 500 got paid.
2.5 OTC MARKETS
Over-the-counter (OTC) markets, introduced in Chapter 1, are markets where compan-ies agree to derivatives transactions without involving an exchange. Credit risk has traditionally been a feature of OTC derivatives markets. Consider two companies, A and B, that have entered into a number of derivatives transactions. If A defaults when the net value of the outstanding transactions to B is positive, a loss is likely to be taken by B. Similarly, if B defaults when the net value of outstanding transactions to A is positive, a loss is likely to be taken by company A. In an attempt to reduce credit risk, the OTC market has borrowed some ideas from exchange-traded markets. We now discuss this.
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OTC Markets and Credit Risk
- Over-the-counter (OTC) markets involve private derivatives transactions between companies without the mediation of a formal exchange.
- Central Counterparties (CCPs) act as intermediaries for standard OTC trades, assuming the credit risk of both parties through margin requirements and guaranty funds.
- Post-2007 financial crisis legislation now mandates that most standard OTC transactions between financial institutions be processed through CCPs to mitigate systemic risk.
- Non-standard OTC trades are cleared bilaterally using master agreements and credit support annexes (CSAs) to manage collateral and variation margin.
- The OTC market has increasingly adopted mechanisms from exchange-traded markets, such as daily valuation and margin payments, to reduce the likelihood of default losses.
Assuming the CCP accepts the transaction, it becomes the counterparty to both A and B.
Over-the-counter (OTC) markets, introduced in Chapter 1, are markets where compan-ies agree to derivatives transactions without involving an exchange. Credit risk has traditionally been a feature of OTC derivatives markets. Consider two companies, A and B, that have entered into a number of derivatives transactions. If A defaults when the net value of the outstanding transactions to B is positive, a loss is likely to be taken by B. Similarly, if B defaults when the net value of outstanding transactions to A is positive, a loss is likely to be taken by company A. In an attempt to reduce credit risk, the OTC market has borrowed some ideas from exchange-traded markets. We now discuss this.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 55
Central Counterparties
We briefly mentioned CCPs in Section 1.2. These are clearing houses for standard OTC
transactions that perform much the same role as exchange clearing houses. Members of
the CCP , similarly to members of an exchange clearing house, have to provide both initial margin and daily variation margin. Like members of an exchange clearing house, they are also required to contribute to a guaranty fund.
Once an OTC derivative transaction has been agreed between two parties A and B, it
can be presented to a CCP . Assuming the CCP accepts the transaction, it becomes the counterparty to both A and B. (This is similar to the way the clearing house of a futures exchange becomes the counterparty to the two sides of a futures trade.) For example, if the transaction is a forward contract where A has agreed to buy an asset from B in one year for a certain price, the clearing house agrees to
1. Buy the asset from B in one year for the agreed price, and
2. Sell the asset to A in one year for the agreed price.
It takes on the credit risk of both A and B.
All members of the CCP are required to provide initial margin to the CCP.
Transactions are valued daily and there are daily variation margin payments to or
from the member. If an OTC market participant is not itself a member of a CCP , it can arrange to clear its trades through a CCP member. It will then have to provide margin to the CCP member. Its relationship with the CCP member is similar to the relationship between a broker and a futures exchange clearing house member.
Following the financial crisis that started in 2007 , regulators have become more
concerned about systemic risk (see Business Snapshot 1.2). One result of this, mentioned in Section 1.2, has been legislation requiring that most standard OTC transactions between financial institutions be handled by CCPs.
Bilateral Clearing
Those OTC transactions that are not cleared through CCPs are cleared bilaterally. In the bilaterally cleared OTC market, two companies A and B usually enter into a master
agreement covering all their trades.
3 This agreement usually includes an annex, referred
to as the credit support annex or CSA, requiring A or B, or both, to provide collateral. The collateral is similar to the margin required by exchange clearing houses or CCPs from their members.
Collateral agreements in CSAs usually require transactions to be valued each day. A
simple two-way agreement between companies A and B might work as follows. If, from one day to the next, the transactions between A and B increase in value to A by X (and therefore decrease in value to B by X), B is required to provide collateral worth X to A.
If the reverse happens and the transactions increase in value to B by X (and decrease in
value to A by X), A is required to provide collateral worth X to B. (To use the
terminology of exchange-traded markets, X is the variation margin provided.) Collateral agreements and the way counterparty credit risk is assessed for bilaterally cleared transactions is discussed further in Chapter 24.
3 The most common such agreement is an International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) Master
Agreement.
Collateral and Margin Requirements
- The Credit Support Annex (CSA) is a standard agreement requiring parties to provide collateral for over-the-counter derivatives.
- Collateral agreements typically require daily valuation of transactions to determine the necessary variation margin.
- If the value of a transaction increases for one party, the counterparty must provide collateral equal to that change in value.
- While initial margin was historically rare in bilateral agreements, new regulations since 2016 have made it mandatory for financial institutions.
Starting in 2016, regulations were introduced to require both initial margin and variation margin for bilaterally cleared transactions between financial institutions.
to as the credit support annex or CSA, requiring A or B, or both, to provide collateral. The collateral is similar to the margin required by exchange clearing houses or CCPs from their members.
Collateral agreements in CSAs usually require transactions to be valued each day. A
simple two-way agreement between companies A and B might work as follows. If, from one day to the next, the transactions between A and B increase in value to A by X (and therefore decrease in value to B by X), B is required to provide collateral worth X to A.
If the reverse happens and the transactions increase in value to B by X (and decrease in
value to A by X), A is required to provide collateral worth X to B. (To use the
terminology of exchange-traded markets, X is the variation margin provided.) Collateral agreements and the way counterparty credit risk is assessed for bilaterally cleared transactions is discussed further in Chapter 24.
3 The most common such agreement is an International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) Master
Agreement.
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56 CHAPTER 2
It has historically been relatively rare for a CSA to require initial margin. This is
changing. Starting in 2016, regulations were introduced to require both initial margin
and variation margin for bilaterally cleared transactions between financial institutions.4
Collateral and Counterparty Risk
- Credit Support Annexes (CSAs) require parties to provide collateral, functioning similarly to margin in exchange-traded markets.
- Daily valuation of transactions determines the variation margin, where the party whose position has decreased in value must post collateral to the other.
- New regulations introduced in 2016 mandate both initial and variation margin for bilaterally cleared transactions between financial institutions.
- The collapse of Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) illustrates that while collateral reduces credit risk, high leverage remains a systemic danger.
- LTCM's 'convergence arbitrage' strategy failed during a flight to quality when the price gap between liquid and illiquid assets widened unexpectedly.
The prices of the bonds LTCM had bought went down and the prices of those it had shorted increased.
to as the credit support annex or CSA, requiring A or B, or both, to provide collateral. The collateral is similar to the margin required by exchange clearing houses or CCPs from their members.
Collateral agreements in CSAs usually require transactions to be valued each day. A
simple two-way agreement between companies A and B might work as follows. If, from one day to the next, the transactions between A and B increase in value to A by X (and therefore decrease in value to B by X), B is required to provide collateral worth X to A.
If the reverse happens and the transactions increase in value to B by X (and decrease in
value to A by X), A is required to provide collateral worth X to B. (To use the
terminology of exchange-traded markets, X is the variation margin provided.) Collateral agreements and the way counterparty credit risk is assessed for bilaterally cleared transactions is discussed further in Chapter 24.
3 The most common such agreement is an International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) Master
Agreement.
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56 CHAPTER 2
It has historically been relatively rare for a CSA to require initial margin. This is
changing. Starting in 2016, regulations were introduced to require both initial margin
and variation margin for bilaterally cleared transactions between financial institutions.4
The initial margin is posted with a third party.
Collateral significantly reduces credit risk in the bilaterally cleared OTC market (and so
the use of CCPs for standard transactions between financial institutions and regulations requiring initial margin for other transactions between financial institutions should reduce risks for the financial system). Collateral agreements were used by hedge fund Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) for its bilaterally cleared derivatives in the 1990s. The agreements allowed LTCM to be highly levered. They did provide credit protection, but as described in Business Snapshot 2.2, the high leverage left the hedge fund exposed to other risks.
Figure 2.2 illustrates the way bilateral and central clearing work. (It makes the
simplifying assumption that there are only eight market participants and one CCP).
Under bilateral clearing there are many different agreements between market partici-Business Snapshot 2.2 Long-Term Capital Managementās Big Loss
Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM), a hedge fund formed in the mid-1990s, always collateralized its bilaterally cleared transactions. The hedge fundās investment strategy was known as convergence arbitrage. A very simple example of what it might
do is the following. It would find two bonds, X and Y, issued by the same company that promised the same payoffs, with X being less liquid (i.e., less actively traded) than Y. The market places a value on liquidity. As a result the price of X would be less than the price of Y. LTCM would buy X, short Y, and wait, expecting the prices of the two bonds to converge at some future time.
When interest rates increased, the company expected both bonds to move down in
price by about the same amount, so that the collateral it paid on bond X would be about the same as the collateral it received on bond Y. Similarly, when interest rates
decreased, LTCM expected both bonds to move up in price by about the same amount, so that the collateral it received on bond X would be about the same as the collateral it paid on bond Y. It therefore expected that there would be no significant outflow of funds as a result of its collateralization agreements.
In August 1998, Russia defaulted on its debt and this led to what is termed a
āflight to qualityā in capital markets. One result was that investors valued liquid instruments more highly than usual and the spreads between the prices of the liquid
and illiquid instruments in LTCMās portfolio increased dramatically. The prices of the bonds LTCM had bought went down and the prices of those it had shorted increased. It was required to post collateral on both. The company experienced difficulties because it was highly leveraged. Positions had to be closed out and LTCM
lost about $4 billion. If the company had been less highly leveraged, it would
probably have been able to survive the flight to quality and could have waited for
the prices of the liquid and illiquid bonds to move back closer to each other.
4 For both this regulation and the regulation requiring standard transactions between financial institutions to
be cleared through CCPs, āfinancial institutionsā include banks, insurance companies, pension funds, and
hedge funds. Transactions with most nonfinancial corporations and some foreign exchange transactions are exempt from the regulations.
Collateral and the LTCM Collapse
- Collateralization significantly reduces credit risk in over-the-counter markets, but it does not eliminate the dangers of high leverage.
- Long-Term Capital Management utilized a convergence arbitrage strategy, betting that the price gap between liquid and illiquid bonds would eventually close.
- The 1998 Russian debt default triggered a 'flight to quality' that caused bond spreads to widen rather than converge, forcing LTCM to post collateral on both sides of its trades.
- Central clearinghouses (CCPs) aim to simplify the complex web of bilateral agreements between financial institutions to improve systemic stability.
- LTCM's failure, resulting in a $4 billion loss, demonstrates that even collateralized firms can collapse if they lack the liquidity to survive temporary market volatility.
The prices of the bonds LTCM had bought went down and the prices of those it had shorted increased.
The initial margin is posted with a third party.
Collateral significantly reduces credit risk in the bilaterally cleared OTC market (and so
the use of CCPs for standard transactions between financial institutions and regulations requiring initial margin for other transactions between financial institutions should reduce risks for the financial system). Collateral agreements were used by hedge fund Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) for its bilaterally cleared derivatives in the 1990s. The agreements allowed LTCM to be highly levered. They did provide credit protection, but as described in Business Snapshot 2.2, the high leverage left the hedge fund exposed to other risks.
Figure 2.2 illustrates the way bilateral and central clearing work. (It makes the
simplifying assumption that there are only eight market participants and one CCP).
Under bilateral clearing there are many different agreements between market partici-Business Snapshot 2.2 Long-Term Capital Managementās Big Loss
Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM), a hedge fund formed in the mid-1990s, always collateralized its bilaterally cleared transactions. The hedge fundās investment strategy was known as convergence arbitrage. A very simple example of what it might
do is the following. It would find two bonds, X and Y, issued by the same company that promised the same payoffs, with X being less liquid (i.e., less actively traded) than Y. The market places a value on liquidity. As a result the price of X would be less than the price of Y. LTCM would buy X, short Y, and wait, expecting the prices of the two bonds to converge at some future time.
When interest rates increased, the company expected both bonds to move down in
price by about the same amount, so that the collateral it paid on bond X would be about the same as the collateral it received on bond Y. Similarly, when interest rates
decreased, LTCM expected both bonds to move up in price by about the same amount, so that the collateral it received on bond X would be about the same as the collateral it paid on bond Y. It therefore expected that there would be no significant outflow of funds as a result of its collateralization agreements.
In August 1998, Russia defaulted on its debt and this led to what is termed a
āflight to qualityā in capital markets. One result was that investors valued liquid instruments more highly than usual and the spreads between the prices of the liquid
and illiquid instruments in LTCMās portfolio increased dramatically. The prices of the bonds LTCM had bought went down and the prices of those it had shorted increased. It was required to post collateral on both. The company experienced difficulties because it was highly leveraged. Positions had to be closed out and LTCM
lost about $4 billion. If the company had been less highly leveraged, it would
probably have been able to survive the flight to quality and could have waited for
the prices of the liquid and illiquid bonds to move back closer to each other.
4 For both this regulation and the regulation requiring standard transactions between financial institutions to
be cleared through CCPs, āfinancial institutionsā include banks, insurance companies, pension funds, and
hedge funds. Transactions with most nonfinancial corporations and some foreign exchange transactions are exempt from the regulations.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 57
pants, as indicated in Figure 2.2a. If all OTC contracts were cleared through a single
CCP , we would move to the situation shown in Figure 2.2b. In practice, because not all OTC transactions are routed through CCPs and there is more than one CCP , the market has elements of both Figure 2.2a and Figure 2.2b.
5
Futures Trades vs. OTC Trades
Collateral and the LTCM Collapse
- Collateralization significantly reduces credit risk in over-the-counter markets but can leave highly leveraged firms vulnerable to liquidity shocks.
- Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) utilized convergence arbitrage, betting that the price gap between liquid and illiquid bonds would eventually close.
- The 1998 Russian debt default triggered a 'flight to quality' that caused bond spreads to widen rather than converge, forcing LTCM to post massive collateral on both sides of its trades.
- Central Counterparties (CCPs) aim to simplify the complex web of bilateral agreements, though the current market remains a hybrid of both systems.
- Unlike futures contracts where variation margin is a daily settlement, OTC variation margin typically earns interest because it is not considered a final settlement of the contract.
One result was that investors valued liquid instruments more highly than usual and the spreads between the prices of the liquid and illiquid instruments in LTCMās portfolio increased dramatically.
The initial margin is posted with a third party.
Collateral significantly reduces credit risk in the bilaterally cleared OTC market (and so
the use of CCPs for standard transactions between financial institutions and regulations requiring initial margin for other transactions between financial institutions should reduce risks for the financial system). Collateral agreements were used by hedge fund Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) for its bilaterally cleared derivatives in the 1990s. The agreements allowed LTCM to be highly levered. They did provide credit protection, but as described in Business Snapshot 2.2, the high leverage left the hedge fund exposed to other risks.
Figure 2.2 illustrates the way bilateral and central clearing work. (It makes the
simplifying assumption that there are only eight market participants and one CCP).
Under bilateral clearing there are many different agreements between market partici-Business Snapshot 2.2 Long-Term Capital Managementās Big Loss
Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM), a hedge fund formed in the mid-1990s, always collateralized its bilaterally cleared transactions. The hedge fundās investment strategy was known as convergence arbitrage. A very simple example of what it might
do is the following. It would find two bonds, X and Y, issued by the same company that promised the same payoffs, with X being less liquid (i.e., less actively traded) than Y. The market places a value on liquidity. As a result the price of X would be less than the price of Y. LTCM would buy X, short Y, and wait, expecting the prices of the two bonds to converge at some future time.
When interest rates increased, the company expected both bonds to move down in
price by about the same amount, so that the collateral it paid on bond X would be about the same as the collateral it received on bond Y. Similarly, when interest rates
decreased, LTCM expected both bonds to move up in price by about the same amount, so that the collateral it received on bond X would be about the same as the collateral it paid on bond Y. It therefore expected that there would be no significant outflow of funds as a result of its collateralization agreements.
In August 1998, Russia defaulted on its debt and this led to what is termed a
āflight to qualityā in capital markets. One result was that investors valued liquid instruments more highly than usual and the spreads between the prices of the liquid
and illiquid instruments in LTCMās portfolio increased dramatically. The prices of the bonds LTCM had bought went down and the prices of those it had shorted increased. It was required to post collateral on both. The company experienced difficulties because it was highly leveraged. Positions had to be closed out and LTCM
lost about $4 billion. If the company had been less highly leveraged, it would
probably have been able to survive the flight to quality and could have waited for
the prices of the liquid and illiquid bonds to move back closer to each other.
4 For both this regulation and the regulation requiring standard transactions between financial institutions to
be cleared through CCPs, āfinancial institutionsā include banks, insurance companies, pension funds, and
hedge funds. Transactions with most nonfinancial corporations and some foreign exchange transactions are exempt from the regulations.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 57
pants, as indicated in Figure 2.2a. If all OTC contracts were cleared through a single
CCP , we would move to the situation shown in Figure 2.2b. In practice, because not all OTC transactions are routed through CCPs and there is more than one CCP , the market has elements of both Figure 2.2a and Figure 2.2b.
5
Futures Trades vs. OTC Trades
Regardless of how transactions are cleared, initial margin when provided in the form of
cash usually earns interest. The daily variation margin provided by a clearing house member for futures contracts does not earn interest. This is because the variation margin constitutes the daily settlement. Transactions in the OTC market, whether cleared through CCPs or cleared bilaterally, are usually not settled daily. For this
reason, the daily variation margin that is provided by the member of a CCP or, as a result of a CSA, earns interest when it is in the form of cash.
Securities can be often be used to satisfy margin/collateral requirements.
Margin Mechanics and Market Quotes
- Initial margin in cash typically earns interest, whereas daily variation margin for futures does not because it represents a final daily settlement.
- Over-the-counter (OTC) transactions differ from futures in that their variation margin usually earns interest when provided in cash due to the lack of daily settlement.
- Collateral value is often adjusted by a 'haircut,' which is a percentage reduction in the market value of securities used to satisfy margin requirements.
- The settlement price is a critical metric calculated at the end of the trading day to determine the specific gains or losses debited or credited to margin accounts.
- Market quotes for commodities like gold include specific data points such as opening prices, daily highs and lows, and the most recent trading price.
The market value of the securities is reduced by a certain amount to determine their value for margin purposes; this reduction is known as a haircut.
Regardless of how transactions are cleared, initial margin when provided in the form of
cash usually earns interest. The daily variation margin provided by a clearing house member for futures contracts does not earn interest. This is because the variation margin constitutes the daily settlement. Transactions in the OTC market, whether cleared through CCPs or cleared bilaterally, are usually not settled daily. For this
reason, the daily variation margin that is provided by the member of a CCP or, as a result of a CSA, earns interest when it is in the form of cash.
Securities can be often be used to satisfy margin/collateral requirements.
6 The market
value of the securities is reduced by a certain amount to determine their value for margin purposes. This reduction is known as a haircut.Figure 2.2 (a) The traditional way in which OTC markets have operated: a series of
bilateral agreements between market participants; (b) how OTC markets would operate with a single central counterparty (CCP) acting as a clearing house.
(a) (b)CCP
5 The impact of CCPs on credit risk depends on the number of CCPs and proportions of all trades that are
cleared through them. See D. Duffie and H. Zhu, āDoes a Central Clearing Counterparty Reduce
Counterparty Risk?, ā Review of Asset Pricing Studies, 1 (2011): 74ā95.
6 As already mentioned, the variation margin for futures contracts must be provided in the form of cash.2.6 MARKET QUOTES
Futures quotes are available from exchanges and several online sources. Table 2.2 is
constructed from quotes provided by the CME Group for a number of different commodities on May 21, 2020. Quotes for index, currency, and interest rate futures
are given in Chapters 3, 5, and 6, respectively.
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58 CHAPTER 2
The asset underlying the futures contract, the contract size, and the way the price is
quoted are shown at the top of each section of Table 2.2. The first asset is gold. The
contract size is 100 ounces and the price is quoted as dollars per ounce. The maturity month of the contract is indicated in the first column of the table.
Prices
The first three numbers in each row of Table 2.2 show the opening price, the highest price in trading so far during the day, and the lowest price in trading so far during the day. The opening price is representative of the prices at which contracts were trading immediately after the start of trading on a day. For the June 2020 gold contract, the opening price on May 21, 2020 was $1,751.7 per ounce. The highest price during the day was also $1,751.7 per ounce and the lowest price during the day was $1,713.3 per ounce.
Settlement Price
The settlement price is the price used for calculating daily gains and losses and margin
requirements. It is usually calculated as the price at which the contract traded im-mediately before the end of a dayās trading session. The fourth number in Table 2.2 shows the settlement price the previous day. The fifth number shows the most recent
trading price, and the sixth number shows the price change from the previous dayās settlement price. In the case of the June 2020 gold contract, the previous dayās
settlement price was $1,752.1. The most recent trade was at $1,725.5, $26.6 lower than
the previous dayās settlement price. If $1,725.5 proved to be the settlement price on May
21, 2020, the margin account of a trader with a long position in one contract would lose
2,660 on May 21, 2020 and the margin account of a trader with a short position in one contract would gain this amount on that date.
Trading Volume and Open Interest
Futures Pricing and Market Patterns
- The settlement price is a critical metric used to calculate daily gains, losses, and margin requirements for traders.
- Trading volume represents the total number of contracts traded in a day, while open interest measures the total number of outstanding positions.
- High activity from day traders can cause daily trading volume to exceed the total open interest at the beginning or end of a session.
- Markets are classified as 'normal' when futures prices increase with maturity and 'inverted' when prices decrease as the contract date extends.
- Commodities like gold and crude oil often exhibit normal market patterns, whereas soybeans and cattle can show mixed behaviors across different maturities.
If there is a large amount of trading by day traders (i.e., traders who enter into a position and close it out on the same day), the volume of trading in a day can be greater than either the beginning-of-day or end-of-day open interest.
The settlement price is the price used for calculating daily gains and losses and margin
requirements. It is usually calculated as the price at which the contract traded im-mediately before the end of a dayās trading session. The fourth number in Table 2.2 shows the settlement price the previous day. The fifth number shows the most recent
trading price, and the sixth number shows the price change from the previous dayās settlement price. In the case of the June 2020 gold contract, the previous dayās
settlement price was $1,752.1. The most recent trade was at $1,725.5, $26.6 lower than
the previous dayās settlement price. If $1,725.5 proved to be the settlement price on May
21, 2020, the margin account of a trader with a long position in one contract would lose
2,660 on May 21, 2020 and the margin account of a trader with a short position in one contract would gain this amount on that date.
Trading Volume and Open Interest
The final column of Table 2.2 shows the trading volume. The trading volume is the number of contracts traded in a day. It can be contrasted with the open interest, which is
the number of contracts outstanding, that is, the number of long positions or, equiva-
lently, the number of short positions.
If there is a large amount of trading by day traders (i.e., traders who enter into a
position and close it out on the same day), the volume of trading in a day can be greater than either the beginning-of-day or end-of-day open interest.
Patterns of Futures
Futures prices can show a number of different patterns. They can increase with the maturity of the futures contract, decrease with the maturity of the futures contract, or
show a mixed pattern where the futures price sometimes increases and sometimes decreases with maturity. A futures market where prices increase with maturity is known as a normal market. A futures market where futures prices decrease with maturity is known as an inverted market. Table 2.2 indicates that gold, crude oil, corn, and wheat
exhibited a normal market on May 21, 2020 for the range of maturities considered.
Soyabeans and live cattle exhibit a mixture of the two patterns: normal for some
maturity ranges and inverted for others.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 59
Open High Low Prior
settlementLast
tradeChange Volume
Gold 100 oz, $ per oz
June 2020 1751.7 1751.7 1715.3 1752.1 1725.5 -26.6 223,200
Aug. 2020 1765.3 1765.3 1731.2 1765.6 1740.7 -24.9 54,503
Oct. 2020 1768.0 1768.8 1739.0 1774.0 1747.4 -26.6 2,559
Dec. 2020 1778.8 1779.8 1743.8 1781.7 1752.7 -29.0 5,280
Dec. 2021 1779.0 1779.0 1755.1 1790.7 1757.2 -33.5 345
Crude Oil 1000 barrels, $ per barrelJuly 2020 33.53 34.66 33.26 33.49 33.96
+0.47 356,081
Aug. 2020 33.93 35.05 33.78 33.94 34.40 +0.46 118,534
Dec. 2020 35.18 36.08 35.06 35.23 35.76 +0.53 78,825
Dec. 2021 37.87 38.49 37.78 37.91 38.15 +0.24 22,542
Dec. 2022 40.30 40.74 39.92 40.27 40.24 -0.03 3,732
Corn 5000 bushels, cents per bushelJuly 2020 317.75 320.25 316.25 319.50 318.00
-1.50 104,099
Sept. 2020 323.50 325.00 321.25 324.25 323.00 -1.25 25,967
Dec. 2020 333.25 334.50 331.00 334.00 333.00 -1.00 32,855
Mar. 2021 346.00 347.00 344.00 346.50 345.75 -0.75 4,449
May 2021 353.75 354.50 351.50 354.00 353.50 -0.50 1,077
Dec. 2021 365.25 365.75 363.50 365.75 365.75 0.00 2,775
Soybeans 5000 bushels, cents per bushel
July 2020 835.00 848.50 833.75 846.75 835.25 -11.50 89,375
Sept. 2020 849.25 851.50 839.00 849.75 840.50 -9.25 5,502
Nov. 2020 851.50 856.00 844.00 854.00 846.25 -7.75 42,274
Jan. 2021 856.75 859.00 847.75 857.00 849.75 -7.25 9,173
Mar. 2021 850.25 852.75 843.00 850.25 844.75 -5.50 13,531
May 2021 846.50 851.00 842.50 848.25 844.25 -4.00 3,736
July 2021 855.50 858.25 850.50 855.75 852.25 -3.50 1,953
Wheat 5000 bushels, cents per bushel
July 2020 520.00 524.00 512.00 513.75 515.75 +2.00 72,667
Sept. 2020 520.75 525.00 514.50 515.25 518.50 +3.25 26,565
Futures Delivery Procedures
- While most futures contracts are closed out early, the possibility of physical delivery is what ultimately determines the futures price.
- The party with the short position holds the power to decide when delivery occurs and must issue a notice of intention to the exchange clearing house.
- The exchange typically assigns the delivery obligation to the trader holding the oldest outstanding long position, rather than the original counterparty.
- Traders with long positions must close their contracts before the first notice day to avoid the costs and logistics of taking physical possession of assets.
- Physical delivery involves warehouse receipts for commodities or wire transfers for financial instruments, with prices adjusted for grade and location.
It is important to realize that there is no reason to expect that it will be trader B who takes delivery.
July 2020 835.00 848.50 833.75 846.75 835.25 -11.50 89,375
Sept. 2020 849.25 851.50 839.00 849.75 840.50 -9.25 5,502
Nov. 2020 851.50 856.00 844.00 854.00 846.25 -7.75 42,274
Jan. 2021 856.75 859.00 847.75 857.00 849.75 -7.25 9,173
Mar. 2021 850.25 852.75 843.00 850.25 844.75 -5.50 13,531
May 2021 846.50 851.00 842.50 848.25 844.25 -4.00 3,736
July 2021 855.50 858.25 850.50 855.75 852.25 -3.50 1,953
Wheat 5000 bushels, cents per bushel
July 2020 520.00 524.00 512.00 513.75 515.75 +2.00 72,667
Sept. 2020 520.75 525.00 514.50 515.25 518.50 +3.25 26,565
Dec. 2020 528.00 532.25 523.00 522.75 526.50 +3.75 18,522
Mar. 2021 531.75 538.75 530.25 530.00 534.50 +4.50 6,020
May 2021 535.50 540.25 532.75 532.75 537.00 +4.25 1,333
Live Cattle 40,000 lbs, cents per lbJune 2020 98.775 99.200 97.975 98.400 98.650
+0.250 6,567
Oct. 2020 99.800 99.975 98.775 99.625 99.800 +0.175 6,875
Dec. 2020 102.750 102.950 102.050 102.725 102.800 +0.075 5,511
June 2021 101.750 102.750 101.625 101.975 102.675 +0.700 290Table 2.2 Futures quotes for a selection of CME Group contracts on commodities
on May 21, 2020.
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60 CHAPTER 2
As mentioned earlier in this chapter, very few of the futures contracts that are entered
into lead to delivery of the underlying asset. Most are closed out early. Nevertheless, it
is the possibility of eventual delivery that determines the futures price. An under -
standing of delivery procedures is therefore important.
The period during which delivery can be made is defined by the exchange and varies
from contract to contract. The decision on when to deliver is made by the party with the short position, whom we shall refer to as trader A. When trader A decides to
deliver, trader A ās broker issues a notice of intention to deliver to the exchange clearing house. This notice states how many contracts will be delivered and, in the case of
commodities, also specifies where delivery will be made and what grade will be
delivered. The exchange then chooses a party with a long position to accept delivery.
Suppose that the party on the other side of trader A ās futures contract when it was
entered into was trader B. It is important to realize that there is no reason to expect that it will be trader B who takes delivery. Trader B may well have closed out his or
her position by trading with trader C, trader C may have closed out his or her
position by trading with trader D, and so on. The usual rule chosen by the exchange is to pass the notice of intention to deliver on to the party with the oldest outstanding long position. Parties with long positions must accept delivery notices. However, if the
notices are transferable, traders with long positions usually have a short period of time to find another party with a long position that is prepared to take delivery in place of them.
In the case of a commodity, taking delivery usually means accepting a warehouse
receipt in return for immediate payment. The party taking delivery is then responsible for all warehousing costs. In the case of livestock futures, there may be costs associated with feeding and looking after the animals (see Business Snapshot 2.1). In the case of financial futures, delivery is usually made by wire transfer. For all contracts, the price paid is usually the most recent settlement price. If specified by the exchange, this price is
adjusted for grade, location of delivery, and so on.
There are three critical days for a contract. These are the first notice day, the last
notice day, and the last trading day. The first notice day is the first day on which a notice of intention to make delivery can be submitted to the exchange. The last notice day is
the last such day. The last trading day is generally a few days before the last notice day. To avoid the risk of having to take delivery, a trader with a long position should close out his or her contracts prior to the first notice day.
Cash Settlement
Futures Delivery and Settlement
- While most futures contracts are closed out early, the possibility of physical delivery is the fundamental mechanism that determines the futures price.
- The party with the short position holds the power to initiate delivery and specifies the quantity, grade, and location of the commodity.
- Exchanges typically assign delivery notices to the trader holding the oldest outstanding long position, who then becomes responsible for immediate payment and storage costs.
- Traders wishing to avoid the logistical burdens of physical delivery must close out their long positions before the first notice day.
- Certain financial futures, such as stock indices, utilize cash settlement because delivering the underlying physical assets would be logistically impossible or highly inconvenient.
The decision on when to deliver is made by the party with the short position, whom we shall refer to as trader A.
As mentioned earlier in this chapter, very few of the futures contracts that are entered
into lead to delivery of the underlying asset. Most are closed out early. Nevertheless, it
is the possibility of eventual delivery that determines the futures price. An under -
standing of delivery procedures is therefore important.
The period during which delivery can be made is defined by the exchange and varies
from contract to contract. The decision on when to deliver is made by the party with the short position, whom we shall refer to as trader A. When trader A decides to
deliver, trader A ās broker issues a notice of intention to deliver to the exchange clearing house. This notice states how many contracts will be delivered and, in the case of
commodities, also specifies where delivery will be made and what grade will be
delivered. The exchange then chooses a party with a long position to accept delivery.
Suppose that the party on the other side of trader A ās futures contract when it was
entered into was trader B. It is important to realize that there is no reason to expect that it will be trader B who takes delivery. Trader B may well have closed out his or
her position by trading with trader C, trader C may have closed out his or her
position by trading with trader D, and so on. The usual rule chosen by the exchange is to pass the notice of intention to deliver on to the party with the oldest outstanding long position. Parties with long positions must accept delivery notices. However, if the
notices are transferable, traders with long positions usually have a short period of time to find another party with a long position that is prepared to take delivery in place of them.
In the case of a commodity, taking delivery usually means accepting a warehouse
receipt in return for immediate payment. The party taking delivery is then responsible for all warehousing costs. In the case of livestock futures, there may be costs associated with feeding and looking after the animals (see Business Snapshot 2.1). In the case of financial futures, delivery is usually made by wire transfer. For all contracts, the price paid is usually the most recent settlement price. If specified by the exchange, this price is
adjusted for grade, location of delivery, and so on.
There are three critical days for a contract. These are the first notice day, the last
notice day, and the last trading day. The first notice day is the first day on which a notice of intention to make delivery can be submitted to the exchange. The last notice day is
the last such day. The last trading day is generally a few days before the last notice day. To avoid the risk of having to take delivery, a trader with a long position should close out his or her contracts prior to the first notice day.
Cash Settlement
Some financial futures, such as those on stock indices discussed in Chapter 3, are settled in cash because it is inconvenient or impossible to deliver the underlying asset. In the case of the futures contract on the S&P 500, for example, delivering the underlying asset
would involve delivering a portfolio of 500 stocks. When a contract is settled in cash, all outstanding contracts are declared closed on a predetermined day. The final settlement price is set equal to the spot price of the underlying asset at either the open or close of trading on that day. For example, in the S&P 500 futures contract traded by the CME
Group, the predetermined day is the third Friday of the delivery month and final
settlement is at the opening price on that day.2.7 DELIVERY
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 61
There are two main types of traders executing trades: futures commission merchants
Settlement and Trader Classifications
- Cash settlement is utilized for financial futures like the S&P 500 when physical delivery of the underlying assets is impractical.
- Final settlement prices for cash-settled contracts are determined by the spot price of the asset on a specific predetermined day.
- Market participants are divided into futures commission merchants who act for clients and locals who trade for their own accounts.
- Speculators are further categorized by their time horizons into scalpers, day traders, and position traders.
- Scalpers seek to profit from minute price fluctuations, while position traders hold contracts long-term to capitalize on major market shifts.
Scalpers are watching for very short-term trends and attempt to profit from small changes in the contract price.
Some financial futures, such as those on stock indices discussed in Chapter 3, are settled in cash because it is inconvenient or impossible to deliver the underlying asset. In the case of the futures contract on the S&P 500, for example, delivering the underlying asset
would involve delivering a portfolio of 500 stocks. When a contract is settled in cash, all outstanding contracts are declared closed on a predetermined day. The final settlement price is set equal to the spot price of the underlying asset at either the open or close of trading on that day. For example, in the S&P 500 futures contract traded by the CME
Group, the predetermined day is the third Friday of the delivery month and final
settlement is at the opening price on that day.2.7 DELIVERY
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 61
There are two main types of traders executing trades: futures commission merchants
(FCMs) and locals. FCMs are following the instructions of their clients and charge a commission for doing so; locals are trading on their own account.
Individuals taking positions, whether locals or the clients of FCMs, can be categor -
ized as hedgers, speculators, or arbitrageurs, as discussed in Chapter 1. Speculators can be classified as scalpers, day traders, or position traders. Scalpers are watching for very short-term trends and attempt to profit from small changes in the contract price. They usually hold their positions for only a few minutes. Day traders hold their positions for less than one trading day. They are unwilling to take the risk that adverse news will occur overnight. Position traders hold their positions for much longer periods of time. They hope to make significant profits from major movements in the markets.
Orders
Trader Classifications and Order Types
- Speculators are categorized by their time horizons into scalpers, day traders, and position traders.
- Market orders prioritize immediate execution at the best available price, while limit orders prioritize price certainty over execution.
- Stop orders act as a risk management tool by converting into market orders once a specific price threshold is breached.
- Market-if-touched (MIT) orders are strategically used to lock in profits when favorable price movements occur.
- Discretionary orders allow brokers to delay execution if they believe they can secure a more advantageous price for the client.
Scalpers are watching for very short-term trends and attempt to profit from small changes in the contract price.
(FCMs) and locals. FCMs are following the instructions of their clients and charge a commission for doing so; locals are trading on their own account.
Individuals taking positions, whether locals or the clients of FCMs, can be categor -
ized as hedgers, speculators, or arbitrageurs, as discussed in Chapter 1. Speculators can be classified as scalpers, day traders, or position traders. Scalpers are watching for very short-term trends and attempt to profit from small changes in the contract price. They usually hold their positions for only a few minutes. Day traders hold their positions for less than one trading day. They are unwilling to take the risk that adverse news will occur overnight. Position traders hold their positions for much longer periods of time. They hope to make significant profits from major movements in the markets.
Orders
The simplest type of order placed with a broker is a market order. It is a request that a trade be carried out immediately at the best price available in the market. However, there are many other types of orders. We will consider those that are more commonly used.
A limit order specifies a particular price. The order can be executed only at this price
or at one more favorable to the trader. Thus, if the limit price is $30 for a trader wanting to buy, the order will be executed only at a price of $30 or less. There is, of course, no guarantee that the order will be executed at all, because the limit price may never be reached.
A stop order or stop-loss order also specifies a particular price. The order is executed
at the best available price once a bid or ask is made at that particular price or a less- favorable price. Suppose a stop order to sell at $30 is issued when the market price is $35. It becomes an order to sell when and if the price falls to $30. In effect, a stop order becomes a market order as soon as the specified price has been hit. The purpose of a stop order is usually to close out a position if unfavorable price movements take place. It limits the loss that can be incurred.
A stopālimit order is a combination of a stop order and a limit order. The order
becomes a limit order as soon as a bid or ask is made at a price equal to or less favorable than the stop price. Two prices must be specified in a stopālimit order: the stop price and
the limit price. Suppose that at the time the market price is $35, a stopālimit order to buy is issued with a stop price of $40 and a limit price of $41. As soon as there is a bid or
ask at $40, the stopālimit becomes a limit order at $41. If the stop price and the limit price are the same, the order is sometimes called a stop-and-limit order.
A market-if-touched (MIT) order is executed at the best available price after a trade
occurs at a specified price or at a price more favorable than the specified price. In effect, an MIT becomes a market order once the specified price has been hit. An MIT is also known as a board order. Consider a trader who has a long position in a futures contract and is issuing instructions that would lead to closing out the contract. A stop order is designed to place a limit on the loss that can occur in the event of unfavorable price movements. By contrast, a market-if-touched order is designed to ensure that profits are
taken if sufficiently favorable price movements occur.
A discretionary order or market-not-held order is traded as a market order except that
execution may be delayed at the brokerās discretion in an attempt to get a better price.2.8 TYPES OF TRADERS AND TYPES OF ORDERS
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62 CHAPTER 2
Trading Order Types
- Market orders prioritize immediate execution at the best available price, while limit orders prioritize price control by setting a specific threshold for execution.
- Stop orders act as loss-prevention tools by converting into market orders once a specific unfavorable price level is triggered.
- Market-if-touched orders are strategically used to lock in profits by triggering a market order when a favorable price target is reached.
- Complex order types like stop-limit and discretionary orders allow traders to combine price triggers with execution constraints or broker judgment.
- Orders can be further defined by time constraints, ranging from immediate fill-or-kill instructions to open orders that remain active until canceled.
A fill-or-kill order, as its name implies, must be executed immediately on receipt or not at all.
The simplest type of order placed with a broker is a market order. It is a request that a trade be carried out immediately at the best price available in the market. However, there are many other types of orders. We will consider those that are more commonly used.
A limit order specifies a particular price. The order can be executed only at this price
or at one more favorable to the trader. Thus, if the limit price is $30 for a trader wanting to buy, the order will be executed only at a price of $30 or less. There is, of course, no guarantee that the order will be executed at all, because the limit price may never be reached.
A stop order or stop-loss order also specifies a particular price. The order is executed
at the best available price once a bid or ask is made at that particular price or a less- favorable price. Suppose a stop order to sell at $30 is issued when the market price is $35. It becomes an order to sell when and if the price falls to $30. In effect, a stop order becomes a market order as soon as the specified price has been hit. The purpose of a stop order is usually to close out a position if unfavorable price movements take place. It limits the loss that can be incurred.
A stopālimit order is a combination of a stop order and a limit order. The order
becomes a limit order as soon as a bid or ask is made at a price equal to or less favorable than the stop price. Two prices must be specified in a stopālimit order: the stop price and
the limit price. Suppose that at the time the market price is $35, a stopālimit order to buy is issued with a stop price of $40 and a limit price of $41. As soon as there is a bid or
ask at $40, the stopālimit becomes a limit order at $41. If the stop price and the limit price are the same, the order is sometimes called a stop-and-limit order.
A market-if-touched (MIT) order is executed at the best available price after a trade
occurs at a specified price or at a price more favorable than the specified price. In effect, an MIT becomes a market order once the specified price has been hit. An MIT is also known as a board order. Consider a trader who has a long position in a futures contract and is issuing instructions that would lead to closing out the contract. A stop order is designed to place a limit on the loss that can occur in the event of unfavorable price movements. By contrast, a market-if-touched order is designed to ensure that profits are
taken if sufficiently favorable price movements occur.
A discretionary order or market-not-held order is traded as a market order except that
execution may be delayed at the brokerās discretion in an attempt to get a better price.2.8 TYPES OF TRADERS AND TYPES OF ORDERS
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62 CHAPTER 2
Some orders specify time conditions. Unless otherwise stated, an order is a day order
and expires at the end of the trading day. A time-of-day order specifies a particular
period of time during the day when the order can be executed. An open order or a good- till-canceled order is in effect until executed or until the end of trading in the particular contract. A fill-or-kill order, as its name implies, must be executed immediately on
receipt or not at all.
2.9 REGULATION
Futures Regulation and Market Irregularities
- Trading orders in futures markets are defined by specific time conditions, ranging from day orders to immediate fill-or-kill instructions.
- The Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) and the National Futures Association (NFA) provide federal and industry-led oversight to prevent fraud.
- The Dodd-Frank Act significantly expanded the CFTC's authority to include the regulation of standard over-the-counter derivatives and swap execution facilities.
- Market manipulation can occur when a trader group attempts to corner the market by controlling both long positions and the physical supply of a commodity.
- Cornering the market forces short position holders into a desperate situation, causing artificial spikes in both futures and spot prices.
A fill-or-kill order, as its name implies, must be executed immediately on receipt or not at all.
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62 CHAPTER 2
Some orders specify time conditions. Unless otherwise stated, an order is a day order
and expires at the end of the trading day. A time-of-day order specifies a particular
period of time during the day when the order can be executed. An open order or a good- till-canceled order is in effect until executed or until the end of trading in the particular contract. A fill-or-kill order, as its name implies, must be executed immediately on
receipt or not at all.
2.9 REGULATION
Futures markets in the United States are currently regulated federally by the Commod-ity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC; www.cftc.gov), which was established
in 1974.
The CFTC looks after the public interest. It is responsible for ensuring that prices are
communicated to the public and that futures traders report their outstanding positions if they are above certain levels. The CFTC also licenses all individuals who offer their services to the public in futures trading. The backgrounds of these individuals are
investigated, and there are minimum capital requirements. The CFTC deals with complaints brought by the public and ensures that disciplinary action is taken against individuals when appropriate. It has the authority to force exchanges to take disciplin-ary action against members who are in violation of exchange rules.
With the formation of the National Futures Association (NFA; www.nfa.futures.
org) in 1982, some of responsibilities of the CFTC were shifted to the futures industry
itself. The NFA is an organization of individuals who participate in the futures
industry. Its objective is to prevent fraud and to ensure that the market operates in
the best interests of the general public. It is authorized to monitor trading and take disciplinary action when appropriate. The agency has set up an efficient system for arbitrating disputes between individuals and its members.
The DoddāFrank act, signed into law by President Obama in 2010, expanded the role
of the CFTC. For example, it is now responsible for rules requiring that standard over-the-counter derivatives between financial institutions be traded on swap execution facilities and cleared through central counterparties (see Section 1.2).
Trading Irregularities
Most of the time futures markets operate efficiently and in the public interest. However,
from time to time, trading irregularities do come to light. One type of trading irregularity occurs when a trader group tries to ācorner the market. ā
7 The trader group
takes a huge long futures position and also tries to exercise some control over the supply of the underlying commodity. As the maturity of the futures contracts is approached, the trader group does not close out its position, so that the number of outstanding futures contracts may exceed the amount of the commodity available for delivery. The holders of short positions realize that they will find it difficult to deliver and become desperate to close out their positions. The result is a large rise in both futures and spot prices. Regulators usually deal with this type of abuse of the market by
7 Possibly the best known example of this was the attempt by the Hunt brothers to corner the silver market in
1979ā80. Between the middle of 1979 and the beginning of 1980, their activities led to a price rise from $6 per
ounce to $50 per ounce.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 63
The full details of the accounting and tax treatment of futures contracts are beyond the
scope of this book. A trader who wants detailed information on this should obtain
professional advice. This section provides some general background information.
Accounting
Market Manipulation and Regulation
- Market corners occur when a trader takes a massive long position while simultaneously controlling the supply of the underlying commodity.
- Regulators combat market abuse by increasing margin requirements, imposing position limits, or forcing the closure of speculative positions.
- Accounting standards distinguish between speculative trades and hedges, with hedge accounting allowing gains or losses to be deferred to the period of the underlying transaction.
- Taxation of futures depends on whether gains are classified as ordinary income or capital gains, with specific rules for carrying losses forward or backward.
- The Hunt brothers' attempt to corner the silver market in 1979ā80 serves as a primary historical example of extreme price distortion through futures manipulation.
The holders of short positions realize that they will find it difficult to deliver and become desperate to close out their positions.
takes a huge long futures position and also tries to exercise some control over the supply of the underlying commodity. As the maturity of the futures contracts is approached, the trader group does not close out its position, so that the number of outstanding futures contracts may exceed the amount of the commodity available for delivery. The holders of short positions realize that they will find it difficult to deliver and become desperate to close out their positions. The result is a large rise in both futures and spot prices. Regulators usually deal with this type of abuse of the market by
7 Possibly the best known example of this was the attempt by the Hunt brothers to corner the silver market in
1979ā80. Between the middle of 1979 and the beginning of 1980, their activities led to a price rise from $6 per
ounce to $50 per ounce.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 63
The full details of the accounting and tax treatment of futures contracts are beyond the
scope of this book. A trader who wants detailed information on this should obtain
professional advice. This section provides some general background information.
Accounting
Accounting standards require changes in the market value of a futures contract to be
recognized when they occur unless the contract qualifies as a hedge. If the contract does qualify as a hedge, gains or losses are generally recognized for accounting purposes in the same period in which the gains or losses from the item being hedged are recognized. The latter treatment is referred to as hedge accounting.
Consider a company with a December year end. In September 2020 it buys a March
2021 corn futures contract and closes out the position at the end of February 2021. Suppose that the futures prices are 350 cents per bushel when the contract is entered
into, 370 cents per bushel at the end of 2020, and 380 cents per bushel when the contract is closed out. The contract is for the delivery of 5,000 bushels. If the contract
does not qualify as a hedge, the gains for accounting purposes are
5,000*13.70-3.502=+1,000
in 2020 and
5,000*13.80-3.702=+500
in 2021. If the company is hedging the purchase of 5,000 bushels of corn in February 2021 so that the contract qualifies for hedge accounting, the entire gain of $1,500 is realized in 2021 for accounting purposes.
The treatment of hedging gains and losses is sensible. If the company is hedging the
purchase of 5,000 bushels of corn in February 2021, the effect of the futures contract is to ensure that the price paid (inclusive of the futures gain or loss) is close to 350 cents per bushel. The accounting treatment reflects that this price is paid in 2021.
The Financial Accounting Standards Board has issued FAS 133 and ASC 815
explaining when companies can and cannot use hedge accounting. The International Accounting Standards Board has similarly issued IAS 39 and IFRS 9.
Tax
Under the U.S. tax rules, two key issues are the nature of a taxable gain or loss and the timing of the recognition of the gain or loss. Gains or losses are either classified as capital gains or losses or alternatively as part of ordinary income.
For a corporate taxpayer, capital gains are taxed at the same rate as ordinary income,
and the ability to deduct losses is restricted. Capital losses are deductible only to the
extent of capital gains. A corporation may carry back a capital loss for three years and carry it forward for up to five years. For a noncorporate taxpayer, short-term capital increasing margin requirements or imposing stricter position limits or prohibiting trades
that increase a speculatorās open position or requiring market participants to close out
their positions.
2.10 ACCOUNTING AND TAX
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64 CHAPTER 2
Taxation and Contract Differences
- U.S. tax rules classify gains and losses as either capital or ordinary income, with distinct rules for corporate and noncorporate taxpayers.
- Noncorporate taxpayers benefit from the '60/40' rule for futures contracts, where 60% of gains are treated as long-term and 40% as short-term regardless of the actual holding period.
- Hedging transactions are exempt from standard capital gain rules and are instead treated as ordinary income to match the timing of the underlying business expense.
- Forward contracts are customized over-the-counter agreements, whereas futures contracts are standardized, exchange-traded, and settled daily.
- The tax code requires hedging transactions to be clearly identified in a company's records in a timely manner to qualify for specific accounting treatments.
For the noncorporate taxpayer, this gives rise to capital gains and losses that are treated as if they were 60% long term and 40% short term without regard to the holding period.
Under the U.S. tax rules, two key issues are the nature of a taxable gain or loss and the timing of the recognition of the gain or loss. Gains or losses are either classified as capital gains or losses or alternatively as part of ordinary income.
For a corporate taxpayer, capital gains are taxed at the same rate as ordinary income,
and the ability to deduct losses is restricted. Capital losses are deductible only to the
extent of capital gains. A corporation may carry back a capital loss for three years and carry it forward for up to five years. For a noncorporate taxpayer, short-term capital increasing margin requirements or imposing stricter position limits or prohibiting trades
that increase a speculatorās open position or requiring market participants to close out
their positions.
2.10 ACCOUNTING AND TAX
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64 CHAPTER 2
gains are taxed at the same rate as ordinary income, but long-term capital gains are
subject to a maximum capital gains tax rate of 20%. (Long-term capital gains are gains from the sale of a capital asset held for longer than one year; short-term capital gains are the gains from the sale of a capital asset held one year or less.) Taxpayers earning income above certain thresholds pay an additional 3.8% on all investment income. For a noncorporate taxpayer, capital losses are deductible to the extent of capital gains plus ordinary income up to $3,000 and can be carried forward indefinitely.
Generally, positions in futures contracts are treated as if they are closed out on the
last day of the tax year. For the noncorporate taxpayer, this gives rise to capital gains and losses that are treated as if they were 60% long term and 40% short term without regard to the holding period. This is referred to as the ā
60>40ā rule. A noncorporate
taxpayer may elect to carry back for three years any net losses from the 60>40 rule to
offset any gains recognized under the rule in the previous three years.
Hedging transactions are exempt from this rule. The definition of a hedge transaction
for tax purposes is different from that for accounting purposes. The tax regulations define a hedging transaction as a transaction entered into in the normal course of business primarily for one of the following reasons:
1. To reduce the risk of price changes or currency fluctuations with respect to
property that is held or to be held by the taxpayer for the purposes of producing
ordinary income
2. To reduce the risk of price or interest rate changes or currency fluctuations with respect to borrowings made by the taxpayer.
A hedging transaction must be clearly identified in a timely manner in the companyās records as a hedge. Gains or losses from hedging transactions are treated as ordinary income. The timing of the recognition of gains or losses from hedging transactions generally matches the timing of the recognition of income or expense associated with
the transaction being hedged.
2.11 FORWARD vs. FUTURES CONTRACTS
The main differences between forward and futures contracts are summarized in Table 2.3. Both contracts are agreements to buy or sell an asset for a certain price at a certain future
time. A forward contract is traded in the over-the-counter market and there is no
standard contract size or standard delivery arrangements. A single delivery date is usually
specified and the contract is usually held to the end of its life and then settled. A futures contract is a standardized contract traded on an exchange. A range of delivery dates is usually specified. It is settled daily and usually closed out prior to maturity.
Profits from Forward and Futures Contracts
Forward vs Futures Contracts
- Forward contracts are private, non-standardized agreements traded over-the-counter, whereas futures are standardized and exchange-traded.
- A critical distinction lies in settlement: forwards are settled at the end of the contract's life, while futures are settled daily through a mark-to-market process.
- While both contracts can result in the same total profit or loss, the timing of cash flows differs significantly due to the daily realization of gains in futures markets.
- Futures contracts are typically closed out before maturity through offsetting trades, yet the possibility of physical delivery remains the primary driver of price determination.
- Currency quotation conventions vary, with futures always quoted in USD per foreign unit, while forwards may follow spot market conventions like foreign units per USD.
Under the forward contract, the whole gain or loss is realized at the end of the life of the contract.
The main differences between forward and futures contracts are summarized in Table 2.3. Both contracts are agreements to buy or sell an asset for a certain price at a certain future
time. A forward contract is traded in the over-the-counter market and there is no
standard contract size or standard delivery arrangements. A single delivery date is usually
specified and the contract is usually held to the end of its life and then settled. A futures contract is a standardized contract traded on an exchange. A range of delivery dates is usually specified. It is settled daily and usually closed out prior to maturity.
Profits from Forward and Futures Contracts
Suppose that the sterling exchange rate for a 90-day forward contract is 1.2000 and that this rate is also the futures price for a contract that will be delivered in exactly 90 days. What is the difference between the gains and losses under the two contracts?
Under the forward contract, the whole gain or loss is realized at the end of the life
of the contract. Under the futures contract, the gain or loss is realized day by day because of the daily settlement procedures. Suppose that trader A is long £1 million in
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 65
Forward Futures
Private contract between two parties Traded on an exchange
Not standardized Standardized contract
Usually one specified delivery date Range of delivery dates
Settled at end of contract Settled daily
Delivery or final cash settlement
usually takes placeContract is usually closed out prior to maturity
Some credit risk Virtually no credit riskTable 2.3 Comparison of forward and futures contracts.
a 90-day forward contract and trader B is long £1 million in 90-day futures contracts. (Because each futures contract is for the purchase or sale of £62,500, trader B must purchase a total of 16 contracts.) Assume that the spot exchange rate in 90 days
proves to be 1.4000 dollars per pound. Trader A makes a gain of $200,000 on the 90th
day. Trader B makes the same gainābut spread out over the 90-day period. On some days trader B may realize a loss, whereas on other days he or she makes a gain.
However, in total, when losses are netted against gains, there is a gain of $200,000 over the 90-day period.
Foreign Exchange Quotes
Both forward and futures contracts trade actively on foreign currencies. However,
there is sometimes a difference in the way exchange rates are quoted in the two
markets. For example, futures prices where one currency is the U.S. dollar are always quoted as the number of U.S. dollars per unit of the foreign currency or as the
number of U.S. cents per unit of the foreign currency. Forward prices are always
quoted in the same way as spot prices. This means that, for the British pound, the
euro, the Australian dollar, and the New Zealand dollar, the forward quotes show the number of U.S. dollars per unit of the foreign currency and are directly comparable
with futures quotes. For other major currencies, forward quotes show the number of units of the foreign currency per U.S. dollar (USD). Consider the Canadian dollar (CAD). A futures price quote of 0.7500 USD per CAD corresponds to a forward price quote of 1.3333 CAD per USD
11.3333=1>0.75002.
SUMMARY
A very high proportion of the futures contracts that are traded do not lead to the
delivery of the underlying asset. Traders usually enter into offsetting contracts to close out their positions before the delivery period is reached. However, it is the possibility of
final delivery that drives the determination of the futures price. For each futures
contract, there is a range of days during which delivery can be made and a well-defined delivery procedure. Some contracts, such as those on stock indices, are settled in cash rather than by delivery of the underlying asset.
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66 CHAPTER 2
Futures and Forward Contracts
- Most futures contracts are closed out through offsetting positions rather than physical delivery, yet the threat of delivery remains the primary driver of market pricing.
- Exchanges standardize contract specifications, including delivery locations and trading hours, to ensure liquidity and regulatory compliance.
- Margin accounts and daily marking-to-market serve as critical safeguards against credit risk for both exchange-traded and centrally cleared derivatives.
- Central Counterparties (CCPs) now bridge the gap between exchange-traded and over-the-counter markets by requiring collateral and acting as an intermediary.
- Forward contracts are distinct private agreements that lack standardization and are typically settled only at the end of their life cycle.
However, it is the possibility of final delivery that drives the determination of the futures price.
A very high proportion of the futures contracts that are traded do not lead to the
delivery of the underlying asset. Traders usually enter into offsetting contracts to close out their positions before the delivery period is reached. However, it is the possibility of
final delivery that drives the determination of the futures price. For each futures
contract, there is a range of days during which delivery can be made and a well-defined delivery procedure. Some contracts, such as those on stock indices, are settled in cash rather than by delivery of the underlying asset.
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66 CHAPTER 2
The specification of contracts is an important activity for a futures exchange. The two
sides to any contract must know what can be delivered, where delivery can take place,
and when delivery can take place. They also need to know details on the trading hours, how prices will be quoted, maximum daily price movements, and so on. New contracts
must be approved by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission before trading
starts.
Margin accounts are an important aspect of futures markets. A trader keeps a margin
account with his or her broker. The account is adjusted daily to reflect gains or losses, and from time to time the broker may require the account to be topped up if adverse price movements have taken place. The broker either must be a clearing house member or must maintain a margin account with a clearing house member. Each clearing house member maintains a margin account with the exchange clearing house. The balance in the account is adjusted daily to reflect gains and losses on the business for which the clearing house member is responsible.
In over-the-counter derivatives markets, transactions are cleared either bilaterally or
centrally. When bilateral clearing is used, collateral frequently has to be posted by one or both parties to reduce credit risk. When central clearing is used, a central counter-
party (CCP) stands between the two sides. It requires each side to provide margin and performs much the same function as an exchange clearing house.
Forward contracts differ from futures contracts in a number of ways. Forward
contracts are private arrangements between two parties, whereas futures contracts are traded on exchanges. There is generally a single delivery date in a forward contract, whereas futures contracts frequently involve a range of such dates. Because they are not
traded on exchanges, forward contracts do not need to be standardized. A forward
contract is not usually settled until the end of its life, and most contracts do in fact lead to delivery of the underlying asset or a cash settlement at this time.
In the next few chapters we shall examine in more detail the ways in which forward
and futures contracts can be used for hedging. We shall also look at how forward and futures prices are determined.
FURTHER READING
Duffie, D., and H. Zhu. āDoes a Central Clearing Counterparty Reduce Counterparty Risk?ā
Review of Asset Pricing Studies, 1, 1 (2011): 74ā95.
Gastineau, G. L., D. J. Smith, and R. Todd. Risk Management, Derivatives, and Financial
Analysis under SFAS No. 133. The Research Foundation of AIMR and Blackwell Series in
Finance, 2001.
Hull, J. C. āCCPs, Their Risks and How They Can Be Reduced,ā Journal of Derivatives, 20, 1
(Fall 2012): 26ā29.
Jorion, P. āRisk Management Lessons from Long-Term Capital Management,ā European
Financial Management, 6, 3 (September 2000): 277ā300.
Kleinman, G. Trading Commodities and Financial Futures. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson,
2013.
Lowenstein, R. When Genius Failed: The Rise and Fall of Long-Term Capital Management. New
York: Random House, 2000.
Panaretou, A., M. B. Shackleton, and P . A. Taylor. āCorporate Risk Management and Hedge
Accounting, ā Contemporary Accounting Research, 30, 1 (Spring 2013): 116ā139.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 67
Futures Markets Practice Exercises
- The text presents a series of technical practice questions focused on the mechanics of futures contracts and margin requirements.
- Key concepts explored include the calculation of margin calls for both long and short positions based on initial and maintenance margin levels.
- The exercises distinguish between various order types such as stop orders, limit orders, and market-if-touched orders used in trading.
- Questions address the regulatory shift toward increased collateral requirements in over-the-counter markets following the 2008 financial crisis.
- The material covers the practicalities of delivery options, arbitrage opportunities, and the tax implications for hedgers versus speculators.
Explain why collateral requirements increased in the OTC market as a result of regulations introduced since the 2008 financial crisis.
Financial Management, 6, 3 (September 2000): 277ā300.
Kleinman, G. Trading Commodities and Financial Futures. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson,
2013.
Lowenstein, R. When Genius Failed: The Rise and Fall of Long-Term Capital Management. New
York: Random House, 2000.
Panaretou, A., M. B. Shackleton, and P . A. Taylor. āCorporate Risk Management and Hedge
Accounting, ā Contemporary Accounting Research, 30, 1 (Spring 2013): 116ā139.
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 67
Practice Questions
2.1. Suppose that you enter into a short futures contract to sell July silver for $17.20 per ounce.
The size of the contract is 5,000 ounces. The initial margin is $4,000, and the maintenance margin is $3,000. What change in the futures price will lead to a margin call? What happens if you do not meet the margin call?
2.2. Suppose that in September 2021 a company takes a long position in a contract on May 2022 crude oil futures. It closes out its position in March 2022. The futures price (per barrel) is $48.30 when it enters into the contract, $50.50 when it closes out its position,
and $49.10 at the end of December 2021. One contract is for the delivery of 1,000 barrels. What is the companyās total profit? When is it realized? How is it taxed if it is (a) a hedger and (b) a speculator? Assume that the company has a December 31 year end.
2.3. What does a stop order to sell at $2 mean? When might it be used? What does a limit order to sell at $2 mean? When might it be used?
2.4. What differences exist in the way prices are quoted in the foreign exchange futures market, the foreign exchange spot market, and the foreign exchange forward market?
2.5. The party with a short position in a futures contract sometimes has options as to the precise asset that will be delivered, where delivery will take place, when delivery will take
place, and so on. Do these options increase or decrease the futures price? Explain your reasoning.
2.6. Explain how margin accounts protect futures traders against the possibility of default.
2.7. A trader buys two July futures contracts on frozen orange juice concentrate. Each contract is for the delivery of 15,000 pounds. The current futures price is 160 cents per
pound, the initial margin is $6,000 per contract, and the maintenance margin is $4,500 per
contract. What price change would lead to a margin call? Under what circumstances could $2,000 be withdrawn from the margin account?
2.8. Show that, if the futures price of a commodity is greater than the spot price during the delivery period, then there is an arbitrage opportunity. Does an arbitrage opportunity exist if the futures price is less than the spot price? Explain your answer.
2.9. Explain the difference between a market-if-touched order and a stop order.
2.10. Explain what a stopālimit order to sell at 20.30 with a limit of 20.10 means.
2.11. At the end of one day a clearing house member is long 100 contracts, and the settlement
price is $50,000 per contract. The original margin is $2,000 per contract. On the following
day the member becomes responsible for clearing an additional 20 long contracts, entered
into at a price of $51,000 per contract. The settlement price at the end of this day is
$50,200. How much does the member have to add to its margin account with the
exchange clearing house?
2.12. Explain why collateral requirements increased in the OTC market as a result of regulations
introduced since the 2008 financial crisis.
2.13. The forward price of the Swiss franc for delivery in 45 days is quoted as 1.1000. The
futures price for a contract that will be delivered in 45 days is 0.9000. Explain these two quotes. Which is more favorable for a trader wanting to sell Swiss francs?
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68 CHAPTER 2
Futures Markets and Trading Mechanics
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems regarding margin calls, initial margins, and maintenance margins for futures contracts.
- It explores the operational differences between various order types, including stop orders, limit orders, and market-if-touched orders.
- The problems address the tax implications and profit realization timelines for both hedgers and speculators in the commodities market.
- The text examines the role of clearing houses and central counterparties (CCPs) in mitigating default risk through collateral requirements.
- It discusses the theoretical relationship between spot and futures prices, specifically identifying arbitrage opportunities when prices diverge during delivery.
Show that, if the futures price of a commodity is greater than the spot price during the delivery period, then there is an arbitrage opportunity.
2.1. Suppose that you enter into a short futures contract to sell July silver for $17.20 per ounce.
The size of the contract is 5,000 ounces. The initial margin is $4,000, and the maintenance margin is $3,000. What change in the futures price will lead to a margin call? What happens if you do not meet the margin call?
2.2. Suppose that in September 2021 a company takes a long position in a contract on May 2022 crude oil futures. It closes out its position in March 2022. The futures price (per barrel) is $48.30 when it enters into the contract, $50.50 when it closes out its position,
and $49.10 at the end of December 2021. One contract is for the delivery of 1,000 barrels. What is the companyās total profit? When is it realized? How is it taxed if it is (a) a hedger and (b) a speculator? Assume that the company has a December 31 year end.
2.3. What does a stop order to sell at $2 mean? When might it be used? What does a limit order to sell at $2 mean? When might it be used?
2.4. What differences exist in the way prices are quoted in the foreign exchange futures market, the foreign exchange spot market, and the foreign exchange forward market?
2.5. The party with a short position in a futures contract sometimes has options as to the precise asset that will be delivered, where delivery will take place, when delivery will take
place, and so on. Do these options increase or decrease the futures price? Explain your reasoning.
2.6. Explain how margin accounts protect futures traders against the possibility of default.
2.7. A trader buys two July futures contracts on frozen orange juice concentrate. Each contract is for the delivery of 15,000 pounds. The current futures price is 160 cents per
pound, the initial margin is $6,000 per contract, and the maintenance margin is $4,500 per
contract. What price change would lead to a margin call? Under what circumstances could $2,000 be withdrawn from the margin account?
2.8. Show that, if the futures price of a commodity is greater than the spot price during the delivery period, then there is an arbitrage opportunity. Does an arbitrage opportunity exist if the futures price is less than the spot price? Explain your answer.
2.9. Explain the difference between a market-if-touched order and a stop order.
2.10. Explain what a stopālimit order to sell at 20.30 with a limit of 20.10 means.
2.11. At the end of one day a clearing house member is long 100 contracts, and the settlement
price is $50,000 per contract. The original margin is $2,000 per contract. On the following
day the member becomes responsible for clearing an additional 20 long contracts, entered
into at a price of $51,000 per contract. The settlement price at the end of this day is
$50,200. How much does the member have to add to its margin account with the
exchange clearing house?
2.12. Explain why collateral requirements increased in the OTC market as a result of regulations
introduced since the 2008 financial crisis.
2.13. The forward price of the Swiss franc for delivery in 45 days is quoted as 1.1000. The
futures price for a contract that will be delivered in 45 days is 0.9000. Explain these two quotes. Which is more favorable for a trader wanting to sell Swiss francs?
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68 CHAPTER 2
2.14. Suppose you call your broker and issue instructions to sell one July hogs contract.
Describe what happens.
2.15. āSpeculation in futures markets is pure gambling. It is not in the public interest to allow
speculators to trade on a futures exchange. ā Discuss this viewpoint.
2.16. What do you think would happen if an exchange started trading a contract in which the
quality of the underlying asset was incompletely specified?
2.17. āWhen a futures contract is traded on the floor of the exchange, it may be the case that
the open interest increases by one, stays the same, or decreases by one.ā Explain this statement.
2.18. Suppose that, on October 24, 2022, a company sells one April 2023 live cattle futures
contract. It closes out its position on January 21, 2023. The futures price (per pound) is 121.20 cents when it enters into the contract, 118.30 cents when it closes out its position, and 118.80 cents at the end of December 2022. One contract is for the delivery of 40,000 pounds of cattle. What is the total profit? How is it taxed if the company is (a) a hedger and (b) a speculator? Assume that the company has a December 31 year end.
2.19. A cattle farmer expects to have 120,000 pounds of live cattle to sell in 3 months. The live
cattle futures contract traded by the CME Group is for the delivery of 40,000 pounds of cattle. How can the farmer use the contract for hedging? From the farmerās viewpoint, what are the pros and cons of hedging?
2.20. It is July 2021. A mining company has just discovered a small deposit of gold. It will
take 6 months to construct the mine. The gold will then be extracted on a more or less
continuous basis for 1 year. Futures contracts on gold are available with delivery
months every 2 months from August 2021 to December 2022. Each contract is for the delivery of 100 ounces. Discuss how the mining company might use futures markets for hedging.
2.21. Explain how CCPs work. What are the advantages to the financial system of requiring
Futures Markets and Counterparties
- The text presents a series of technical problems exploring the mechanics of futures contracts, including margin calls, daily settlement, and open interest fluctuations.
- It examines the practical application of hedging strategies for producers, such as cattle farmers and gold mining companies, to mitigate price risk.
- The role of Central Counterparties (CCPs) is highlighted as a critical mechanism for maintaining stability in standardized derivatives transactions.
- The exercises contrast the financial outcomes of futures versus forward contracts, specifically focusing on the impact of daily mark-to-market settlement.
- Ethical and economic debates are raised regarding the social utility of speculation versus gambling in public markets.
Speculation in futures markets is pure gambling. It is not in the public interest to allow speculators to trade on a futures exchange.
2.14. Suppose you call your broker and issue instructions to sell one July hogs contract.
Describe what happens.
2.15. āSpeculation in futures markets is pure gambling. It is not in the public interest to allow
speculators to trade on a futures exchange. ā Discuss this viewpoint.
2.16. What do you think would happen if an exchange started trading a contract in which the
quality of the underlying asset was incompletely specified?
2.17. āWhen a futures contract is traded on the floor of the exchange, it may be the case that
the open interest increases by one, stays the same, or decreases by one.ā Explain this statement.
2.18. Suppose that, on October 24, 2022, a company sells one April 2023 live cattle futures
contract. It closes out its position on January 21, 2023. The futures price (per pound) is 121.20 cents when it enters into the contract, 118.30 cents when it closes out its position, and 118.80 cents at the end of December 2022. One contract is for the delivery of 40,000 pounds of cattle. What is the total profit? How is it taxed if the company is (a) a hedger and (b) a speculator? Assume that the company has a December 31 year end.
2.19. A cattle farmer expects to have 120,000 pounds of live cattle to sell in 3 months. The live
cattle futures contract traded by the CME Group is for the delivery of 40,000 pounds of cattle. How can the farmer use the contract for hedging? From the farmerās viewpoint, what are the pros and cons of hedging?
2.20. It is July 2021. A mining company has just discovered a small deposit of gold. It will
take 6 months to construct the mine. The gold will then be extracted on a more or less
continuous basis for 1 year. Futures contracts on gold are available with delivery
months every 2 months from August 2021 to December 2022. Each contract is for the delivery of 100 ounces. Discuss how the mining company might use futures markets for hedging.
2.21. Explain how CCPs work. What are the advantages to the financial system of requiring
CCPs to be used for all standardized derivatives transactions between financial
institutions?
2.22. Trader A enters into futures contracts to buy 1 million euros for 1.1 million dollars in
three months. Trader B enters in a forward contract to do the same thing. The exchange rate (dollars per euro) declines sharply during the first two months and then increases for the third month to close at 1.1300. Ignoring daily settlement, what is the total profit of each trader? When the impact of daily settlement is taken into account, which trader has done better?
2.23. Explain what is meant by open interest. Why does the open interest usually decline during
the month preceding the delivery month? On a particular day, there were 2,000 trades in a
particular futures contract. This means that there were 2,000 buyers (going long) and 2,000 sellers (going short). Of the 2,000 buyers, 1,400 were closing out positions and 600 were entering into new positions. Of the 2,000 sellers, 1,200 were closing out positions and 800 were entering into new positions. What is the impact of the dayās trading on open interest?
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Futures Markets and Central Counterparties 69
2.24. A company enters into a short futures contract to sell 5,000 bushels of wheat for 750 cents
per bushel. The initial margin is $3,000 and the maintenance margin is $2,000. What price change would lead to a margin call? Under what circumstances could $1,500 be with-drawn from the margin account?
2.25. Suppose that there are no storage costs for crude oil and the interest rate for borrowing or
lending is 4% per annum. How could you make money if the June and December futures contracts for a particular year trade at $50 and $56, respectively?
2.26. What position is equivalent to a long forward contract to buy an asset at K on a certain
date and a put option to sell it for K on that date.
2.27. A bankās derivatives transactions with a counterparty are worth
Hedging Strategies Using Futures
- The primary goal of hedging in futures markets is to reduce or neutralize specific risks associated with price fluctuations in assets like oil, currency, or stocks.
- A perfect hedge, which completely eliminates risk, is rare in practice; most strategies focus on making the hedge as close to perfect as possible.
- The text introduces 'hedge-and-forget' strategies, where a position is taken at the start and closed at the end without any adjustments during its life.
- Short hedges are used by companies to offset potential losses from price decreases by ensuring gains on a futures position when the commodity price falls.
- Effective hedging involves determining the appropriate contract type, the optimal position size, and whether a long or short position is required.
A perfect hedge is one that completely eliminates the risk. Perfect hedges are rare.
2.24. A company enters into a short futures contract to sell 5,000 bushels of wheat for 750 cents
per bushel. The initial margin is $3,000 and the maintenance margin is $2,000. What price change would lead to a margin call? Under what circumstances could $1,500 be with-drawn from the margin account?
2.25. Suppose that there are no storage costs for crude oil and the interest rate for borrowing or
lending is 4% per annum. How could you make money if the June and December futures contracts for a particular year trade at $50 and $56, respectively?
2.26. What position is equivalent to a long forward contract to buy an asset at K on a certain
date and a put option to sell it for K on that date.
2.27. A bankās derivatives transactions with a counterparty are worth
++10 million to the bank
and are cleared bilaterally. The counterparty has posted $10 million of cash collateral.
What credit exposure does the bank have?
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70
Many of the participants in futures markets are hedgers. Their aim is to use futures
markets to reduce a particular risk that they face. This risk might relate to fluctuations in the price of oil, a foreign exchange rate, the level of the stock market, or some other variable. A perfect hedge is one that completely eliminates the risk. Perfect hedges are rare. For the most part, therefore, a study of hedging using futures contracts is a study of the ways in which hedges can be constructed so that they perform as close to perfectly as possible.
In this chapter we consider a number of general issues associated with the way hedges
are set up. When is a short futures position appropriate? When is a long futures
position appropriate? Which futures contract should be used? What is the optimal size of the futures position for reducing risk? At this stage, we restrict our attention to what might be termed hedge-and-forget strategies. We assume that no attempt is made to adjust the hedge once it has been put in place. The hedger simply takes a futures
position at the beginning of the life of the hedge and closes out the position at the end of the life of the hedge. In Chapter 19 we will examine dynamic hedging strategies in which the hedge is monitored closely and frequent adjustments are made.
The chapter initially treats futures contracts as forward contracts (that is, it ignores
daily settlement). Later it explains adjustments that are necessary to take account of the difference between futures and forwards.Hedging Strategies
Using Futures3 CHAPTER
When an individual or company chooses to use futures markets to hedge a risk, the objective is often to take a position that neutralizes the risk as far as possible.
Consider a company that knows it will gain $10,000 for each 1 cent increase in the price of a commodity over the next 3 months and lose $10,000 for each 1 cent decrease in the price during the same period. To hedge, the companyās treasurer should take a short futures position that is designed to offset this risk. The futures position should lead to a loss of $10,000 for each 1 cent increase in the price of the commodity over the 3 months and a gain of $10,000 for each 1 cent decrease in the price during this period. If the price of the commodity goes down, the gain on the futures position offsets the loss on the rest of the companyās business. If the price of the commodity 3.1 BASIC PRINCIPLES
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 71
goes up, the loss on the futures position is offset by the gain on the rest of the
companyās business.
Short Hedges
Principles of Short Hedging
- Hedging aims to neutralize financial risk by taking a futures position that offsets potential losses in a company's core business.
- A short hedge is specifically used when an entity already owns an asset or expects to own one that they intend to sell in the future.
- By shorting futures, a producer can effectively lock in a specific price for their goods, regardless of whether the market price rises or falls.
- The mechanism works because gains in the futures market compensate for losses in the spot market, and vice versa, creating a stable financial outcome.
- Practical examples of short hedging include farmers protecting livestock prices and exporters managing currency fluctuations.
If the price of the commodity goes down, the gain on the futures position offsets the loss on the rest of the companyās business.
When an individual or company chooses to use futures markets to hedge a risk, the objective is often to take a position that neutralizes the risk as far as possible.
Consider a company that knows it will gain $10,000 for each 1 cent increase in the price of a commodity over the next 3 months and lose $10,000 for each 1 cent decrease in the price during the same period. To hedge, the companyās treasurer should take a short futures position that is designed to offset this risk. The futures position should lead to a loss of $10,000 for each 1 cent increase in the price of the commodity over the 3 months and a gain of $10,000 for each 1 cent decrease in the price during this period. If the price of the commodity goes down, the gain on the futures position offsets the loss on the rest of the companyās business. If the price of the commodity 3.1 BASIC PRINCIPLES
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 71
goes up, the loss on the futures position is offset by the gain on the rest of the
companyās business.
Short Hedges
A short hedge is a hedge, such as the one just described, that involves a short position in
futures contracts. A short hedge is appropriate when the hedger already owns an asset
and expects to sell it at some time in the future. For example, a short hedge could be used by a farmer who owns some hogs and knows that they will be ready for sale at the local market in two months. A short hedge can also be used when an asset is not owned right now but will be owned and ready for sale at some time in the future. Consider, for example, a U.S. exporter who knows that he or she will receive euros in 3 months. The exporter will realize a gain if the euro increases in value relative to the U.S. dollar and will sustain a loss if the euro decreases in value relative to the U.S. dollar. A short
futures position leads to a loss if the euro increases in value and a gain if it decreases in value. It has the effect of offsetting the exporterās risk.
To provide a more detailed illustration of the operation of a short hedge in a specific
situation, we assume that it is May 15 today and that an oil producer has just negotiated a contract to sell 1 million barrels of crude oil. It has been agreed that the price that will apply in the contract is the market price on August 15. The oil producer is therefore in the position where it will gain $10,000 for each 1 cent increase in the price of oil over the next 3 months and lose $10,000 for each 1 cent decrease in the price during this period. Suppose that on May 15 the spot price is $50 per barrel and the crude oil futures price for August delivery is $49 per barrel. Because each futures contract is for the delivery of 1,000 barrels, the company can hedge its exposure by shorting (i.e., selling) 1,000
futures contracts. If the oil producer closes out its position on August 15, the effect
of the strategy should be to lock in a price close to $49 per barrel.
To illustrate what might happen, suppose that the spot price on August 15 proves to
be $45 per barrel. The company realizes $45 million for the oil under its sales contract. Because August is the delivery month for the futures contract, the futures price on August 15 should be very close to the spot price of $45 on that date. The company therefore gains approximately
+49-+45=+4
per barrel, or $4 million in total from the short futures position. The total amount
realized from both the futures position and the sales contract is therefore approximately $49 per barrel, or $49 million in total.
For an alternative outcome, suppose that the price of oil on August 15 proves to be
$55 per barrel. The company realizes $55 per barrel for the oil and loses approximately
+55-+49=+6
per barrel on the short futures position. Again, the total amount realized is approxi-mately $49 million. It is easy to see that in all cases the company ends up with
approximately $49 million.
Long Hedges
Hedging with Futures Contracts
- Short hedges allow companies to lock in a specific sale price for assets they already own, neutralizing the risk of price drops.
- Long hedges are used by companies that need to purchase assets in the future to lock in a purchase price and protect against price increases.
- The text demonstrates that regardless of whether the market price rises or falls, the hedged position results in a consistent net financial outcome.
- Using futures for long hedges can be more cost-effective than buying assets early in the spot market due to the avoidance of storage and interest costs.
- The effectiveness of a hedge relies on the convergence of spot and futures prices during the delivery month.
It is easy to see that in all cases the company ends up with approximately $49 million.
per barrel, or $4 million in total from the short futures position. The total amount
realized from both the futures position and the sales contract is therefore approximately $49 per barrel, or $49 million in total.
For an alternative outcome, suppose that the price of oil on August 15 proves to be
$55 per barrel. The company realizes $55 per barrel for the oil and loses approximately
+55-+49=+6
per barrel on the short futures position. Again, the total amount realized is approxi-mately $49 million. It is easy to see that in all cases the company ends up with
approximately $49 million.
Long Hedges
Hedges that involve taking a long position in a futures contract are known as long
hedges. A long hedge is appropriate when a company knows it will have to purchase a certain asset in the future and wants to lock in a price now.
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Suppose that it is now January 15. A copper fabricator knows it will require 100,000
pounds of copper on May 15 to meet a certain contract. The spot price of copper is
340 cents per pound, and the futures price for May delivery is 320 cents per pound. The
fabricator can hedge its position by taking a long position in four futures contracts offered by the CME Group and closing its position on May 15. Each contract is for the delivery of 25,000 pounds of copper. The strategy has the effect of locking in the price of the required copper at close to 320 cents per pound.
Suppose that the spot price of copper on May 15 proves to be 325 cents per pound.
Because May is the delivery month for the futures contract, this should be very close to the futures price. The fabricator therefore gains approximately
100,000*1+3.25-+3.202=+5,000
on the futures contracts. It pays 100,000*+3.25=+325,000 for the copper, making the
net cost approximately +325,000-+5,000=+320,000. For an alternative outcome,
suppose that the spot price is 305 cents per pound on May 15. The fabricator then
loses approximately
100,000*1+3.20-+3.052=+15,000
on the futures contract and pays 100,000*+3.05=+305,000 for the copper. Again, the
net cost is approximately $320,000, or 320 cents per pound.
Note that, in this case, it is clearly better for the company to use futures contracts
than to buy the copper on January 15 in the spot market. If it does the latter, it will pay 340 cents per pound instead of 320 cents per pound and will incur both interest costs and storage costs. For a company using copper on a regular basis, this disadvantage would be offset by the convenience of having the copper on hand.
1 However, for a
Hedging Strategies and Shareholder Interests
- Futures contracts allow companies to lock in commodity prices, often proving more cost-effective than spot market purchases due to the avoidance of storage and interest costs.
- While delivery is an option in futures contracts, most hedgers close out positions early to avoid the logistical inconveniences and costs associated with physical delivery.
- Hedging allows nonfinancial companies to focus on their core business activities by mitigating risks from volatile variables like interest rates and commodity prices.
- The necessity of corporate hedging is debated because well-diversified shareholders may already be naturally hedged against specific commodity risks through their broader portfolios.
- Corporate-level hedging is generally more efficient than individual shareholder hedging due to superior management information and lower transaction costs on large volumes.
They have no particular skills or expertise in predicting variables such as interest rates, exchange rates, and commodity prices.
on the futures contract and pays 100,000*+3.05=+305,000 for the copper. Again, the
net cost is approximately $320,000, or 320 cents per pound.
Note that, in this case, it is clearly better for the company to use futures contracts
than to buy the copper on January 15 in the spot market. If it does the latter, it will pay 340 cents per pound instead of 320 cents per pound and will incur both interest costs and storage costs. For a company using copper on a regular basis, this disadvantage would be offset by the convenience of having the copper on hand.
1 However, for a
company that knows it will not require the copper until May 15, the futures contract alternative is likely to be preferred.
The examples we have looked at assume that the futures position is closed out in the
delivery month. The hedge has the same basic effect if delivery is allowed to happen. However, making or taking delivery can be costly and inconvenient. For this reason, delivery is not usually made even when the hedger keeps the futures contract until the delivery month. As will be discussed later, hedgers with long positions usually avoid
any possibility of having to take delivery by closing out their positions before the
delivery period.
We have also assumed in the two examples that there is no daily settlement. In
practice, daily settlement does have a small effect on the performance of a hedge. As explained in Chapter 2, it means that the payoff from the futures contract is realized day by day throughout the life of the hedge rather than all at the end.
1 See Section 5.11 for a discussion of convenience yields.The arguments in favor of hedging are so obvious that they hardly need to be stated. Most nonfinancial companies are in the business of manufacturing, or retailing or wholesaling, or providing a service. They have no particular skills or expertise in
predicting variables such as interest rates, exchange rates, and commodity prices. 3.2 ARGUMENTS FOR AND AGAINST HEDGING
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 73
(Indeed, even experts are often wrong when they make predictions about these vari-
ables.) It makes sense for them to hedge the risks associated with these variables as they become aware of them. The companies can then focus on their main activities. By
hedging, they avoid unpleasant surprises such as sharp rises in the price of a commo dity
that is being purchased.
In practice, many risks are left unhedged. In the rest of this section we will explore
some of the reasons for this.
Hedging and Shareholders
One argument sometimes put forward is that the shareholders can, if they wish, do the hedging themselves. They do not need the company to do it for them. This argument is, however, open to question. It assumes that shareholders have as much information as the companyās management about the risks faced by a company. In most instances, this is not the case. The argument also ignores commissions and other transactions costs. These are less expensive per dollar of hedging for large transactions than for small transactions. Hedging is therefore likely to be less expensive when carried out by the company than when it is carried out by individual shareholders.
One thing that shareholders can do far more easily than a corporation is diversify
risk. A shareholder with a well-diversified portfolio may be immune to many of the
risks faced by a corporation. For example, in addition to holding shares in a company that uses copper, a well-diversified shareholder may hold shares in a copper producer, so that there is very little overall exposure to the price of copper. If companies are acting in the best interests of well-diversified shareholders, it can be argued that hedging is unnecessary in many situations. However, the extent to which managers are in practice influenced by this type of argument is open to question.
Hedging and Competitors
The Paradox of Hedging
- Corporate hedging is often more cost-effective than individual shareholder hedging due to lower transaction costs and superior information access.
- Well-diversified shareholders may find corporate hedging unnecessary because their portfolios already offset specific commodity risks.
- In industries where hedging is not the norm, a company that chooses to hedge may inadvertently cause its profit margins to fluctuate more than its unhedged competitors.
- Market pressures often adjust product prices to reflect raw material costs, meaning unhedged companies can maintain stable margins while hedged ones face financial instability.
- Effective hedging strategies must account for the broader economic context and how price changes impact the entire industry's pricing structure.
A company that does not hedge can expect its profit margins to be roughly constant. However, a company that does hedge can expect its profit margins to fluctuate!
One argument sometimes put forward is that the shareholders can, if they wish, do the hedging themselves. They do not need the company to do it for them. This argument is, however, open to question. It assumes that shareholders have as much information as the companyās management about the risks faced by a company. In most instances, this is not the case. The argument also ignores commissions and other transactions costs. These are less expensive per dollar of hedging for large transactions than for small transactions. Hedging is therefore likely to be less expensive when carried out by the company than when it is carried out by individual shareholders.
One thing that shareholders can do far more easily than a corporation is diversify
risk. A shareholder with a well-diversified portfolio may be immune to many of the
risks faced by a corporation. For example, in addition to holding shares in a company that uses copper, a well-diversified shareholder may hold shares in a copper producer, so that there is very little overall exposure to the price of copper. If companies are acting in the best interests of well-diversified shareholders, it can be argued that hedging is unnecessary in many situations. However, the extent to which managers are in practice influenced by this type of argument is open to question.
Hedging and Competitors
If hedging is not the norm in a certain industry, it may not make sense for one
particular company to choose to be different from all others. Competitive pressures within the industry may be such that the prices of the goods and services produced by the industry fluctuate to reflect raw material costs, interest rates, exchange rates, and so on. A company that does not hedge can expect its profit margins to be roughly
constant. However, a company that does hedge can expect its profit margins to
fluctuate!
To illustrate this point, consider two manufacturers of gold jewelry, SafeandSure
Company and TakeaChance Company. We assume that most companies in the industry do not hedge against movements in the price of gold and that TakeaChance Company is no exception. However, SafeandSure Company has decided to be different from its competitors and to use futures contracts to hedge its purchase of gold over the next
18 months. If the price of gold goes up, economic pressures will tend to lead to a
corresponding increase in the wholesale price of jewelry, so that TakeaChance Companyās gross profit margin is unaffected. By contrast, SafeandSure Companyās profit margin will increase after the effects of the hedge have been taken into account. If the price of gold goes down, economic pressures will tend to lead to a corresponding decrease in the wholesale price of jewelry. Again, TakeaChance Companyās profit margin is unaffected. However, SafeandSure Companyās profit margin goes down. In extreme conditions,
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74 CHAPTER 3
SafeandSure Companyās profit margin could become negative as a result of the āhedgingā
carried out! The situation is summarized in Table 3.1.
This example emphasizes the importance of looking at the big picture when hedging.
All the implications of price changes on a companyās profitability should be taken into account in the design of a hedging strategy to protect against the price changes.
Hedging Can Lead to a Worse Outcome
The Paradox of Hedging
- Hedging can inadvertently increase risk if a company's competitors do not hedge, as market prices often adjust to offset raw material costs naturally.
- SafeandSure Company risks negative profit margins by hedging gold costs while its competitor, TakeaChance, remains stable through market price fluctuations.
- A successful hedge in a rising market can appear as a massive loss on paper, creating significant internal political friction for company treasurers.
- The 'big picture' of hedging requires accounting for how price changes affect the entire industry's wholesale pricing and consumer behavior.
- Corporate leadership often fails to appreciate the protective nature of hedging when the market moves favorably, focusing instead on the lost potential gains.
I donāt care what would have happened if the price of oil had gone down. The fact is that it went up.
Company and TakeaChance Company. We assume that most companies in the industry do not hedge against movements in the price of gold and that TakeaChance Company is no exception. However, SafeandSure Company has decided to be different from its competitors and to use futures contracts to hedge its purchase of gold over the next
18 months. If the price of gold goes up, economic pressures will tend to lead to a
corresponding increase in the wholesale price of jewelry, so that TakeaChance Companyās gross profit margin is unaffected. By contrast, SafeandSure Companyās profit margin will increase after the effects of the hedge have been taken into account. If the price of gold goes down, economic pressures will tend to lead to a corresponding decrease in the wholesale price of jewelry. Again, TakeaChance Companyās profit margin is unaffected. However, SafeandSure Companyās profit margin goes down. In extreme conditions,
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74 CHAPTER 3
SafeandSure Companyās profit margin could become negative as a result of the āhedgingā
carried out! The situation is summarized in Table 3.1.
This example emphasizes the importance of looking at the big picture when hedging.
All the implications of price changes on a companyās profitability should be taken into account in the design of a hedging strategy to protect against the price changes.
Hedging Can Lead to a Worse Outcome
It is important to realize that a hedge using futures contracts can result in a decrease or an increase in a companyās profits relative to the position it would be in with no
hedging. In the example involving the oil producer considered earlier, if the price of oil goes down, the company loses money on its sale of 1 million barrels of oil, and the futures position leads to an offsetting gain. The treasurer can be congratulated for
having had the foresight to put the hedge in place. Clearly, the company is better off than it would be with no hedging. Other executives in the organization, it is hoped, will appreciate the contribution made by the treasurer. If the price of oil goes up, the
company gains from its sale of the oil, and the futures position leads to an offsetting
loss. The company is in a worse position than it would be with no hedging. Although
the hedging decision was perfectly logical, the treasurer may in practice have a difficult time justifying it. Suppose that the price of oil at the end of the hedge is $59, so that the company loses $10 per barrel on the futures contract. We can imagine a conversation such as the following between the treasurer and the president:
President: This is terrible. Weāve lost $10 million in the futures market in the space of three months. How could it happen? I want a full explanation.
Treasurer: The purpose of the futures contracts was to hedge our exposure to the price of oil, not to make a profit. Donāt forget we made $10 million from the favorable effect of the oil price increases on our business.
President: Whatās that got to do with it? Thatās like saying that we do not need to worry when our sales are down in California because they are up in New York.
Treasurer: If the price of oil had gone downĀ .Ā .Ā .
President: I donāt care what would have happened if the price of oil had gone down. The fact is that it went up. I really do not know what you were doing playing the futures markets like this. Our shareholders will expect us to have done particularly well this quarter. Iām going to have to explain to them that your actions reduced profits by $10 million. Iām afraid this is going to mean no bonus for you this year.Table 3.1 Danger in hedging when competitors do not hedge.
Change in
gold priceEffect on price of
gold jewelryEffect on profits of
TakeaChance Co.Effect on profits of
SafeandSure Co.
Increase Increase None Increase
Decrease Decrease None Decrease
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 75
The Dilemma of Hedging
- Treasurers face personal career risk when hedging because management may focus on the opportunity cost of lost profits rather than the reduction of risk.
- Effective corporate hedging requires that the board of directors and senior executives fully understand and approve the strategy before implementation.
- Gold mining companies often choose between hedging to lock in prices or remaining unhedged to attract investors seeking direct exposure to gold price fluctuations.
- Financial institutions can hedge forward purchases of gold by borrowing the metal from central banks and selling it in the spot market.
- In practice, hedging is complicated by basis risk, which occurs when the underlying asset or the timing of the transaction does not perfectly match the futures contract.
Unfair! You are lucky not to be fired. You lost $10 million.
President: I donāt care what would have happened if the price of oil had gone down. The fact is that it went up. I really do not know what you were doing playing the futures markets like this. Our shareholders will expect us to have done particularly well this quarter. Iām going to have to explain to them that your actions reduced profits by $10 million. Iām afraid this is going to mean no bonus for you this year.Table 3.1 Danger in hedging when competitors do not hedge.
Change in
gold priceEffect on price of
gold jewelryEffect on profits of
TakeaChance Co.Effect on profits of
SafeandSure Co.
Increase Increase None Increase
Decrease Decrease None Decrease
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 75
Treasurer: Thatās unfair. I was onlyĀ .Ā .Ā .
President: Unfair! You are lucky not to be fired. You lost $10 million.
Treasurer: It all depends on how you look at itĀ .Ā .Ā .
It is easy to see why many treasurers are reluctant to hedge! Hedging reduces risk for
the company. However, it may increase risk for the treasurer if others do not fully under -
stand what is being done. The only real solution to this problem involves ensuring that all senior executives within the organization fully understand the nature of hedging before a hedging program is put in place. Ideally, hedging strategies are set by a
companyās board of directors and are clearly communicated to both the companyās management and the shareholders. (See Business Snapshot 3.1 for a discussion of hedging by gold mining companies.)Business Snapshot 3.1 Hedging by Gold Mining Companies
It is natural for a gold mining company to consider hedging against changes in the price of gold. Typically it takes several years to extract all the gold from a mine. Once a gold mining company decides to go ahead with production at a particular mine, it has a big exposure to the price of gold. Indeed a mine that looks profitable at the outset could become unprofitable if the price of gold plunges.
Gold mining companies are careful to explain their hedging strategies to potential
shareholders. Some gold mining companies do not hedge. They tend to attract shareholders who buy gold stocks because they want to benefit when the price of gold increases and are prepared to accept the risk of a loss from a decrease in the price of gold. Other companies choose to hedge. They estimate the number of ounces of gold they will produce each month for the next few years and enter into short futures or forward contracts to lock in the price for all or part of this.
Suppose you are Goldman Sachs and are approached by a gold mining company
that wants to sell you a large amount of gold in 1 year at a fixed price. How do you set the price and then hedge your risk? The answer is that you can hedge by
borrowing the gold from a central bank, selling it immediately in the spot market, and investing the proceeds at the risk-free rate. At the end of the year, you buy the gold from the gold mining company and use it to repay the central bank. The fixed forward price you set for the gold reflects the risk-free rate you can earn and the lease rate you pay the central bank for borrowing the gold.
The hedges in the examples considered so far have been almost too good to be true. The hedger was able to identify the precise date in the future when an asset would be bought or sold. The hedger was then able to use futures contracts to remove almost all the risk arising from the price of the asset on that date. In practice, hedging is often not quite as straightforward as this. Some of the reasons are as follows:
1. The asset whose price is to be hedged may not be exactly the same as the asset underlying the futures contract.3.3 BASIS RISK
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76 CHAPTER 3
2. There may be uncertainty as to the exact date when the asset will be bought or sold.
Basis Risk and Hedging
- Gold mining companies choose between remaining unhedged to attract risk-seeking investors or using futures to lock in production prices.
- Financial institutions like Goldman Sachs hedge gold purchase commitments by borrowing physical gold from central banks and selling it in the spot market.
- Perfect hedges are rare in practice because the underlying asset, delivery date, or contract expiration may not align perfectly with the hedger's needs.
- Basis risk arises from the fluctuating difference between the spot price of an asset and its futures price over the life of a hedge.
- A strengthening basis occurs when the difference between spot and futures prices increases, while a weakening basis occurs when it decreases.
The hedges in the examples considered so far have been almost too good to be true.
shareholders. Some gold mining companies do not hedge. They tend to attract shareholders who buy gold stocks because they want to benefit when the price of gold increases and are prepared to accept the risk of a loss from a decrease in the price of gold. Other companies choose to hedge. They estimate the number of ounces of gold they will produce each month for the next few years and enter into short futures or forward contracts to lock in the price for all or part of this.
Suppose you are Goldman Sachs and are approached by a gold mining company
that wants to sell you a large amount of gold in 1 year at a fixed price. How do you set the price and then hedge your risk? The answer is that you can hedge by
borrowing the gold from a central bank, selling it immediately in the spot market, and investing the proceeds at the risk-free rate. At the end of the year, you buy the gold from the gold mining company and use it to repay the central bank. The fixed forward price you set for the gold reflects the risk-free rate you can earn and the lease rate you pay the central bank for borrowing the gold.
The hedges in the examples considered so far have been almost too good to be true. The hedger was able to identify the precise date in the future when an asset would be bought or sold. The hedger was then able to use futures contracts to remove almost all the risk arising from the price of the asset on that date. In practice, hedging is often not quite as straightforward as this. Some of the reasons are as follows:
1. The asset whose price is to be hedged may not be exactly the same as the asset underlying the futures contract.3.3 BASIS RISK
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76 CHAPTER 3
2. There may be uncertainty as to the exact date when the asset will be bought or sold.
3. The hedge may require the futures contract to be closed out before its delivery
month.
These problems give rise to what is termed basis risk. This concept will now be explained.
The Basis
The basis in a hedging situation is as follows:2
Basis=Spot price of asset to be hedged-Futures price of contract used
If the asset to be hedged and the asset underlying the futures contract are the same, the basis should be zero at the expiration of the futures contract. Prior to expiration, the basis may be positive or negative.
As time passes, the spot price and the futures price for a particular month do not
necessarily change by the same amount. As a result, the basis changes. An increase in the basis is referred to as a strengthening of the basis; a decrease in the basis is referred to as a weakening of the basis. Figure 3.1 illustrates how a basis might change over time in a situation where the basis is positive prior to expiration of the futures contract.
To examine the nature of basis risk, we will use the following notation:
S1: Spot price at time t1
S2: Spot price at time t2
F1: Futures price at time t1
F2: Futures price at time t2
b1: Basis at time t1
b2: Basis at time t2.
We will assume that a hedge is put in place at time t1 and closed out at time t2. As an
example, we will consider the case where the spot and futures prices at the time the
2 This is the usual definition. However, the alternative definition Basis=Futures price-Spot price is
sometimes used, particularly when the futures contract is on a financial asset.Time
t1 t2Futures priceSpot priceFigure 3.1 Variation of basis over time.
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 77
hedge is initiated are $2.50 and $2.20, respectively, and that at the time the hedge is
closed out they are $2.00 and $1.90, respectively. This means that S1=2.50, F1=2.20,
S2=2.00, and F2=1.90.
From the definition of the basis, we have
b1=S1-F1 and b2=S2-F2
Basis Risk and Hedging
- Basis is defined as the difference between the spot price of an asset and its futures price at a specific point in time.
- The effective price obtained through hedging is the initial futures price plus the basis at the time the hedge is closed.
- Basis risk arises from the uncertainty of what the basis will be at the future date when the hedge is terminated.
- A strengthening basis improves the position of a short hedger (seller) but worsens the position of a long hedger (buyer).
- Cross hedging occurs when the asset being hedged differs from the asset underlying the futures contract, which significantly increases basis risk.
- Minimizing basis risk requires careful selection of both the underlying asset and the delivery month of the futures contract.
The hedging risk is the uncertainty associated with b2 and is known as basis risk.
b2: Basis at time t2.
We will assume that a hedge is put in place at time t1 and closed out at time t2. As an
example, we will consider the case where the spot and futures prices at the time the
2 This is the usual definition. However, the alternative definition Basis=Futures price-Spot price is
sometimes used, particularly when the futures contract is on a financial asset.Time
t1 t2Futures priceSpot priceFigure 3.1 Variation of basis over time.
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 77
hedge is initiated are $2.50 and $2.20, respectively, and that at the time the hedge is
closed out they are $2.00 and $1.90, respectively. This means that S1=2.50, F1=2.20,
S2=2.00, and F2=1.90.
From the definition of the basis, we have
b1=S1-F1 and b2=S2-F2
so that, in our example, b1=0.30 and b2=0.10.
Consider first the situation of a hedger who knows that the asset will be sold at time t2
and takes a short futures position at time t1. The price realized for the asset is S2 and the
profit on the futures position is F1-F2. The effective price that is obtained for the asset
with hedging is therefore
S2+F1-F2=F1+b2
In our example, this is $2.30. The value of F1 is known at time t1. If b2 were also known
at this time, a perfect hedge would result. The hedging risk is the uncertainty associated with
b2 and is known as basis risk. Consider next a situation where a company knows it
will buy the asset at time t2 and initiates a long hedge at time t1. The price paid for the
asset is S2 and the loss on the hedge is F1-F2. The effective price that is paid with
hedging is therefore
S2+F1-F2=F1+b2
This is the same expression as before and is $2.30 in the example. The value of F1 is
known at time t1, and the term b2 represents basis risk.
Note that basis changes can lead to an improvement or a worsening of a hedgerās
position. Consider a company that uses a short hedge because it plans to sell the
underlying asset. If the basis strengthens (i.e., increases) unexpectedly, the companyās position improves because it will get a higher price for the asset after futures gains or losses are considered; if the basis weakens (i.e., decreases) unexpectedly, the companyās position worsens. For a company using a long hedge because it plans to buy the asset, the reverse holds. If the basis strengthens unexpectedly, the companyās position worsens because it will pay a higher price for the asset after futures gains or losses are
considered; if the basis weakens unexpectedly, the companyās position improves.
The asset that gives rise to the hedgerās exposure is sometimes different from the
asset underlying the futures contract that is used for hedging. This is known as cross hedging and is discussed in the next section. It leads to an increase in basis risk. Define
S2* as the price of the asset underlying the futures contract at time t2. As before, S2 is
the price of the asset being hedged at time t2. By hedging, a company ensures that the
price that will be paid (or received) for the asset is
S2+F1-F2
This can be written as
F1+1S2*-F22+1S2-S2*2
The terms S2*-F2 and S2-S2* represent the two components of the basis. The S2*-F2
term is the basis that would exist if the asset being hedged were the same as the asset underlying the futures contract. The
S2-S2* term is the basis arising from the difference
between the two assets.
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78 CHAPTER 3
Choice of Contract
One key factor affecting basis risk is the choice of the futures contract to be used for
hedging. This choice has two components:
1. The choice of the asset underlying the futures contract
2. The choice of the delivery month.
Choosing Futures for Hedging
- Basis risk is influenced by two primary factors: the choice of the underlying asset and the selection of the delivery month.
- When a perfect asset match is unavailable, hedgers must identify the futures contract with prices most closely correlated to the asset being hedged.
- Hedgers typically avoid delivery months for contract expiration because prices can become erratic and long hedgers risk the inconvenience of physical delivery.
- A standard rule of thumb is to select a delivery month that is as close as possible to, but later than, the hedge expiration date.
- Liquidity is often highest in short-maturity contracts, which may lead some hedgers to use and roll forward short-term positions rather than long-term ones.
The reason is that futures prices are in some instances quite erratic during the delivery month.
The terms S2*-F2 and S2-S2* represent the two components of the basis. The S2*-F2
term is the basis that would exist if the asset being hedged were the same as the asset underlying the futures contract. The
S2-S2* term is the basis arising from the difference
between the two assets.
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78 CHAPTER 3
Choice of Contract
One key factor affecting basis risk is the choice of the futures contract to be used for
hedging. This choice has two components:
1. The choice of the asset underlying the futures contract
2. The choice of the delivery month.
If the asset being hedged exactly matches an asset underlying a futures contract, the first choice is generally fairly easy. In other circumstances, it is necessary to carry out a
careful analysis to determine which of the available futures contracts has futures prices that are most closely correlated with the price of the asset being hedged.
The choice of the delivery month is likely to be influenced by several factors. In the
examples given earlier in this chapter, we assumed that, when the expiration of the hedge corresponds to a delivery month, the contract with that delivery month is chosen. In fact, a contract with a later delivery month is usually chosen in these circumstances. The reason is that futures prices are in some instances quite erratic during the delivery month. Moreover, a long hedger runs the risk of having to take delivery of the physical asset if the contract is held during the delivery month. Taking delivery can be expensive and inconvenient. (Long hedgers normally prefer to close out the futures contract and buy the asset from their usual suppliers.)
In general, basis risk increases as the time difference between the hedge expiration
and the delivery month increases. A good rule of thumb is therefore to choose a
delivery month that is as close as possible to, but later than, the expiration of the hedge. Suppose delivery months are March, June, September, and December for a futures contract on a particular asset. For hedge expirations in December, January, and February, the March contract will be chosen; for hedge expirations in March, April, and May, the June contract will be chosen; and so on. This rule of thumb assumes that there is sufficient liquidity in all contracts to meet the hedgerās
requirements. In practice, liquidity tends to be greatest in short-maturity futures
contracts. Therefore, in some situations, the hedger may be inclined to use short-
maturity contracts and roll them forward. This strategy is discussed later in the chapter.
Example 3.1
It is March 1. A U.S. company expects to receive 50 million Japanese yen at the
end of July. Yen futures contracts on the CME Group have delivery months of March, June, September, and December. One contract is for the delivery of
12.5 million yen. The company therefore shorts four September yen futures con-tracts on March 1. When the yen are received at the end of July, the company
closes out its position. We suppose that the futures price on March 1 in cents per yen is 1.0800 and that the spot and futures prices when the contract is closed out are 1.0200 and 1.0250, respectively.
The gain on the futures contract is
1.0800-1.0250=0.0550 cents per yen. The
basis is 1.0200-1.0250=-0.0050 cents per yen when the contract is closed out.
The effective price obtained in cents per yen is the final spot price plus the gain on the futures:
1.0200+0.0550=1.0750
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 79
This can also be written as the initial futures price plus the final basis:
1.0800+1-0.00502=1.0750
The total amount received by the company for the 50 million yen is 50*0.01075
million dollars, or $537,500.
Example 3.2
Hedging and Cross Hedging Strategies
- The effective price of a hedged position can be calculated as the initial futures price plus the final basis at the time the contract is closed.
- Cross hedging occurs when a company uses a futures contract for a different but related asset to hedge its exposure, such as using heating oil futures for jet fuel.
- While a hedge ratio of 1.0 is standard for identical assets, it is often suboptimal for cross hedging scenarios where price correlations vary.
- The minimum variance hedge ratio is determined by the slope of the linear regression between changes in spot prices and changes in futures prices.
- To minimize risk, the optimal hedge ratio is calculated using the correlation between price changes and the ratio of their standard deviations.
Because jet fuel futures are not actively traded, it might choose to use heating oil futures contracts to hedge its exposure.
1.0800-1.0250=0.0550 cents per yen. The
basis is 1.0200-1.0250=-0.0050 cents per yen when the contract is closed out.
The effective price obtained in cents per yen is the final spot price plus the gain on the futures:
1.0200+0.0550=1.0750
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 79
This can also be written as the initial futures price plus the final basis:
1.0800+1-0.00502=1.0750
The total amount received by the company for the 50 million yen is 50*0.01075
million dollars, or $537,500.
Example 3.2
It is June 8 and a company knows that it will need to purchase 20,000 barrels of
crude oil at some time in October or November. Oil futures contracts are currently traded for delivery every month by the CME Group and the contract size is 1,000 barrels. The company therefore decides to use the December contract for hedging and takes a long position in 20 December contracts. The futures price on June 8 is $48.00 per barrel. The company finds that it is ready to purchase the crude oil on November 10. It therefore closes out its futures contract on that date. The spot price and futures price on November 10 are $50.00 per barrel and $49.10 per
barrel.
The gain on the futures contract is
49.10-48.00=+1.10 per barrel. The basis
when the contract is closed out is 50.00-49.10=+0.90 per barrel. The effective
price paid (in dollars per barrel) is the final spot price less the gain on the
futures, or
50.00-1.10=48.90
This can also be calculated as the initial futures price plus the final basis,
48.00+0.90=48.90
The total price paid is 48.90*20,000=+978,000.
In Examples 3.1 and 3.2, the asset underlying the futures contract was the same as the asset whose price is being hedged. Cross hedging occurs when the two assets are
different. Consider, for example, an airline that is concerned about the future price
of jet fuel. Because jet fuel futures are not actively traded, it might choose to use heating oil futures contracts to hedge its exposure.
The hedge ratio is the ratio of the size of the position taken in futures contracts to the
size of the exposure. When the asset underlying the futures contract is the same as the asset being hedged, it is natural to use a hedge ratio of 1.0. This is the hedge ratio we have used in the examples considered so far. For instance, in Example 3.2, the hedgerās exposure was on 20,000 barrels of oil, and futures contracts were entered into for the delivery of exactly this amount of oil.
When cross hedging is used, setting the hedge ratio equal to 1.0 is not always
optimal. The hedger should choose a value for the hedge ratio that minimizes the
variance of the value of the hedged position. We now consider how the hedger can
do this.3.4 CROSS HEDGING
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80 CHAPTER 3
Calculating the Minimum Variance Hedge Ratio
We first present an analysis assuming no daily settlement of futures contracts. The
minimum variance hedge ratio depends on the relationship between changes in the spot
price and changes in the futures price. Define:
āS: Change in spot price, S, during a period of time equal to the life of the hedge
āF: Change in futures price, F , during a period of time equal to the life of the hedge.
If we assume that the relationship between āS and āF is approximately linear (see
Figure 3.2), we can write:
āS=a+bāF+P
where a and b are constants and P is an error term. Suppose that the hedge ratio is h
(i.e., a percentage h of the exposure to S is hedged with futures). Then the change in the value of the position per unit of exposure to S is
āS-hāF=a+1b-h2āF+P
The standard deviation of this is minimized by setting h=b (so that the second term on
the right-hand side disappears).
Denote the minimum variance hedge ratio by h*. We have shown that h*=b. It
follows from the formula for the slope in linear regression that
h*=rsS
sF (3.1)
Minimum Variance Hedge Ratios
- The optimal hedge ratio is determined by minimizing the variance of the hedged position using a linear regression model.
- This ratio is calculated as the product of the correlation between spot and futures price changes and the ratio of their standard deviations.
- Hedge effectiveness is defined as the proportion of variance eliminated, which is mathematically equivalent to the R-squared value of the regression.
- Parameters for the hedge ratio are typically estimated from historical data, assuming that past price behaviors will persist into the future.
- The optimal number of contracts is found by applying the hedge ratio to the total exposure and dividing by the size of a single futures contract.
The hedge effectiveness can be defined as the proportion of the variance that is eliminated by hedging.
where a and b are constants and P is an error term. Suppose that the hedge ratio is h
(i.e., a percentage h of the exposure to S is hedged with futures). Then the change in the value of the position per unit of exposure to S is
āS-hāF=a+1b-h2āF+P
The standard deviation of this is minimized by setting h=b (so that the second term on
the right-hand side disappears).
Denote the minimum variance hedge ratio by h*. We have shown that h*=b. It
follows from the formula for the slope in linear regression that
h*=rsS
sF (3.1)
DFDSFigure 3.2 Regression of change in spot price against change in futures price.
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 81
where sS is the standard deviation of āS, sF is the standard deviation of āF, and r is
the coefficient of correlation between the two.
Equation (3.1) shows that the optimal hedge ratio is the product of the coefficient of
correlation between āS and āF and the ratio of the standard deviation of āS to the
standard deviation of āF. Figure 3.3 shows how the variance of the value of the
hedgerās position depends on the hedge ratio chosen.
If r=1 and sF=sS, the hedge ratio, h*, is 1.0. This result is to be expected, because
in this case the futures price mirrors the spot price perfectly. If r=1 and sF=2sS, the
hedge ratio h* is 0.5. This result is also as expected, because in this case the futures price
always changes by twice as much as the spot price. The hedge effectiveness can be
defined as the proportion of the variance that is eliminated by hedging. This is the R2
from the regression of āS against āF and equals r2.
The parameters r, sF, and sS in equation (3.1) are usually estimated from historical
data on āS and āF. (The implicit assumption is that the future will in some sense be
like the past.) A number of equal nonoverlapping time intervals are chosen, and the
values of āS and āF for each of the intervals are observed. Ideally, the length of each
time interval is the same as the length of the time interval for which the hedge is in effect. In practice, this sometimes severely limits the number of observations that are available, and a shorter time interval is used.
Optimal Number of Contracts
To calculate the number of contracts that should be used in hedging, define:
QA: Size of position being hedged (units)
QF: Size of one futures contract (units)
N*: Optimal number of futures contracts for hedging.
The futures contracts should be on h*QA units of the asset. The number of futures
contracts required is therefore given by
N*=h*QA
QF (3.2)Hedge ratio
h*Variance of
positionFigure 3.3 Dependence of variance of hedgerās position on hedge ratio.
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82 CHAPTER 3
Example 3.3 shows how the results in this section can be used by an airline hedging the
purchase of jet fuel.3
Example 3.3
An airline expects to purchase 2 million gallons of jet fuel in 1 month and decides
to use heating oil futures for hedging. We suppose that Table 3.2 gives, for
15 successive months, data on the change, āS, in the jet fuel price per gallon
and the corresponding change, āF, in the futures price for the contract on
heating oil that would be used for hedging price changes during the month. In
this case, the usual formulas for calculating standard deviations and correlations give
sF=0.0313, sS=0.0263, and r=0.928.
From equation (3.1), the minimum variance hedge ratio, h*, is therefore
0.928*0.0263
0.0313=0.78
Each heating oil contract traded by the CME Group is on 42,000 gallons of
heating oil. From equation (3.2), the optimal number of contracts is
0.78*2,000,000
42,000
Optimal Hedging with Futures
- The minimum variance hedge ratio is calculated using the correlation between spot and futures price changes and their respective standard deviations.
- Heating oil futures are frequently used to hedge jet fuel purchases because they are traded more actively than specific jet fuel derivatives.
- Daily settlement of futures contracts transforms a long-term hedge into a series of one-day hedges, requiring adjustments based on daily price fluctuations.
- The number of contracts can be further refined by 'tailing the hedge,' which accounts for interest earned or paid over the life of the position.
The optimal hedge is liable to change from day to day as the relative values of spot and futures prices change.
An airline expects to purchase 2 million gallons of jet fuel in 1 month and decides
to use heating oil futures for hedging. We suppose that Table 3.2 gives, for
15 successive months, data on the change, āS, in the jet fuel price per gallon
and the corresponding change, āF, in the futures price for the contract on
heating oil that would be used for hedging price changes during the month. In
this case, the usual formulas for calculating standard deviations and correlations give
sF=0.0313, sS=0.0263, and r=0.928.
From equation (3.1), the minimum variance hedge ratio, h*, is therefore
0.928*0.0263
0.0313=0.78
Each heating oil contract traded by the CME Group is on 42,000 gallons of
heating oil. From equation (3.2), the optimal number of contracts is
0.78*2,000,000
42,000
which is 37 when rounded to the nearest whole number.
3 Derivatives with payoffs dependent on the price of jet fuel do exist, but heating oil futures are often used to
hedge an exposure to jet fuel prices because they are traded more actively.Table 3.2 Data to calculate minimum variance hedge ratio when
heating oil futures contract is used to hedge purchase of jet fuel.
Month
iChange in heating oil
futures price per gallon
(= āF)Change in jet fuel
price per gallon
(= āS)
1 0.021 0.029
2 0.035 0.020
3 -0.046 -0.044
4 0.001 0.008
5 0.044 0.026
6 -0.029 -0.019
7 -0.026 -0.010
8 -0.029 -0.007
9 0.048 0.043
10 -0.006 0.011
11 -0.036 -0.036
12 -0.011 -0.018
13 0.019 0.009
14 -0.027 -0.032
15 0.029 0.023
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 83
Impact of Daily Settlement
The analysis we have presented so far is appropriate when forward contracts are used
for hedging. The daily settlement of futures contract means that, when futures contracts are used, there are a series of one-day hedges, not a single hedge. Define:
s
nS: Standard deviation of percentage one-day changes in the spot price
snF: Standard deviation of percentage one day changes in the futures price
rn: Correlation between percentage one-day changes in the spot and futures.
The standard deviation of one-day changes in spot and futures are snSS and snFF. Also,
rn is the correlation between one-day changes. It follows from equation (3.1) that the
optimal one-day hedge is
h*=rnsnSS
snFF
so that from equation (3.2)
N*=rnsnSSQA
snFFQF
The hedge ratio in equation (3.1) is based on regressing actual changes in spot prices against actual changes in futures prices. An alternative hedge ratio,
hn, can be derived in
the same way by regressing daily percentage changes in spot against daily percentage changes in futures:
hn=rnsnS
snF
Then
N*=hnVA
VF (3.3)
where VA=SQA is the value of the position being hedged and VF=FQF is the futures
price times the size of one contract.
Consider another situation where 2 million gallons of jet fuel is being hedged with
heating oil futures. Suppose that the spot and futures price are 1.10 and 1.30, respectively.
In this case, VA=2, 000, 000*1.10=2, 200, 000 while VF=42,000*1.30=54,600. If
rn=0.8, the optimal number of contracts for a one-day hedge is
0.8*2,200,000
54,600=32.23
or 32 when rounded to the nearest whole number. The optimal hedge is liable to change
from day to day as the relative values of spot and futures prices change. But the changes are usually small and often ignored.
The analysis can be refined by taking account of the the interest that is earned or paid
over the remaining life of the hedge. Suppose that the interest rate is 5% per annum and the hedge has a remaining life of one year. It is then appropriate to divide
N* by 1.05.
This is referred to as tailing the hedge.
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84 CHAPTER 3
Stock Index Futures and Hedging
- The concept of 'tailing the hedge' involves adjusting the optimal number of futures contracts to account for interest earned or paid over the life of the hedge.
- Stock indices track the value of hypothetical portfolios, typically focusing on capital gains and losses rather than including dividend reinvestment.
- Index weighting methods vary, with some based on stock prices and others on market capitalization, which automatically adjusts for corporate actions like stock splits.
- Major stock indices like the Dow Jones Industrial Average and the S&P 500 serve as the underlying assets for actively traded futures contracts.
- The Mini S&P 500 and Mini Dow Jones contracts are popular instruments for investors looking to manage or hedge exposure to broad equity market movements.
This is referred to as tailing the hedge.
or 32 when rounded to the nearest whole number. The optimal hedge is liable to change
from day to day as the relative values of spot and futures prices change. But the changes are usually small and often ignored.
The analysis can be refined by taking account of the the interest that is earned or paid
over the remaining life of the hedge. Suppose that the interest rate is 5% per annum and the hedge has a remaining life of one year. It is then appropriate to divide
N* by 1.05.
This is referred to as tailing the hedge.
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84 CHAPTER 3
We now move on to consider stock index futures and how they are used to hedge or
manage exposures to equity prices.
A stock index tracks changes in the value of a hypothetical portfolio of stocks. The
weight of a stock in the portfolio at a particular time equals the proportion of the
hypothetical portfolio invested in the stock at that time. The percentage increase in the stock index over a small interval of time is set equal to the percentage increase in the
value of the hypothetical portfolio. Dividends are usually not included in the calcula-tion so that the index tracks the capital gain/loss from investing in the portfolio.
4
If the hypothetical portfolio of stocks remains fixed, the weights assigned to individual
stocks in the portfolio do not remain fixed. When the price of one particular stock in the portfolio rises more sharply than others, more weight is automatically given to that stock. Sometimes indices are constructed from a hypothetical portfolio consisting of one of each of a number of stocks. The weights assigned to the stocks are then proportional to their market prices, with adjustments being made when there are stock splits. Other indices are constructed so that weights are proportional to market capitalization (stock price
*number of shares outstanding). The underlying portfolio is then automatically
adjusted to reflect stock splits, stock dividends, and new equity issues.
Stock Indices
Table 3.3 shows futures prices for contracts on three different stock indices on
May 21, 2021.
The Dow Jones Industrial Average is based on a portfolio consisting of 30 blue-chip
stocks in the United States. The weights given to the stocks are proportional to their prices. The CME Group trades two futures contracts on the index. One is on $10 times 3.5 STOCK INDEX FUTURES
4 An exception to this is a total return index. This is calculated by assuming that dividends on the
hypothetical portfolio are reinvested in the portfolio.Table 3.3 Futures quotes for a selection of CME Group contracts on stock indices
on May 21, 2020.
Open High Low Prior
settlementLast
tradeChange Volume
Mini Dow Jones Industrial Average, $5 times index
June 2020 24,545 24,660 24,300 24,519 24,421 -98 210,202
Sept. 2020 24,426 24,542 24,212 24,411 24,311 -100 140
Mini S&P 500, $50 times index
June 2020 2,972.25 2,973.50 2,933.00 2,968.50 2,944.00 -24.50 1,542,213
Sept. 2020 2,963.00 2,964.75 2,924.75 2,959.75 2,935.50 -24.25 3,048
Dec. 2020 2,939.50 2,955.50 2,928.25 2,954.50 2,930.00 -24.50 183
Mini NASDAQ-100, $20 times indexMar. 2019 9,494.75 9,510.75 9,355.00 9,485.50 9,372.00
-113.50 420,841
June 2019 9,470.75 9,495.00 9,349.50 9,469.75 9,360.75 -109.00 279
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 85
the index. The other (the Mini DJ Industrial Average) is on $5 times the index. The
Mini contract trades most actively.
The Standard & Poorās 500 (S&P 500) Index is based on a portfolio of 500 different
stocks: 400 industrials, 40 utilities, 20 transportation companies, and 40 financial
Hedging Strategies Using Index Futures
- Stock index futures, such as those for the S&P 500 and Nasdaq-100, are settled in cash rather than through the physical delivery of underlying assets.
- The 'Mini' versions of major index contracts are often more actively traded than their full-sized counterparts due to smaller contract multipliers.
- Hedging a well-diversified equity portfolio requires calculating the number of futures contracts based on the portfolio's total value and the contract size.
- The Capital Asset Pricing Model's beta parameter is used to adjust the hedge ratio for portfolios that do not perfectly mirror the underlying index.
- A portfolio with a higher beta requires a proportionally larger number of shorted futures contracts to achieve an effective market hedge.
As mentioned in Chapter 2, futures contracts on stock indices are settled in cash, not by delivery of the underlying asset.
Mini NASDAQ-100, $20 times indexMar. 2019 9,494.75 9,510.75 9,355.00 9,485.50 9,372.00
-113.50 420,841
June 2019 9,470.75 9,495.00 9,349.50 9,469.75 9,360.75 -109.00 279
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 85
the index. The other (the Mini DJ Industrial Average) is on $5 times the index. The
Mini contract trades most actively.
The Standard & Poorās 500 (S&P 500) Index is based on a portfolio of 500 different
stocks: 400 industrials, 40 utilities, 20 transportation companies, and 40 financial
institutions. The weights of the stocks in the portfolio at any given time are proportional
to their market capitalizations. The stocks are those of large publicly held companies that trade on NYSE Euronext or Nasdaq OMX. The CME Group trades two futures contracts on the S&P 500. One is on $250 times the index; the other (the Mini S&P 500 contract) is on $50 times the index. The Mini contract trades most actively.
The Nasdaq-100 is based on a portfolio of 100 stocks traded on the Nasdaq exchange
with weights proportional to market capitalizations. The CME Group trades two
futures contracts. One is on $100 times the index; the other (the Mini Nasdaq-100
contract) is on $20 times the index. The Mini contract trades most actively.
Some futures contracts on indices outside the United States are also traded actively.
An example is the contract on the CSI 300 index, a market-capitalization-weighted index of 300 Chinese stocks, which trades on the China Financial Futures Exchange (CFFEX, www.cffex.com.cn).
As mentioned in Chapter 2, futures contracts on stock indices are settled in cash, not
by delivery of the underlying asset. All contracts are marked to market to either the opening price or the closing price of the index on the last trading day, and the positions are then deemed to be closed. For example, contracts on the S&P 500 are closed out at the opening price of the S&P 500 index on the third Friday of the delivery month.
Hedging an Equity Portfolio
Stock index futures can be used to hedge a well-diversified equity portfolio. Define:
VA: Current value of the portfolio
VF: Current value of one futures contract (the futures price times the contract size).
If the portfolio mirrors the index, the optimal hedge ratio can be assumed to be 1.0 and equation (3.3) shows that the number of futures contracts that should be shorted is
N*=VA
VF (3.4)
Suppose, for example, that a portfolio worth $5,050,000 mirrors a well-diversified index.
The index futures price is 1,010 and each futures contract is on $250 times the index. In this case
VA=5,050,000 and VF=1,010*250=252,500, so that 20 contracts should
be shorted to hedge the portfolio.
When the portfolio does not mirror the index, we can use the capital asset pricing
model (see the appendix to this chapter). The parameter beta 1b2 from the capital
asset pricing model is the slope of the best-fit line obtained when excess return on the portfolio over the risk-free rate is regressed against the excess return of the index over the risk-free rate. When
b=1.0, the return on the portfolio tends to mirror the return
on the index; when b=2.0, the excess return on the portfolio tends to be twice as
great as the excess return on the index; when b=0.5, it tends to be half as great; and
so on.
A portfolio with a b of 2.0 is twice as sensitive to movements in the index as a
portfolio with a beta 1.0. It is therefore necessary to use twice as many contracts to
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86 CHAPTER 3
hedge the portfolio. Similarly, a portfolio with a beta of 0.5 is half as sensitive to
market movements as a portfolio with a beta of 1.0 and we should use half as many
contracts to hedge it. In general,
N*=bVA
VF (3.5)
Hedging Portfolios with Beta
- The number of futures contracts required to hedge a portfolio is directly proportional to its beta, which measures sensitivity to index movements.
- A portfolio with a beta of 2.0 requires twice as many contracts as a portfolio with a beta of 1.0 to achieve an effective hedge.
- The hedge ratio is mathematically equivalent to the slope of the best-fit line when regressing portfolio returns against index returns.
- Empirical calculations demonstrate that shorting futures based on beta results in a total position value that remains nearly constant regardless of market fluctuations.
- The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is utilized to estimate expected portfolio returns and validate the effectiveness of the hedging strategy.
It can be seen that the total expected value of the hedgerās position in 3 months is almost independent of the value of the index.
on the index; when b=2.0, the excess return on the portfolio tends to be twice as
great as the excess return on the index; when b=0.5, it tends to be half as great; and
so on.
A portfolio with a b of 2.0 is twice as sensitive to movements in the index as a
portfolio with a beta 1.0. It is therefore necessary to use twice as many contracts to
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86 CHAPTER 3
hedge the portfolio. Similarly, a portfolio with a beta of 0.5 is half as sensitive to
market movements as a portfolio with a beta of 1.0 and we should use half as many
contracts to hedge it. In general,
N*=bVA
VF (3.5)
This formula assumes that the maturity of the futures contract is close to the maturity
of the hedge.
Comparing equation (3.5) with equation (3.3), we see that they imply hn=b. This is
not surprising. The hedge ratio hn is the slope of the best-fit line when percentage one-
day changes in the portfolio are regressed against percentage one-day changes in the futures price of the index. Beta
1b2 is the slope of the best-fit line when the return from
the portfolio is regressed against the return for the index.
We illustrate that this formula gives good results by extending our earlier example.
Suppose that a futures contract with 4 months to maturity is used to hedge the value of a portfolio over the next 3 months in the following situation:
Index level=1,000
Index futures price=1,010
Value of portfolio=+5,050,000
Risk@free interest rate=4, per annum
Dividend yield on index=1, per annum
Beta of portfolio=1.5
One futures contract is for delivery of $250 times the index. As before, VF =
250*1,010=252,500. From equation (3.5), the number of futures contracts that should
be shorted to hedge the portfolio is
1.5*5,050,000
252,500=30
Suppose the index turns out to be 900 in 3 months and the futures price is 902. The gain from the short futures position is then
30*11010-9022*250=+810,000
The loss on the index is 10%. The index pays a dividend of 1% per annum, or 0.25% per 3 months. When dividends are taken into account, an investor in the index would therefore earn
-9.75, over the 3-month period. Because the portfolio has a b of 1.5,
the capital asset pricing model gives
Expected return on portfolio-Risk@free interest rate
=1.5*1Return on index-Risk@free interest rate2
The risk-free interest rate is approximately 1% per 3 months. It follows that the expected return (%) on the portfolio during the 3 months when the 3-month return on the index is
-9.75, is
1.0+31.5*1-9.75-1.024=-15.125
The expected value of the portfolio (inclusive of dividends) at the end of the 3 months is
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 87
therefore
+5,050,000*11-0.151252=+4,286,187
It follows that the expected value of the hedgerās position, including the gain on the
hedge, is
+4,286,187++810,000=+5,096,187
Table 3.4 summarizes these calculations together with similar calculations for other
values of the index at maturity. It can be seen that the total expected value of the
hedgerās position in 3 months is almost independent of the value of the index. This is what one would expect if the hedge is a good one.
The only thing we have not covered so far is the relationship between futures prices
and spot prices. We will see in Chapter 5 that the 1,010 assumed for the futures price today is roughly what we would expect given the interest rate and dividend we are assuming. The same is true of the futures prices in 3 months shown in Table 3.4.
5
Reasons for Hedging an Equity Portfolio
Equity Portfolio Hedging Strategies
- A successful stock index hedge results in a total position value that is nearly independent of market fluctuations, effectively earning the risk-free interest rate.
- Hedging is often preferred over selling a portfolio because it allows an investor to benefit from individual stock selection while neutralizing broader market risk.
- Using futures contracts provides short-term protection during uncertain periods without the high transaction costs associated with liquidating and repurchasing a portfolio.
- Index futures can be used not only to eliminate market risk entirely but also to precisely adjust a portfolio's beta to a desired target level.
- The effectiveness of a hedge in practice may be slightly lower than theoretical models due to fluctuations in interest rates, dividend yields, and imperfect correlations.
A hedge using index futures removes the risk arising from market moves and leaves the hedger exposed only to the performance of the portfolio relative to the market.
values of the index at maturity. It can be seen that the total expected value of the
hedgerās position in 3 months is almost independent of the value of the index. This is what one would expect if the hedge is a good one.
The only thing we have not covered so far is the relationship between futures prices
and spot prices. We will see in Chapter 5 that the 1,010 assumed for the futures price today is roughly what we would expect given the interest rate and dividend we are assuming. The same is true of the futures prices in 3 months shown in Table 3.4.
5
Reasons for Hedging an Equity Portfolio
Table 3.4 shows that the hedging procedure results in a value for the hedgerās position
at the end of the 3-month period being about 1% higher than at the beginning of the 3-month period. There is no surprise here. The risk-free rate is 4% per annum, or 1% per 3 months. The hedge results in the investorās position growing at the risk-free rate.
It is natural to ask why the hedger should go to the trouble of using futures contracts.
To earn the risk-free interest rate, the hedger can simply sell the portfolio and invest the proceeds in a risk-free security.
One answer to this question is that hedging can be justified if the hedger feels that
the stocks in the portfolio have been chosen well. In these circumstances, the hedger might be very uncertain about the performance of the market as a whole, but Table 3.4 Performance of stock index hedge.
Value of index in three months: 900 950 1,000 1,050 1,100
Futures price of index today: 1,010 1,010 1,010 1,010 1,010
Futures price of index in three months: 902 952 1,003 1,053 1,103
Gain on futures position ($): 810,000 435,000 52,500
-322,500 -697 ,500
Return on market: -9.750% -4.750% 0.250% 5.250% 10.250%
Expected return on portfolio: -15.125% -7.625% -0.125% 7.375% 14.875%
Expected portfolio value in three
months including dividends ($): 4,286,187 4,664,937 5,043,687 5,422,437 5,801,187
Total value of position in three months ($): 5,096,187 5,099,937 5,096,187 5,099,937 5,103,687
5 The calculations in Table 3.4 assume that the dividend yield on the index is predictable, the risk-free interest
rate remains constant, and the return on the index over the 3-month period is perfectly correlated with the
return on the portfolio. In practice, these assumptions do not hold perfectly, and the hedge works rather less well than is indicated by Table 3.4.
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88 CHAPTER 3
confident that the stocks in the portfolio will outperform the market (after appropriate
adjustments have been made for the beta of the portfolio). A hedge using index futures removes the risk arising from market moves and leaves the hedger exposed only to the performance of the portfolio relative to the market. This will be discussed further shortly. Another reason for hedging may be that the hedger is planning to hold a
portfolio for a long period of time and requires short-term protection in an uncertain market situation. The alternative strategy of selling the portfolio and buying it back later might involve unacceptably high transaction costs.
Changing the Beta of a Portfolio
In the example in Table 3.4, the beta of the hedgerās portfolio is reduced to zero so that
the hedgerās expected return is almost independent of the performance of the index. Sometimes futures contracts are used to change the beta of a portfolio to some value other than zero. Continuing with our earlier example:
Index level=1,000
Index futures price=1,010
Value of portfolio=+5,050,000
Beta of portfolio=1.5
As before, VF=250*1,010=252,500 and a complete hedge requires
1.5*5,050,000
252,500=30
contracts to be shorted. To reduce the beta of the portfolio from 1.5 to 0.75, the
number of contracts shorted should be 15 rather than 30; to increase the beta of the portfolio to 2.0, a long position in 10 contracts should be taken; and so on. In general, to change the beta of the portfolio from
Adjusting Beta and Rolling Hedges
- Futures contracts allow investors to adjust a portfolio's beta to a specific target level, whether reducing it to zero or increasing it to amplify market exposure.
- By shorting index futures proportional to a portfolio's beta, investors can isolate their stock-picking skill from general market movements.
- Hedging market risk allows an investor to profit even when their stock price falls, provided the stock outperforms a benchmark with the same beta.
- When a hedge's duration exceeds available contract dates, investors use a 'stack and roll' strategy by sequentially closing and opening new positions.
- The mathematical formula for the number of contracts required depends on the difference between the current beta and the target beta relative to the contract value.
You do not know how well the market will perform over the next few months, but you are confident that your portfolio will do better than the market.
In the example in Table 3.4, the beta of the hedgerās portfolio is reduced to zero so that
the hedgerās expected return is almost independent of the performance of the index. Sometimes futures contracts are used to change the beta of a portfolio to some value other than zero. Continuing with our earlier example:
Index level=1,000
Index futures price=1,010
Value of portfolio=+5,050,000
Beta of portfolio=1.5
As before, VF=250*1,010=252,500 and a complete hedge requires
1.5*5,050,000
252,500=30
contracts to be shorted. To reduce the beta of the portfolio from 1.5 to 0.75, the
number of contracts shorted should be 15 rather than 30; to increase the beta of the portfolio to 2.0, a long position in 10 contracts should be taken; and so on. In general, to change the beta of the portfolio from
b to b*, where b7b*, a short position in
1b-b*2VA
VF
contracts is required. When b6b*, a long position in
1b*-b2VA
VF
contracts is required.
Locking in the Benefits of Stock Picking
Suppose you consider yourself to be good at picking stocks that will outperform the market. You own a single stock or a small portfolio of stocks. You do not know how
well the market will perform over the next few months, but you are confident that your portfolio will do better than the market. What should you do?
You should short
bVA>VF index futures contracts, where b is the beta of your
portfolio, VA is the total value of the portfolio, and VF is the current value of one
index futures contract. If your portfolio performs better than a well-diversified portfolio with the same beta, you will then make money.
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 89
Consider an investor who in April holds 20,000 shares of a company, each worth $100.
The investor feels that the market will be very volatile over the next three months but that
the company has a good chance of outperforming the market. The investor decides to use the August futures contract on the Mini S&P 500 to hedge the marketās return during the three-month period. The
b of the companyās stock is estimated at 1.1. Suppose that the
current futures price for the August contract on the Mini S&P 500 is 2,100. Each contract is for delivery of $50 times the index. In this case,
VA=20,000*100=2,000,000 and
VF=2,100*50=105,000. The number of contracts that should be shorted is therefore
1.1*2,000,000
105,000=20.95
Rounding to the nearest integer, the investor shorts 21 contracts, closing out the position in July. Suppose the companyās stock price falls to $90 and the futures price of the
Mini S&P 500 falls to 1,850. The investor loses
20,000*1$100-$902=+200,000 on the
stock, while gaining 21*50*12,100-1,8502=+262,500 on the futures contracts.
The overall gain to the investor in this case is $62,500 because the companyās stock
price did not go down by as much as a well-diversified portfolio with a b of 1.1. If the
market had gone up and the companyās stock price went up by more than a portfolio with a
b of 1.1 (as expected by the investor), then a profit would be made in this case
as well.
Sometimes the expiration date of the hedge is later than the delivery dates of all the futures contracts that can be used. The hedger must then roll the hedge forward by closing out one futures contract and taking the same position in a futures contract with a later delivery date. Hedges can be rolled forward many times. The procedure is known as stack and roll. Consider a company that wishes to use a short hedge to reduce the risk
associated with the price to be received for an asset at time T. If there are futures
contracts 1, 2, 3,Ā .Ā .Ā .Ā , n (not all necessarily in existence at the present time) with
progressively later delivery dates, the company can use the following strategy:
Time
t1: Short futures contract 1
Time t2: Close out futures contract 1
Short futures contract 2
Time t3: Close out futures contract 2
Short futures contract 3
f
Stack and Roll Hedging
- Investors can use futures to hedge specific stock risks by offsetting price movements against a diversified portfolio benchmark.
- When a hedge's expiration date exceeds available contract maturities, hedgers must use a 'stack and roll' strategy to maintain protection.
- The stack and roll process involves closing out a near-term futures contract and immediately opening a new position in a later-dated contract.
- Liquidity constraints often force companies to use short-term contracts even when their risk exposure spans several years.
- Hedging results are influenced by the relationship between spot and futures prices, meaning total compensation for price declines is not always possible.
The hedger must then roll the hedge forward by closing out one futures contract and taking the same position in a futures contract with a later delivery date.
stock, while gaining 21*50*12,100-1,8502=+262,500 on the futures contracts.
The overall gain to the investor in this case is $62,500 because the companyās stock
price did not go down by as much as a well-diversified portfolio with a b of 1.1. If the
market had gone up and the companyās stock price went up by more than a portfolio with a
b of 1.1 (as expected by the investor), then a profit would be made in this case
as well.
Sometimes the expiration date of the hedge is later than the delivery dates of all the futures contracts that can be used. The hedger must then roll the hedge forward by closing out one futures contract and taking the same position in a futures contract with a later delivery date. Hedges can be rolled forward many times. The procedure is known as stack and roll. Consider a company that wishes to use a short hedge to reduce the risk
associated with the price to be received for an asset at time T. If there are futures
contracts 1, 2, 3,Ā .Ā .Ā .Ā , n (not all necessarily in existence at the present time) with
progressively later delivery dates, the company can use the following strategy:
Time
t1: Short futures contract 1
Time t2: Close out futures contract 1
Short futures contract 2
Time t3: Close out futures contract 2
Short futures contract 3
f
Time tn: Close out futures contract n-1
Short futures contract n
Time T: Close out futures contract n.
Suppose that in April 2021 a company realizes that it will have 100,000 barrels of oil to
sell in June 2022 and decides to hedge its risk with a hedge ratio of 1.0. (In this example, we do not make the adjustment for daily settlement described in Section 3.4.) The current spot price is $49. Although futures contracts are traded with maturities stretching several 3.6 STACK AND ROLL
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90 CHAPTER 3
years into the future, we suppose that only the first six delivery months have sufficient
liquidity to meet the companyās needs. The company therefore shorts 100 October 2021 contracts. In September 2021, it rolls the hedge forward into the March 2022 contract. In February 2022, it rolls the hedge forward again into the July 2022 contract.
One possible outcome is shown in Table 3.5. The October 2021 contract is shorted
at $48.20 per barrel and closed out at $47.40 per barrel for a profit of $0.80 per barrel; the March 2022 contract is shorted at $47.00 per barrel and closed out at $46.50 per barrel for a profit of $0.50 per barrel. The July 2022 contract is shorted at $46.30 per barrel and closed out at $45.90 per barrel for a profit of $0.40 per barrel. The final
spot price is $46.
The dollar gain per barrel of oil from the short futures contracts is
148.20-47.402+147.00-46.502+146.30-45.902=1.70
The oil price declined from $49 to $46. Receiving only $1.70 per barrel compensation for a price decline of $3.00 may appear unsatisfactory. However, we cannot expect total compensation for a price decline when futures prices are below spot prices. The best we can hope for is to lock in the futures price that would apply to a June 2022 contract if it were actively traded.
In practice, a company usually has an exposure every month to the underlying asset
and uses a 1 -month futures contract for hedging because it is the most liquid. Initially it
enters into (āstacksā) sufficient contracts to cover its exposure to the end of its hedging horizon. One month later, it closes out all the contracts and ārollsā them into new 1 -month contracts to cover its new exposure, and so on.
As described in Business Snapshot 3.2, a German company, Metallgesellschaft,
Rolling Hedges and Liquidity
- Hedging long-term exposure often requires rolling over short-term futures contracts when long-term contracts are illiquid.
- The effectiveness of a hedge is limited by the futures price at the time of the contract rather than the current spot price.
- Metallgesellschaft serves as a cautionary tale of how cash flow timing mismatches can lead to severe liquidity crises.
- A stack and roll strategy creates immediate cash outflows during price declines even if long-term gains are expected.
- Effective hedging strategies must account for potential liquidity problems and the ability to fund margin calls.
The moral of the story is that potential liquidity problems should always be considered when a hedging strategy is being planned.
The oil price declined from $49 to $46. Receiving only $1.70 per barrel compensation for a price decline of $3.00 may appear unsatisfactory. However, we cannot expect total compensation for a price decline when futures prices are below spot prices. The best we can hope for is to lock in the futures price that would apply to a June 2022 contract if it were actively traded.
In practice, a company usually has an exposure every month to the underlying asset
and uses a 1 -month futures contract for hedging because it is the most liquid. Initially it
enters into (āstacksā) sufficient contracts to cover its exposure to the end of its hedging horizon. One month later, it closes out all the contracts and ārollsā them into new 1 -month contracts to cover its new exposure, and so on.
As described in Business Snapshot 3.2, a German company, Metallgesellschaft,
followed this strategy in the early 1990s to hedge contracts it had entered into to supply commodities at a fixed price. It ran into difficulties because the prices of the commod-ities declined so that there were immediate cash outflows on the futures and the
expectation of eventual gains on the contracts. This mismatch between the timing of
the cash flows on hedge and the timing of the cash flows from the position being hedged led to liquidity problems that could not be handled. The moral of the story is that
potential liquidity problems should always be considered when a hedging strategy is being planned.
SUMMARY
This chapter has discussed various ways in which a company can take a position in futures contracts to offset an exposure to the price of an asset. If the exposure is such Table 3.5 Data for the example on rolling oil hedge forward.
Date Apr. 2021 Sept. 2021 Feb. 2022 June 2022
Oct. 2021 futures price 48.20 47.40
Mar. 2022 futures price 47.00 46.50
July 2022 futures price 46.30 45.90
Spot price 49.00 46.00
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 91
Hedging Strategies and Liquidity Risks
- Hedging involves using short or long futures positions to offset asset price exposure, though theoretical arguments suggest diversified shareholders may not always require it.
- Basis risk arises from the uncertainty regarding the difference between the spot price and the futures price at the time a hedge is closed.
- The optimal hedge ratio, which minimizes variance, is determined by regressing changes in spot prices against changes in futures prices rather than simply using a 1.0 ratio.
- The 'stack and roll' strategy allows for long-term hedging using short-term contracts but can create severe liquidity crises if prices move unfavorably.
- The Metallgesellschaft case demonstrates how a massive $1.33 billion loss occurred when short-term margin calls overwhelmed a company's long-term hedging strategy.
The moral of the story is that potential liquidity problems should always be considered when a hedging strategy is being planned.
followed this strategy in the early 1990s to hedge contracts it had entered into to supply commodities at a fixed price. It ran into difficulties because the prices of the commod-ities declined so that there were immediate cash outflows on the futures and the
expectation of eventual gains on the contracts. This mismatch between the timing of
the cash flows on hedge and the timing of the cash flows from the position being hedged led to liquidity problems that could not be handled. The moral of the story is that
potential liquidity problems should always be considered when a hedging strategy is being planned.
SUMMARY
This chapter has discussed various ways in which a company can take a position in futures contracts to offset an exposure to the price of an asset. If the exposure is such Table 3.5 Data for the example on rolling oil hedge forward.
Date Apr. 2021 Sept. 2021 Feb. 2022 June 2022
Oct. 2021 futures price 48.20 47.40
Mar. 2022 futures price 47.00 46.50
July 2022 futures price 46.30 45.90
Spot price 49.00 46.00
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 91
that the company gains when the price of the asset increases and loses when the price of
the asset decreases, a short hedge is appropriate. If the exposure is the other way round (i.e., the company gains when the price of the asset decreases and loses when the price of the asset increases), a long hedge is appropriate.
Hedging is a way of reducing risk. As such, it should be welcomed by most
executives. In reality, there are a number of theoretical and practical reasons why companies do not hedge. On a theoretical level, we can argue that shareholders, by holding well-diversified portfolios, can eliminate many of the risks faced by a company. They do not require the company to hedge these risks. On a practical level, a company may find that it is increasing rather than decreasing risk by hedging if none of its competitors does so. Also, a treasurer may fear criticism from other executives if the company makes a gain from movements in the price of the underlying asset and a loss on the hedge.
An important concept in hedging is basis risk. The basis is the difference between the
spot price of an asset and its futures price. Basis risk arises from uncertainty as to what the basis will be at maturity of the hedge.
The hedge ratio is the ratio of the size of the position taken in futures contracts to the
size of the exposure. It is not always optimal to use a hedge ratio of 1.0. If the hedger wishes to minimize the variance of a position, a hedge ratio different from 1.0 may be appropriate. The optimal hedge ratio is the slope of the best-fit line obtained when changes in the spot price are regressed against changes in the futures price.
Stock index futures can be used to hedge the systematic risk in an equity portfolio.
The number of futures contracts required is the beta of the portfolio multiplied by the ratio of the value of the portfolio to the value of one futures contract. Stock index futures can also be used to change the beta of a portfolio without changing the stocks that make up the portfolio.
When there is no liquid futures contract that matures later than the expiration of the
hedge, a strategy known as stack and roll may be appropriate. This involves entering into a sequence of futures contracts. When the first futures contract is near expiration, it Business Snapshot 3.2 Metallgesellschaft: Hedging Gone Awry
Sometimes rolling hedges forward can lead to cash flow pressures. The problem was illustrated dramatically by the activities of a German company, Metallgesellschaft (MG), in the early 1990s.
MG sold a huge volume of 5- to 10-year heating oil and gasoline fixed-price
supply contracts to its customers at 6 to 8 cents above market prices. It hedged its exposure with long positions in short-dated futures contracts that were rolled
forward. As it turned out, the price of oil fell and there were margin calls on the futures positions. Considerable short-term cash flow pressures were placed on MG. The members of MG who devised the hedging strategy argued that these short-term cash outflows were offset by positive cash flows that would ultimately be realized on the long-term fixed-price contracts. However, the companyās senior management and its bankers became concerned about the huge cash drain. As a result, the
company closed out all the hedge positions and agreed with its customers that the fixed-price contracts would be abandoned. The outcome was a loss to MG of
$1.33 billion.
Hedging Strategies and Risks
- Hedging involves choosing between long and short positions to offset potential losses from asset price fluctuations.
- Theoretical arguments suggest shareholders can diversify risk themselves, while practical concerns like competitor behavior and internal criticism may discourage corporate hedging.
- Basis risk and the calculation of optimal hedge ratios are critical for minimizing the variance of a financial position.
- Stock index futures allow investors to manage systematic risk or adjust a portfolio's beta without selling underlying assets.
- The 'stack and roll' strategy can create long-term protection using short-dated contracts but carries significant cash flow risks, as seen in the Metallgesellschaft case.
The result of all this is the creation of a long-dated futures contract by trading a series of short-dated contracts.
that the company gains when the price of the asset increases and loses when the price of
the asset decreases, a short hedge is appropriate. If the exposure is the other way round (i.e., the company gains when the price of the asset decreases and loses when the price of the asset increases), a long hedge is appropriate.
Hedging is a way of reducing risk. As such, it should be welcomed by most
executives. In reality, there are a number of theoretical and practical reasons why companies do not hedge. On a theoretical level, we can argue that shareholders, by holding well-diversified portfolios, can eliminate many of the risks faced by a company. They do not require the company to hedge these risks. On a practical level, a company may find that it is increasing rather than decreasing risk by hedging if none of its competitors does so. Also, a treasurer may fear criticism from other executives if the company makes a gain from movements in the price of the underlying asset and a loss on the hedge.
An important concept in hedging is basis risk. The basis is the difference between the
spot price of an asset and its futures price. Basis risk arises from uncertainty as to what the basis will be at maturity of the hedge.
The hedge ratio is the ratio of the size of the position taken in futures contracts to the
size of the exposure. It is not always optimal to use a hedge ratio of 1.0. If the hedger wishes to minimize the variance of a position, a hedge ratio different from 1.0 may be appropriate. The optimal hedge ratio is the slope of the best-fit line obtained when changes in the spot price are regressed against changes in the futures price.
Stock index futures can be used to hedge the systematic risk in an equity portfolio.
The number of futures contracts required is the beta of the portfolio multiplied by the ratio of the value of the portfolio to the value of one futures contract. Stock index futures can also be used to change the beta of a portfolio without changing the stocks that make up the portfolio.
When there is no liquid futures contract that matures later than the expiration of the
hedge, a strategy known as stack and roll may be appropriate. This involves entering into a sequence of futures contracts. When the first futures contract is near expiration, it Business Snapshot 3.2 Metallgesellschaft: Hedging Gone Awry
Sometimes rolling hedges forward can lead to cash flow pressures. The problem was illustrated dramatically by the activities of a German company, Metallgesellschaft (MG), in the early 1990s.
MG sold a huge volume of 5- to 10-year heating oil and gasoline fixed-price
supply contracts to its customers at 6 to 8 cents above market prices. It hedged its exposure with long positions in short-dated futures contracts that were rolled
forward. As it turned out, the price of oil fell and there were margin calls on the futures positions. Considerable short-term cash flow pressures were placed on MG. The members of MG who devised the hedging strategy argued that these short-term cash outflows were offset by positive cash flows that would ultimately be realized on the long-term fixed-price contracts. However, the companyās senior management and its bankers became concerned about the huge cash drain. As a result, the
company closed out all the hedge positions and agreed with its customers that the fixed-price contracts would be abandoned. The outcome was a loss to MG of
$1.33 billion.
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92 CHAPTER 3
is closed out and the hedger enters into a second contract with a later delivery month.
When the second contract is close to expiration, it is closed out and the hedger enters into a third contract with a later delivery month; and so on. The result of all this is the creation of a long-dated futures contract by trading a series of short-dated contracts.
FURTHER READING
Hedging Strategies and Risks
- Companies use short hedges to protect against price decreases and long hedges to protect against price increases in underlying assets.
- Theoretical arguments suggest that well-diversified shareholders can eliminate risks themselves, making corporate hedging potentially redundant.
- Basis risk arises from the uncertainty regarding the difference between the spot price and the futures price at the time a hedge is closed.
- The 'stack and roll' strategy allows for long-term hedging using short-dated contracts but can create severe cash flow pressures through margin calls.
- The Metallgesellschaft case illustrates how a massive hedging strategy can fail due to short-term liquidity crises despite long-term theoretical offsets.
The outcome was a loss to MG of $1.33 billion.
that the company gains when the price of the asset increases and loses when the price of
the asset decreases, a short hedge is appropriate. If the exposure is the other way round (i.e., the company gains when the price of the asset decreases and loses when the price of the asset increases), a long hedge is appropriate.
Hedging is a way of reducing risk. As such, it should be welcomed by most
executives. In reality, there are a number of theoretical and practical reasons why companies do not hedge. On a theoretical level, we can argue that shareholders, by holding well-diversified portfolios, can eliminate many of the risks faced by a company. They do not require the company to hedge these risks. On a practical level, a company may find that it is increasing rather than decreasing risk by hedging if none of its competitors does so. Also, a treasurer may fear criticism from other executives if the company makes a gain from movements in the price of the underlying asset and a loss on the hedge.
An important concept in hedging is basis risk. The basis is the difference between the
spot price of an asset and its futures price. Basis risk arises from uncertainty as to what the basis will be at maturity of the hedge.
The hedge ratio is the ratio of the size of the position taken in futures contracts to the
size of the exposure. It is not always optimal to use a hedge ratio of 1.0. If the hedger wishes to minimize the variance of a position, a hedge ratio different from 1.0 may be appropriate. The optimal hedge ratio is the slope of the best-fit line obtained when changes in the spot price are regressed against changes in the futures price.
Stock index futures can be used to hedge the systematic risk in an equity portfolio.
The number of futures contracts required is the beta of the portfolio multiplied by the ratio of the value of the portfolio to the value of one futures contract. Stock index futures can also be used to change the beta of a portfolio without changing the stocks that make up the portfolio.
When there is no liquid futures contract that matures later than the expiration of the
hedge, a strategy known as stack and roll may be appropriate. This involves entering into a sequence of futures contracts. When the first futures contract is near expiration, it Business Snapshot 3.2 Metallgesellschaft: Hedging Gone Awry
Sometimes rolling hedges forward can lead to cash flow pressures. The problem was illustrated dramatically by the activities of a German company, Metallgesellschaft (MG), in the early 1990s.
MG sold a huge volume of 5- to 10-year heating oil and gasoline fixed-price
supply contracts to its customers at 6 to 8 cents above market prices. It hedged its exposure with long positions in short-dated futures contracts that were rolled
forward. As it turned out, the price of oil fell and there were margin calls on the futures positions. Considerable short-term cash flow pressures were placed on MG. The members of MG who devised the hedging strategy argued that these short-term cash outflows were offset by positive cash flows that would ultimately be realized on the long-term fixed-price contracts. However, the companyās senior management and its bankers became concerned about the huge cash drain. As a result, the
company closed out all the hedge positions and agreed with its customers that the fixed-price contracts would be abandoned. The outcome was a loss to MG of
$1.33 billion.
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92 CHAPTER 3
is closed out and the hedger enters into a second contract with a later delivery month.
When the second contract is close to expiration, it is closed out and the hedger enters into a third contract with a later delivery month; and so on. The result of all this is the creation of a long-dated futures contract by trading a series of short-dated contracts.
FURTHER READING
Adam, T., S. Dasgupta, and S. Titman. āFinancial Constraints, Competition, and Hedging in
Industry Equilibrium, ā Journal of Finance, 62, 5 (October 2007): 2445ā73.
Adam, T. and C.S. Fernando. āHedging, Speculation, and Shareholder Value, ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 81, 2 (August 2006): 283ā309.
Allayannis, G., and J. Weston. āThe Use of Foreign Currency Derivatives and Firm Market
Value, ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 1 (Spring 2001): 243ā76.
Brown, G. W. āManaging Foreign Exchange Risk with Derivatives. ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 60 (2001): 401 ā48.
Campbell, J. Y., K. Serfatyāde Medeiros, and L. M. Viceira. āGlobal Currency Hedging, ā
Journal of Finance, 65, 1 (February 2010): 87ā121.
Campello, M., C. Lin, Y. Ma, and H. Zou. āThe Real and Financial Implications of Corporate
Hedging, ā Journal of Finance, 66, 5 (October 2011): 1615ā47.
Cotter, J., and J. Hanly. āHedging: Scaling and the Investor Horizon, ā Journal of Risk, 12, 2
(Winter 2009/2010): 49ā77.
Culp, C. and M. H. Miller. āMetallgesellschaft and the Economics of Synthetic Storage, ā Journal
of Applied Corporate Finance, 7, 4 (Winter 1995): 62ā76.
Edwards, F. R. and M. S. Canter. āThe Collapse of Metallgesellschaft: Unhedgeable Risks, Poor
Hedging Strategy, or Just Bad Luck?ā Journal of Applied Corporate Finance, 8, 1 (Spring 1995):
86ā105.
Graham, J. R. and C. W. Smith, Jr. āTax Incentives to Hedge, ā Journal of Finance, 54, 6 (1999):
2241 ā62.
Haushalter, G. D. āFinancing Policy, Basis Risk, and Corporate Hedging: Evidence from Oil
and Gas Producers, ā Journal of Finance, 55, 1 (2000): 107ā52.
Jin, Y., and P . Jorion. āFirm Value and Hedging: Evidence from U.S. Oil and Gas Producers, ā
Journal of Finance, 61, 2 (April 2006): 893ā919.
Mello, A. S. and J. E. Parsons. āHedging and Liquidity, ā Review of Financial Studies, 13 (Spring
2000): 127ā53.
Corporate Hedging Literature
- The bibliography lists seminal academic research on the relationship between corporate hedging and shareholder value.
- Several studies examine the impact of financial constraints and competition on a firm's decision to hedge risks.
- The text highlights specific case studies and analyses of the Metallgesellschaft collapse to explore hedging failures.
- Research focuses on diverse industries, including gold mining and oil and gas production, to provide empirical evidence for risk management practices.
- The collection addresses various hedging instruments, such as foreign currency derivatives and short-term futures contracts.
The Collapse of Metallgesellschaft: Unhedgeable Risks, Poor Hedging Strategy, or Just Bad Luck?
Adam, T., S. Dasgupta, and S. Titman. āFinancial Constraints, Competition, and Hedging in
Industry Equilibrium, ā Journal of Finance, 62, 5 (October 2007): 2445ā73.
Adam, T. and C.S. Fernando. āHedging, Speculation, and Shareholder Value, ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 81, 2 (August 2006): 283ā309.
Allayannis, G., and J. Weston. āThe Use of Foreign Currency Derivatives and Firm Market
Value, ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 1 (Spring 2001): 243ā76.
Brown, G. W. āManaging Foreign Exchange Risk with Derivatives. ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 60 (2001): 401 ā48.
Campbell, J. Y., K. Serfatyāde Medeiros, and L. M. Viceira. āGlobal Currency Hedging, ā
Journal of Finance, 65, 1 (February 2010): 87ā121.
Campello, M., C. Lin, Y. Ma, and H. Zou. āThe Real and Financial Implications of Corporate
Hedging, ā Journal of Finance, 66, 5 (October 2011): 1615ā47.
Cotter, J., and J. Hanly. āHedging: Scaling and the Investor Horizon, ā Journal of Risk, 12, 2
(Winter 2009/2010): 49ā77.
Culp, C. and M. H. Miller. āMetallgesellschaft and the Economics of Synthetic Storage, ā Journal
of Applied Corporate Finance, 7, 4 (Winter 1995): 62ā76.
Edwards, F. R. and M. S. Canter. āThe Collapse of Metallgesellschaft: Unhedgeable Risks, Poor
Hedging Strategy, or Just Bad Luck?ā Journal of Applied Corporate Finance, 8, 1 (Spring 1995):
86ā105.
Graham, J. R. and C. W. Smith, Jr. āTax Incentives to Hedge, ā Journal of Finance, 54, 6 (1999):
2241 ā62.
Haushalter, G. D. āFinancing Policy, Basis Risk, and Corporate Hedging: Evidence from Oil
and Gas Producers, ā Journal of Finance, 55, 1 (2000): 107ā52.
Jin, Y., and P . Jorion. āFirm Value and Hedging: Evidence from U.S. Oil and Gas Producers, ā
Journal of Finance, 61, 2 (April 2006): 893ā919.
Mello, A. S. and J. E. Parsons. āHedging and Liquidity, ā Review of Financial Studies, 13 (Spring
2000): 127ā53.
Neuberger, A. J. āHedging Long-Term Exposures with Multiple Short-Term Futures Contracts, ā
Review of Financial Studies, 12 (1999): 429ā59.
Petersen, M. A. and S. R. Thiagarajan, āRisk Management and Hedging: With and Without
Derivatives, ā Financial Management, 29, 4 (Winter 2000): 5ā30.
Rendleman, R. ā A Reconciliation of Potentially Conflicting Approaches to Hedging with
Futures, ā Advances in Futures and Options, 6 (1993): 81 ā92.
Stulz, R. M. āOptimal Hedging Policies, ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 19
(June 1984): 127ā40.
Tufano, P . āWho Manages Risk? An Empirical Examination of Risk Management Practices in
the Gold Mining Industry, ā Journal of Finance, 51, 4 (1996): 1097ā1138.
M03_HULL0654_11_GE_C03.indd 92 30/04/2021 16:44
Hedging Strategies Using Futures 93
Practice Questions
Hedging Strategies and Practice
- The text provides academic references for foundational research on optimal hedging policies and risk management practices in the gold mining industry.
- It introduces the concept of a perfect hedge and challenges the assumption that it always leads to a superior outcome compared to an imperfect one.
- Practical problems explore the calculation of optimal hedge ratios using standard deviations and correlation coefficients between spot and futures prices.
- The material covers strategic applications of index futures, including how to adjust a portfolio's beta to a specific target level.
- It examines the mechanics of basis risk, explaining how unexpected strengthening or weakening of the basis affects the profitability of short hedgers.
Does a perfect hedge always lead to a better outcome than an imperfect hedge?
Rendleman, R. ā A Reconciliation of Potentially Conflicting Approaches to Hedging with
Futures, ā Advances in Futures and Options, 6 (1993): 81 ā92.
Stulz, R. M. āOptimal Hedging Policies, ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 19
(June 1984): 127ā40.
Tufano, P . āWho Manages Risk? An Empirical Examination of Risk Management Practices in
the Gold Mining Industry, ā Journal of Finance, 51, 4 (1996): 1097ā1138.
M03_HULL0654_11_GE_C03.indd 92 30/04/2021 16:44
Hedging Strategies Using Futures 93
Practice Questions
3.1. Explain what is meant by a perfect hedge. Does a perfect hedge always lead to a better
outcome than an imperfect hedge? Explain your answer.
3.2. Under what circumstances does a minimum variance hedge portfolio lead to no hedging at all?
3.3. Suppose that the standard deviation of quarterly changes in the prices of a commodity is $0.65, the standard deviation of quarterly changes in a futures price on the commodity is $0.81, and the coefficient of correlation between the two changes is 0.8. What is the
optimal hedge ratio for a 3-month contract? What does it mean?
3.4. A company has a $20 million portfolio with a beta of 1.2. It would like to use futures
contracts on a stock index to hedge its risk. The index futures price is currently standing at 1080, and each contract is for delivery of $250 times the index. What is the hedge that minimizes risk? What should the company do if it wants to reduce the beta of the
portfolio to 0.6?
3.5. In the corn futures contract traded on an exchange, the following delivery months are available: March, May, July, September, and December. Which of the available contracts should be used for hedging when the expiration of the hedge is in (a) June, (b) July, and (c) January.
3.6. Does a perfect hedge always succeed in locking in the current spot price of an asset for a future transaction? Explain your answer.
3.7. Explain why a short hedgerās position improves when the basis strengthens unexpectedly and worsens when the basis weakens unexpectedly.
3.8. Imagine you are the treasurer of a Japanese company exporting electronic equipment to the United States. Discuss how you would design a foreign exchange hedging strategy and the arguments you would use to sell the strategy to your fellow executives.
3.9. Suppose that in Example 3.2 of Section 3.3 the company decides to use a hedge ratio of 0.8. How does the decision affect the way in which the hedge is implemented and the result?
3.10. āIf the minimum variance hedge ratio is calculated as 1.0, the hedge must be perfect. ā Is
this statement true? Explain your answer.
3.11. āIf there is no basis risk, the minimum variance hedge ratio is always 1.0. ā Is this
statement true? Explain your answer.
3.12. āWhen the futures price of an asset is less than the spot price, long hedges are likely to be particularly attractive. ā Explain this statement.
3.13. The standard deviation of monthly changes in the spot price of live cattle is (in cents per pound) 1.2. The standard deviation of monthly changes in the futures price of live cattle for the closest contract is 1.4. The correlation between the futures price changes and the spot price changes is 0.7. It is now October 15. A beef producer is committed to
purchasing 200,000 pounds of live cattle on November 15. The producer wants to use
the December live cattle futures contracts to hedge its risk. Each contract is for the
delivery of 40,000 pounds of cattle. What strategy should the beef producer follow?
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94 CHAPTER 3
Hedging Strategies and Risk Management
- The text explores the mechanics of perfect versus imperfect hedges and how basis risk influences the final financial outcome for hedgers.
- Mathematical problems demonstrate how to calculate optimal hedge ratios using standard deviations and correlation coefficients between spot and futures prices.
- Practical scenarios address how companies can use index futures to adjust portfolio betas or manage foreign exchange exposure in international trade.
- The material challenges common misconceptions about hedging, such as the belief that futures are unnecessary if price movements are equally likely to be favorable or unfavorable.
- Specific industry examples, including corn farming and airline fuel management, highlight the tension between price risk and production risk.
My real risk is not the price of corn. It is that my whole crop gets wiped out by the weather.
3.1. Explain what is meant by a perfect hedge. Does a perfect hedge always lead to a better
outcome than an imperfect hedge? Explain your answer.
3.2. Under what circumstances does a minimum variance hedge portfolio lead to no hedging at all?
3.3. Suppose that the standard deviation of quarterly changes in the prices of a commodity is $0.65, the standard deviation of quarterly changes in a futures price on the commodity is $0.81, and the coefficient of correlation between the two changes is 0.8. What is the
optimal hedge ratio for a 3-month contract? What does it mean?
3.4. A company has a $20 million portfolio with a beta of 1.2. It would like to use futures
contracts on a stock index to hedge its risk. The index futures price is currently standing at 1080, and each contract is for delivery of $250 times the index. What is the hedge that minimizes risk? What should the company do if it wants to reduce the beta of the
portfolio to 0.6?
3.5. In the corn futures contract traded on an exchange, the following delivery months are available: March, May, July, September, and December. Which of the available contracts should be used for hedging when the expiration of the hedge is in (a) June, (b) July, and (c) January.
3.6. Does a perfect hedge always succeed in locking in the current spot price of an asset for a future transaction? Explain your answer.
3.7. Explain why a short hedgerās position improves when the basis strengthens unexpectedly and worsens when the basis weakens unexpectedly.
3.8. Imagine you are the treasurer of a Japanese company exporting electronic equipment to the United States. Discuss how you would design a foreign exchange hedging strategy and the arguments you would use to sell the strategy to your fellow executives.
3.9. Suppose that in Example 3.2 of Section 3.3 the company decides to use a hedge ratio of 0.8. How does the decision affect the way in which the hedge is implemented and the result?
3.10. āIf the minimum variance hedge ratio is calculated as 1.0, the hedge must be perfect. ā Is
this statement true? Explain your answer.
3.11. āIf there is no basis risk, the minimum variance hedge ratio is always 1.0. ā Is this
statement true? Explain your answer.
3.12. āWhen the futures price of an asset is less than the spot price, long hedges are likely to be particularly attractive. ā Explain this statement.
3.13. The standard deviation of monthly changes in the spot price of live cattle is (in cents per pound) 1.2. The standard deviation of monthly changes in the futures price of live cattle for the closest contract is 1.4. The correlation between the futures price changes and the spot price changes is 0.7. It is now October 15. A beef producer is committed to
purchasing 200,000 pounds of live cattle on November 15. The producer wants to use
the December live cattle futures contracts to hedge its risk. Each contract is for the
delivery of 40,000 pounds of cattle. What strategy should the beef producer follow?
M03_HULL0654_11_GE_C03.indd 93 30/04/2021 16:44
94 CHAPTER 3
3.14. A corn farmer argues āI do not use futures contracts for hedging. My real risk is not the
price of corn. It is that my whole crop gets wiped out by the weather. ā Discuss this
viewpoint. Should the farmer estimate his or her expected production of corn and hedge to try to lock in a price for expected production?
3.15. On July 1, an investor holds 50,000 shares of a certain stock. The market price is $30 per share. The investor is interested in hedging against movements in the market over the next month and decides to use an index futures contract. The index futures price is currently 1,500 and one contract is for delivery of $50 times the index. The beta of the stock is 1.3. What strategy should the investor follow? Under what circumstances will it be profitable?
3.16. Suppose that in Table 3.5 the company decides to use a hedge ratio of 1.5. How does the decision affect the way the hedge is implemented and the result?
3.17. An airline executive has argued: āThere is no point in our using oil futures. There is just
as much chance that the price of oil in the future will be less than the futures price as there is that it will be greater than this price. ā Discuss the executiveās viewpoint.
3.18. Suppose that the 1 -year gold lease rate is 1.5% and the 1 -year risk-free rate is 5.0%. Both rates are compounded annually. Use the discussion in Business Snapshot 3.1 to calculate the maximum 1 -year gold forward price Goldman Sachs should quote to the gold-mining company when the spot price is $1,200.
3.19. The expected return on the S&P 500 is 12% and the risk-free rate is 5%. What is the expected return on an investment with a beta of (a) 0.2, (b) 0.5, and (c) 1.4?
3.20. It is now June. A company knows that it will sell 5,000 barrels of crude oil in September. It uses the October CME Group futures contract to hedge the price it will receive. Each contract is on 1,000 barrels of ālight sweet crude. ā What position should it take? What
price risks is it still exposed to after taking the position?
3.21. Sixty futures contracts are used to hedge an exposure to the price of silver. Each futures contract is on 5,000 ounces of silver. At the time the hedge is closed out, the basis is $0.20 per ounce. What is the effect of the basis on the hedgerās financial position if (a) the trader is hedging the purchase of silver and (b) the trader is hedging the sale of silver?
3.22. A trader owns 55,000 units of a particular asset and decides to hedge the value of her position with futures contracts on another related asset. Each futures contract is on 5,000 units. The spot price of the asset that is owned is $28 and the standard deviation of the change in this price over the life of the hedge is estimated to be $0.43. The futures price of the related asset is $27 and the standard deviation of the change in this over the life of the hedge is $0.40. The coefficient of correlation between the spot price change and futures price change is 0.95.
(a) What is the minimum variance hedge ratio?
(b) Should the hedger take a long or short futures position?
(c) What is the optimal number of futures contracts when adjustments for daily settle-
ment are not considered?
(d) How can the daily settlement of futures contracts be taken into account?
Hedging Strategies and Financial Exercises
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on managing financial risk through futures contracts.
- It explores the philosophical debate between hedging price volatility versus managing production risks like weather-related crop failure.
- Specific scenarios address the calculation of optimal hedge ratios and the impact of basis risk on silver and oil transactions.
- The exercises challenge the common executive misconception that futures are pointless because price movements are equally likely to be favorable or unfavorable.
- Mathematical applications include determining the number of contracts needed for stock portfolios based on their beta and the S&P 500 index.
My real risk is not the price of corn. It is that my whole crop gets wiped out by the weather.
3.14. A corn farmer argues āI do not use futures contracts for hedging. My real risk is not the
price of corn. It is that my whole crop gets wiped out by the weather. ā Discuss this
viewpoint. Should the farmer estimate his or her expected production of corn and hedge to try to lock in a price for expected production?
3.15. On July 1, an investor holds 50,000 shares of a certain stock. The market price is $30 per share. The investor is interested in hedging against movements in the market over the next month and decides to use an index futures contract. The index futures price is currently 1,500 and one contract is for delivery of $50 times the index. The beta of the stock is 1.3. What strategy should the investor follow? Under what circumstances will it be profitable?
3.16. Suppose that in Table 3.5 the company decides to use a hedge ratio of 1.5. How does the decision affect the way the hedge is implemented and the result?
3.17. An airline executive has argued: āThere is no point in our using oil futures. There is just
as much chance that the price of oil in the future will be less than the futures price as there is that it will be greater than this price. ā Discuss the executiveās viewpoint.
3.18. Suppose that the 1 -year gold lease rate is 1.5% and the 1 -year risk-free rate is 5.0%. Both rates are compounded annually. Use the discussion in Business Snapshot 3.1 to calculate the maximum 1 -year gold forward price Goldman Sachs should quote to the gold-mining company when the spot price is $1,200.
3.19. The expected return on the S&P 500 is 12% and the risk-free rate is 5%. What is the expected return on an investment with a beta of (a) 0.2, (b) 0.5, and (c) 1.4?
3.20. It is now June. A company knows that it will sell 5,000 barrels of crude oil in September. It uses the October CME Group futures contract to hedge the price it will receive. Each contract is on 1,000 barrels of ālight sweet crude. ā What position should it take? What
price risks is it still exposed to after taking the position?
3.21. Sixty futures contracts are used to hedge an exposure to the price of silver. Each futures contract is on 5,000 ounces of silver. At the time the hedge is closed out, the basis is $0.20 per ounce. What is the effect of the basis on the hedgerās financial position if (a) the trader is hedging the purchase of silver and (b) the trader is hedging the sale of silver?
3.22. A trader owns 55,000 units of a particular asset and decides to hedge the value of her position with futures contracts on another related asset. Each futures contract is on 5,000 units. The spot price of the asset that is owned is $28 and the standard deviation of the change in this price over the life of the hedge is estimated to be $0.43. The futures price of the related asset is $27 and the standard deviation of the change in this over the life of the hedge is $0.40. The coefficient of correlation between the spot price change and futures price change is 0.95.
(a) What is the minimum variance hedge ratio?
(b) Should the hedger take a long or short futures position?
(c) What is the optimal number of futures contracts when adjustments for daily settle-
ment are not considered?
(d) How can the daily settlement of futures contracts be taken into account?
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 95
Hedging Strategies and Quantitative Problems
- The text presents a series of practical problems focused on managing financial risk through futures contracts and hedging techniques.
- It explores the philosophical debate over hedging, such as whether a farmer should hedge expected production when weather poses a greater risk than price.
- Mathematical exercises require calculating optimal hedge ratios, the number of contracts needed, and the impact of basis risk on financial positions.
- The problems cover diverse assets including corn, stocks, oil, gold, and silver, illustrating the broad applicability of futures in different industries.
- Specific scenarios address the use of index futures to adjust portfolio beta and the calculation of forward prices based on lease and risk-free rates.
My real risk is not the price of corn. It is that my whole crop gets wiped out by the weather.
3.14. A corn farmer argues āI do not use futures contracts for hedging. My real risk is not the
price of corn. It is that my whole crop gets wiped out by the weather. ā Discuss this
viewpoint. Should the farmer estimate his or her expected production of corn and hedge to try to lock in a price for expected production?
3.15. On July 1, an investor holds 50,000 shares of a certain stock. The market price is $30 per share. The investor is interested in hedging against movements in the market over the next month and decides to use an index futures contract. The index futures price is currently 1,500 and one contract is for delivery of $50 times the index. The beta of the stock is 1.3. What strategy should the investor follow? Under what circumstances will it be profitable?
3.16. Suppose that in Table 3.5 the company decides to use a hedge ratio of 1.5. How does the decision affect the way the hedge is implemented and the result?
3.17. An airline executive has argued: āThere is no point in our using oil futures. There is just
as much chance that the price of oil in the future will be less than the futures price as there is that it will be greater than this price. ā Discuss the executiveās viewpoint.
3.18. Suppose that the 1 -year gold lease rate is 1.5% and the 1 -year risk-free rate is 5.0%. Both rates are compounded annually. Use the discussion in Business Snapshot 3.1 to calculate the maximum 1 -year gold forward price Goldman Sachs should quote to the gold-mining company when the spot price is $1,200.
3.19. The expected return on the S&P 500 is 12% and the risk-free rate is 5%. What is the expected return on an investment with a beta of (a) 0.2, (b) 0.5, and (c) 1.4?
3.20. It is now June. A company knows that it will sell 5,000 barrels of crude oil in September. It uses the October CME Group futures contract to hedge the price it will receive. Each contract is on 1,000 barrels of ālight sweet crude. ā What position should it take? What
price risks is it still exposed to after taking the position?
3.21. Sixty futures contracts are used to hedge an exposure to the price of silver. Each futures contract is on 5,000 ounces of silver. At the time the hedge is closed out, the basis is $0.20 per ounce. What is the effect of the basis on the hedgerās financial position if (a) the trader is hedging the purchase of silver and (b) the trader is hedging the sale of silver?
3.22. A trader owns 55,000 units of a particular asset and decides to hedge the value of her position with futures contracts on another related asset. Each futures contract is on 5,000 units. The spot price of the asset that is owned is $28 and the standard deviation of the change in this price over the life of the hedge is estimated to be $0.43. The futures price of the related asset is $27 and the standard deviation of the change in this over the life of the hedge is $0.40. The coefficient of correlation between the spot price change and futures price change is 0.95.
(a) What is the minimum variance hedge ratio?
(b) Should the hedger take a long or short futures position?
(c) What is the optimal number of futures contracts when adjustments for daily settle-
ment are not considered?
(d) How can the daily settlement of futures contracts be taken into account?
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 95
3.23. A company wishes to hedge its exposure to a new fuel whose price changes have a 0.6
correlation with gasoline futures price changes. The company will lose $1 million for each 1 cent increase in the price per gallon of the new fuel over the next three months. The new fuelās price changes have a standard deviation that is 50% greater than price changes in gasoline futures prices. If gasoline futures are used to hedge the exposure, what should the hedge ratio be? What is the companyās exposure measured in gallons of the new fuel? What position, measured in gallons, should the company take in gasoline futures? How many gasoline futures contracts should be traded? Each contract is on 42,000 gallons.
3.24. A portfolio manager has maintained an actively managed portfolio with a beta of 0.2. During the last year, the risk-free rate was 5% and equities performed very badly
Hedging and the CAPM
- The text presents practical exercises on calculating hedge ratios for fuel exposure and adjusting portfolio betas using index futures.
- The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) distinguishes between systematic risk, which is market-related, and nonsystematic risk, which can be diversified away.
- According to CAPM, an asset's expected return is determined solely by its systematic risk, represented by the parameter beta.
- Beta is estimated by regressing an asset's excess return against the market's excess return, with a beta of zero indicating no market sensitivity.
- The model assumes that investors prioritize only the expected return and standard deviation of an asset's performance.
Systematic risk is risk related to the return from the market as a whole and cannot be diversified away.
3.23. A company wishes to hedge its exposure to a new fuel whose price changes have a 0.6
correlation with gasoline futures price changes. The company will lose $1 million for each 1 cent increase in the price per gallon of the new fuel over the next three months. The new fuelās price changes have a standard deviation that is 50% greater than price changes in gasoline futures prices. If gasoline futures are used to hedge the exposure, what should the hedge ratio be? What is the companyās exposure measured in gallons of the new fuel? What position, measured in gallons, should the company take in gasoline futures? How many gasoline futures contracts should be traded? Each contract is on 42,000 gallons.
3.24. A portfolio manager has maintained an actively managed portfolio with a beta of 0.2. During the last year, the risk-free rate was 5% and equities performed very badly
providing a return of
-30,. The portfolio manager produced a return of -10, and
claims that in the circumstances it was a good performance. Discuss this claim.
3.25. It is July 16. A company has a portfolio of stocks worth $100 million. The beta of the
portfolio is 1.2. The company would like to use the December futures contract on a stock index to change the beta of the portfolio to 0.5 during the period July 16 to November 16. The index futures price is currently 2,000 and each contract is on $250 times the index.
(a) What position should the company take?
(b) Suppose that the company changes its mind and decides to increase the beta of the
portfolio from 1.2 to 1.5. What position in futures contracts should it take?
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96 CHAPTER 3
APPENDIX
CAPITAL ASSET PRICING MODEL
The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is a model that can be used to relate the
expected return from an asset to the risk of the return. The risk in the return from an asset is divided into two parts. Systematic risk is risk related to the return from the
market as a whole and cannot be diversified away. Nonsystematic risk is risk that is unique to the asset and can be diversified away by choosing a large portfolio of different assets. CAPM argues that the return should depend only on systematic risk. The CAPM formula is
6
Expected return on asset=RF+b1RM-RF2 (3A.1)
where RM is the return on the portfolio of all available investments, RF is the return on
a risk-free investment, and b (the Greek letter beta) is a parameter measuring
systematic risk.
The return from the portfolio of all available investments, RM, is referred to as the
return on the market and is usually approximated as the return on a well-diversified stock index such as the S&P 500. The beta
1b2 of an asset is a measure of the sensitivity
of its returns to returns from the market. It can be estimated from historical data as the slope obtained when the excess return on the asset over the risk-free rate is regressed against the excess return on the market over the risk-free rate. When
b=0, an assetās
returns are not sensitive to returns from the market. In this case, it has no systematic risk and equation (3A.1) shows that its expected return is the risk-free rate; when
b=0.5, the excess return on the asset over the risk-free rate is on average half of the
excess return of the market over the risk-free rate; when b=1, the expected return on
the asset equals to the return on the market; and so on.
Suppose that the risk-free rate RF is 5% and the return on the market is 13%.
Equation (3A.1) shows that, when the beta of an asset is zero, its expected return is 5%. When
b=0.75, its expected return is 0.05+0.75*10.13-0.052=0.11, or 11%.
The derivation of CAPM requires a number of assumptions.7 In particular:
1. Investors care only about the expected return and standard deviation of the return from an asset.
2. The returns from two assets are correlated with each other only because of their
CAPM Assumptions and Interest Rates
- The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) defines an asset's expected return based on its beta, which measures sensitivity to market movements.
- The model relies on several idealized assumptions, including a single-factor market driver, uniform investor time horizons, and the absence of taxes.
- While CAPM is a poor predictor for individual stocks, it is highly effective for valuing and hedging well-diversified portfolios.
- Interest rates serve as a fundamental component in the valuation of nearly all derivatives and are measured through various compounding frequencies.
- Advanced financial analysis utilizes zero rates, par yields, and duration measures to manage the sensitivity of bond prices to interest rate fluctuations.
These assumptions are at best only approximately true. Nevertheless CAPM has proved to be a useful tool for portfolio managers and is often used as a benchmark for assessing their performance.
returns are not sensitive to returns from the market. In this case, it has no systematic risk and equation (3A.1) shows that its expected return is the risk-free rate; when
b=0.5, the excess return on the asset over the risk-free rate is on average half of the
excess return of the market over the risk-free rate; when b=1, the expected return on
the asset equals to the return on the market; and so on.
Suppose that the risk-free rate RF is 5% and the return on the market is 13%.
Equation (3A.1) shows that, when the beta of an asset is zero, its expected return is 5%. When
b=0.75, its expected return is 0.05+0.75*10.13-0.052=0.11, or 11%.
The derivation of CAPM requires a number of assumptions.7 In particular:
1. Investors care only about the expected return and standard deviation of the return from an asset.
2. The returns from two assets are correlated with each other only because of their
correlation with the return from the market. This is equivalent to assuming that there is only one factor driving returns.
3. Investors focus on returns over a single period and that period is the same for all investors.
4. Investors can borrow and lend at the same risk-free rate.
5. Tax does not influence investment decisions.
6. All investors make the same estimates of expected returns, standard deviations of
returns, and correlations between returns.
6 If the return on the market is not known, RM is replaced by the expected value of RM in this formula.
7 For details on the derivation, see, for example, J. C. Hull, Risk Management and Financial Institutions,
5th edn. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley, 2018, Chap. 1.
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Hedging Strategies Using Futures 97
These assumptions are at best only approximately true. Nevertheless CAPM has proved
to be a useful tool for portfolio managers and is often used as a benchmark for
assessing their performance.
When the asset is an individual stock, the expected return given by equation (3A.1) is
not a particularly good predictor of the actual return. But, when the asset is a well-
diversified portfolio of stocks, it is a much better predictor. As a result, the equation
Return on diversified portfolio=RF+b1RM-RF2
can be used as a basis for hedging a diversified portfolio, as described in Section 3.5.
The b in the equation is the beta of the portfolio. It can be calculated as the weighted
average of the betas of the stocks in the portfolio.
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98
Interest Rates4 CHAPTER
Interest rates are a factor in the valuation of virtually all derivatives and will feature
prominently in much of the material that will be presented in the rest of this book. This
chapter introduces a number of different types of interest rate. It deals with some fundamental issues concerned with the way interest rates are measured and analyzed. It explains the compounding frequency used to define an interest rate and the meaning of continuously compounded interest rates, which are used extensively in the analysis of
derivatives. It covers zero rates, par yields, and yield curves, discusses bond pricing, and
outlines a ābootstrapā procedure commonly used to calculate zero-coupon interest rates. It also covers forward rates and forward rate agreements and reviews different theories of the term structure of interest rates. Finally, it explains the use of duration and convexity measures to determine the sensitivity of bond prices to interest rate changes.
Chapter 6 will cover interest rate futures and show how the duration measure can be
used when interest rate exposures are hedged. For ease of exposition, day count conventions will be ignored throughout this chapter. The nature of these conventions and their impact on calculations will be discussed in Chapters 6 and 7 .
4.1 TYPES OF RATES
Fundamentals of Interest Rates
- Interest rates are a critical component in the valuation of nearly all derivatives and financial instruments.
- The text introduces essential measurement concepts including compounding frequencies, zero rates, yield curves, and the bootstrap procedure.
- Credit risk is a primary driver of interest rate variation, where higher default risks necessitate higher promised returns or credit spreads.
- Treasury rates from developed nations are typically treated as risk-free benchmarks because governments are unlikely to default on debt in their own currency.
- Financial sensitivity to rate changes is quantified through duration and convexity measures, which are vital for hedging strategies.
The higher the credit risk, the higher the interest rate that is promised by the borrower.
Interest rates are a factor in the valuation of virtually all derivatives and will feature
prominently in much of the material that will be presented in the rest of this book. This
chapter introduces a number of different types of interest rate. It deals with some fundamental issues concerned with the way interest rates are measured and analyzed. It explains the compounding frequency used to define an interest rate and the meaning of continuously compounded interest rates, which are used extensively in the analysis of
derivatives. It covers zero rates, par yields, and yield curves, discusses bond pricing, and
outlines a ābootstrapā procedure commonly used to calculate zero-coupon interest rates. It also covers forward rates and forward rate agreements and reviews different theories of the term structure of interest rates. Finally, it explains the use of duration and convexity measures to determine the sensitivity of bond prices to interest rate changes.
Chapter 6 will cover interest rate futures and show how the duration measure can be
used when interest rate exposures are hedged. For ease of exposition, day count conventions will be ignored throughout this chapter. The nature of these conventions and their impact on calculations will be discussed in Chapters 6 and 7 .
4.1 TYPES OF RATES
An interest rate in a particular situation defines the amount of money a borrower promises to pay the lender. For any given currency, many different types of interest rates
are regularly quoted. These include mortgage rates, deposit rates, prime borrowing rates, and so on. One important factor influencing interest rates is credit risk. This is the
risk that there will be a default by the borrower of funds, so that the interest and principal are not paid to the lender as promised. The higher the credit risk, the higher the interest rate that is promised by the borrower. The extra amount added to a risk-free interest rate to allow for credit risk is known as a credit spread.
Interest rates are often expressed in basis points. One basis point is 0.01% per annum.
Treasury Rates
Treasury rates are the rates an investor earns on Treasury bills and Treasury bonds. These are the instruments used by a government to borrow in its own currency. Japanese Treasury rates are the rates at which the Japanese government borrows in yen; U.S. Treasury rates are the rates at which the U.S. government borrows in U.S. dollars; and
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Interest Rates 99
so on. It is usually assumed that there is no chance that the government of a developed
country will default on an obligation denominated in its own currency. A developed
countryās Treasury rates are therefore regarded as risk-free in the sense that an investor
who buys a Treasury bill or Treasury bond is certain that interest and principal
payments will be made as promised.
Overnight Rates
Foundations of Interest Rates
- Treasury rates are considered risk-free benchmarks because developed governments are assumed to never default on debt issued in their own currency.
- Overnight rates, such as the federal funds rate, arise from banks lending surplus reserves to one another to meet central bank requirements.
- Repurchase agreements (repos) function as secured loans where securities act as collateral, resulting in lower interest rates than unsecured borrowing.
- Global financial markets rely on specific reference rates like SOFR, SONIA, and ESTER to determine future payments in complex financial contracts.
- The Federal Reserve and other central banks actively monitor and intervene in overnight markets to influence the effective interest rates of their respective economies.
If the borrower does not honor the agreement, the lending company simply keeps the securities.
Treasury rates are the rates an investor earns on Treasury bills and Treasury bonds. These are the instruments used by a government to borrow in its own currency. Japanese Treasury rates are the rates at which the Japanese government borrows in yen; U.S. Treasury rates are the rates at which the U.S. government borrows in U.S. dollars; and
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Interest Rates 99
so on. It is usually assumed that there is no chance that the government of a developed
country will default on an obligation denominated in its own currency. A developed
countryās Treasury rates are therefore regarded as risk-free in the sense that an investor
who buys a Treasury bill or Treasury bond is certain that interest and principal
payments will be made as promised.
Overnight Rates
Banks are required to maintain a certain amount of cash, known as a reserve, with the central bank. The reserve requirement for a bank at any time depends on its outstanding assets and liabilities. At the end of a day, some financial institutions typically have surplus funds in their accounts with the central bank while others have requirements for
funds. This leads to borrowing and lending overnight. A broker usually matches borrowers and lenders. In the United States, the central bank is the Federal Reserve (often referred to as the Fed) and the overnight rate is called the federal funds rate. The weighted average of the rates in brokered transactions (with weights being determined by
the size of the transaction) is termed the effective federal funds rate. This overnight rate is
monitored by the Federal Reserve, which may intervene with its own transactions in an attempt to raise or lower it. Other countries have similar systems to the United States. For example, in the United Kingdom, the average of brokered overnight rates is the sterling overnight index average (SONIA); in the eurozone, it is the euro short-term rate (ESTER);
1 in Switzerland, it is the Swiss average rate overnight (SARON); in Japan, it is
the Tokyo overnight average rate (TONAR).
Repo Rates
Unlike the overnight federal funds rate, repo rates are secured borrowing rates. In a repo (or repurchase agreement), a financial institution that owns securities agrees to sell the securities for a certain price and buy them back at a later time for a slightly higher price. The financial institution is obtaining a loan and the interest it pays is the difference between the price at which the securities are sold and the price at which they are repurchased. The interest rate is referred to as the repo rate.
If structured carefully, a repo involves very little credit risk. If the borrower does not
honor the agreement, the lending company simply keeps the securities. If the lending company does not keep to its side of the agreement, the original owner of the securities keeps the cash provided by the lending company. The most common type of repo is an overnight repo, where funds are lent overnight. However, longer-term arrangements, known as term repos, are sometimes used. Because it is a secured rate, a repo rate is theoretically very slightly below the corresponding fed funds rate.
The secured overnight financing rate (SOFR) is an important volume-weighted median
average of the rates on overnight repo transactions in the United States.
1 ESTER replaces the euro overnight index average (EONIA).4.2 REFERENCE RATES
Reference interest rates are important in financial markets. The parties to transactions frequently enter into contracts where the future interest rate paid or received is
uncertain, but will be set equal the value of an agreed reference interest rate.
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100 CHAPTER 4
LIBOR
The Transition from LIBOR
- Reference interest rates are critical benchmarks used to determine the future interest paid or received in hundreds of trillions of dollars of financial contracts.
- LIBOR has historically been the primary reference rate, based on quotes from global banks estimating their unsecured borrowing costs.
- Due to a lack of underlying market transactions and potential for manipulation, regulators are phasing out LIBOR in favor of more transparent overnight rates.
- New benchmarks like SOFR and SONIA are considered risk-free because they are derived from actual one-day loans rather than bank judgment.
- Longer-term rates are now calculated by compounding these overnight rates daily to ensure they reflect actual market activity.
A problem with LIBOR is that there is not enough borrowing between banks for a bankās estimates to be determined by market transactions.
The secured overnight financing rate (SOFR) is an important volume-weighted median
average of the rates on overnight repo transactions in the United States.
1 ESTER replaces the euro overnight index average (EONIA).4.2 REFERENCE RATES
Reference interest rates are important in financial markets. The parties to transactions frequently enter into contracts where the future interest rate paid or received is
uncertain, but will be set equal the value of an agreed reference interest rate.
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100 CHAPTER 4
LIBOR
LIBOR is short for London Interbank Offered Rate. It has historically been a very
important reference rate. LIBOR rates have been compiled by asking a panel of global banks to provide quotes estimating the unsecured rates of interest at which they could borrow from other banks just prior to 11 a.m. (U.K. time). Several different currencies and several different borrowing periods (ranging from one day to one year) were considered. The banks submitting quotes typically had good credit ratings. LIBOR rates were therefore considered to be estimates of unsecured borrowing rates for
creditworthy banks.
LIBOR rates have served as reference rates for hundreds of trillions of dollars of
transactions throughout the world. For example, the borrowing rate on a five-year loan in a particular situation might be specified as three-month LIBOR plus 30 basis points (i.e., three-month LIBOR plus 0.3%). The value of three-month LIBOR would then be noted at the beginning of each three-month period and interest based on this LIBOR rate would be paid by the borrower at the end of the period.
A problem with LIBOR is that there is not enough borrowing between banks for a
bankās estimates to be determined by market transactions. As a result, LIBOR sub- missions by banks involved a certain amount of judgment and could be subject to manipulation. Bank regulators are uncomfortable with this and have developed plans to phase out the use of LIBOR. Originally, the deadline for LIBOR to be discontinued was the end of 2021, but quotes may continue for a period after that to make it easier to deal with the existing contracts that depend on LIBOR.
The New Reference Rates
The plan is to base reference rates on the overnight rates we have mentioned. For example, the new reference rate in the United States will be SOFR; in the U.K., it will be SONIA; in the eurozone, it will be ESTER; in Switzerland, it will be SARON; in Japan, it will be TONAR. (Note that the overnight rate in the U.S. will be a secured overnight rate because it is a repo rate; the overnight rate in other countries will be
unsecured because, as explained earlier, they are determined from the overnight transactions between banks when they manage reserves.)
Longer rates such as three-month rates, six-month rates, or one-year rates can be
determined from overnight rates by compounding them daily. In the case of SOFR, there are assumed to be 360 days per year. (See Chapter 6 for a discussion of day count conventions) Suppose that the (annualized) SOFR overnight rate on the ith business day of a period is
ri 11ā¦iā¦n2 and the rate applies to di days. The (annualized) interest
rate for the period is
311+r1dn1211+r2dn22c 11+rndnn2-14*360
D
where dni=di>360 and D=aidi is the number of days in the period. On most days
di=1, but weekends and holidays lead to the overnight rates being applied to more
than one day. (For example, on a Friday di will normally be equal to 3.)
The new reference rates are regarded as risk-free because they are derived from one-
day loans to creditworthy financial institutions. LIBOR, by contrast, incorporates a credit spread. There is another important difference between the old and new reference
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Interest Rates 101
Reference Rates and Risk-Free Valuation
- New reference rates are backward-looking and risk-free, unlike LIBOR which was forward-looking and included a credit spread.
- Banks face challenges with risk-free rates because they do not reflect the spikes in credit spreads that occur during stressed market conditions.
- Treasury rates are not used as risk-free benchmarks in derivatives pricing due to artificial lows caused by favorable tax treatments and regulatory capital exemptions.
- The precise value of an interest rate is dependent on the compounding frequency, such as annual, semiannual, or quarterly reinvestment.
- The spread between LIBOR and overnight rates can fluctuate wildly, famously spiking to 364 basis points during the 2008 financial crisis.
For example, it spiked to an all-time high of 364 basis points (3.64%) in the United States in October 2008 during the financial crisis.
where dni=di>360 and D=aidi is the number of days in the period. On most days
di=1, but weekends and holidays lead to the overnight rates being applied to more
than one day. (For example, on a Friday di will normally be equal to 3.)
The new reference rates are regarded as risk-free because they are derived from one-
day loans to creditworthy financial institutions. LIBOR, by contrast, incorporates a credit spread. There is another important difference between the old and new reference
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Interest Rates 101
rates. LIBOR rates are forward looking. They are determined at the beginning of the
period to which they will apply. The new reference rates are backward looking. The rate applicable to a particular period is not known until the end of the period when all the
relevant overnight rates have been observed.
As we will discuss in Chapter 7 , swaps are a way in which short-term interest rates
can be used to determine the equivalent interest rates that apply to relatively long periods.
Reference Rates and Credit Risk
One problem faced by banks is that credit spreads in the economy increase in stressed market conditions. For example, the spread between three-month LIBOR and a three-month rate based on overnight rates is usually about 10 basis points (0.1%), but it can be much higher in stressed market conditions. For example, it spiked to an all-time
high of 364 basis points (3.64%) in the United States in October 2008 during the
financial crisis. If a bank offers a loan at a reference rate plus x%, where x is a constant,
it would like the rate to reflect ups and downs in average credit spreads. LIBOR, when
used as a reference rate, did this, but the new reference rates (because they are
essentially risk-free) do not. This has led banks to ask for a way of creating risky reference rates by adding a credit spread to the new reference rates. There have been a number of proposals and the new risk-free reference rates may be augmented by credit spread measures in the future.
4.3 THE RISK-FREE RATE
As we shall see, the usual approach to valuing derivatives involves setting up a riskless portfolio and arguing that the return on the portfolio should be the risk-free rate. The risk-free rate therefore plays a central role in derivatives pricing. It might be thought that derivatives traders would use the rates on Treasury bills and Treasury bonds as risk-free rates. In fact they do not do this. This is because there are tax and regulatory factors that lead to Treasury rates being artificially low. For example:
1. Banks are not required to keep capital for investments in a Treasury instruments, but they are required to keep capital for other very low risk instruments.
2. In the United States, Treasury instruments are given favorable tax treatment compared with other very low risk instruments because the interest earned by
investors is not taxed at the state level.
The risk-free reference rates created from from overnight rates (see Section 4.2) are the ones used in valuing derivatives.
4.4 MEASURING INTEREST RATES
A statement by a bank that the interest rate on one-year deposits is 10% per annum sounds straightforward and unambiguous. In fact, its precise meaning depends on the way the interest rate is measured.
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102 CHAPTER 4
If the interest rate is measured with annual compounding, the bankās statement that
the interest rate is 10% means that $100 grows to
+100*1.1=+110
at the end of 1 year. When the interest rate is measured with semiannual compounding,
it means that 5% is earned every 6 months, with the interest being reinvested. In this case, $100 grows to
+100*1.05*1.05=+110.25
at the end of 1 year. When the interest rate is measured with quarterly compounding, the bankās statement means that 2.5% is earned every 3 months, with the interest being reinvested. The $100 then grows to
+100*1.0254=+110.38
Mechanics of Interest Compounding
- The compounding frequency determines the specific units in which an interest rate is measured, affecting the final value of an investment.
- Increasing the frequency of compounding from annual to daily results in a higher terminal value for the same nominal interest rate.
- Mathematical formulas allow for the conversion of interest rates between different compounding frequencies, such as semiannual to quarterly.
- Continuous compounding represents the mathematical limit as the compounding frequency approaches infinity, calculated using the exponential function.
- While daily compounding is practically similar to continuous compounding, the latter is the standard measurement used for pricing derivatives.
We can think of the difference between one compounding frequency and another to be analogous to the difference between kilometers and miles.
the interest rate is 10% means that $100 grows to
+100*1.1=+110
at the end of 1 year. When the interest rate is measured with semiannual compounding,
it means that 5% is earned every 6 months, with the interest being reinvested. In this case, $100 grows to
+100*1.05*1.05=+110.25
at the end of 1 year. When the interest rate is measured with quarterly compounding, the bankās statement means that 2.5% is earned every 3 months, with the interest being reinvested. The $100 then grows to
+100*1.0254=+110.38
at the end of 1 year. Table 4.1 shows the effect of increasing the compounding frequency further.
The compounding frequency defines the units in which an interest rate is measured. A
rate expressed with one compounding frequency can be converted into an equivalent rate with a different compounding frequency. For example, from Table 4.1 we see that 10.25% with annual compounding is equivalent to 10% with semiannual compound-ing. We can think of the difference between one compounding frequency and another to
be analogous to the difference between kilometers and miles. They are two different units of measurement.
To generalize our results, suppose that an amount A is invested for n years at an
interest rate of R per annum. If the rate is compounded once per annum, the terminal value of the investment is
A11+R2n
If the rate is compounded m times per annum, the terminal value of the investment is
Aa1+R
mbmn
(4.1)
When m=1, the rate is sometimes referred to as the equivalent annual interest rate.Compounding frequency Value of $100
at end of year ($)
Annually 1m=12 110.00
Semiannually 1m=22 110.25
Quarterly 1m=42 110.38
Monthly 1m=122 110.47
Weekly 1m=522 110.51
Daily 1m=3652 110.52Table 4.1 Effect of the compounding frequency on the
value of $100 at the end of 1 year when the interest rate is
10% per annum.
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Interest Rates 103
Suppose R1 is an interest rate when compounding is m1 times per year and R2 is the
equivalent rate when compounding is m2 times per year. From equation (4.1), the
values of an investment of A after n years is the same if:
Aa1+R1
m1bm1n
=Aa1+R2
m2bm2n
This means that
R2=m2ca1+R1
m1bm1>m2
-1d
As an example of the application of this formula, suppose that an interest rate is 6%
with semiannual compounding. The equivalent rate with quarterly compounding can be calculated by setting
m1=2, R1=0.06, and m2=4. It is:
R2=4ca1+0.06
2b2>4
-1d=0.0596
or 5.96%.
Continuous Compounding
The limit as the compounding frequency, m, tends to infinity is known as continuous compounding.
2 With continuous compounding, it can be shown that an amount A
invested for n years at rate R grows to
AeRn (4.2)
where e is approximately 2.71828. The exponential function, ex, is built into most
calculators, so the computation of the expression in equation (4.2) presents no problems.
In the example in Table 4.1, A=100, n=1, and R=0.1, so that the value to which A
grows with continuous compounding is
100e0.1=+110.52
This is (to two decimal places) the same as the value with daily compounding. For most practical purposes, continuous compounding can be thought of as being equivalent to daily compounding. Compounding a sum of money at a continuously compounded rate
R for n years involves multiplying it by
eRn. Discounting it at a continuously com-
pounded rate R for n years involves multiplying by e-Rn.
In this book, interest rates will be measured with continuous compounding except
where stated otherwise. Readers used to working with interest rates that are measured with annual, semiannual, or some other compounding frequency may find this a little strange at first. However, continuously compounded interest rates are used to such a great extent in pricing derivatives that it makes sense to get used to working with them now.
Suppose that
Continuous Compounding and Zero Rates
- Continuous compounding is the standard measurement for pricing derivatives, involving the use of the exponential function for discounting and growth.
- Mathematical formulas allow for the conversion between continuously compounded rates and rates with discrete compounding frequencies, such as semiannual or quarterly.
- Zero-coupon interest rates, or spot rates, represent the return on investments where all interest and principal are realized only at the end of the term.
- The theoretical price of a coupon-bearing bond is most accurately calculated by discounting each individual cash flow using its corresponding zero rate.
- Market-observed bond prices do not directly represent pure zero rates because coupon payments distribute returns at different intervals before maturity.
Readers used to working with interest rates that are measured with annual, semiannual, or some other compounding frequency may find this a little strange at first.
eRn. Discounting it at a continuously com-
pounded rate R for n years involves multiplying by e-Rn.
In this book, interest rates will be measured with continuous compounding except
where stated otherwise. Readers used to working with interest rates that are measured with annual, semiannual, or some other compounding frequency may find this a little strange at first. However, continuously compounded interest rates are used to such a great extent in pricing derivatives that it makes sense to get used to working with them now.
Suppose that
Rc is a rate of interest with continuous compounding and Rm is the
equivalent rate with compounding m times per annum. From the results in equa-
tions (4.1) and (4.2), we have
AeRcn=Aa1+Rm
mbmn
2 Actuaries sometimes refer to a continuously compounded rate as the force of interest.
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104 CHAPTER 4
or
eRc=a1+Rm
mbm
This means that
Rc=m ln a1+Rm
mb (4.3)
and
Rm=m1eRc>m-12 (4.4)
These equations can be used to convert a rate with a compounding frequency of m times
per annum to a continuously compounded rate and vice versa. The natural logarithm function ln x, which is built into most calculators, is the inverse of the exponential
function, so that, if
y=ln x, then x=ey.
Example 4.1
Consider an interest rate that is quoted as 10% per annum with semiannual
compounding. From equation (4.3) with m=2 and Rm=0.1, the equivalent rate
with continuous compounding is
2 ln a1+0.1
2b=0.09758
or 9.758% per annum.
Example 4.2
Suppose that a lender quotes the interest rate on loans as 8% per annum with
continuous compounding, and that interest is actually paid quarterly. From equation (4.4) with
m=4 and Rc=0.08, the equivalent rate with quarterly
compounding is
4*1e0.08>4-12=0.0808
or 8.08% per annum. This means that on a $1,000 loan, interest payments of $20.20 would be required each quarter.
4.5 ZERO RATES
The n-year zero-coupon interest rate is the rate of interest earned on an investment that
starts today and lasts for n years. All the interest and principal is realized at the end of n years. There are no intermediate payments. The n-year zero-coupon interest rate is sometimes also referred to as the n-year spot rate, the n-year zero rate, or just the n -year
zero. Suppose a 5-year zero rate with continuous compounding is quoted as 5% per annum. This means that $100, if invested for 5 years, grows to
100*e0.05*5=128.40
Most of the interest rates we observe directly in the market are not pure zero rates. Consider a 5-year risk-free bond that provides a 6% coupon (i.e., it pays interest at a rate of 6% per year). The price of this bond does not by itself determine the 5-year risk-free zero rate because some of the return on the bond is realized in the form of coupons
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Interest Rates 105
Most bonds pay coupons to the holder periodically. The bondās principal (which is also
known as its par value or face value) is paid at the end of its life. The theoretical price
of a bond can be calculated as the present value of all the cash flows that will be
received by the owner of the bond. Sometimes bond traders use the same discount rate
for all the cash flows underlying a bond, but a more accurate approach is to use a
different zero rate for each cash flow.
To illustrate this, consider the situation where zero rates, measured with continuous
compounding, are as in Table 4.2. (We explain later how these can be calculated.)
Suppose that a 2-year bond with a principal of $100 provides coupons at the rate of 6%
per annum semiannually. To calculate the present value of the first coupon of $3, we
discount it at 5.0% for 6 months; to calculate the present value of the second coupon of $3, we discount it at 5.8% for 1 year; and so on. Therefore, the theoretical price of the bond is
3e-0.05*0.5+3e-0.058*1.0+3e-0.064*1.5+103e-0.068*2.0=98.39
Bond Pricing and Yields
- The theoretical price of a bond is calculated by discounting each individual coupon and the principal payment using their respective zero rates.
- A bond's yield is defined as the single, constant discount rate that equates the present value of all future cash flows to the current market price.
- The par yield represents the specific coupon rate required for a bond's market value to equal its principal or par value.
- The bootstrap method is introduced as a systematic procedure to derive zero rates from the market prices of coupon-bearing instruments.
- Solving for bond yields often requires iterative numerical methods, such as the Newton-Raphson method, to handle nonlinear equations.
A bondās yield is the single discount rate that, when applied to all cash flows, gives a bond price equal to its market price.
To illustrate this, consider the situation where zero rates, measured with continuous
compounding, are as in Table 4.2. (We explain later how these can be calculated.)
Suppose that a 2-year bond with a principal of $100 provides coupons at the rate of 6%
per annum semiannually. To calculate the present value of the first coupon of $3, we
discount it at 5.0% for 6 months; to calculate the present value of the second coupon of $3, we discount it at 5.8% for 1 year; and so on. Therefore, the theoretical price of the bond is
3e-0.05*0.5+3e-0.058*1.0+3e-0.064*1.5+103e-0.068*2.0=98.39
or $98.39. (DerivaGem can be used to calculate bond prices.)
Bond Yield
A bondās yield is the single discount rate that, when applied to all cash flows, gives a bond price equal to its market price. Suppose that the theoretical price of the bond we have been considering, $98.39, is also its market value (i.e., the marketās price of the bond is in exact agreement with the data in Table 4.2). If y is the yield on the bond, expressed with continuous compounding, it must be true that
3e-y*0.5+3e-y*1.0+3e-y*1.5+103e-y*2.0=98.39
This equation can be solved using an iterative (ātrial and errorā) procedure to give
y=6.76,.3
Maturity
(years)Zero rate
(% continuously compounded)
0.5 5.0
1.0 5.8
1.5 6.4
2.0 6.8Table 4.2 Zero rates.prior to the end of year 5. Later in this chapter we will discuss how we can determine zero rates from the market prices of coupon-bearing instruments.
4.6 BOND PRICING
3 One way of solving nonlinear equations of the form f1y2=0, such as this one, is to use the NewtonāRaphson
method. We start with an estimate y0 of the solution and produce successively better estimates y1, y2, y3,c
using the formula yi+1=yi-f1yi2>f/uni20321yi2, where f/uni20321y2 denotes the derivative of f with respect to y .
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106 CHAPTER 4
Par Yield
The par yield for a certain bond maturity is the coupon rate that causes the bond price to
equal its par value. (The par value is the same as the principal value.) Usually the bond is
assumed to provide semiannual coupons. Suppose that the coupon on a 2-year bond in
our example is c per annum (or 1
2 c per 6 months). Using the zero rates in Table 4.2, the
value of the bond is equal to its par value of 100 when
c
2e-0.05*0.5+c
2e-0.058*1.0+c
2e-0.064*1.5+a100+c
2be-0.068*2.0=100
This equation can be solved in a straightforward way to give c=6.87. The 2-year par
yield is therefore 6.87% per annum.
More generally, if d is the present value of $1 received at the maturity of the bond,
A is the value of an annuity that pays one dollar on each coupon payment date, and m is the number of coupon payments per year, then the par yield c must satisfy
100=Ac
m+100d
so that
c=1100-100d2m
A
In our example, m=2, d=e-0.068*2=0.87284, and
A=e-0.05*0.5+e-0.058*1.0+e-0.064*1.5+e-0.068*2.0=3.70027
The formula confirms that the par yield is 6.87% per annum. A bond with this coupon and semiannual payments is worth par.
Bond principal
($)Time to maturity
(years)Annual coupon*
($)Bond price
($)Bond yield**
(%)
100 0.25 0 99.6 1.6064 (Q)
100 0.50 0 99.0 2.0202 (SA)
100 1.0 0 0 97.8 2.2495 (A)
100 1.50 4 102.5 2.2949 (SA)
100 2.00 5 105.0 2.4238 (SA)
*Half the stated coupon is assumed to be paid every 6 months. **Compounding frequency
corresponds to payment frequency: Q=quarterly, SA=semiannual, A=annual.Table 4.3 Data for bootstrap method.4.7 DETERMINING ZERO RATES
In this section we describe a procedure known as the bootstrap method which can be
used to determine zero rates.
Consider the data in Table 4.3 on the prices of five bonds. Because the first three
bonds pay no coupons, the zero rates corresponding to the maturities of these bonds
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Interest Rates 107
The Bootstrap Method
- The bootstrap method is a recursive procedure used to determine zero rates from the market prices of coupon-bearing and zero-coupon bonds.
- Zero rates for short-term maturities are calculated directly from zero-coupon bonds using continuous compounding formulas.
- For longer-term coupon bonds, the zero rate is solved by setting the bond price equal to the present value of all future cash flows, using previously determined rates for earlier payments.
- The resulting zero curve is often constructed by assuming linear interpolation between the calculated data points.
- In practical applications where bond maturities do not align perfectly, analysts may interpolate bond prices or use iterative trial-and-error procedures to define the curve.
This is the only zero rate that is consistent with the 6-month rate, 1 -year rate, and the data in Table 4.3.
*Half the stated coupon is assumed to be paid every 6 months. **Compounding frequency
corresponds to payment frequency: Q=quarterly, SA=semiannual, A=annual.Table 4.3 Data for bootstrap method.4.7 DETERMINING ZERO RATES
In this section we describe a procedure known as the bootstrap method which can be
used to determine zero rates.
Consider the data in Table 4.3 on the prices of five bonds. Because the first three
bonds pay no coupons, the zero rates corresponding to the maturities of these bonds
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Interest Rates 107
can easily be calculated. The 3-month bond has the effect of turning an investment of
99.6 into 100 in 3 months. The continuously compounded 3-month rate R is therefore given by solving
100=99.6eR*0.25
It is 1.603% per annum. The 6-month continuously compounded rate is similarly given by solving
100=99.0eR*0.5
It is 2.010% per annum. Similarly, the 1-year rate with continuous compounding is given by solving
100=97.8eR*1.0
It is 2.225% per annum.
The fourth bond lasts 1.5 years. Because coupons are paid semiannually, the cash
flows it provides are as follows:
6 months: $2
1 year: $2
1.5 years: $102.
From our earlier calculations, we know that the discount rate for the payment at the end of 6 months is 2.010% and that the discount rate for the payment at the end of 1 year is
2.225%. We also know that the bondās price, $102.5, must equal the present value of all the payments received by the bondholder. Suppose the 1.5-year zero rate is denoted by R.
It follows that
2e-0.02010*0.5+2e-0.02225*1.0+102e-R*1.5=102.5
This reduces to
e-1.5R=0.96631
or
R=-ln10.966312
1.5=0.02284
The 1.5-year zero rate is therefore 2.284%. This is the only zero rate that is consistent with the 6-month rate, 1 -year rate, and the data in Table 4.3.
The 2-year zero rate can be calculated similarly from the 6-month, 1-year, and
1.5-year zero rates, and the information on the last bond in Table 4.3. If R is the
2-year zero rate, then
2.5e-0.02010*0.5+2.5e-0.02225*1.0+2.5e-0.02284*1.5+102.5e-R*2.0=105
This gives R=0.02416, or 2.416%.
The rates we have calculated are summarized in Table 4.4. A chart showing the zero
rate as a function of maturity is known as the zero curve. A common assumption is that the zero curve is linear between the points determined using the bootstrap method. (This means that the 1.25-year zero rate is
0.5*2.225+0.5*2.284=2.255, in our
example.) It is also usually assumed that the zero curve is horizontal prior to the first point and horizontal beyond the last point. Figure 4.1 shows the zero curve for our data using these assumptions. By using longer maturity bonds, the zero curve would be more accurately determined beyond 2 years.
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108 CHAPTER 4
In practice, we do not usually have bonds with maturities equal to exactly 1.5 years,
2 years, 2.5 years, and so on. One approach is to interpolate between the bond price data
before it is used to calculate the zero curve. For example, if it is known that a 2.3-year bond with a coupon of 6% sells for 108 and a 2.7-year bond with a coupon of 6.5% sells for 109, it might be assumed that a 2.5-year bond with a coupon of 6.25% would sell for 108.5. Another more general procedure is as follows. Define
t1, t2,c, tn as the maturities
of the instruments whose prices are to be matched. Assume a piecewise linear curve with
corners at these times. Use an iterative ātrial and errorā procedure to determine the rate at time
t1 that matches the price of the first instrument, then use a similar procedure to
determine the rate at time t2 that matches the price of the second instrument, and so on.
For any trial rate, the rates used for coupons are determined by linear interpolation.
A more sophisticated approach is to use polynomial or exponential functions, rather
Zero Curves and Forward Rates
- The zero curve can be constructed using an iterative trial-and-error procedure to match the prices of financial instruments at specific maturity corners.
- Advanced modeling uses spline functions, such as polynomial or exponential curves, to ensure the gradient of the zero curve remains smooth and continuous.
- Forward interest rates represent the future interest rates implied by current zero rates for specific periods between two future dates.
- Under continuous compounding, the overall zero rate for a period is simply the mathematical average of the rates in successive time periods.
- The relationship between zero rates and forward rates is defined by a specific formula where the forward rate is the difference in total interest divided by the time interval.
The result is only approximately true when the rates are not continuously compounded.
of the instruments whose prices are to be matched. Assume a piecewise linear curve with
corners at these times. Use an iterative ātrial and errorā procedure to determine the rate at time
t1 that matches the price of the first instrument, then use a similar procedure to
determine the rate at time t2 that matches the price of the second instrument, and so on.
For any trial rate, the rates used for coupons are determined by linear interpolation.
A more sophisticated approach is to use polynomial or exponential functions, rather
than linear functions, for the zero curve between times ti and ti+1 for all i. The functions
are chosen so that they price the bonds correctly and so that the gradient of the zero curve does not change at any of the
ti. This is referred to as using a spline function for
the zero curve.Maturity
(years)Zero rate
(% continuously compounded)
0.25 1.603
0.50 2.010
1.0 0 2.225
1.50 2.284
2.00 2.416Table 4.4 Continuously compounded zero
rates determined from data in Table 4.3.
Figure 4.1 Zero rates given by the bootstrap method.
0.00.51.01.52.02.53.0
3.00 2.00 2.50 1.50 1.00 0.50 0Maturity (years)Zero rate
(% per annum)
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Interest Rates 109
Year 1n2 Zero rate for an
n-year investment
(% per annum)Forward rate
for nth year
(% per annum)
1 3.0
2 4.0 5.0
3 4.6 5.8
4 5.0 6.2
5 5.3 6.5Table 4.5 Calculation of forward rates.Forward interest rates are the rates of interest implied by current zero rates for periods
of time in the future. To illustrate how they are calculated, we suppose that zero rates
are as shown in the second column of Table 4.5. The rates are assumed to be
continuously compounded. Thus, the 3% per annum rate for 1 year means that, in
return for an investment of $100 today, an amount 100e0.03*1=+103.05 is received in
1 year; the 4% per annum rate for 2 years means that, in return for an investment of $100 today, an amount
100e0.04*2=+108.33 is received in 2 years; and so on.
The forward interest rate in Table 4.5 for year 2 is 5% per annum. This is the rate of
interest that is implied by the zero rates for the period of time between the end of the
first year and the end of the second year. It can be calculated from the 1-year zero
interest rate of 3% per annum and the 2-year zero interest rate of 4% per annum. It is
the rate of interest for year 2 that, when combined with 3% per annum for year 1, gives
4% overall for the 2 years. To show that the correct answer is 5% per annum, suppose that $100 is invested. A rate of 3% for the first year and 5% for the second year gives
100e0.03*1e0.05*1=+108.33
at the end of the second year. A rate of 4% per annum for 2 years gives
100e0.04*2
which is also $108.33. This example illustrates the general result that when interest rates
are continuously compounded and rates in successive time periods are combined, the
overall equivalent rate is simply the average rate during the whole period. In our example, 3% for the first year and 5% for the second year average to 4% over
the 2 years. The result is only approximately true when the rates are not continuously compounded.
The forward rate for year 3 is the rate of interest that is implied by a 4% per annum
2-year zero rate and a 4.6% per annum 3-year zero rate. It is 5.8% per annum. The reason is that an investment for 2 years at 4% per annum combined with an investment for one year at 5.8% per annum gives an overall average return for the three years of 4.6% per annum. The other forward rates can be calculated similarly and are shown in the third column of the table. In general, if
R1 and R2 are the zero rates for maturities 4.8 FORWARD RATES
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110 CHAPTER 4
T1 and T2, respectively, and RF is the forward interest rate for the period of time
between T1 and T2, then
RF=R2T2-R1T1
T2-T1 (4.5)
Forward Rates and Agreements
- Forward rates represent the interest rates implied by current zero rates for future periods of time.
- The relationship between zero rates and forward rates depends on the slope of the zero curve; an upward-sloping curve implies forward rates higher than zero rates.
- Instantaneous forward rates are defined as the rate applicable to an infinitesimally short period starting at a specific future time.
- Financial institutions can lock in these forward rates by strategically borrowing and lending at different maturities.
- Forward rate agreements (FRAs) allow parties to exchange a fixed interest rate for a market reference rate observed in the future.
If a large financial institution can borrow or lend at the rates in Table 4.5, it can lock in the forward rates.
overall equivalent rate is simply the average rate during the whole period. In our example, 3% for the first year and 5% for the second year average to 4% over
the 2 years. The result is only approximately true when the rates are not continuously compounded.
The forward rate for year 3 is the rate of interest that is implied by a 4% per annum
2-year zero rate and a 4.6% per annum 3-year zero rate. It is 5.8% per annum. The reason is that an investment for 2 years at 4% per annum combined with an investment for one year at 5.8% per annum gives an overall average return for the three years of 4.6% per annum. The other forward rates can be calculated similarly and are shown in the third column of the table. In general, if
R1 and R2 are the zero rates for maturities 4.8 FORWARD RATES
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110 CHAPTER 4
T1 and T2, respectively, and RF is the forward interest rate for the period of time
between T1 and T2, then
RF=R2T2-R1T1
T2-T1 (4.5)
To illustrate this formula, consider the calculation of the year-4 forward rate from the
data in Table 4.5: T1=3, T2=4, R1=0.046, and R2=0.05, and the formula gives
RF=0.062.
Equation (4.5) can be written as
RF=R2+(R2-R1)T1
T2-T1 (4.6)
This shows that, if the zero curve is upward sloping between T1 and T2 so that R27R1,
then RF7R2 (i.e., the forward rate for a period of time ending at T2 is greater than the
T2 zero rate). Similarly, if the zero curve is downward sloping with R26R1, then
RF6R2 (i.e., the forward rate is less than the T2 zero rate). Taking limits as T2
approaches T1 in equation (4.6) and letting the common value of the two be T , we obtain
RF=R+T0R
0T
where R is the zero rate for a maturity of T. The value of RF obtained in this way is
known as the instantaneous forward rate for a maturity of T. This is the forward rate that is applicable to a very short future time period that begins at time T. Define
P10, T2
as the price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T. Because P10, T2=e-RT, the
equation for the instantaneous forward rate can also be written as
RF=-0
0T ln P10, T2
If a large financial institution can borrow or lend at the rates in Table 4.5, it can lock in
the forward rates. For example, it can borrow $100 at 3% for 1 year and invest the money at 4% for 2 years, the result is a cash outflow of
100e0.03*1=+103.05 at the end of year 1
and an inflow of 100e0.04*2=+108.33 at the end of year 2. Since 108.33=103.05e0.05, a
return equal to the forward rate (5%) is earned on $103.05 during the second year. Alternatively, it can borrow $100 for 4 years at 5% and invest it for 3 years at 4.6%. The result is a cash inflow of
100e0.046*3=+114.80 at the end of the third year and a cash
outflow of 100e0.05*4=+122.14 at the end of the fourth year. Since 122.14=114.80e0.062,
money is being borrowed for the fourth year at the forward rate of 6.2%.
If a large investor thinks that rates in the future will be different from todayās forward
rates, there are many trading strategies that the investor will find attractive (see Business Snapshot 4.1). One of these involves entering into a contract known as a forward rate
agreement. We will now discuss how this contract works and how it is valued.
4.9 FORWARD RATE AGREEMENTS
A forward rate agreement (FRA) is an agreement to exchange a predetermined fixed rate for a reference rate that will be observed in the market at a future time. Both rates
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Interest Rates 111
Forward Rates and Yield Curve Plays
- Forward rate agreements (FRAs) allow investors to exchange a predetermined fixed rate for a future market reference rate on a specified principal.
- Investors engage in yield curve plays by speculating that future interest rates will differ significantly from current forward rates.
- Robert Citron, the Treasurer of Orange County, successfully used these strategies in the early 1990s to fund the county budget.
- The Orange County strategy failed catastrophically in 1994 when interest rates rose sharply, leading to a $1.5 billion loss and bankruptcy.
- A typical FRA involves one party paying a fixed rate and receiving a floating rate, such as LIBOR, to hedge or speculate on interest rate movements.
On December 1, 1994, Orange County announced that its investment portfolio had lost $1.5 billion and several days later it filed for bankruptcy protection.
money is being borrowed for the fourth year at the forward rate of 6.2%.
If a large investor thinks that rates in the future will be different from todayās forward
rates, there are many trading strategies that the investor will find attractive (see Business Snapshot 4.1). One of these involves entering into a contract known as a forward rate
agreement. We will now discuss how this contract works and how it is valued.
4.9 FORWARD RATE AGREEMENTS
A forward rate agreement (FRA) is an agreement to exchange a predetermined fixed rate for a reference rate that will be observed in the market at a future time. Both rates
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Interest Rates 111
4 In practice, because LIBOR is determined in advance of a period, the payment would be made at time two
years and equal to the present value of $125,000 discounted for three months at 3.5%.Business Snapshot 4.1 Orange Countyās Yield Curve Plays
Suppose a large investor can borrow or lend at the rates given in Table 4.5 and thinks
that 1 -year interest rates will not change much over the next 5 years. The investor can
borrow 1 -year funds and invest for 5-years. The 1 -year borrowings can be rolled over for further 1 -year periods at the end of the first, second, third, and fourth years. If interest rates do stay about the same, this strategy will yield a profit of about 2.3% per year, because interest will be received at 5.3% and paid at 3%. This type of
trading strategy is known as a yield curve play. The investor is speculating that rates in
the future will be quite different from the forward rates observed in the market today.
(In our example, forward rates observed in the market today for future 1 -year periods are 5%, 5.8%, 6.2%, and 6.5%.)
Robert Citron, the Treasurer at Orange County, used yield curve plays similar to
the one we have just described very successfully in 1992 and 1993. The profit from Mr. Citronās trades became an important contributor to Orange Countyās budget and he was re-elected. (No one listened to his opponent in the election, who said his trading strategy was too risky.)
In 1994 Mr. Citron expanded his yield curve plays. He invested heavily in inverse
floaters. These pay a rate of interest equal to a fixed rate of interest minus a floating rate. He also leveraged his position by borrowing in the repo market. If short-term interest rates had remained the same or declined he would have continued to do well.
As it happened, interest rates rose sharply during 1994. On December 1, 1994, Orange County announced that its investment portfolio had lost $1.5 billion and several days later it filed for bankruptcy protection.
are applied to a specified principal, but the principal itself is not exchanged. Historic-ally, the reference rate has usually been LIBOR. Consider an agreement to exchange 3% for three-month LIBOR in two years with both rates being applied to a principal of $100 million. One side (Party A) would agree to pay LIBOR and receive the fixed rate of 3%. The other side (Party B) would agree to receive LIBOR and pay the fixed rate of
3%. Assume all rates are compounded quarterly (as would usually be the case). If three-month LIBOR proved to be 3.5% in two years, Party A would receive
+100,000,000*10.035-0.0302*0.25=+125,000
Yield Curves and FRAs
- A yield curve play involves speculating that future interest rates will differ significantly from current forward rates observed in the market.
- Robert Citron, the Treasurer of Orange County, successfully used leveraged yield curve plays and inverse floaters to fund the county budget in the early 1990s.
- The strategy backfired in 1994 when interest rates rose sharply, leading to a $1.5 billion loss and a historic bankruptcy filing for Orange County.
- Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs) allow traders to lock in future interest rates by exchanging fixed payments for floating rates like LIBOR or SOFR.
- An FRA typically has a value of zero at inception because the agreed-upon fixed rate is set equal to the current market forward rate.
No one listened to his opponent in the election, who said his trading strategy was too risky.
4 In practice, because LIBOR is determined in advance of a period, the payment would be made at time two
years and equal to the present value of $125,000 discounted for three months at 3.5%.Business Snapshot 4.1 Orange Countyās Yield Curve Plays
Suppose a large investor can borrow or lend at the rates given in Table 4.5 and thinks
that 1 -year interest rates will not change much over the next 5 years. The investor can
borrow 1 -year funds and invest for 5-years. The 1 -year borrowings can be rolled over for further 1 -year periods at the end of the first, second, third, and fourth years. If interest rates do stay about the same, this strategy will yield a profit of about 2.3% per year, because interest will be received at 5.3% and paid at 3%. This type of
trading strategy is known as a yield curve play. The investor is speculating that rates in
the future will be quite different from the forward rates observed in the market today.
(In our example, forward rates observed in the market today for future 1 -year periods are 5%, 5.8%, 6.2%, and 6.5%.)
Robert Citron, the Treasurer at Orange County, used yield curve plays similar to
the one we have just described very successfully in 1992 and 1993. The profit from Mr. Citronās trades became an important contributor to Orange Countyās budget and he was re-elected. (No one listened to his opponent in the election, who said his trading strategy was too risky.)
In 1994 Mr. Citron expanded his yield curve plays. He invested heavily in inverse
floaters. These pay a rate of interest equal to a fixed rate of interest minus a floating rate. He also leveraged his position by borrowing in the repo market. If short-term interest rates had remained the same or declined he would have continued to do well.
As it happened, interest rates rose sharply during 1994. On December 1, 1994, Orange County announced that its investment portfolio had lost $1.5 billion and several days later it filed for bankruptcy protection.
are applied to a specified principal, but the principal itself is not exchanged. Historic-ally, the reference rate has usually been LIBOR. Consider an agreement to exchange 3% for three-month LIBOR in two years with both rates being applied to a principal of $100 million. One side (Party A) would agree to pay LIBOR and receive the fixed rate of 3%. The other side (Party B) would agree to receive LIBOR and pay the fixed rate of
3%. Assume all rates are compounded quarterly (as would usually be the case). If three-month LIBOR proved to be 3.5% in two years, Party A would receive
+100,000,000*10.035-0.0302*0.25=+125,000
and Party B would pay this amount. The payment would be due at time 2.25 years.4
As LIBOR is phased out, we can expect to see more FRAs based on floating rates
such as three-month SOFR and three-month SONIA. FRAs are a way of locking in the
rate that will be paid or received in the future. For example, a trader who is due to
receive a rate based on three-month SOFR on a certain principal during a certain future time period can lock in the rate by entering into an FRA where SOFR is paid and a fixed rate is received. Similarly, a trader who is due to pay a rate based on three-month SOFR on a certain principal during a certain future time period can lock in the rate by entering into an FRA where SOFR is received and a fixed rate is paid.
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112 CHAPTER 4
When the fixed rate equals the relevant forward rate the value of an FRA is zero. For
example, when the reference rate is three-month SOFR, an FRA would be worth zero
when the fixed rate equals the forward three-month SOFR rate.5 When an FRA is first set
up the fixed rate is normally equal to the forward rate, so that its value is zero. As time passes, the forward rate is liable to change. Suppose that, at a particular time, we define:
RK: the fixed rate agreed to in the FRA
RF: the current forward rate for the reference rate
Valuing FRAs and Bond Duration
- A Forward Rate Agreement (FRA) is valued at zero when the fixed rate equals the forward rate, but its value fluctuates as market forward rates change over time.
- The value of an FRA can be calculated as the present value of the difference between the agreed fixed rate and the current forward rate applied to the principal.
- Bond duration measures the weighted average time until a holder receives the present value of all cash flows, effectively acting as a measure of time-weighted value.
- Duration provides a critical mathematical relationship for estimating how bond prices will change in response to small fluctuations in interest rate yields.
- There is an inverse relationship between bond prices and yields; as yields increase, the price of the bond decreases proportionally to its duration.
Note that there is a negative relationship between B and y. When bond yields increase, bond prices decrease.
When the fixed rate equals the relevant forward rate the value of an FRA is zero. For
example, when the reference rate is three-month SOFR, an FRA would be worth zero
when the fixed rate equals the forward three-month SOFR rate.5 When an FRA is first set
up the fixed rate is normally equal to the forward rate, so that its value is zero. As time passes, the forward rate is liable to change. Suppose that, at a particular time, we define:
RK: the fixed rate agreed to in the FRA
RF: the current forward rate for the reference rate
t: the period of time to which the rates apply (three months in the above example)
L: the principal in the contract.
We can compare
1. the FRA under consideration
2. a similar FRA where the fixed rate is the forward rate, RF.
For the party receiving the fixed rate, the only difference between the two FRAs is that
the cash flow at maturity for the first FRA is t1RK-RF2L more than that for the
second FRA. (This amount can be positive or negative.) We know that the second FRA is worth zero. It follows that the first FRA is worth the present value of
t1RK-RF2L.
Similarly, for the party that pays the fixed rate, the FRA is worth the present value of
t1RF-RK2L.
An important implication of these results is that an FRA can be valued by assuming
that the forward interest rate for the underlying reference rate will be the one that determines the exchange.
Example 4.3
Suppose that the forward SOFR rate for the period between time 1.5 years and
time 2 years in the future is 5% (with semiannual compounding) and that some
time ago a company entered into an FRA where it will receive 5.8% (with semi- annual compounding) and pay SOFR on a principal of $100 million for the period. The 2-year (SOFR) risk-free rate is 4% (with continuous compounding). The value of the FRA is
100,000,000*10.058-0.0502*0.5e-0.04*2=+369,200
5 Chapters 5 and 7 provide more on the determination of forward rates.4.10 DURATION
The duration of a bond, as its name implies, is a measure of how long the holder of the
bond has to wait before receiving the present value of the cash payments. A zero- coupon bond that lasts n years has a duration of n years. However, a coupon-bearing bond lasting n years has a duration of less than n years, because the holder receives
some of the cash payments prior to year n.
Suppose that a bond provides the holder with cash flows
ci at time ti 11ā¦iā¦n2. The
bond price B and bond yield y (continuously compounded) are related by
B=an
i=1cie-yti (4.7)
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Interest Rates 113
The duration of the bond, D, is defined as
D=an
i=1 ticie-yti
B (4.8)
This can be written
D=an
i=1ticcie-yti
Bd
The term in square brackets is the ratio of the present value of the cash flow at time ti to
the bond price. The bond price is the present value of all payments. The duration is
therefore a weighted average of the times when payments are made, with the weight
applied to time ti being equal to the proportion of the bondās total present value
provided by the cash flow at time ti. The sum of the weights is 1.0. Note that, for the
purposes of the definition of duration, all discounting is done at the bond yield rate of interest, y. (We do not use a different zero rate for each cash flow in the way described in
Section 4.6.)
When a small change
āy in the yield is considered, it is approximately true that
āB=dB
dyāy (4.9)
From equation (4.7), this becomes
āB=-āyan
i=1citie-yti (4.10)
(Note that there is a negative relationship between B and y. When bond yields increase,
bond prices decrease. When bond yields decrease, bond prices increase.) From equa-tions (4.8) and (4.10), the key duration relationship is obtained:
āB=-BD āy (4.11)
This can be written
āB
B=-D āy (4.12)
Equation (4.12) is an approximate relationship between percentage changes in a bond
Bond Duration and Yield
- The text establishes a fundamental inverse relationship between bond prices and yields, where price decreases as yield increases.
- Duration, first proposed by Frederick Macaulay in 1938, serves as a popular measure for approximating percentage changes in bond prices relative to yield shifts.
- The calculation of duration involves weighting the time of each cash flow by its present value as a proportion of the total bond price.
- Modified duration is introduced to adjust the standard duration formula for different compounding frequencies, such as annual or semiannual rates.
- Mathematical examples demonstrate that the duration relationship provides a highly accurate prediction for small changes in interest rates, such as a 10-basis-point shift.
Note that there is a negative relationship between B and y. When bond yields increase, bond prices decrease.
āy in the yield is considered, it is approximately true that
āB=dB
dyāy (4.9)
From equation (4.7), this becomes
āB=-āyan
i=1citie-yti (4.10)
(Note that there is a negative relationship between B and y. When bond yields increase,
bond prices decrease. When bond yields decrease, bond prices increase.) From equa-tions (4.8) and (4.10), the key duration relationship is obtained:
āB=-BD āy (4.11)
This can be written
āB
B=-D āy (4.12)
Equation (4.12) is an approximate relationship between percentage changes in a bond
price and changes in its yield. It is easy to use and is the reason why duration, first suggested by Frederick Macaulay in 1938, has become such a popular measure.
Consider a 3-year 10% coupon bond with a face value of $100. Suppose that the yield
on the bond is 12% per annum with continuous compounding. This means that
y=0.12. Coupon payments of $5 are made every 6 months. Table 4.6 shows the
calculations necessary to determine the bondās duration. The present values of the bondās cash flows, using the yield as the discount rate, are shown in column 3 (e.g., the present value of the first cash flow is
5e-0.12*0.5=4.709). The sum of the numbers in
column 3 gives the bondās price as 94.213. The weights are calculated by dividing the numbers in column 3 by 94.213. The sum of the numbers in column 5 gives the duration as 2.653 years.
DV01 is the price change from a 1 -basis-point increase in all rates. Gamma is the
change in DV01 from a 1 -basis-point increase in all rates. The following example investigates the accuracy of the duration relationship in equation (4.11).
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114 CHAPTER 4
Example 4.4
For the bond in Table 4.6, the bond price, B , is 94.213 and the duration, D , is
2.653, so that equation (4.11) gives
āB=-94.213*2.653*āy
or
āB=-249.95*āy
When the yield on the bond increases by 10 basis points 1=0.1,2, āy=+0.001.
The duration relationship predicts that āB=-249.95*0.001=-0.250, so that
the bond price goes down to 94.213-0.250=93.963. How accurate is this?
Valuing the bond in terms of its yield in the usual way, we find that, when the
bond yield increases by 10 basis points to 12.1%, the bond price is
5e-0.121*0.5+5e-0.121*1.0+5e-0.121*1.5+5e-0.121*2.0
+ 5e-0.121*2.5+105e-0.121*3.0=93.963
which is (to three decimal places) the same as that predicted by the duration relationship.
Modified Duration
The preceding analysis is based on the assumption that y is expressed with continuous compounding. If y is expressed with annual compounding, it can be shown that the approximate relationship in equation (4.11) becomes
āB=-
BDāy
1+y
More generally, if y is expressed with a compounding frequency of m times per year, then
āB=-BDāy
1+y>mTime
(years)Cash flow
($)Present
valueWeight Time*weight
0.5 5 4.709 0.050 0.025
1.0 5 4.435 0.047 0.047
1.5 5 4.176 0.044 0.066
2.0 5 3.933 0.042 0.083
2.5 5 3.704 0.039 0.098
3.0 105 73.256 0.778 2.333
Total: 130 94.213 1 .000 2.653Table 4.6 Calculation of duration.
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Interest Rates 115
A variable D*, defined by
D*=D
1+y>m
is sometimes referred to as the bondās modified duration. It allows the duration relation-
ship to be simplified to
āB=-BD*āy (4.13)
when y is expressed with a compounding frequency of m times per year. The following
example investigates the accuracy of the modified duration relationship.
Example 4.5
The bond in Table 4.6 has a price of 94.213 and a duration of 2.653. The yield,
expressed with semiannual compounding is 12.3673%. The modified duration, D*,
is given by
D*=2.653
1+0.123673>2=2.499
From equation (4.13),
āB=-94.213*2.499*āy
or
āB=-235.39*āy
When the yield (semiannually compounded) increases by 10 basis points 1=0.1,2,
we have āy=+0.001. The duration relationship predicts that we expect āB to be
-235.39*0.001=-0.235, so that the bond price goes down to 94.213-0.235 =
Modified Duration and Convexity
- Modified duration provides a highly accurate estimate for bond price changes when yield fluctuations are small, as demonstrated by a numerical example.
- The duration of a bond portfolio is calculated as a weighted average of individual bond durations, assuming a parallel shift in the yield curve.
- Financial institutions can eliminate exposure to small parallel shifts by matching the duration of assets and liabilities, achieving a net duration of zero.
- Because the relationship between price and yield is curved, duration becomes less accurate for large yield changes, necessitating the use of convexity.
- Convexity measures the curvature of the price-yield relationship and is used in a Taylor series expansion to provide a more precise prediction of price movements.
For large yield changes, the portfolios behave differently. Portfolio X has more curvature in its relationship with yields than portfolio Y.
when y is expressed with a compounding frequency of m times per year. The following
example investigates the accuracy of the modified duration relationship.
Example 4.5
The bond in Table 4.6 has a price of 94.213 and a duration of 2.653. The yield,
expressed with semiannual compounding is 12.3673%. The modified duration, D*,
is given by
D*=2.653
1+0.123673>2=2.499
From equation (4.13),
āB=-94.213*2.499*āy
or
āB=-235.39*āy
When the yield (semiannually compounded) increases by 10 basis points 1=0.1,2,
we have āy=+0.001. The duration relationship predicts that we expect āB to be
-235.39*0.001=-0.235, so that the bond price goes down to 94.213-0.235 =
93.978. How accurate is this? An exact calculation similar to that in the previous
example shows that, when the bond yield (semiannually compounded) increases by
10 basis points to 12.4673%, the bond price becomes 93.978. This shows that the modified duration calculation gives good accuracy for small yield changes.
Another term that is sometimes used is dollar duration. This is the product of modified duration and bond price, so that
āB=-D+āy, where D+ is dollar duration.
Bond Portfolios
The duration, D, of a bond portfolio can be defined as a weighted average of the durations of the individual bonds in the portfolio, with the weights being proportional to the bond prices. Equations (4.11) to (4.13) then apply, with B being defined as the value of the bond portfolio. They estimate the change in the value of the bond portfolio for a small change
āy in the yields of all the bonds.
It is important to realize that, when duration is used for bond portfolios, there is an
implicit assumption that the yields of all bonds will change by approximately the same amount. When the bonds have widely differing maturities, this happens only when there
is a parallel shift in the zero-coupon yield curve. We should therefore interpret
equations (4.11) to (4.13) as providing estimates of the impact on the price of a bond portfolio of a small parallel shift,
āy, in the zero curve.
By choosing a portfolio so that the duration of assets equals the duration of liabilities
(i.e., the net duration is zero), a financial institution eliminates its exposure to small parallel shifts in the yield curve. But it is still exposed to shifts that are either large or nonparallel.
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116 CHAPTER 4
The duration relationship applies only to small changes in yields. This is illustrated in
Figure 4.2, which shows the relationship between the percentage change in value and
change in yield for two bond portfolios having the same duration. The gradients of
the two curves are the same at the origin. This means that both bond portfolios change in value by the same percentage for small yield changes and is consistent with equation (4.12). For large yield changes, the portfolios behave differently. Portfolio X
has more curvature in its relationship with yields than portfolio Y . A factor known as
convexity measures this curvature and can be used to improve the relationship in
equation (4.12).
A measure of convexity is
C=1
B d2B
dy2=an
i=1 cit2
ie-yti
B
From Taylor series expansions, we obtain a more accurate expression than equa-tion (4.9), given by
āB=dB
dyāy+1
2 d2B
dy2āy2 (4.14)
This leads to
āB
B=-Dāy+1
2C1āy22
For a portfolio with a particular duration, the convexity of a bond portfolio tends to be
greatest when the portfolio provides payments evenly over a long period of time. It is 4.11 CONVEXITY
Figure 4.2 Two bond portfolios with the same duration.
DyDB
B
X
XY
Y
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Interest Rates 117
Maturity (years) Deposit rate Mortgage rate
1 3% 6%
Convexity and Term Structure Theories
- Taylor series expansions provide a more accurate measure of bond price changes by incorporating convexity alongside duration.
- Expectations theory suggests that long-term interest rates are simply reflections of expected future short-term rates.
- Market segmentation theory posits that different maturity markets operate independently based on the specific supply and demand of institutional investors.
- Liquidity preference theory argues that investors demand a premium for long-term lending, explaining why yield curves are typically upward sloping.
- Financial institutions can immunize themselves against large parallel shifts in the zero curve by matching both the duration and convexity of assets and liabilities.
The theory that is most appealing is liquidity preference theory.
From Taylor series expansions, we obtain a more accurate expression than equa-tion (4.9), given by
āB=dB
dyāy+1
2 d2B
dy2āy2 (4.14)
This leads to
āB
B=-Dāy+1
2C1āy22
For a portfolio with a particular duration, the convexity of a bond portfolio tends to be
greatest when the portfolio provides payments evenly over a long period of time. It is 4.11 CONVEXITY
Figure 4.2 Two bond portfolios with the same duration.
DyDB
B
X
XY
Y
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Interest Rates 117
Maturity (years) Deposit rate Mortgage rate
1 3% 6%
5 3% 6%Table 4.7 Example of rates offered by a bank to its customers.It is natural to ask what determines the shape of the zero curve. Why is it sometimes
downward sloping, sometimes upward sloping, and sometimes partly upward sloping and partly downward sloping? A number of different theories have been proposed. The simplest is expectations theory, which conjectures that long-term interest rates should
reflect expected future short-term interest rates. More precisely, it argues that a forward interest rate corresponding to a certain future period is equal to the expected future zero
interest rate for that period. Another idea, market segmentation theory, conjectures that
there need be no relationship between short-, medium-, and long-term interest rates. Under the theory, a major investor such as a large pension fund or an insurance
company invests in bonds of a certain maturity and does not readily switch from one maturity to another. The short-term interest rate is determined by supply and demand in the short-term bond market; the medium-term interest rate is determined by supply and demand in the medium-term bond market; and so on.
The theory that is most appealing is liquidity preference theory. The basic assumption
underlying the theory is that investors prefer to preserve their liquidity and invest funds for short periods of time. Borrowers, on the other hand, usually prefer to borrow at fixed rates for long periods of time. This leads to a situation in which forward rates are greater than expected future zero rates. The theory is also consistent with the empirical result that yield curves tend to be upward sloping more often than they are downward sloping.
The Management of Net Interest Income
To understand liquidity preference theory, it is useful to consider the interest rate risk faced by banks when they take deposits and make loans. The net interest income of the bank is the excess of the interest received over the interest paid and needs to be carefully
managed.
Consider a simple situation where a bank offers consumers a one-year and a five-year
deposit rate as well as a one-year and five-year mortgage rate. The rates are shown in
Table 4.7. We make the simplifying assumption that the expected one-year interest rate
for future time periods is equal the one-year rates prevailing in the market today. Loosely speaking this means that the market considers interest rate increases to be just as likely as interest rate decreases. As a result, the rates in Table 4.7 are āfairā in that least when the payments are concentrated around one particular point in time. By
choosing a portfolio of assets and liabilities with a net duration of zero and a net convexity of zero, a financial institution can make itself immune to relatively large parallel shifts in the zero curve. However, it is still exposed to nonparallel shifts.
4.12 THEORIES OF THE TERM STRUCTURE OF INTEREST RATES
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118 CHAPTER 4
Liquidity Preference and Maturity Matching
- Liquidity preference theory explains why long-term interest rates are typically higher than short-term rates due to the differing needs of depositors and borrowers.
- Depositors generally prefer short-term commitments for financial flexibility, while borrowers prefer long-term rates to hedge against refinancing risk.
- Banks face significant interest rate risk when they have an asset/liability mismatch, such as financing long-term mortgages with short-term deposits.
- To mitigate risk, banks adjust interest rates to incentivize customers toward maturities that balance the institution's portfolio.
- The collective behavior of financial institutions seeking to match maturities results in an upward-sloping yield curve.
A 3% rise in interest rates would reduce the net interest income to zero.
To understand liquidity preference theory, it is useful to consider the interest rate risk faced by banks when they take deposits and make loans. The net interest income of the bank is the excess of the interest received over the interest paid and needs to be carefully
managed.
Consider a simple situation where a bank offers consumers a one-year and a five-year
deposit rate as well as a one-year and five-year mortgage rate. The rates are shown in
Table 4.7. We make the simplifying assumption that the expected one-year interest rate
for future time periods is equal the one-year rates prevailing in the market today. Loosely speaking this means that the market considers interest rate increases to be just as likely as interest rate decreases. As a result, the rates in Table 4.7 are āfairā in that least when the payments are concentrated around one particular point in time. By
choosing a portfolio of assets and liabilities with a net duration of zero and a net convexity of zero, a financial institution can make itself immune to relatively large parallel shifts in the zero curve. However, it is still exposed to nonparallel shifts.
4.12 THEORIES OF THE TERM STRUCTURE OF INTEREST RATES
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118 CHAPTER 4
they reflect the marketās expectations (i.e., they correspond to expectations theory).
Investing money for one year and reinvesting for four further one-year periods give the
same expected overall return as a single five-year investment. Similarly, borrowing money for one year and refinancing each year for the next four years leads to the same expected financing costs as a single five-year loan.
Suppose you have money to deposit and agree with the prevailing view that interest
rate increases are just as likely as interest rate decreases. Would you choose to deposit your money for one year at 3% per annum or for five years at 3% per annum? The chances are that you would choose one year because this gives you more financial
flexibility. It ties up your funds for a shorter period of time.
Now suppose that you want a mortgage. Again you agree with the prevailing view
that interest rate increases are just as likely as interest rate decreases. Would you choose a one-year mortgage at 6% or a five-year mortgage at 6%? The chances are that you would choose a five-year mortgage because it fixes your borrowing rate for the next five years and subjects you to less refinancing risk.
When the bank posts the rates shown in Table 4.7, it is likely to find that the majority
of its depositors opt for one-year deposits and the majority of its borrowers opt for five- year mortgages. This creates an asset/liability mismatch for the bank and subjects it to risks. There is no problem if interest rates fall. The bank will find itself financing the five-year 6% loans with deposits that cost less than 3% in the future and net interest income will increase. However, if rates rise, the deposits that are financing these 6% loans will cost more than 3% in the future and net interest income will decline. A 3% rise in interest rates would reduce the net interest income to zero.
It is the job of the asset/liability management group to ensure that the maturities of
the assets on which interest is earned and the maturities of the liabilities on which interest is paid are matched. One way it can do this is by increasing the five-year rate on
both deposits and mortgages. For example, it could move to the situation in Table 4.8 where the five-year deposit rate is 4% and the five-year mortgage rate 7%. This would make five-year deposits relatively more attractive and one-year mortgages relatively more attractive. Some customers who chose one-year deposits when the rates were as in
Table 4.7 will switch to five-year deposits in the Table 4.8 situation. Some customers
who chose five-year mortgages when the rates were as in Table 4.7 will choose one-year mortgages. This may lead to the maturities of assets and liabilities being matched. If there is still an imbalance with depositors tending to choose a one-year maturity and borrowers a five-year maturity, five-year deposit and mortgage rates could be increased even further. Eventually the imbalance will disappear.
The net result of all banks behaving in the way we have just described is liquidity
preference theory. Long-term rates tend to be higher than those that would be predicted by expected future short-term rates. The yield curve is upward sloping most Maturity (years) Deposit rate Mortgage rate
Liquidity Preference and Maturity Matching
- Expectations theory suggests that long-term interest rates should reflect the average of expected future short-term rates.
- Individual preferences create a natural mismatch, as depositors favor short-term flexibility while borrowers prefer the security of long-term fixed rates.
- Banks face significant interest rate risk when they finance long-term fixed-rate mortgages with short-term deposits that may become more expensive.
- To mitigate this risk, banks increase long-term rates to incentivize longer deposits and shorter loans, leading to an upward-sloping yield curve.
- Liquidity preference theory explains why long-term rates are typically higher than predicted future short-term rates due to these structural market pressures.
This creates an asset/liability mismatch for the bank and subjects it to risks.
they reflect the marketās expectations (i.e., they correspond to expectations theory).
Investing money for one year and reinvesting for four further one-year periods give the
same expected overall return as a single five-year investment. Similarly, borrowing money for one year and refinancing each year for the next four years leads to the same expected financing costs as a single five-year loan.
Suppose you have money to deposit and agree with the prevailing view that interest
rate increases are just as likely as interest rate decreases. Would you choose to deposit your money for one year at 3% per annum or for five years at 3% per annum? The chances are that you would choose one year because this gives you more financial
flexibility. It ties up your funds for a shorter period of time.
Now suppose that you want a mortgage. Again you agree with the prevailing view
that interest rate increases are just as likely as interest rate decreases. Would you choose a one-year mortgage at 6% or a five-year mortgage at 6%? The chances are that you would choose a five-year mortgage because it fixes your borrowing rate for the next five years and subjects you to less refinancing risk.
When the bank posts the rates shown in Table 4.7, it is likely to find that the majority
of its depositors opt for one-year deposits and the majority of its borrowers opt for five- year mortgages. This creates an asset/liability mismatch for the bank and subjects it to risks. There is no problem if interest rates fall. The bank will find itself financing the five-year 6% loans with deposits that cost less than 3% in the future and net interest income will increase. However, if rates rise, the deposits that are financing these 6% loans will cost more than 3% in the future and net interest income will decline. A 3% rise in interest rates would reduce the net interest income to zero.
It is the job of the asset/liability management group to ensure that the maturities of
the assets on which interest is earned and the maturities of the liabilities on which interest is paid are matched. One way it can do this is by increasing the five-year rate on
both deposits and mortgages. For example, it could move to the situation in Table 4.8 where the five-year deposit rate is 4% and the five-year mortgage rate 7%. This would make five-year deposits relatively more attractive and one-year mortgages relatively more attractive. Some customers who chose one-year deposits when the rates were as in
Table 4.7 will switch to five-year deposits in the Table 4.8 situation. Some customers
who chose five-year mortgages when the rates were as in Table 4.7 will choose one-year mortgages. This may lead to the maturities of assets and liabilities being matched. If there is still an imbalance with depositors tending to choose a one-year maturity and borrowers a five-year maturity, five-year deposit and mortgage rates could be increased even further. Eventually the imbalance will disappear.
The net result of all banks behaving in the way we have just described is liquidity
preference theory. Long-term rates tend to be higher than those that would be predicted by expected future short-term rates. The yield curve is upward sloping most Maturity (years) Deposit rate Mortgage rate
1 3% 6%
5 4% 7%Table 4.8 Five-year rates are increased in an attempt to match
maturities of assets and liabilities.
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Interest Rates 119
Business Snapshot 4.2 Liquidity and the 2007ā2009 Financial Crisis
Liquidity Preference and Maturity Matching
- Expectations theory suggests that long-term interest rates should reflect the average of expected future short-term rates.
- Individual preferences create an asset/liability mismatch for banks, as depositors favor short-term flexibility while borrowers prefer long-term fixed rates.
- Banks manage this risk by increasing long-term rates to incentivize depositors and discourage long-term borrowers, leading to an upward-sloping yield curve.
- Liquidity preference theory explains why long-term rates are typically higher than predicted short-term rates to compensate for the risks of maturity imbalances.
- The 2007ā2009 financial crisis highlighted the dangers of this mismatch, as institutions like Northern Rock collapsed when short-term funding sources refused to roll over loans.
Starting in September 2007, the depositors became nervous and refused to roll over the funding they were providing to Northern Rock, i.e., at the end of a 3-month period they would refuse to deposit their funds for a further 3-month period.
they reflect the marketās expectations (i.e., they correspond to expectations theory).
Investing money for one year and reinvesting for four further one-year periods give the
same expected overall return as a single five-year investment. Similarly, borrowing money for one year and refinancing each year for the next four years leads to the same expected financing costs as a single five-year loan.
Suppose you have money to deposit and agree with the prevailing view that interest
rate increases are just as likely as interest rate decreases. Would you choose to deposit your money for one year at 3% per annum or for five years at 3% per annum? The chances are that you would choose one year because this gives you more financial
flexibility. It ties up your funds for a shorter period of time.
Now suppose that you want a mortgage. Again you agree with the prevailing view
that interest rate increases are just as likely as interest rate decreases. Would you choose a one-year mortgage at 6% or a five-year mortgage at 6%? The chances are that you would choose a five-year mortgage because it fixes your borrowing rate for the next five years and subjects you to less refinancing risk.
When the bank posts the rates shown in Table 4.7, it is likely to find that the majority
of its depositors opt for one-year deposits and the majority of its borrowers opt for five- year mortgages. This creates an asset/liability mismatch for the bank and subjects it to risks. There is no problem if interest rates fall. The bank will find itself financing the five-year 6% loans with deposits that cost less than 3% in the future and net interest income will increase. However, if rates rise, the deposits that are financing these 6% loans will cost more than 3% in the future and net interest income will decline. A 3% rise in interest rates would reduce the net interest income to zero.
It is the job of the asset/liability management group to ensure that the maturities of
the assets on which interest is earned and the maturities of the liabilities on which interest is paid are matched. One way it can do this is by increasing the five-year rate on
both deposits and mortgages. For example, it could move to the situation in Table 4.8 where the five-year deposit rate is 4% and the five-year mortgage rate 7%. This would make five-year deposits relatively more attractive and one-year mortgages relatively more attractive. Some customers who chose one-year deposits when the rates were as in
Table 4.7 will switch to five-year deposits in the Table 4.8 situation. Some customers
who chose five-year mortgages when the rates were as in Table 4.7 will choose one-year mortgages. This may lead to the maturities of assets and liabilities being matched. If there is still an imbalance with depositors tending to choose a one-year maturity and borrowers a five-year maturity, five-year deposit and mortgage rates could be increased even further. Eventually the imbalance will disappear.
The net result of all banks behaving in the way we have just described is liquidity
preference theory. Long-term rates tend to be higher than those that would be predicted by expected future short-term rates. The yield curve is upward sloping most Maturity (years) Deposit rate Mortgage rate
1 3% 6%
5 4% 7%Table 4.8 Five-year rates are increased in an attempt to match
maturities of assets and liabilities.
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Interest Rates 119
Business Snapshot 4.2 Liquidity and the 2007ā2009 Financial Crisis
During the financial crisis that started in July 2007 there was a āflight to quality, ā
where financial institutions and investors looked for safe investments and were less inclined than before to take credit risks. Financial institutions that relied on short-term funding experienced liquidity problems. One example is Northern Rock in the United Kingdom, which financed much of its mortgage portfolio with wholesale deposits, some lasting only 3 months. Starting in September 2007 , the depositors became nervous and refused to roll over the funding they were providing to Northern Rock, i.e., at the end of a 3-month period they would refuse to deposit their funds for
a further 3-month period. As a result, Northern Rock was unable to finance its assets.
It was taken over by the U.K. government in early 2008. In the United States,
financial institutions such as Bear Stearns and Lehman Brothers experienced similar liquidity problems because they had chosen to fund part of their operations with short-term funds.
of the time. It is downward sloping only when the market expects a steep decline in short-term rates.
Liquidity and Maturity Mismatch
- The 2007 financial crisis triggered a 'flight to quality' where investors avoided credit risks and prioritized safe investments.
- Financial institutions like Northern Rock and Lehman Brothers collapsed because they relied on short-term wholesale deposits to fund long-term assets.
- Even if a bank hedges its interest rate risk using derivatives, it remains vulnerable to liquidity risk if depositors lose confidence and refuse to roll over funding.
- Modern banks use sophisticated monitoring systems and interest rate swaps to fine-tune the maturities of their assets and liabilities to stabilize net interest income.
The financial institution, even if it has adequate equity capital, will then experience a severe liquidity problem that could lead to its downfall.
During the financial crisis that started in July 2007 there was a āflight to quality, ā
where financial institutions and investors looked for safe investments and were less inclined than before to take credit risks. Financial institutions that relied on short-term funding experienced liquidity problems. One example is Northern Rock in the United Kingdom, which financed much of its mortgage portfolio with wholesale deposits, some lasting only 3 months. Starting in September 2007 , the depositors became nervous and refused to roll over the funding they were providing to Northern Rock, i.e., at the end of a 3-month period they would refuse to deposit their funds for
a further 3-month period. As a result, Northern Rock was unable to finance its assets.
It was taken over by the U.K. government in early 2008. In the United States,
financial institutions such as Bear Stearns and Lehman Brothers experienced similar liquidity problems because they had chosen to fund part of their operations with short-term funds.
of the time. It is downward sloping only when the market expects a steep decline in short-term rates.
Many banks now have sophisticated systems for monitoring the decisions being made
by customers so that, when they detect small differences between the maturities of the assets and liabilities being chosen by customers they can fine tune the rates they offer.
Sometimes derivatives such as interest rate swaps are also used to manage their
exposure. The result of all this is that net interest income is usually very stable. This
has not always been the case. In the United States, the failure of Savings and Loan companies in the 1980s and the failure of Continental Illinois in 1984 were to a large extent a result of the fact that they did not match the maturities of assets and liabilities. Both failures proved to be very expensive for U.S. taxpayers.
Liquidity
In addition to creating problems in the way that has been described, a portfolio where maturities are mismatched can lead to liquidity problems. Consider a financial institu-tion that funds 5-year fixed rate loans with wholesale deposits that last only 3 months. It might recognize its exposure to rising interest rates and hedge its interest rate risk. (One way of doing this is by using interest rate swaps, as mentioned earlier.) However, it
still has a liquidity risk. Wholesale depositors may, for some reason, lose confidence in the financial institution and refuse to continue to provide the financial institution with short-term funding. The financial institution, even if it has adequate equity capital, will then experience a severe liquidity problem that could lead to its downfall. As described in Business Snapshot 4.2, these types of liquidity problems were the root cause of some of the failures of financial institutions during the crisis that started in 2007 .
SUMMARY
The compounding frequency used for an interest rate defines the units in which it is
measured. The difference between an annually compounded rate and a quarterly
compounded rate is analogous to the difference between a distance measured in miles
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120 CHAPTER 4
and a distance measured in kilometers. Traders frequently use continuous compound-
Interest Rates and Liquidity Risk
- Mismatched portfolio maturities can lead to severe liquidity problems even if a financial institution has hedged its interest rate risk.
- The compounding frequency of an interest rate acts as a unit of measurement, with continuous compounding being the standard for complex derivatives.
- The bootstrap method is the primary tool used by trading desks to calculate zero rates by moving progressively from short-term to long-term instruments.
- Duration serves as a critical metric for measuring how a bond portfolio's value reacts to small parallel shifts in the zero-coupon yield curve.
- Liquidity preference theory suggests that long-term rates are typically higher because borrowers prefer long-term loans while lenders prefer short-term liquidity.
The financial institution, even if it has adequate equity capital, will then experience a severe liquidity problem that could lead to its downfall.
In addition to creating problems in the way that has been described, a portfolio where maturities are mismatched can lead to liquidity problems. Consider a financial institu-tion that funds 5-year fixed rate loans with wholesale deposits that last only 3 months. It might recognize its exposure to rising interest rates and hedge its interest rate risk. (One way of doing this is by using interest rate swaps, as mentioned earlier.) However, it
still has a liquidity risk. Wholesale depositors may, for some reason, lose confidence in the financial institution and refuse to continue to provide the financial institution with short-term funding. The financial institution, even if it has adequate equity capital, will then experience a severe liquidity problem that could lead to its downfall. As described in Business Snapshot 4.2, these types of liquidity problems were the root cause of some of the failures of financial institutions during the crisis that started in 2007 .
SUMMARY
The compounding frequency used for an interest rate defines the units in which it is
measured. The difference between an annually compounded rate and a quarterly
compounded rate is analogous to the difference between a distance measured in miles
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120 CHAPTER 4
and a distance measured in kilometers. Traders frequently use continuous compound-
ing when analyzing the value of options and more complex derivatives.
Many different types of interest rates are quoted in financial markets and calculated by
analysts. The n-year zero or spot rate is the rate applicable to an investment lasting for
n years when all of the return is realized at the end. The par yield on a bond of a certain maturity is the coupon rate that causes the bond to sell for its par value. Forward rates are
the rates applicable to future periods of time implied by todayās zero rates.
The method most commonly used to calculate zero rates is known as the bootstrap
method. It involves starting with short-term instruments and moving progressively to longer-term instruments, making sure that the zero rates calculated at each stage are
consistent with the prices of the instruments. It is used daily by trading desks to
calculate a variety of zero curves.
A forward rate agreement (FRA) is an over-the-counter agreement where a floating
rate will be exchanged for a specified interest rate with both rates being applied to a predetermined principal over a predetermined period.
An important concept in interest rate markets is duration. Duration measures the
sensitivity of the value of a bond portfolio to a small parallel shift in the zero-coupon yield curve. Specifically,
āB=-BD āy
where B is the value of the bond portfolio, D is the duration of the portfolio, āy is the
size of a small parallel shift in the zero curve, and āB is the resultant effect on the value
of the bond portfolio.
Liquidity preference theory can be used to explain the interest rate term structures
that are observed in practice. The theory argues that most entities like to borrow long and lend short. To match the maturities of borrowers and lenders, it is necessary for financial institutions to raise long-term rates so that forward interest rates are higher than expected future spot interest rates.
FURTHER READING
Berndt, A., D. Duffie, and Y. Zhu, āAcross-the-Curve Credit Spread Indices,ā Working Paper,
July 2020. See: www.darrellduffie.com/uploads/pubs/BerndtDuffieZhuJuly2020.pdf.
Interest Rates and Liquidity Preference
- The duration of a bond portfolio determines its sensitivity to small parallel shifts in the zero curve.
- Liquidity preference theory suggests that borrowers generally prefer long-term loans while lenders prefer short-term commitments.
- Financial institutions must offer higher forward interest rates than expected future spot rates to reconcile the maturity preferences of borrowers and lenders.
- The text provides practical exercises for calculating equivalent interest rates across different compounding frequencies, including continuous and quarterly.
- Forward rates and zero rates are analyzed to determine the value of financial instruments like Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs).
The theory argues that most entities like to borrow long and lend short.
where B is the value of the bond portfolio, D is the duration of the portfolio, āy is the
size of a small parallel shift in the zero curve, and āB is the resultant effect on the value
of the bond portfolio.
Liquidity preference theory can be used to explain the interest rate term structures
that are observed in practice. The theory argues that most entities like to borrow long and lend short. To match the maturities of borrowers and lenders, it is necessary for financial institutions to raise long-term rates so that forward interest rates are higher than expected future spot interest rates.
FURTHER READING
Berndt, A., D. Duffie, and Y. Zhu, āAcross-the-Curve Credit Spread Indices,ā Working Paper,
July 2020. See: www.darrellduffie.com/uploads/pubs/BerndtDuffieZhuJuly2020.pdf.
Fabozzi, F. J. Bond Markets, Analysis, and Strategies, 8th edn. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson,
2012.
Grinblatt, M., and F. A. Longstaff. āFinancial Innovation and the Role of Derivatives Securities:
An Empirical Analysis of the Treasury Strips Program, ā Journal of Finance, 55, 3 (2000): 1415ā36.
Jorion, P. Big Bets Gone Bad: Derivatives and Bankruptcy in Orange County. New York:
Academic Press, 1995.
Schrimpf, A., and V . Sushko, āBeyond LIBOR: A Primer on the New Benchmark Rates, ā BIS
Quarterly, March 2019: 29ā52.
Stigum, M., and A. Crescenzi. Money Markets, 4th edn. New York: McGraw Hill, 2007 .
M04_HULL0654_11_GE_C04.indd 120 12/05/2021 17:18
Interest Rates 121
Practice Questions
4.1. A bank quotes an interest rate of 7% per annum with quarterly compounding. What is
the equivalent rate with (a) continuous compounding and (b) annual compounding?
4.2. The 6-month and 1 -year zero rates are both 5% per annum. For a bond that has a life of
18 months and pays a coupon of 4% per annum (with semiannual payments and one
having just been made), the yield is 5.2% per annum. What is the bondās price? What is the 18-month zero rate? All rates are quoted with semiannual compounding.
4.3. An investor receives $1,100 in one year in return for an investment of $1,000 now. Calculate the percentage return per annum with:
(a) Annual compounding
(b) Semiannual compounding
(c) Monthly compounding
(d) Continuous compounding.
4.4. Suppose that risk-free zero interest rates with continuous compounding are as follows:
Maturity
(months)Rate
(% per annum)
3 3.0
6 3.2
9 3.4
12 3.5
15 3.6
18 3.7
Calculate forward interest rates for the second, third, fourth, fifth, and sixth quarters.
4.5. Assuming that SOFR rates are as in Problem 4.4, what is the value of an FRA where the
holder will pay SOFR and receive 4.5% (quarterly compounded) for a three-month
period starting in one year on a principal of $1,000,000?
4.6. The term structure of interest rates is upward sloping. Put the following in order of magnitude:
(a) The 5-year zero rate
(b) The yield on a 5-year coupon-bearing bond
(c) The forward rate corresponding to the period between 4.75 and 5 years in the future.
What is the answer when the term structure of interest rates is downward sloping?
4.7. What does duration tell you about the sensitivity of a bond portfolio to interest rates.
What are the limitations of the duration measure?
4.8. What rate of interest with continuous compounding is equivalent to 8% per annum with monthly compounding?
4.9. A deposit account pays 4% per annum with continuous compounding, but interest is actually paid quarterly. How much interest will be paid each quarter on a $10,000 deposit?
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122 CHAPTER 4
4.10. Suppose that 6-month, 12-month, 18-month, 24-month, and 30-month zero rates are,
Interest Rate Practice Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative exercises focused on calculating zero rates, forward rates, and bond yields under various compounding frequencies.
- Several problems explore the relationship between bond prices and interest rate sensitivity using the concept of duration.
- The exercises address theoretical concepts such as the liquidity preference theory and its impact on the slope of the term structure.
- Practical applications include valuing interest rate swaps as a portfolio of forward rate agreements and assessing credit risk in the repo market.
- Calculations require converting between continuous, monthly, and annual compounding to determine equivalent interest rates.
Explain carefully why liquidity preference theory is consistent with the observation that the term structure of interest rates tends to be upward-sloping more often than it is downward-sloping.
(c) The forward rate corresponding to the period between 4.75 and 5 years in the future.
What is the answer when the term structure of interest rates is downward sloping?
4.7. What does duration tell you about the sensitivity of a bond portfolio to interest rates.
What are the limitations of the duration measure?
4.8. What rate of interest with continuous compounding is equivalent to 8% per annum with monthly compounding?
4.9. A deposit account pays 4% per annum with continuous compounding, but interest is actually paid quarterly. How much interest will be paid each quarter on a $10,000 deposit?
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122 CHAPTER 4
4.10. Suppose that 6-month, 12-month, 18-month, 24-month, and 30-month zero rates are,
respectively, 4%, 4.2%, 4.4%, 4.6%, and 4.8% per annum, with continuous compounding. Estimate the cash price of a bond with a face value of 100 that will mature in 30 months and
pay a coupon of 4% per annum semiannually.
4.11. A 3-year bond provides a coupon of 8% semiannually and has a cash price of 104. What is the bondās yield?
4.12. Suppose that the 6-month, 12-month, 18-month, and 24-month zero rates are 5%, 6%, 6.5%, and 7%, respectively. What is the 2-year par yield?
4.13. Suppose that risk-free zero interest rates with continuous compounding are as follows:
Maturity
(years)Rate
(% per annum)
1 2.0
2 3.0
3 3.7
4 4.2
5 4.5
Calculate forward interest rates for the second, third, fourth, and fifth years.
4.14. A 10-year 8% coupon bond currently sells for $90. A 10-year 4% coupon bond currently sells for $80. What is the 10-year zero rate? (Hint: Consider taking a long position in two of the 4% coupon bonds and a short position in one of the 8% coupon bonds.)
4.15. Explain carefully why liquidity preference theory is consistent with the observation that
the term structure of interest rates tends to be upward-sloping more often than it is downward-sloping.
4.16. āWhen the zero curve is upward-sloping, the zero rate for a particular maturity is greater than the par yield for that maturity. When the zero curve is downward-sloping the reverse is true. ā Explain why this is so.
4.17. Why does a loan in the repo market involve very little credit risk?
4.18. A 5-year bond with a yield of 7% (continuously compounded) pays an 8% coupon at the end of each year.
(a) What is the bondās price?
(b) What is the bondās duration?
(c) Use the duration to calculate the effect on the bondās price of a 0.2% decrease in its
yield.
(d) Recalculate the bondās price on the basis of a 6.8% per annum yield and verify that the result is in agreement with your answer to (c).
4.19. The cash prices of 6-month and 1 -year Treasury bills are 94.0 and 89.0. A 1.5-year Treasury
bond that will pay coupons of $4 every 6 months currently sells for $94.84. A 2-year
Treasury bond that will pay coupons of $5 every 6 months currently sells for $97.12.
Calculate the 6-month, 1 -year, 1.5-year, and 2-year Treasury zero rates.
4.20. ā An interest rate swap where 6-month LIBOR is exchanged for a fixed rate of 5% on a principal of $100 million for 5 years involves a known cash flow and a portfolio of nine FRAs. ā Explain this statement.
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Interest Rates 123
4.21. When compounded annually an interest rate is 11%. What is the rate when expressed with
(a) semiannual compounding, (b) quarterly compounding, (c) monthly compounding,
(d) weekly compounding, and (e) daily compounding.
4.22. The table below gives Treasury zero rates and cash flows on a Treasury bond. Zero rates are continuously compounded.
(a) What is the bondās theoretical price?
(b) What is the bondās yield assuming it sells for its theoretical price?
Maturity (years) Zero rate Coupon payment Principal
0.5 2.0% $20
1.0 2.3% $20
1.5 2.7% $20
2.0 3.2% $20 $1,000
Bond Valuation and Forward Pricing
- The text presents quantitative problems regarding the conversion of interest rates between different compounding frequencies, including semiannual, monthly, and continuous methods.
- Calculations for Treasury bonds are introduced, requiring the determination of theoretical prices and yields based on zero rates and coupon schedules.
- Portfolio duration and convexity are explored through comparative exercises, demonstrating how different bond structures respond to shifts in interest rates.
- The transition to Chapter 5 marks a shift from bond mathematics to the relationship between spot prices and forward or futures prices.
- A key theoretical assumption is established: forward and futures prices are typically treated as equivalent because their values remain close despite different settlement structures.
Luckily it can be shown that the forward price and futures price of an asset are usually very close when the maturities of the two contracts are the same.
4.21. When compounded annually an interest rate is 11%. What is the rate when expressed with
(a) semiannual compounding, (b) quarterly compounding, (c) monthly compounding,
(d) weekly compounding, and (e) daily compounding.
4.22. The table below gives Treasury zero rates and cash flows on a Treasury bond. Zero rates are continuously compounded.
(a) What is the bondās theoretical price?
(b) What is the bondās yield assuming it sells for its theoretical price?
Maturity (years) Zero rate Coupon payment Principal
0.5 2.0% $20
1.0 2.3% $20
1.5 2.7% $20
2.0 3.2% $20 $1,000
4.23. A 5-year bond provides a coupon of 5% per annum payable semiannually. Its price is 104.
What is the bondās yield? You may find Excelās Solver useful.
4.24. An interest rate is quoted as 5% per annum with semiannual compounding. What is the equivalent rate with (a) annual compounding, (b) monthly compounding, and (c) continu-
ous compounding.
4.25. Portfolio A consists of a 1 -year zero-coupon bond with a face value of $2,000 and a
10-year zero-coupon bond with a face value of $6,000. Portfolio B consists of a 5.95-year zero- coupon bond with a face value of $5,000. The current yield on all bonds is 10% per
annum.
(a) Show that both portfolios have the same duration.
(b) Show that the percentage changes in the values of the two portfolios for a 0.1% per
annum increase in yields are the same.
(c) What are the percentage changes in the values of the two portfolios for a 5% per annum increase in yields?
4.26. Verify that DerivaGem agrees with the price of the bond in Section 4.6. Test how well
DV01 predicts the effect of a 1 -basis-point increase in all rates. Estimate the duration of the bond from DV01. Use DV01 and Gamma to predict the effect of a 200-basis-point increase in all rates. Use Gamma to estimate the bondās convexity. (Hint: In DerivaGem, DV01 is
dB>dy, where B is the price of the bond and y is its yield measured in basis points,
and Gamma is d2B>dy2, where y is measured in percent.)
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124
In this chapter we examine how forward prices and futures prices are related to the spot
price of the underlying asset. Forward contracts are easier to analyze than futures contracts because there is no daily settlementāonly a single payment at maturity. We therefore start this chapter by considering the relationship between the forward price and the spot price. Luckily it can be shown that the forward price and futures price of an asset are usually very close when the maturities of the two contracts are the same. This is convenient because it means that results obtained for forwards can be assumed to be true for futures.
In the first part of the chapter we derive some important general results on the
relationship between forward (or futures) prices and spot prices. We then use the results to examine the relationship between futures prices and spot prices for contracts on stock indices, foreign exchange, and commodities. We will consider interest rate futures contracts in the next chapter.Determination of
Forward and
Futures Prices5 CHAPTER
Forward and Futures Price Determination
- Forward prices are easier to analyze than futures because they lack daily settlement, yet their values remain closely aligned for identical maturities.
- The text distinguishes between investment assets, held by some traders solely for profit, and consumption assets, which are held primarily for use.
- Arbitrage arguments can be used to determine the prices of investment assets from spot prices, but these methods do not apply to consumption assets.
- Short selling allows investors to profit from price declines by borrowing and selling assets they do not own, though they must compensate the lender for any dividends lost.
We can use arbitrage arguments to determine the forward and futures prices of an investment asset from its spot price and other observable market variables.
In this chapter we examine how forward prices and futures prices are related to the spot
price of the underlying asset. Forward contracts are easier to analyze than futures contracts because there is no daily settlementāonly a single payment at maturity. We therefore start this chapter by considering the relationship between the forward price and the spot price. Luckily it can be shown that the forward price and futures price of an asset are usually very close when the maturities of the two contracts are the same. This is convenient because it means that results obtained for forwards can be assumed to be true for futures.
In the first part of the chapter we derive some important general results on the
relationship between forward (or futures) prices and spot prices. We then use the results to examine the relationship between futures prices and spot prices for contracts on stock indices, foreign exchange, and commodities. We will consider interest rate futures contracts in the next chapter.Determination of
Forward and
Futures Prices5 CHAPTER
When considering forward and futures contracts, it is important to distinguish between investment assets and consumption assets. An investment asset is an asset that is held solely for investment purposes by at least some traders. Stocks and bonds are clearly investment assets. Gold and silver are also examples of investment assets. Note that investment assets do not have to be held exclusively for investment. (Silver, for
example, has a number of industrial uses.) However, they do have to satisfy the requirement that they are held by some traders solely for investment. A consumption asset is an asset that is held primarily for consumption. It is not normally held for investment. Examples of consumption assets are commodities such as copper, crude oil, corn, and pork bellies.
As we shall see later in this chapter, we can use arbitrage arguments to determine the
forward and futures prices of an investment asset from its spot price and other
observable market variables. We cannot do this for consumption assets.5.1 INVESTMENT ASSETS vs. CONSUMPTION ASSETS
M05_HULL0654_11_GE_C05.indd 124 30/04/2021 16:46
Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 125
Some of the arbitrage strategies presented in this chapter involve short selling. This
trade, usually simply referred to as āshortingā , involves selling an asset that is not owned. It is something that is possible for someābut not allāinvestment assets. We will illustrate how it works by considering a short sale of shares of a stock.
Suppose an investor instructs a broker to short 500 shares of company X. The broker
will carry out the instructions by borrowing the shares from someone who owns them and selling them in the market in the usual way. At some later stage, the investor will close out the position by purchasing 500 shares of company X in the market. These shares are then used to replace the borrowed shares so that the short position is closed out. The investor takes a profit if the stock price has declined and a loss if it has risen. If at any time while the contract is open the broker has to return the borrowed shares and there are no other shares that can be borrowed, the investor is forced to close out the position, even if not ready to do so. Often a fee is charged for lending the shares to the party doing the shorting.
An investor with a short position must pay to the broker any income, such as
dividends or interest, that would normally be received on the securities that have been shorted. The broker will transfer this income to the account of the client from whom the securities have been borrowed. Consider the position of an investor who shorts 500 shares in April when the price per share is $120 and closes out the position by buying them back in July when the price per share is $100. Suppose that a dividend of $1 per share is paid in May. The investor receives
500*+120=+60,000 in April when
Mechanics of Short Selling
- Short selling involves selling an asset that is not owned by borrowing it from another investor and selling it in the open market.
- The investor profits if the asset price declines but incurs a loss if the price rises before the position is closed.
- Short sellers are responsible for paying any dividends or interest to the original owner that would have been received during the short period.
- A short position can be forcibly closed if the broker is required to return the borrowed shares and no other lenders are available.
- The cash flows of a short sale act as a mirror image to those of a traditional long purchase of the same asset.
If at any time while the contract is open the broker has to return the borrowed shares and there are no other shares that can be borrowed, the investor is forced to close out the position, even if not ready to do so.
Some of the arbitrage strategies presented in this chapter involve short selling. This
trade, usually simply referred to as āshortingā , involves selling an asset that is not owned. It is something that is possible for someābut not allāinvestment assets. We will illustrate how it works by considering a short sale of shares of a stock.
Suppose an investor instructs a broker to short 500 shares of company X. The broker
will carry out the instructions by borrowing the shares from someone who owns them and selling them in the market in the usual way. At some later stage, the investor will close out the position by purchasing 500 shares of company X in the market. These shares are then used to replace the borrowed shares so that the short position is closed out. The investor takes a profit if the stock price has declined and a loss if it has risen. If at any time while the contract is open the broker has to return the borrowed shares and there are no other shares that can be borrowed, the investor is forced to close out the position, even if not ready to do so. Often a fee is charged for lending the shares to the party doing the shorting.
An investor with a short position must pay to the broker any income, such as
dividends or interest, that would normally be received on the securities that have been shorted. The broker will transfer this income to the account of the client from whom the securities have been borrowed. Consider the position of an investor who shorts 500 shares in April when the price per share is $120 and closes out the position by buying them back in July when the price per share is $100. Suppose that a dividend of $1 per share is paid in May. The investor receives
500*+120=+60,000 in April when
the short position is initiated. The dividend leads to a payment by the investor of
500*+1=+500 in May. The investor also pays 500*+100=+50,000 for shares when
the position is closed out in July. The net gain, therefore, is
+60,000-+500-+50,000=+9,500
when any fee for borrowing the shares is ignored. Table 5.1 illustrates this example and shows that the cash flows from the short sale are the mirror image of the cash flows from purchasing the shares in April and selling them in July. (Again, the fee for
borrowing the shares is not considered.)5.2 SHORT SELLING
Table 5.1 Cash flows from short sale and purchase of shares.
Purchase of shares
April: Purchase 500 shares for $120 -+60,000
May: Receive dividend ++500
July: Sell 500 shares for $100 per share ++50,000
Net profit=-+9,500
Short sale of shares
April: Borrow 500 shares and sell them for $120 ++60,000
May: Pay dividend -+500
July: Buy 500 shares for $100 per share -+50,000
Replace borrowed shares to close short position
Net profit=++9,500
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126 CHAPTER 5
Short Selling and Market Assumptions
- Short selling involves borrowing shares to sell at a high price with the intent of buying them back later at a lower price to return to the lender.
- Investors must maintain a margin account with a broker to ensure they do not default if the share price increases unexpectedly.
- Regulatory bodies have historically implemented rules like the 'uptick rule' and temporary bans to curb market volatility caused by short selling.
- The pricing of forward and futures contracts relies on the arbitrage activities of key market participants who operate under idealized financial conditions.
- Key assumptions for these models include zero transaction costs, uniform tax rates, and the ability to borrow and lend at the same risk-free rate.
The margin account consists of cash or marketable securities deposited by the investor with the broker to guarantee that the investor will not walk away from the short position if the share price increases.
borrowing the shares is not considered.)5.2 SHORT SELLING
Table 5.1 Cash flows from short sale and purchase of shares.
Purchase of shares
April: Purchase 500 shares for $120 -+60,000
May: Receive dividend ++500
July: Sell 500 shares for $100 per share ++50,000
Net profit=-+9,500
Short sale of shares
April: Borrow 500 shares and sell them for $120 ++60,000
May: Pay dividend -+500
July: Buy 500 shares for $100 per share -+50,000
Replace borrowed shares to close short position
Net profit=++9,500
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126 CHAPTER 5
The investor is required to maintain a margin account with the broker. The margin
account consists of cash or marketable securities deposited by the investor with the
broker to guarantee that the investor will not walk away from the short position if the share price increases. It is similar to the margin account discussed in Chapter 2 for futures contracts. An initial margin is required and if there are adverse movements (i.e., increases) in the price of the asset that is being shorted, additional margin may be required. If the additional margin is not provided, the short position is closed out. The margin account does not represent a cost to the investor. This is because interest is usually paid on the balance in margin accounts and, if the interest rate offered is
unacceptable, marketable securities such as Treasury bills can be used to meet margin requirements. The proceeds of the sale of the asset belong to the investor and normally form part of the initial margin.
From time to time regulations are changed on short selling. In 1938, the uptick rule
was introduced. This allowed shares to be shorted only on an āuptickāāthat is, when the most recent movement in the share price was an increase. The SEC abolished the uptick rule in July 2007, but introduced an āalternative uptickā rule in February 2010. Under this rule, when the price of a stock has decreased by more than 10% in one day, there are restrictions on short selling for that day and the next. These restrictions are that the stock can be shorted only at a price that is higher than the best current bid
price. Occasionally there are temporary bans on short selling. This happened in a
number of countries in 2008 because it was considered that short selling contributed to the high market volatility that was being experienced.
In this chapter we will assume that the following are all true for some market
participants:
1. The market participants are subject to no transaction costs when they trade.
2. The market participants are subject to the same tax rate on all net trading profits.
3. The market participants can borrow money at the same risk-free rate of interest as
they can lend money.
4. The market participants take advantage of arbitrage opportunities as they occur.
Note that we do not require these assumptions to be true for all market participants. All
that we require is that they be trueāor at least approximately trueāfor a few key market participants such as large derivatives dealers. It is the trading activities of these key market participants and their eagerness to take advantage of arbitrage opportun-ities as they occur that determine the relationship between forward and spot prices.
The following notation will be used throughout this chapter:
T: Time until delivery date in a forward or futures contract (in years)
S0: Price of the asset underlying the forward or futures contract today
F0: Forward or futures price today
r: Zero-coupon risk-free rate of interest per annum, expressed with continuous compounding, for an investment maturing at the delivery date (i.e., in T years).5.3 ASSUMPTIONS AND NOTATION
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 127
The risk-free rate, r , is the interest rate at which money is borrowed or lent when there is
no credit risk, so that the borrowed money is certain to be repaid. As discussed in
Forward Pricing and Arbitrage
- The text defines the fundamental notation for pricing forward and futures contracts, focusing on the spot price, risk-free interest rate, and time to maturity.
- A risk-free rate is characterized as the interest rate for borrowing or lending where repayment is certain due to a lack of credit risk.
- Arbitrageurs exploit discrepancies between the actual forward price and the theoretical price by either borrowing to buy the asset or short-selling it.
- The theoretical forward price for an investment asset with no income is mathematically determined by the formula F0 = S0e^rT.
- Market equilibrium is reached only when the forward price exactly equals the cost of carrying the asset, thereby eliminating all risk-free profit opportunities.
Under what circumstances do arbitrage opportunities such as those in Table 5.2 not exist?
S0: Price of the asset underlying the forward or futures contract today
F0: Forward or futures price today
r: Zero-coupon risk-free rate of interest per annum, expressed with continuous compounding, for an investment maturing at the delivery date (i.e., in T years).5.3 ASSUMPTIONS AND NOTATION
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 127
The risk-free rate, r , is the interest rate at which money is borrowed or lent when there is
no credit risk, so that the borrowed money is certain to be repaid. As discussed in
Chapter 4, participants in derivatives markets use overnight rates and rates derived
from overnight rates as risk-free rates.
1 Forward contracts on individual stocks do not often arise in practice. However, they form useful examples
for developing our ideas. Futures on individual stocks started trading in the United States in November 2002.The easiest forward contract to value is one written on an investment asset that
provides the holder with no income and for which there are no storage costs. Non-
dividend-paying stocks and zero-coupon bonds are examples of such investment assets.
Consider a long forward contract to purchase a non-dividend-paying stock in
3 months.
1 Assume the current stock price is $40 and the 3-month risk-free interest
rate is 5% per annum.
Suppose first that the forward price is relatively high at $43. An arbitrageur can borrow
$40 at the risk-free interest rate of 5% per annum, buy one share, and short a forward contract to sell one share in 3 months. At the end of the 3 months, the arbitrageur delivers the share and receives $43. The sum of money required to pay off the loan is
40e0.05*3>12=+40.50
By following this strategy, the arbitrageur locks in a profit of +43.00-+40.50=+2.50
at the end of the 3-month period.
Suppose next that the forward price is relatively low at $39. An arbitrageur can
short one share, invest the proceeds of the short sale at 5% per annum for 3 months, and take a long position in a 3-month forward contract. The proceeds of the short
sale grow to
40e0.05*3>12 or $40.50 in 3 months. At the end of the 3 months, the
arbitrageur pays $39, takes delivery of the share under the terms of the forward
contract, and uses it to close out the short position. A net gain of
+40.50-+39.00=+1.50
is therefore made at the end of the 3 months. The two trading strategies we have
considered are summarized in Table 5.2.
Under what circumstances do arbitrage opportunities such as those in Table 5.2 not
exist? The first arbitrage works when the forward price is greater than $40.50. The
second arbitrage works when the forward price is less than $40.50. We deduce that for there to be no arbitrage the forward price must be exactly $40.50.
A Generalization
To generalize this example, we consider a forward contract on an investment asset with price
S0 that provides no income. Using our notation, T is the time to maturity, r is the
risk-free rate, and F0 is the forward price. The relationship between F0 and S0 is
F0=S0erT (5. 1)5.4 FORWARD PRICE FOR AN INVESTMENT ASSET
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128 CHAPTER 5
Table 5.2 Arbitrage opportunities when forward price is out of line with spot
price for asset providing no income. 1Asset price=+40; interest rate=5,;
maturity of forward contract=3 months.2
Forward Price /equal.bold$43 Forward Price /equal.bold$39
Action now: Action now:
Borrow $40 at 5% for 3 months Short 1 unit of asset to realize $40
Buy one unit of asset Invest $40 at 5% for 3 months
Enter into forward contract to sell
asset in 3 months for $43Enter into a forward contract to buy
asset in 3 months for $39
Action in 3 months: Action in 3 months:
Sell asset for $43 Buy asset for $39
Use $40.50 to repay loan with interest Close short position
Receive $40.50 from investment
Profit realized=+2.50 Profit realized=+1.50
Arbitrage and Forward Pricing
- The theoretical forward price of an investment asset is determined by the spot price adjusted for the risk-free interest rate over the contract's duration.
- Arbitrageurs exploit discrepancies between the actual forward price and the theoretical price by either buying the asset and shorting the forward or vice versa.
- The cost of financing a spot purchase explains why forward prices are typically higher than spot prices for non-income-producing assets.
- Even if short selling is restricted, market participants holding the asset for investment can still force price alignment by selling their holdings and entering long forward contracts.
- The 1994 Kidder Peabody incident serves as a historical warning about the consequences of overlooking the relationship between spot and forward pricing.
This point was overlooked by Kidder Peabody in 1994, much to its cost.
Forward Price /equal.bold$43 Forward Price /equal.bold$39
Action now: Action now:
Borrow $40 at 5% for 3 months Short 1 unit of asset to realize $40
Buy one unit of asset Invest $40 at 5% for 3 months
Enter into forward contract to sell
asset in 3 months for $43Enter into a forward contract to buy
asset in 3 months for $39
Action in 3 months: Action in 3 months:
Sell asset for $43 Buy asset for $39
Use $40.50 to repay loan with interest Close short position
Receive $40.50 from investment
Profit realized=+2.50 Profit realized=+1.50
If F07S0erT, arbitrageurs can buy the asset and short forward contracts on the asset. If
F06S0erT, they can short the asset and enter into long forward contracts on it.2 In our
example, S0=40, r=0.05, and T=0.25, so that equation (5.1) gives
F0=40e0.05*0.25=+40.50
which is in agreement with our earlier calculations.
A long forward contract and a spot purchase both lead to the asset being owned at
time T. The forward price is higher than the spot price because of the cost of
financing the spot purchase of the asset during the life of the forward contract. This
point was overlooked by Kidder Peabody in 1994, much to its cost (see Business
Snapshot 5.1).
Example 5.1
Consider a 4-month forward contract to buy a zero-coupon bond that will mature
1 year from today. (This means that the bond will have 8 months to go when the forward contract matures.) The current price of the bond is $930. We assume that the 4-month risk-free rate of interest (continuously compounded) is 6% per an -num. Because zero-coupon bonds provide no income, we can use equation (5.1) with
T=4>12, r=0.06, and S0=930. The forward price, F0, is given by
F0=930e0.06*4>12=+948.79
This would be the delivery price in a contract negotiated today.
2 For another way of seeing that equation (5.1) is correct, consider the following strategy: buy one unit of the
asset and enter into a short forward contract to sell it for F0 at time T . This costs S0 and is certain to lead to a
cash inflow of F0 at time T. Therefore S0 must equal the present value of F0; that is, S0=F0e-rT, or
equivalently F0=S0erT.
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 129
What If Short Sales Are Not Possible?
Short sales are not possible for all investment assets and sometimes a fee is charged for
borrowing assets. As it happens, this does not matter. To derive equation (5.1), we do not need to be able to short the asset. All that we require is that there be market
participants who hold the asset purely for investment (and by definition this is always true of an investment asset). If the forward price is too low, they will find it attractive to sell the asset and take a long position in a forward contract.
We continue to consider the case where the underlying investment asset gives rise to
no storage costs or income. If
F07S0erT, an investor can adopt the following strategy:
1. Borrow S0 dollars at an interest rate r for T years.
2. Buy 1 unit of the asset.
3. Enter into a forward contract to sell 1 unit of the asset.
At time T, the asset is sold for F0. An amount S0erT is required to repay the loan at this
time and the investor makes a profit of F0-S0erT.
Suppose next that F06S0erT. In this case, an investor who owns the asset can:
1. Sell the asset for S0.
2. Invest the proceeds at interest rate r for time T.
3. Enter into a forward contract to buy 1 unit of the asset.
At time T, the cash invested has grown to S0erT. The asset is repurchased for F0 and the
investor makes a profit of S0erT-F0 relative to the position the investor would have
been in if the asset had been kept.
As in the non-dividend-paying stock example considered earlier, we can expect the
Arbitrage and Kidder Peabody's Mistake
- The text explains the mathematical relationship between spot prices and forward prices, emphasizing that arbitrage opportunities should not exist in a balanced market.
- A case study describes how Joseph Jett exploited a flaw in Kidder Peabody's accounting system by treating the financing cost of strips as pure profit.
- Kidder Peabody's system failed to account for the cost of carry, resulting in a reported $100 million profit that was actually a $350 million loss.
- The valuation of forward contracts is further explored through assets that provide predictable income, such as coupon-bearing bonds.
- Arbitrageurs can lock in profits by borrowing to buy an asset while simultaneously entering a forward contract if the forward price deviates from its theoretical value.
This shows that even large financial institutions can get relatively simple things wrong!
At time T, the asset is sold for F0. An amount S0erT is required to repay the loan at this
time and the investor makes a profit of F0-S0erT.
Suppose next that F06S0erT. In this case, an investor who owns the asset can:
1. Sell the asset for S0.
2. Invest the proceeds at interest rate r for time T.
3. Enter into a forward contract to buy 1 unit of the asset.
At time T, the cash invested has grown to S0erT. The asset is repurchased for F0 and the
investor makes a profit of S0erT-F0 relative to the position the investor would have
been in if the asset had been kept.
As in the non-dividend-paying stock example considered earlier, we can expect the
forward price to adjust so that neither of the two arbitrage opportunities we have
considered exists. This means that the relationship in equation (5.1) must hold.Business Snapshot 5.1 Kidder Peabodyās Embarrassing Mistake
Investment banks have developed a way of creating a zero-coupon bond, called a strip, from a coupon-bearing Treasury bond by selling each of the cash flows under -
lying the coupon-bearing bond as a separate security. Joseph Jett, a trader working for Kidder Peabody, had a relatively simple trading strategy. He would buy strips and sell them in the forward market. As equation (5.1) shows, the forward price of a security providing no income is always higher than the spot price. Suppose, for example, that the 3-month interest rate is 4% per annum and the spot price of a strip is $70. The 3-month forward price of the strip is
70e0.04*3>12=+70.70.
Kidder Peabodyās computer system reported a profit on each of Jettās trades equal to
the excess of the forward price over the spot price ($0.70 in our example). In fact, this profit was nothing more than the cost of financing the purchase of the strip. But, by rolling his contracts forward, Jett was able to prevent this cost from accruing to him.
The result was that the system reported a profit of $100 million on Jettās trading
(and Jett received a big bonus) when in fact there was a loss in the region of
$350 million. This shows that even large financial institutions can get relatively
simple things wrong!
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130 CHAPTER 5
In this section we consider a forward contract on an investment asset that will provide a
perfectly predictable cash income to the holder. Examples are stocks paying known dividends and coupon-bearing bonds. We adopt the same approach as in the previous section. We first look at a numerical example and then review the formal arguments.
Consider a forward contract to purchase a coupon-bearing bond whose current price
is $900. We will suppose that the forward contract matures in 9 months. We will also suppose that a coupon payment of $40 is expected on the bond after 4 months. We assume that the 4-month and 9-month risk-free interest rates (continuously com-pounded) are, respectively, 3% and 4% per annum.
Suppose first that the forward price is relatively high at $910. An arbitrageur can
borrow $900 to buy the bond and enter into the forward contract to sell the bond for $910. The coupon payment has a present value of
40e-0.03*4>12=+39.60. Of the $900,
$39.60 is therefore borrowed at 3% per annum for 4 months so that it can be repaid
with the coupon payment. The remaining $860.40 is borrowed at 4% per annum for
9 months. The amount owing at the end of the 9-month period is 860.40e0.04*0.75 =
+886.60. A sum of $910 is received for the bond under the terms of the forward
contract. The arbitrageur therefore makes a net profit of
910.00-886.60=+23.40
Arbitrage and Known Income
- The text demonstrates how to calculate the fair forward price of an investment asset that provides a known cash income, such as a bond coupon.
- Arbitrageurs can exploit discrepancies if the forward price is too high by borrowing funds to buy the asset while simultaneously selling a forward contract.
- If the forward price is too low, an investor can short the asset and enter a long forward contract to lock in a guaranteed profit.
- The general formula for the forward price is established as the spot price minus the present value of income, compounded at the risk-free rate over the life of the contract.
- In scenarios where short selling is restricted, existing owners of the asset can still achieve arbitrage by selling their holdings and replacing them with long forward positions.
If there are no arbitrage opportunities then the forward price must be $886.60.
is $900. We will suppose that the forward contract matures in 9 months. We will also suppose that a coupon payment of $40 is expected on the bond after 4 months. We assume that the 4-month and 9-month risk-free interest rates (continuously com-pounded) are, respectively, 3% and 4% per annum.
Suppose first that the forward price is relatively high at $910. An arbitrageur can
borrow $900 to buy the bond and enter into the forward contract to sell the bond for $910. The coupon payment has a present value of
40e-0.03*4>12=+39.60. Of the $900,
$39.60 is therefore borrowed at 3% per annum for 4 months so that it can be repaid
with the coupon payment. The remaining $860.40 is borrowed at 4% per annum for
9 months. The amount owing at the end of the 9-month period is 860.40e0.04*0.75 =
+886.60. A sum of $910 is received for the bond under the terms of the forward
contract. The arbitrageur therefore makes a net profit of
910.00-886.60=+23.40
Suppose next that the forward price is relatively low at $870. An investor can short the bond and enter into the forward contract to buy the bond for $870. Of the $900 realized from shorting the bond, $39.60 is invested for 4 months at 3% per annum so that it grows into an amount sufficient to pay the coupon on the bond. The remaining $860.40 is invested for 9 months at 4% per annum and grows to $886.60. Under the terms of the forward contract, $870 is paid to buy the bond and the short position is closed out. The investor therefore gains
886.60-870=+16.60
The two strategies we have considered are summarized in Table 5.3.3 The first strategy
in Table 5.3 produces a profit when the forward price is greater than $886.60, whereas
the second strategy produces a profit when the forward price is less than $886.60. It follows that if there are no arbitrage opportunities then the forward price must be $886.60.
A Generalization
We can generalize from this example to argue that, when an investment asset will
provide income with a present value of I during the life of a forward contract, we have
F0=1S0-I2erT (5. 2)5.5 KNOWN INCOME
3 If shorting the bond is not possible, investors who already own the bond will sell it and buy a forward
contract on the bond increasing the value of their position by $16.60. This is similar to the strategy we
described for the asset in the previous section.
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 131
In our example, S0=900.00, I=40e-0.03*4>12=39.60, r=0.04, and T=0.75, so that
F0=1900.00-39.602e0.04*0.75=+886.60
This is in agreement with our earlier calculation. Equation (5.2) applies to any investment
asset that provides a known cash income.
If F071S0-I2erT, an arbitrageur can lock in a profit by buying the asset and
shorting a forward contract on the asset; if F061S0-I2erT, an arbitrageur can lock
in a profit by shorting the asset and taking a long position in a forward contract. If
short sales are not possible, investors who own the asset will find it profitable to sell the
asset and enter into long forward contracts.4
Example 5.2
Consider a 10-month forward contract on a stock when the stock price is $50. We assume that the risk-free rate of interest (continuously compounded) is 8% per annum for all maturities and also that dividends of $0.75 per share are expected after 3 months, 6 months, and 9 months. The present value of the dividends, I, is
I=0.75e-0.08*3>12+0.75e-0.08*6>12+0.75e-0.08*9>12=2.162
The variable T is 10 months, so that the forward price, F0, from equation (5.2), is Table 5.3 Arbitrage opportunities when 9-month forward price is out of line with
spot price for asset providing known cash income. (Asset price=+900; income of
$40 occurs at 4 months; 4-month and 9-month rates are, respectively, 3% and 4% per annum.)
Forward price /equal.bold$910 Forward price /equal.bold$870
Action now: Action now:
Borrow $900: $39.60 for 4 months
and $860.40 for 9 months
Forward Pricing and Arbitrage
- The text demonstrates how to calculate the forward price of an asset by accounting for known cash income and the risk-free interest rate.
- Arbitrage opportunities arise when the actual forward price deviates from the theoretical price, allowing traders to lock in risk-free profits by simultaneously trading in the spot and forward markets.
- A distinction is made between assets providing a fixed dollar income and those providing a known percentage yield, such as continuous compounding yields.
- The formula for pricing assets with a known yield adjusts the risk-free rate by subtracting the average yield, resulting in the relationship F0 = S0e^(r-q)T.
- The model assumes that if income is reinvested, the quantity of the asset held grows exponentially over the life of the contract.
If the forward price were less than this, an arbitrageur would short the stock and buy forward contracts.
I=0.75e-0.08*3>12+0.75e-0.08*6>12+0.75e-0.08*9>12=2.162
The variable T is 10 months, so that the forward price, F0, from equation (5.2), is Table 5.3 Arbitrage opportunities when 9-month forward price is out of line with
spot price for asset providing known cash income. (Asset price=+900; income of
$40 occurs at 4 months; 4-month and 9-month rates are, respectively, 3% and 4% per annum.)
Forward price /equal.bold$910 Forward price /equal.bold$870
Action now: Action now:
Borrow $900: $39.60 for 4 months
and $860.40 for 9 months
Buy 1 unit of assetShort 1 unit of asset to realize $900Invest $39.60 for 4 months
and $860.40 for 9 months
Enter into forward contract to sell
asset in 9 months for $910Enter into a forward contract to buy
asset in 9 months for $870
Action in 4 months: Action in 4 months:
Receive $40 of income on asset Receive $40 from 4-month investment
Use $40 to repay first loan
with interestPay income of $40 on asset
Action in 9 months: Action in 9 months:
Sell asset for $910 Receive $886.60 from 9-month investment
Use $886.60 to repay second loan
with interestBuy asset for $870Close out short position
Profit realized=+23.40 Profit realized=+16.60
4 For another way of seeing that equation (5.2) is correct, consider the following strategy: buy one unit of the
asset and enter into a short forward contract to sell it for F0 at time T . This costs S0 and is certain to lead to a
cash inflow of F0 at time T and an income with a present value of I. The initial outflow is S0. The present
value of the inflows is I+F0e-rT. Hence, S0=I+F0e-rT, or equivalently F0=1S0-I2erT.
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132 CHAPTER 5
given by
F0=150-2.1622e0.08*10>12=+51.14
If the forward price were less than this, an arbitrageur would short the stock and
buy forward contracts. If the forward price were greater than this, an arbitrageur would short forward contracts and buy the stock in the spot market.
We now consider the situation where the asset underlying a forward contract provides a known yield rather than a known cash income. This means that the income is known when expressed as a percentage of the assetās price at the time the income is paid.
Suppose that an asset is expected to provide a yield of 5% per annum. This could mean that income is paid once a year and is equal to 5% of the asset price at the time it is paid, in which case the yield would be 5% with annual compounding. Alternatively, it could mean that income is paid twice a year and is equal to 2.5% of the asset price at the time it is paid, in which case the yield would be 5% per annum with semiannual compound-ing. In Section 4.4 we explained that we will normally measure interest rates with
continuous compounding. Similarly, we will normally measure yields with continuous compounding. Formulas for translating a yield measured with one compounding
frequency to a yield measured with another compounding frequency are the same as those given for interest rates in Section 4.4.
Define q as the average yield on the asset during time T . If the income is reinvested in
the asset, the number of units held grows at rate q. One unit of the asset at time zero then grows to
eqT units of the asset at time T. The strategy
⢠Borrow S0 to buy one unit of the asset at time zero
⢠Enter into a forward contract to sell eqT units of the asset at time T for F0
⢠Close out the forward contract by selling eqT units of the asset at time T
must therefore generate zero profit. Hence,
S0erT=eqTF0
or
F0=S0e1r-q2T (5. 3)
Example 5.3
Consider a 6-month forward contract on an asset that is expected to provide
income equal to 2% of the asset price once during a 6-month period. The risk- free rate of interest (with continuous compounding) is 10% per annum. The asset price is $25. In this case,
S0=25, r=0.10, and T=0.5. The yield is 4% per
Valuing Forward Contracts
- The forward price of an asset is determined by adjusting the current spot price for the risk-free interest rate and any expected yields or income.
- While a forward contract has zero value at inception, its value fluctuates over time as the market price of the underlying asset changes.
- Financial institutions must perform 'marking to market' daily to account for the shifting positive or negative value of their contract positions.
- The value of a long forward contract is calculated as the difference between the current forward price and the original delivery price, discounted to the present.
- A portfolio consisting of a long and short forward contract creates a risk-free payoff, allowing for precise mathematical valuation of the contract's worth.
It is important for banks and other financial institutions to value the contract each day. (This is referred to as marking to market the contract.)
⢠Enter into a forward contract to sell eqT units of the asset at time T for F0
⢠Close out the forward contract by selling eqT units of the asset at time T
must therefore generate zero profit. Hence,
S0erT=eqTF0
or
F0=S0e1r-q2T (5. 3)
Example 5.3
Consider a 6-month forward contract on an asset that is expected to provide
income equal to 2% of the asset price once during a 6-month period. The risk- free rate of interest (with continuous compounding) is 10% per annum. The asset price is $25. In this case,
S0=25, r=0.10, and T=0.5. The yield is 4% per
annum with semiannual compounding. From equation (4.3), this is 3.96% per annum with continuous compounding. It follows that
q=0.0396, so that from
equation (5.3) the forward price, F0, is given by
F0=25e10.10-0.03962*0.5=+25.775.6 KNOWN YIELD
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 133
The value of a forward contract at the time it is first entered into is close to zero. At a
later stage, it may prove to have a positive or negative value. It is important for banks and other financial institutions to value the contract each day. (This is referred to as marking to market the contract.) Using the notation introduced earlier, we suppose K is
the delivery price for a contract that was negotiated some time ago, the delivery date is T years from today, and r is the T-year risk-free interest rate. The variable
F0 is the
forward price that would be applicable if we negotiated the contract today. In addition, we define f to be the value of forward contract today.
It is important to be clear about the meaning of the variables
F0, K, and f. At the
beginning of the life of the forward contract, the delivery price, K, is set equal to the forward price at that time and the value of the contract, f, is 0. As time passes, K stays
the same (because it is part of the definition of the contract), but the forward price changes and the value of the contract becomes either positive or negative.
A general result, applicable to all long forward contracts (both those on investment
assets and those on consumption assets), is
f=1F0-K2e-rT (5. 4)
To see why equation (5.4) is correct, we form a portfolio today consisting of (a) a
forward contract to buy the underlying asset for K at time T and (b) a forward contract
to sell the asset for F0 at time T. The payoff from the portfolio at time T is ST-K from
the first contract and F0-ST from the second contract. The total payoff is F0-K and
is known for certain today. The portfolio is therefore a risk-free investment and its value
today is the payoff at time T discounted at the risk-free rate or 1F0-K2e-rT. The value
of the forward contract to sell the asset for F0 is worth zero because F0 is the forward
price that applies to a forward contract entered into today. It follows that the value of a
(long) forward contract to buy an asset for K at time T must be 1F0-K2e-rT. Similarly,
the value of a (short) forward contract to sell the asset for K at time T is 1K-F02e-rT.
Example 5.4
A long forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock was entered into some time ago. It currently has 6 months to maturity. The risk-free rate of interest (with continuous compounding) is 10% per annum, the stock price is $25, and the
delivery price is $24. In this case,
S0=25, r=0.10, T=0.5, and K=24. From
equation (5.1), the 6-month forward price, F0, is given by
F0=25e0.1*0.5=+26.28
From equation (5.4), the value of the forward contract is
f=126.28-242e-0.1*0.5=+2.17
Valuing Forward Contracts
- The value of a forward contract is determined by creating a risk-free portfolio that offsets the underlying asset's price fluctuations.
- A long forward contract's value is the present value of the difference between the current forward price and the delivery price.
- Valuation formulas are adjusted to account for factors such as known income, present value of dividends, or continuous yields.
- The text demonstrates that valuing a forward contract can be simplified by assuming the asset price at maturity will equal the current forward price.
- Unlike forward contracts, futures contracts realize gains and losses almost immediately due to daily settlement processes.
The portfolio is therefore a risk-free investment and its value today is the payoff at time T discounted at the risk-free rate.
To see why equation (5.4) is correct, we form a portfolio today consisting of (a) a
forward contract to buy the underlying asset for K at time T and (b) a forward contract
to sell the asset for F0 at time T. The payoff from the portfolio at time T is ST-K from
the first contract and F0-ST from the second contract. The total payoff is F0-K and
is known for certain today. The portfolio is therefore a risk-free investment and its value
today is the payoff at time T discounted at the risk-free rate or 1F0-K2e-rT. The value
of the forward contract to sell the asset for F0 is worth zero because F0 is the forward
price that applies to a forward contract entered into today. It follows that the value of a
(long) forward contract to buy an asset for K at time T must be 1F0-K2e-rT. Similarly,
the value of a (short) forward contract to sell the asset for K at time T is 1K-F02e-rT.
Example 5.4
A long forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock was entered into some time ago. It currently has 6 months to maturity. The risk-free rate of interest (with continuous compounding) is 10% per annum, the stock price is $25, and the
delivery price is $24. In this case,
S0=25, r=0.10, T=0.5, and K=24. From
equation (5.1), the 6-month forward price, F0, is given by
F0=25e0.1*0.5=+26.28
From equation (5.4), the value of the forward contract is
f=126.28-242e-0.1*0.5=+2.17
Equation (5.4) shows that we can value a long forward contract on an asset by making the assumption that the price of the asset at the maturity of the forward contract equals the forward price
F0. To see this, note that when we make that assumption, a long
forward contract provides a payoff at time T of F0-K. This has a present value of
1F0-K2e-rT, which is the value of f in equation (5.4). Similarly, we can value a short
forward contract on the asset by assuming that the current forward price of the asset is 5.7 VALUING FORWARD CONTRACTS
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134 CHAPTER 5
realized. These results are analogous to the result in Section 4.9 that we can value a
forward rate agreement on the assumption that forward rates are realized.
Using equation (5.4) in conjunction with equation (5.1) gives the following expression
for the value of a forward contract on an investment asset that provides no income
f=S0-Ke-rT (5. 5)
Similarly, using equation (5.4) in conjunction with equation (5.2) gives the following
expression for the value of a long forward contract on an investment asset that provides a known income with present value I :
f=S0-I-Ke-rT (5. 6)
Finally, using equation (5.4) in conjunction with equation (5.3) gives the following
expression for the value of a long forward contract on an investment asset that provides a known yield at rate q:
f=S0e-qT-Ke-rT (5. 7)
When a futures price changes, the gain or loss on a futures contract is calculated as
the change in the futures price multiplied by the size of the position. This gain is
realized almost immediately because futures contracts are settled daily. Equation (5.4)
Forward vs. Futures Valuation
- Mathematical formulas are established to value long forward contracts on investment assets with known income or yields.
- Futures contracts are settled daily, meaning gains or losses are realized almost immediately as price changes occur.
- Forward contract gains or losses represent the present value of the price change, as the actual cash flow occurs at the contract's maturity.
- A practical example illustrates how a $4,000 price movement results in a lower immediate profit for a forward trader compared to a futures trader.
- The discrepancy between forward and futures profits is symmetrical, protecting forward traders from the full immediate impact of price drops.
The bankās systems show that the futures trader has made a profit of $4,000, while the forward trader has made a profit of only $3,900.
expression for the value of a long forward contract on an investment asset that provides a known income with present value I :
f=S0-I-Ke-rT (5. 6)
Finally, using equation (5.4) in conjunction with equation (5.3) gives the following
expression for the value of a long forward contract on an investment asset that provides a known yield at rate q:
f=S0e-qT-Ke-rT (5. 7)
When a futures price changes, the gain or loss on a futures contract is calculated as
the change in the futures price multiplied by the size of the position. This gain is
realized almost immediately because futures contracts are settled daily. Equation (5.4)
shows that, when a forward price changes, the gain or loss is the present value of the change in the forward price multiplied by the size of the position. The difference between the gain/loss on forward and futures contracts can cause confusion on a
foreign exchange trading desk (see Business Snapshot 5.2).Business Snapshot 5.2 A Systems Error?
A foreign exchange trader working for a bank enters into a long forward contract to buy 1 million pounds sterling at an exchange rate of 1.5000 in 3 months. At the same time, another trader on the next desk takes a long position in 16 contracts for 3-month futures on sterling. The futures price is 1.5000 and each contract is on
62,500 pounds. The positions taken by the forward and futures traders are therefore the same. Within minutes of the positions being taken, the forward and the futures prices both increase to 1.5040. The bankās systems show that the futures trader has made a profit of $4,000, while the forward trader has made a profit of only $3,900. The forward trader immediately calls the bankās systems department to complain. Does the forward trader have a valid complaint?
The answer is no! The daily settlement of futures contracts ensures that the futures
trader realizes an almost immediate profit corresponding to the increase in the futures price. If the forward trader closed out the position by entering into a short contract at 1.5040, the forward trader would have contracted to buy 1 million pounds
at 1.5000 in 3 months and sell 1 million pounds at 1.5040 in 3 months. This would lead to a $4,000 profitābut in 3 months, not today. The forward traderās profit is the present value of $4,000. This is consistent with equation (5.4).
The forward trader can gain some consolation from the fact that gains and losses
are treated symmetrically. If the forward/futures prices dropped to 1.4960 instead of rising to 1.5040, then the futures trader would take a loss of $4,000 while the forward trader would take a loss of only $3,900.
M05_HULL0654_11_GE_C05.indd 134 30/04/2021 16:46
Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 135
Technical Note 24 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes provides an
Forward vs Futures Pricing
- The primary difference between forward and futures contracts lies in the timing of cash flows due to the daily settlement process of futures.
- A forward contract's gain or loss is calculated as the present value of the price change, whereas a futures contract realizes the full change immediately.
- Theoretical models suggest that forward and futures prices are identical only when short-term risk-free interest rates are constant or predictable.
- In the real world, positive correlation between an asset's price and interest rates makes futures more attractive and slightly more expensive than forwards.
- The symmetry of gains and losses means that while forward traders see smaller immediate profits, they also experience smaller immediate losses compared to futures traders.
The forward trader immediately calls the bankās systems department to complain.
shows that, when a forward price changes, the gain or loss is the present value of the change in the forward price multiplied by the size of the position. The difference between the gain/loss on forward and futures contracts can cause confusion on a
foreign exchange trading desk (see Business Snapshot 5.2).Business Snapshot 5.2 A Systems Error?
A foreign exchange trader working for a bank enters into a long forward contract to buy 1 million pounds sterling at an exchange rate of 1.5000 in 3 months. At the same time, another trader on the next desk takes a long position in 16 contracts for 3-month futures on sterling. The futures price is 1.5000 and each contract is on
62,500 pounds. The positions taken by the forward and futures traders are therefore the same. Within minutes of the positions being taken, the forward and the futures prices both increase to 1.5040. The bankās systems show that the futures trader has made a profit of $4,000, while the forward trader has made a profit of only $3,900. The forward trader immediately calls the bankās systems department to complain. Does the forward trader have a valid complaint?
The answer is no! The daily settlement of futures contracts ensures that the futures
trader realizes an almost immediate profit corresponding to the increase in the futures price. If the forward trader closed out the position by entering into a short contract at 1.5040, the forward trader would have contracted to buy 1 million pounds
at 1.5000 in 3 months and sell 1 million pounds at 1.5040 in 3 months. This would lead to a $4,000 profitābut in 3 months, not today. The forward traderās profit is the present value of $4,000. This is consistent with equation (5.4).
The forward trader can gain some consolation from the fact that gains and losses
are treated symmetrically. If the forward/futures prices dropped to 1.4960 instead of rising to 1.5040, then the futures trader would take a loss of $4,000 while the forward trader would take a loss of only $3,900.
M05_HULL0654_11_GE_C05.indd 134 30/04/2021 16:46
Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 135
Technical Note 24 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes provides an
arbitrage argument to show that, when the short-term risk-free interest rate is constant,
the forward price for a contract with a certain delivery date is in theory the same as the futures price for a contract with that delivery date. The argument can be extended to cover situations where the interest rate is a known function of time.
When interest rates vary unpredictably (as they do in the real world), forward and
futures prices are in theory no longer the same. We can get a sense of the nature of the relationship by considering the situation where the price of the underlying asset, S, is strongly positively correlated with interest rates. When S increases, an investor who holds a long futures position makes an immediate gain because of the daily settlement procedure. The positive correlation indicates that it is likely that interest rates have also increased, thereby increasing the rate at which the gain can be invested. Similarly, when S decreases, the investor will incur an immediate loss and it is likely that interest rates have just decreased, thereby reducing the rate at which the loss has to be financed. The positive correlation therefore works in the investorās favor. An investor holding a
forward contract rather than a futures contract is not affected in this way by interest
rate movements. It follows that a long futures contract will be slightly more attractive than a similar long forward contract. Hence, when S is strongly positively correlated with interest rates, futures prices will tend to be slightly higher than forward prices. When S is strongly negatively correlated with interest rates, a similar argument shows
that forward prices will tend to be slightly higher than futures prices.
Forward versus Futures Prices
- Theoretical models suggest that forward and futures prices are identical when interest rates are constant or follow a known function of time.
- Unpredictable interest rate fluctuations create a divergence between the two prices based on the correlation between the asset price and interest rates.
- Daily settlement procedures make futures more attractive when asset prices are positively correlated with interest rates, as gains can be reinvested at higher rates.
- Practical market frictions such as taxes, transaction costs, and margin requirements often outweigh theoretical differences in short-term contracts.
- Stock index futures prices are determined by treating the index as an investment asset that provides a continuous dividend yield.
When S increases, an investor who holds a long futures position makes an immediate gain because of the daily settlement procedure.
arbitrage argument to show that, when the short-term risk-free interest rate is constant,
the forward price for a contract with a certain delivery date is in theory the same as the futures price for a contract with that delivery date. The argument can be extended to cover situations where the interest rate is a known function of time.
When interest rates vary unpredictably (as they do in the real world), forward and
futures prices are in theory no longer the same. We can get a sense of the nature of the relationship by considering the situation where the price of the underlying asset, S, is strongly positively correlated with interest rates. When S increases, an investor who holds a long futures position makes an immediate gain because of the daily settlement procedure. The positive correlation indicates that it is likely that interest rates have also increased, thereby increasing the rate at which the gain can be invested. Similarly, when S decreases, the investor will incur an immediate loss and it is likely that interest rates have just decreased, thereby reducing the rate at which the loss has to be financed. The positive correlation therefore works in the investorās favor. An investor holding a
forward contract rather than a futures contract is not affected in this way by interest
rate movements. It follows that a long futures contract will be slightly more attractive than a similar long forward contract. Hence, when S is strongly positively correlated with interest rates, futures prices will tend to be slightly higher than forward prices. When S is strongly negatively correlated with interest rates, a similar argument shows
that forward prices will tend to be slightly higher than futures prices.
The theoretical differences between forward and futures prices for contracts that last
only a few months are in most circumstances sufficiently small to be ignored. In
practice, there are a number of factors not reflected in theoretical models that may cause forward and futures prices to be different. These include taxes, transactions costs, and margin requirements. The risk that the counterparty will default may be less in the case of a futures contract because of the role of the exchange clearing house. Also, in some instances, futures contracts are more liquid and easier to trade than forward
contracts. Despite all these points, for most purposes it is reasonable to assume that forward and futures prices are the same. This is the assumption we will usually make in this book. We will use the symbol
F0 to represent both the futures price and the forward
price of an asset today.
One exception to the rule that futures and forward contracts can be assumed to be
the same concerns interest rate futures. This will be discussed in Section 6.3.5.8 ARE FORWARD PRICES AND FUTURES PRICES EQUAL?
We introduced futures on stock indices in Section 3.5 and showed how a stock index
futures contract is a useful tool in managing equity portfolios. Table 3.3 shows futures prices for a number of different indices. We are now in a position to consider how index futures prices are determined.
A stock index can usually be regarded as the price of an investment asset that pays
dividends.
5 The investment asset is the portfolio of stocks underlying the index, and the 5.9 FUTURES PRICES OF STOCK INDICES
5 One exception here is the contract in Business Snapshot 5.3.
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136 CHAPTER 5
dividends paid by the investment asset are the dividends that would be received by the
holder of this portfolio. It is usually assumed that the dividends provide a known yield rather than a known cash income. If q is the dividend yield rate (expressed with
continuous compounding), equation (5.3) gives the futures price,
F0, as
F0=S0e1r-q2T (5. 8)
Pricing Stock Index Futures
- Stock index futures are priced by treating the underlying index as an investment asset that pays a continuous dividend yield.
- The relationship between the spot price and the futures price is determined by the risk-free interest rate minus the dividend yield over the contract's maturity.
- Dividend yields are not constant and must be estimated as an average annualized rate based on ex-dividend dates occurring during the contract's life.
- Certain contracts, like the CME Nikkei 225, are classified as 'quantos' because they convert a foreign currency index value directly into a different currency.
- Standard pricing formulas fail for quantos because the underlying variable does not represent a tradable investment asset in the payoff currency.
The variable underlying the CME futures contract on the Nikkei 225 has a dollar value of 5S. In other words, the futures contract takes a variable that is measured in yen and treats it as though it is dollars.
price of an asset today.
One exception to the rule that futures and forward contracts can be assumed to be
the same concerns interest rate futures. This will be discussed in Section 6.3.5.8 ARE FORWARD PRICES AND FUTURES PRICES EQUAL?
We introduced futures on stock indices in Section 3.5 and showed how a stock index
futures contract is a useful tool in managing equity portfolios. Table 3.3 shows futures prices for a number of different indices. We are now in a position to consider how index futures prices are determined.
A stock index can usually be regarded as the price of an investment asset that pays
dividends.
5 The investment asset is the portfolio of stocks underlying the index, and the 5.9 FUTURES PRICES OF STOCK INDICES
5 One exception here is the contract in Business Snapshot 5.3.
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136 CHAPTER 5
dividends paid by the investment asset are the dividends that would be received by the
holder of this portfolio. It is usually assumed that the dividends provide a known yield rather than a known cash income. If q is the dividend yield rate (expressed with
continuous compounding), equation (5.3) gives the futures price,
F0, as
F0=S0e1r-q2T (5. 8)
This shows that the futures price increases at rate r-q with the maturity of the futures
contract. In Table 3.3, the S&P 500 settlements are declining at roughly 0.5% per six
months, or 1% per year. This indicates that the dividend yield anticipated by the
market on the S&P 500 during the first year was about 1% per annum greater than the risk-free rate.
Example 5.5
Consider a 3-month futures contract on an index. Suppose that the stocks under -
lying the index provide a dividend yield of 1% per annum (continuously com-
pounded), that the current value of the index is 1,300, and that the continuously compounded risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum. In this case,
r=0.05,
S0=1,300, T=0.25, and q=0.01. Hence, the futures price, F0, is given by
F0=1,300e10.05-0.012*0.25=+1,313.07
In practice, the dividend yield on the portfolio underlying an index varies week by week throughout the year. For example, a large proportion of the dividends on the NYSE stocks are paid in the first week of February, May, August, and November each year. The chosen value of q should represent the average annualized dividend yield during the
life of the contract. The dividends used for estimating q should be those for which the
ex-dividend date is during the life of the futures contract.Business Snapshot 5.3 The CME Nikkei 225 Futures Contract
The arguments in this chapter on how index futures prices are determined require that the index be the value of an investment asset. This means that it must be the value of a portfolio of assets that can be traded. The asset underlying the Chicago Mercantile Exchangeās futures contract on the Nikkei 225 Index does not qualify, and the reason why is quite subtle. Suppose S is the value of the Nikkei 225 Index. This is the value of a portfolio of 225 Japanese stocks measured in yen. The variable underlying the CME futures contract on the Nikkei 225 has a dollar value of 5S. In other words, the futures contract takes a variable that is measured in yen and treats it as though it is dollars.
We cannot invest in a portfolio whose value will always be 5S dollars. The best we
can do is to invest in one that is always worth 5S yen or in one that is always worth
5QS dollars, where Q is the dollar value of 1 yen. The variable 5S dollars is not,
therefore, the price of an investment asset and equation (5.8) does not apply.
CMEās Nikkei 225 futures contract is an example of a quanto. A quanto is a
derivative where the underlying asset is measured in one currency and the payoff is in another currency. Quantos will be discussed further in Chapter 30.
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 137
Index Arbitrage
Index Dividends and Quantos
- Dividend yields on index portfolios fluctuate throughout the year, requiring an average annualized yield calculation for futures pricing.
- The ex-dividend dates falling within the life of the contract are the primary factors for estimating the dividend yield variable.
- The CME Nikkei 225 futures contract is technically not an investment asset because it converts a yen-denominated index directly into a dollar value.
- This specific type of derivative, where the underlying asset and the payoff are in different currencies, is known as a quanto.
- Index arbitrage opportunities arise when the futures price deviates from the theoretical relationship between the spot price, interest rates, and dividend yields.
The futures contract takes a variable that is measured in yen and treats it as though it is dollars.
In practice, the dividend yield on the portfolio underlying an index varies week by week throughout the year. For example, a large proportion of the dividends on the NYSE stocks are paid in the first week of February, May, August, and November each year. The chosen value of q should represent the average annualized dividend yield during the
life of the contract. The dividends used for estimating q should be those for which the
ex-dividend date is during the life of the futures contract.Business Snapshot 5.3 The CME Nikkei 225 Futures Contract
The arguments in this chapter on how index futures prices are determined require that the index be the value of an investment asset. This means that it must be the value of a portfolio of assets that can be traded. The asset underlying the Chicago Mercantile Exchangeās futures contract on the Nikkei 225 Index does not qualify, and the reason why is quite subtle. Suppose S is the value of the Nikkei 225 Index. This is the value of a portfolio of 225 Japanese stocks measured in yen. The variable underlying the CME futures contract on the Nikkei 225 has a dollar value of 5S. In other words, the futures contract takes a variable that is measured in yen and treats it as though it is dollars.
We cannot invest in a portfolio whose value will always be 5S dollars. The best we
can do is to invest in one that is always worth 5S yen or in one that is always worth
5QS dollars, where Q is the dollar value of 1 yen. The variable 5S dollars is not,
therefore, the price of an investment asset and equation (5.8) does not apply.
CMEās Nikkei 225 futures contract is an example of a quanto. A quanto is a
derivative where the underlying asset is measured in one currency and the payoff is in another currency. Quantos will be discussed further in Chapter 30.
M05_HULL0654_11_GE_C05.indd 136 30/04/2021 16:46
Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 137
Index Arbitrage
If F07S0e1r-q2T, profits can be made by buying the stocks underlying the index at the
spot price (i.e., for immediate delivery) and shorting futures contracts. If F06S0e1r-q2T,
Index Arbitrage and Quantos
- The dividend yield used in index futures pricing must represent the average annualized yield based on ex-dividend dates during the contract's life.
- The CME Nikkei 225 futures contract is a 'quanto' because it treats a yen-denominated index as a dollar-denominated value, making it impossible to perfectly replicate as a standard investment asset.
- Index arbitrage involves simultaneously trading futures and the underlying stock portfolio to profit from price discrepancies, typically facilitated by automated program trading.
- Market disruptions, such as the 1987 Black Monday crash, can break the link between spot and futures prices by making execution speeds too slow for arbitrage to function.
- During the 1987 crash, S&P 500 futures traded at a massive 18% discount to the index because exchange system overloads prevented traders from closing the gap.
The variable underlying the CME futures contract on the Nikkei 225 has a dollar value of 5S. In other words, the futures contract takes a variable that is measured in yen and treats it as though it is dollars.
In practice, the dividend yield on the portfolio underlying an index varies week by week throughout the year. For example, a large proportion of the dividends on the NYSE stocks are paid in the first week of February, May, August, and November each year. The chosen value of q should represent the average annualized dividend yield during the
life of the contract. The dividends used for estimating q should be those for which the
ex-dividend date is during the life of the futures contract.Business Snapshot 5.3 The CME Nikkei 225 Futures Contract
The arguments in this chapter on how index futures prices are determined require that the index be the value of an investment asset. This means that it must be the value of a portfolio of assets that can be traded. The asset underlying the Chicago Mercantile Exchangeās futures contract on the Nikkei 225 Index does not qualify, and the reason why is quite subtle. Suppose S is the value of the Nikkei 225 Index. This is the value of a portfolio of 225 Japanese stocks measured in yen. The variable underlying the CME futures contract on the Nikkei 225 has a dollar value of 5S. In other words, the futures contract takes a variable that is measured in yen and treats it as though it is dollars.
We cannot invest in a portfolio whose value will always be 5S dollars. The best we
can do is to invest in one that is always worth 5S yen or in one that is always worth
5QS dollars, where Q is the dollar value of 1 yen. The variable 5S dollars is not,
therefore, the price of an investment asset and equation (5.8) does not apply.
CMEās Nikkei 225 futures contract is an example of a quanto. A quanto is a
derivative where the underlying asset is measured in one currency and the payoff is in another currency. Quantos will be discussed further in Chapter 30.
M05_HULL0654_11_GE_C05.indd 136 30/04/2021 16:46
Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 137
Index Arbitrage
If F07S0e1r-q2T, profits can be made by buying the stocks underlying the index at the
spot price (i.e., for immediate delivery) and shorting futures contracts. If F06S0e1r-q2T,
profits can be made by doing the reverseāthat is, shorting or selling the stocks
underlying the index and taking a long position in futures contracts. These strategies
are known as index arbitrage. When F06S0e1r-q2T, index arbitrage is often done by a
pension fund that owns an indexed portfolio of stocks. When F07S0e1r-q2T, it might be
done by a bank or a corporation holding short-term money market investments. For indices involving many stocks, index arbitrage is sometimes accomplished by trading a relatively small representative sample of stocks whose movements closely mirror those of the index. Usually index arbitrage is implemented through program trading. This involves using a computer system to generate the trades.
Most of the time the activities of arbitrageurs ensure that equation (5.8) holds, but
occasionally arbitrage is impossible and the futures price does get out of line with the spot price (see Business Snapshot 5.4).Business Snapshot 5.4 Index Arbitrage in October 1987
To do index arbitrage, a trader must be able to trade both the index futures contract and the portfolio of stocks underlying the index very quickly at the prices quoted in the market. In normal market conditions this is possible using program trading, and the relationship in equation (5.8) holds well. Examples of days when the market was anything but normal are October 19 and 20 of 1987. On what is termed āBlack
Monday, ā October 19, 1987, the market fell by more than 20%, and the 604 million shares traded on the New York Stock Exchange easily exceeded all previous records. The exchangeās systems were overloaded, and orders placed to buy or sell shares on that day could be delayed by up to two hours before being executed.
For most of October 19, 1987, futures prices were at a significant discount to the
underlying index. For example, at the close of trading the S&P 500 Index was at 225.06 (down 57.88 on the day), whereas the futures price for December delivery on the S&P 500 was 201.50 (down 80.75 on the day). This was largely because the delays in processing orders made index arbitrage impossible. On the next day, Tuesday, October 20, 1987, the New York Stock Exchange placed temporary restrictions on the way in which program trading could be done. This also made index arbitrage very difficult and the breakdown of the traditional linkage between stock indices and stock index futures continued. At one point the futures price for the December contract was 18% less than the S&P 500 Index. However, after a few days the market returned to normal, and the activities of arbitrageurs ensured that equation (5.8) governed the relationship between futures and spot prices of indices.
We now move on to consider forward and futures foreign currency contracts. For the sake of definiteness we will assume that the domestic currency is the U.S. dollar (i.e., we 5.10 FORWARD AND FUTURES CONTRACTS ON CURRENCIES
Index Arbitrage and Market Stress
- Index arbitrage involves exploiting price discrepancies between stock index futures and the underlying portfolio of stocks through program trading.
- Under normal market conditions, the activities of arbitrageurs ensure that the futures price remains closely linked to the spot price of the index.
- The 1987 stock market crash demonstrated that extreme volatility and system overloads can make arbitrage impossible by delaying trade execution.
- During the 'Black Monday' crisis, the S&P 500 futures price fell to a massive 18% discount relative to the index due to the breakdown of traditional market linkages.
- Regulatory restrictions on program trading following the crash further hindered the ability of arbitrageurs to realign prices in the short term.
The exchangeās systems were overloaded, and orders placed to buy or sell shares on that day could be delayed by up to two hours before being executed.
profits can be made by doing the reverseāthat is, shorting or selling the stocks
underlying the index and taking a long position in futures contracts. These strategies
are known as index arbitrage. When F06S0e1r-q2T, index arbitrage is often done by a
pension fund that owns an indexed portfolio of stocks. When F07S0e1r-q2T, it might be
done by a bank or a corporation holding short-term money market investments. For indices involving many stocks, index arbitrage is sometimes accomplished by trading a relatively small representative sample of stocks whose movements closely mirror those of the index. Usually index arbitrage is implemented through program trading. This involves using a computer system to generate the trades.
Most of the time the activities of arbitrageurs ensure that equation (5.8) holds, but
occasionally arbitrage is impossible and the futures price does get out of line with the spot price (see Business Snapshot 5.4).Business Snapshot 5.4 Index Arbitrage in October 1987
To do index arbitrage, a trader must be able to trade both the index futures contract and the portfolio of stocks underlying the index very quickly at the prices quoted in the market. In normal market conditions this is possible using program trading, and the relationship in equation (5.8) holds well. Examples of days when the market was anything but normal are October 19 and 20 of 1987. On what is termed āBlack
Monday, ā October 19, 1987, the market fell by more than 20%, and the 604 million shares traded on the New York Stock Exchange easily exceeded all previous records. The exchangeās systems were overloaded, and orders placed to buy or sell shares on that day could be delayed by up to two hours before being executed.
For most of October 19, 1987, futures prices were at a significant discount to the
underlying index. For example, at the close of trading the S&P 500 Index was at 225.06 (down 57.88 on the day), whereas the futures price for December delivery on the S&P 500 was 201.50 (down 80.75 on the day). This was largely because the delays in processing orders made index arbitrage impossible. On the next day, Tuesday, October 20, 1987, the New York Stock Exchange placed temporary restrictions on the way in which program trading could be done. This also made index arbitrage very difficult and the breakdown of the traditional linkage between stock indices and stock index futures continued. At one point the futures price for the December contract was 18% less than the S&P 500 Index. However, after a few days the market returned to normal, and the activities of arbitrageurs ensured that equation (5.8) governed the relationship between futures and spot prices of indices.
We now move on to consider forward and futures foreign currency contracts. For the sake of definiteness we will assume that the domestic currency is the U.S. dollar (i.e., we 5.10 FORWARD AND FUTURES CONTRACTS ON CURRENCIES
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138 CHAPTER 5
take the perspective of a U.S. investor). The underlying asset is one unit of the foreign
currency. We will therefore define the variable S0 as the current spot price in U.S.
dollars of one unit of the foreign currency and F0 as the forward or futures price in U.S.
dollars of one unit of the foreign currency. This is consistent with the way we have defined
S0 and F0 for other assets underlying forward and futures contracts. However,
Interest Rate Parity and Arbitrage
- The relationship between spot and forward exchange rates is governed by the interest rate parity formula, which accounts for the risk-free rates of both domestic and foreign currencies.
- A foreign currency acts as an investment asset that provides a yield equal to the foreign risk-free interest rate.
- In an efficient market without arbitrage, converting currency through a forward contract must yield the same result as converting it via the spot market and investing at the domestic rate.
- Discrepancies between the theoretical forward price and the market price allow arbitrageurs to lock in riskless profits by borrowing in one currency and investing in another.
- While small-scale arbitrage profits may seem negligible, they become highly significant when executed with large sums such as 100 million AUD.
If this does not sound very exciting, consider following a similar strategy where you borrow 100 million AUD!
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138 CHAPTER 5
take the perspective of a U.S. investor). The underlying asset is one unit of the foreign
currency. We will therefore define the variable S0 as the current spot price in U.S.
dollars of one unit of the foreign currency and F0 as the forward or futures price in U.S.
dollars of one unit of the foreign currency. This is consistent with the way we have defined
S0 and F0 for other assets underlying forward and futures contracts. However,
as mentioned in Section 2.11, it does not necessarily correspond to the way spot and forward exchange rates are quoted. For major exchange rates other than the British pound, euro, Australian dollar, and New Zealand dollar, a spot or forward exchange rate is normally quoted as the number of units of the currency that are equivalent to one U.S. dollar.
A foreign currency has the property that the holder of the currency can earn interest
at the risk-free interest rate prevailing in the foreign country. For example, the holder can invest the currency in a foreign-denominated bond. We define
rf as the value of the
foreign risk-free interest rate when money is invested for time T. The variable r is the domestic risk-free rate when money is invested for this period of time.
The relationship between
F0 and S0 is
F0=S0e1r-rf2T (5. 9)
This is the well-known interest rate parity relationship from international finance. The reason it is true is illustrated in Figure 5.1. Suppose that an individual starts with
1,000 units of the foreign currency. There are two ways it can be converted to dollars at time T. One is by investing it for T years at
rf and entering into a forward contract to
sell the proceeds for dollars at time T . This generates 1,000erfT F0 dollars. The other is
by exchanging the foreign currency for dollars in the spot market and investing the proceeds for T years at rate r . This generates
1,000S0erT dollars. In the absence of 1000 units of
foreign currenc y
at time zero
1000S0
dollars
at time zero1000erfT units of
foreign currenc y
at time T
1000S0erT
dollars
at time T1000erfTF0
dollars
at time TFigure 5.1 Two ways of converting 1,000 units of a foreign currency to dollars at
time T. Here, S0 is spot exchange rate, F0 is forward exchange rate, and r and rf are the
dollar and foreign risk-free rates.
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 139
arbitrage opportunities, the two strategies must give the same result. Hence,
1,000erfT F0=1,000S0erT
so that
F0=S0e1r-rf2T
Example 5.6
Suppose that the 2-year interest rates in Australia and the United States are 3%
and 1%, respectively, and the spot exchange rate is 0.7500 USD per AUD. From equation (5.9), the 2-year forward exchange rate should be
0.7500e10.01-0.032*2=0.7206
Suppose first that the 2-year forward exchange rate is less than this, say 0.7000. An arbitrageur can:
1. Borrow 1,000 AUD at 3% per annum for 2 years, convert to 750 USD and invest the USD at 1% (both rates are continuously compounded).
2. Enter into a forward contract to buy 1,061.84 AUD for
1,061.84*0.7000 =
743.29 USD in 2 years.
The 750 USD that are invested at 1% grow to 750e0.01*2=765.15 USD in
2 years. Of this, 743.29 USD are used to purchase 1,061.84 AUD under the terms of the forward contract. This is exactly enough to repay principal and interest on the 1,000 AUD that are borrowed
11,000e0.03*2=1,061.842. The strategy there-
fore gives rise to a riskless profit of 765.15-743.29=21.87 USD. (If this does
not sound very exciting, consider following a similar strategy where you borrow 100 million AUD!)
Suppose next that the 2-year forward rate is 0.7600 (greater than the 0.7206
value given by equation (5.9)). An arbitrageur can:
1. Borrow 1,000 USD at 1% per annum for 2 years, convert to
1,000>0.7500 =
1,333.33 AUD, and invest the AUD at 3%.
Currency Arbitrage and Futures
- Arbitrageurs can exploit discrepancies between forward rates and interest rate differentials to generate riskless profits through borrowing and lending across different currencies.
- A foreign currency functions as an investment asset that provides a known yield, where the yield is equivalent to the foreign risk-free interest rate.
- The relationship between spot and futures prices is determined by the difference between domestic and foreign risk-free rates, causing futures prices to increase when domestic rates are higher.
- Market data from May 2020 illustrates how futures settlement prices for major currencies like the Euro and Yen reflect these interest rate disparities over time.
- The CME Group facilitates standardized futures contracts for various currencies and cryptocurrencies, with specific quotation conventions such as USD per unit of foreign currency.
If this does not sound very exciting, consider following a similar strategy where you borrow 100 million AUD!
743.29 USD in 2 years.
The 750 USD that are invested at 1% grow to 750e0.01*2=765.15 USD in
2 years. Of this, 743.29 USD are used to purchase 1,061.84 AUD under the terms of the forward contract. This is exactly enough to repay principal and interest on the 1,000 AUD that are borrowed
11,000e0.03*2=1,061.842. The strategy there-
fore gives rise to a riskless profit of 765.15-743.29=21.87 USD. (If this does
not sound very exciting, consider following a similar strategy where you borrow 100 million AUD!)
Suppose next that the 2-year forward rate is 0.7600 (greater than the 0.7206
value given by equation (5.9)). An arbitrageur can:
1. Borrow 1,000 USD at 1% per annum for 2 years, convert to
1,000>0.7500 =
1,333.33 AUD, and invest the AUD at 3%.
2. Enter into a forward contract to sell 1,415.79 AUD for 1,415.79*0.76 =
1,075.99 USD in 2 years.
The 1,333.33 AUD that are invested at 3% grow to 1,333.33e0.03*2 =
1,415.79 AUD in 2 years. The forward contract has the effect of converting this
to 1,075.99 USD. The amount needed to payoff the USD borrowings is
1,000e0.01*2=1,020.20 USD. The strategy therefore gives rise to a riskless profit
of 1,075.99-1,020.20=55.79 USD.
Table 5.4 shows currency futures quotes on May 21, 2020. The quotes are U.S. dollars
per unit of the foreign currency. (In the case of the Japanese yen, the quote is
U.S. dollars per 100 yen.) This is the usual quotation convention for futures contracts.
Equation (5.9) applies with r equal to the U.S. risk-free rate and rf equal to the foreign
risk-free rate. The size of one contract is indicated at the top of each segment of the table.
For all the currencies considered in the table, short-term interest rates were lower
than on the U.S. dollar. This corresponds to the r7rf situation and explains why
the settlement futures prices of these currencies increase with maturity. The CME launched futures on the cryptocurrency bitcoin in December 2017. The table shows
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140 CHAPTER 5
that, on May 21, 2020, one bitcoin was worth about $9000. Settlement of the contract is
in cash on the last Friday of the month.
Example 5.7
In Table 5.4, the September settlement price for the euro is about 0.2% higher
than the June settlement price, and the December settlement price is about 0.2%
higher than the September settlement price. This indicates that the futures prices are increasing at about
4*0.2=0.8, per year with maturity. From equation ( 5.9)
this is a rough estimate of the amount by which short-term euro interest rates were less than short-term U.S. interest rates in May 2020.
A Foreign Currency as an Asset Providing a Known Yield
Equation (5.9) is identical to equation (5.3) with q replaced by rf. This is not a
coincidence. A foreign currency can be regarded as an investment asset paying a known yield. The yield is the risk-free rate of interest in the foreign currency.Table 5.4 Futures quotes for a selection of CME Group contracts on foreign
currencies on May 21, 2020.
Open High Low Prior
settlementLast
tradeChange Volume
Australian Dollar, USD per AUD, 100,000 AUD
June 2020 0.6597 0.6599 0.6549 0.6601 0.6567 -0.0034 92,674
Sept. 2020 0.6598 0.6598 0.6549 0.6602 0.6563 -0.0039 316
British Pound, USD per GBP, 62,500 GBP
June 2020 1.2235 1.2250 1.2186 1.2231 1.2219 -0.0012 69,106
Sept. 2020 1.2217 1.2253 1.2191 1.2236 1.2246 +0.0010 388
Canadian Dollar, USD per CAD, 100,000 CADJune 2020 0.71930 0.71985 0.71575 0.71990 0.71705
-0.00285 51,980
Sept. 2020 0.71915 0.71910 0.71665 0.72000 0.71720 -0.00280 562
Dec. 2020 0.71790 0.71905 0.71680 0.72015 0.71680 -0.00335 164
Euro, USD per EUR, 125,000 EURJune 2020 1.09840 1.10140 1.09415 1.09915 1.09510
-0.00405 136,609
Sept. 2020 1.10050 1.10320 1.09650 1.10120 1.09750 -0.00370 1,013
Dec. 2020 1.10190 1.10550 1.09850 1.10350 1.10100 -0.00250 277
Japanese Yen, USD per 100 yen, 12.5 million yenJune 2020 0.93015 0.93035 0.92745 0.93070 0.92970
Pricing Commodity and Currency Futures
- The text provides market data for currency and bitcoin futures, showing price fluctuations and trading volumes for contracts maturing in 2020.
- Foreign currencies are treated as investment assets where the foreign interest rate acts as a continuous yield for the holder.
- Investment commodities like gold and silver are unique because they can generate income through lease rates while simultaneously incurring storage costs.
- The theoretical forward price of a commodity is determined by adjusting the spot price for the risk-free interest rate and net storage costs.
- Arbitrage opportunities arise when the actual futures price deviates from the theoretical price, allowing traders to lock in profits by buying the asset and shorting the contract.
Gold owners such as central banks charge interest in the form of what is known as the gold lease rate when they lend gold.
Canadian Dollar, USD per CAD, 100,000 CADJune 2020 0.71930 0.71985 0.71575 0.71990 0.71705
-0.00285 51,980
Sept. 2020 0.71915 0.71910 0.71665 0.72000 0.71720 -0.00280 562
Dec. 2020 0.71790 0.71905 0.71680 0.72015 0.71680 -0.00335 164
Euro, USD per EUR, 125,000 EURJune 2020 1.09840 1.10140 1.09415 1.09915 1.09510
-0.00405 136,609
Sept. 2020 1.10050 1.10320 1.09650 1.10120 1.09750 -0.00370 1,013
Dec. 2020 1.10190 1.10550 1.09850 1.10350 1.10100 -0.00250 277
Japanese Yen, USD per 100 yen, 12.5 million yenJune 2020 0.93015 0.93035 0.92745 0.93070 0.92970
-0.00100 61,018
Sept. 2020 0.93040 0.93125 0.92895 0.93200 0.93125 -0.00075 453
Swiss Franc, USD per CHF, 125,000 CHFJune 2020 1.0371 1.0374 1.0303 1.0374 1.0304
-0.0070 18,155
Sept. 2020 1.0397 1.0397 1.0336 1.0402 1.0342 -0.0060 55
Bitcoin, USD per BTC, 5 BTCMay 2020 9585 9610 8815 9570 9050
-520 8,738
June 2020 9655 9680 8900 9640 9165 -475 1,504
July 2020 9710 9710 8930 9685 9105 -580 130
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 141
To understand this, we note that the value of interest paid in a foreign currency
depends on the value of the foreign currency. Suppose that the interest rate on British
pounds is 5% per annum. To a U.S. investor the British pound provides an income
equal to 5% of the value of the British pound per annum. In other words it is an asset that provides a yield of 5% per annum.
6 Recall that, for an asset to be an investment asset, it need not be held solely for investment purposes. What
is required is that some individuals hold it for investment purposes and that these individuals be prepared to
sell their holdings and go long forward contracts, if the latter look more attractive. This explains why silver, although it has industrial uses, is an investment asset.We now move on to consider futures contracts on commodities. First we look at the
futures prices of commodities that are investment assets such as gold and silver.6 We
then go on to examine the futures prices of consumption assets.
Income and Storage Costs
As explained in Business Snapshot 3.1, the hedging strategies of gold producers leads to
a requirement on the part of investment banks to borrow gold. Gold owners such as central banks charge interest in the form of what is known as the gold lease rate when they lend gold. The same is true of silver. Gold and silver can therefore provide income to the holder. Like other commodities they also have storage costs.
Equation (5.1) shows that, in the absence of storage costs and income, the forward
price of a commodity that is an investment asset is given by
F0=S0erT (5. 10)
Storage costs can be treated as negative income. If U is the present value of all the
storage costs, net of income, during the life of a forward contract, it follows from
equation (5.2) that
F0=1S0+U2erT (5. 11)
Example 5.8
Consider a 1 -year futures contract on an investment asset that provides no income.
It costs $2 per unit to store the asset, with the payment being made at the end of the year. Assume that the spot price is $450 per unit and the risk-free rate is 7% per annum for all maturities. This corresponds to
r=0.07, S0=450, T=1, and
U=2e-0.07*1=1.865
From equation (5.11), the theoretical futures price, F0, is given by
F0=1450+1.8652e0.07*1=+484.63
If the actual futures price is greater than 484.63, an arbitrageur can buy the asset and short 1 -year futures contracts to lock in a profit. If the actual futures price is less than 484.63, an investor who already owns the asset can improve the return by selling the asset and buying futures contracts.5.11 FUTURES ON COMMODITIES
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142 CHAPTER 5
If the storage costs (net of income) incurred at any time are proportional to the price of
the commodity, they can be treated as negative yield. In this case, from equation (5.3),
F0=S0e1r+u2T (5. 12)
Commodity Futures and Arbitrage
- Arbitrageurs exploit price discrepancies by buying assets and shorting futures when prices exceed the theoretical value determined by storage costs and interest.
- Storage costs for commodities can be treated as a negative yield, effectively increasing the forward price required to avoid arbitrage opportunities.
- Investment assets maintain a strict equilibrium between spot and futures prices because investors are willing to sell the physical asset for a profit.
- Consumption assets do not follow the same strict equilibrium because owners are often reluctant to sell physical stock needed for manufacturing or immediate use.
- The inability to easily short-sell consumption commodities leads to a one-sided inequality where futures prices may remain lower than the cost of carry.
They are reluctant to sell the commodity in the spot market and buy forward or futures contracts, because forward and futures contracts cannot be used in a manufacturing process or consumed in some other way.
If the actual futures price is greater than 484.63, an arbitrageur can buy the asset and short 1 -year futures contracts to lock in a profit. If the actual futures price is less than 484.63, an investor who already owns the asset can improve the return by selling the asset and buying futures contracts.5.11 FUTURES ON COMMODITIES
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142 CHAPTER 5
If the storage costs (net of income) incurred at any time are proportional to the price of
the commodity, they can be treated as negative yield. In this case, from equation (5.3),
F0=S0e1r+u2T (5. 12)
where u denotes the storage costs per annum as a proportion of the spot price net of
any yield earned on the asset.
Consumption Commodities
Commodities that are consumption assets rather than investment assets usually
provide no income, but can be subject to significant storage costs. We now review
the arbitrage strategies used to determine futures prices from spot prices carefully.7
Suppose that, instead of equation (5.11), we have
F071S0+U2erT (5. 13)
To take advantage of this opportunity, an arbitrageur can implement the following
strategy:
1. Borrow an amount S0+U at the risk-free rate and use it to purchase one unit of
the commodity and to pay storage costs.
2. Short a futures contract on one unit of the commodity.
If we regard the futures contract as a forward contract, so that there is no daily
settlement, this strategy leads to a profit of F0-1S0+U2erT at time T . There is no
problem in implementing the strategy for any commodity. However, as arbitrageurs do so, there will be a tendency for
S0 to increase and F0 to decrease until equation (5.13) is no
longer true. We conclude that equation (5.13) cannot hold for any significant length of time.
Suppose next that
F061S0+U2erT (5. 14)
When the commodity is an investment asset, we can argue that many investors hold the commodity solely for investment. When they observe the inequality in equation (5.14), they will find it profitable to do the following:
1. Sell the commodity, save the storage costs, and invest the proceeds at the risk-free interest rate.
2. Take a long position in a futures contract.
The result is a riskless profit at maturity of
1S0+U2erT-F0 relative to the position
the investors would have been in if they had held the commodity. It follows that
equation (5.14) cannot hold for long. Because neither equation (5.13) nor (5.14) can hold for long, we must have
F0=1S0+U2erT.
This argument cannot be used for a commodity that is a consumption asset rather
than an investment asset. Individuals and companies who own a consumption
commodity usually plan to use it in some way. They are reluctant to sell the
commodity in the spot market and buy forward or futures contracts, because forward
7 For some commodities the spot price depends on the delivery location. We assume that the delivery
location for spot and futures are the same.
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 143
and futures contracts cannot be used in a manufacturing process or consumed in some
other way. There is therefore nothing to stop equation (5.14) from holding, and all we can assert for a consumption commodity is
F0ā¦1S0+U2erT (5. 15)
If storage costs are expressed as a proportion u of the spot price, the equivalent result is
F0ā¦S0e1r+u2T (5. 16)
Convenience Yields
Commodity Convenience and Carry
- Consumption commodities differ from investment assets because physical ownership provides operational benefits that futures contracts cannot replicate.
- The convenience yield represents the implicit benefit of holding a physical commodity to ensure production continuity or profit from local shortages.
- A high convenience yield typically indicates market expectations of future shortages or low inventory levels.
- The cost of carry framework integrates interest rates, storage costs, and income to define the relationship between spot and futures prices.
- For investment assets, the convenience yield is zero to prevent arbitrage, whereas for consumption assets, it can significantly lower the futures price relative to the spot price.
The crude oil in inventory can be an input to the refining process, whereas a futures contract cannot be used for this purpose.
commodity usually plan to use it in some way. They are reluctant to sell the
commodity in the spot market and buy forward or futures contracts, because forward
7 For some commodities the spot price depends on the delivery location. We assume that the delivery
location for spot and futures are the same.
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 143
and futures contracts cannot be used in a manufacturing process or consumed in some
other way. There is therefore nothing to stop equation (5.14) from holding, and all we can assert for a consumption commodity is
F0ā¦1S0+U2erT (5. 15)
If storage costs are expressed as a proportion u of the spot price, the equivalent result is
F0ā¦S0e1r+u2T (5. 16)
Convenience Yields
We do not necessarily have equality in equations (5.15) and (5.16) because users of a
consumption commodity may feel that ownership of the physical commodity provides benefits that are not obtained by holders of futures contracts. For example, an oil
refiner is unlikely to regard a futures contract on crude oil in the same way as crude oil held in inventory. The crude oil in inventory can be an input to the refining process, whereas a futures contract cannot be used for this purpose. In general, ownership of the physical asset enables a manufacturer to keep a production process running and
perhaps profit from temporary local shortages. A futures contract does not do the
same. The benefits from holding the physical asset are sometimes referred to as the convenience yield provided by the commodity. If the dollar amount of storage costs is known and has a present value U, then the convenience yield y is defined such that
F0eyT=1S0+U2erT
If the storage costs per unit are a constant proportion, u, of the spot price, then y is defined so that
F0eyT=S0e1r+u2T
or
F0=S0e1r+u-y2T (5. 17)
The convenience yield simply measures the extent to which the left-hand side is less than
the right-hand side in equation (5.15) or (5.16). For investment assets the convenience yield must be zero; otherwise, there are arbitrage opportunities. Table 2.2 in Chapter 2 shows that, on May 21, 2020, the futures price of soybeans decreased as the maturity of the contract increased from January 2021 to May 2021. This pattern suggests that the convenience yield, y , is greater than
r+u during this period.
The convenience yield reflects the marketās expectations concerning the future avail-
ability of the commodity. The greater the possibility that shortages will occur, the higher the convenience yield. If users of the commodity have high inventories, there is very little chance of shortages in the near future and the convenience yield tends to be low. If inventories are low, shortages are more likely and the convenience yield is usually higher.
The relationship between futures prices and spot prices can be summarized in terms of
the cost of carry. This measures the storage cost plus the interest that is paid to finance 5.12 THE COST OF CARRY
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144 CHAPTER 5
the asset less the income earned on the asset. For a non-dividend-paying stock, the
cost of carry is r, because there are no storage costs and no income is earned; for a
stock index, it is r-q, because income is earned at rate q on the asset. For a currency,
it is r-rf; for a commodity that provides income at rate q and requires storage costs
at rate u, it is r-q+u; and so on.
Define the cost of carry as c. For an investment asset, the futures price is
F0=S0ecT (5. 18)
For a consumption asset, it is
F0=S0e1c-y2T (5. 19)
Cost of Carry and Delivery
- The cost of carry represents the net cost of holding an asset, incorporating interest rates, storage costs, and income yields.
- Futures contracts often grant the short position holder the flexibility to choose the specific delivery date within a designated period.
- Optimal delivery timing depends on whether the futures price is an increasing or decreasing function of time to maturity.
- Keynes and Hicks argued that futures prices deviate from expected spot prices based on the risk premiums required by speculators to offset hedgers' risks.
- The relationship between futures prices and expected spot prices is influenced by whether hedgers predominantly hold long or short positions.
They will trade only if they can expect to make money on average.
the asset less the income earned on the asset. For a non-dividend-paying stock, the
cost of carry is r, because there are no storage costs and no income is earned; for a
stock index, it is r-q, because income is earned at rate q on the asset. For a currency,
it is r-rf; for a commodity that provides income at rate q and requires storage costs
at rate u, it is r-q+u; and so on.
Define the cost of carry as c. For an investment asset, the futures price is
F0=S0ecT (5. 18)
For a consumption asset, it is
F0=S0e1c-y2T (5. 19)
where y is the convenience yield.
Whereas a forward contract normally specifies that delivery is to take place on a
particular day, a futures contract often allows the party with the short position to choose to deliver at any time during a certain period. (Typically the party has to give a few daysā notice of its intention to deliver.) The choice introduces a complication into the determination of futures prices. Should the maturity of the futures contract be assumed to be the beginning, middle, or end of the delivery period? Even though most futures contracts are closed out prior to maturity, it is important to know when delivery would have taken place in order to calculate the theoretical futures price.
If the futures price is an increasing function of the time to maturity, it can be seen
from equation (5.19) that
c7y, so that the benefits from holding the asset (including
convenience yield and net of storage costs) are less than the risk-free rate. It is
usually optimal in such a case for the party with the short position to deliver as early as possible, because the interest earned on the cash received outweighs the benefits of holding the asset. As a rule, futures prices in these circumstances should be
calculated on the basis that delivery will take place at the beginning of the delivery period. If futures prices are decreasing as time to maturity increases
1c6y2, the
reverse is true. It is then usually optimal for the party with the short position to
deliver as late as possible, and futures prices should, as a rule, be calculated on this assumption.5.13 DELIVERY OPTIONS
We refer to the marketās average opinion about what the spot price of an asset will be at a certain future time as the expected spot price of the asset at that time. Suppose that it is now June and the September futures price of corn is 450 cents. It is interesting to ask what the expected spot price of corn in September is. Is it less than 450 cents, greater than 450 cents, or exactly equal to 450 cents? As illustrated in Figure 2.1, the futures price converges to the spot price at maturity. If the expected spot price is less than
450 cents, the market must be expecting the September futures price to decline, so that traders with short positions gain and traders with long positions lose. If the expected spot price is greater than 450 cents, the reverse must be true. The market must be 5.14 FUTURES PRICES AND EXPECTED FUTURE SPOT PRICES
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 145
expecting the September futures price to increase, so that traders with long positions
gain while those with short positions lose.
Keynes and Hicks
Economists John Maynard Keynes and John Hicks argued that, if hedgers tend to hold short positions and speculators tend to hold long positions, the futures price of an asset will be below the expected spot price.
8 This is because speculators require compensation
for the risks they are bearing. They will trade only if they can expect to make money on average. Hedgers will lose money on average, but they are likely to be prepared to accept this because the futures contract reduces their risks. If hedgers tend to hold long positions while speculators hold short positions, Keynes and Hicks argued that the futures price will be above the expected spot price for a similar reason.
Risk and Return
Futures Prices and Systematic Risk
- Keynes and Hicks argued that futures prices deviate from expected spot prices based on whether speculators or hedgers are bearing the risk.
- Speculators require financial compensation for the risks they assume, meaning they only trade if they expect a profit on average.
- Modern theory distinguishes between nonsystematic risk, which can be diversified away, and systematic risk, which requires a higher expected return.
- The relationship between the current futures price and the expected future spot price is determined by the required return relative to the risk-free rate.
- If an asset's returns are uncorrelated with the stock market, the futures price should theoretically equal the expected future spot price.
Hedgers will lose money on average, but they are likely to be prepared to accept this because the futures contract reduces their risks.
Economists John Maynard Keynes and John Hicks argued that, if hedgers tend to hold short positions and speculators tend to hold long positions, the futures price of an asset will be below the expected spot price.
8 This is because speculators require compensation
for the risks they are bearing. They will trade only if they can expect to make money on average. Hedgers will lose money on average, but they are likely to be prepared to accept this because the futures contract reduces their risks. If hedgers tend to hold long positions while speculators hold short positions, Keynes and Hicks argued that the futures price will be above the expected spot price for a similar reason.
Risk and Return
The modern approach to explaining the relationship between futures prices and expected spot prices is based on the relationship between risk and expected return in the economy. In general, the higher the risk of an investment, the higher the expected return demanded by an investor. The capital asset pricing model, which is explained in the appendix to Chapter 3, shows that there are two types of risk in the economy:
systematic and nonsystematic. Nonsystematic risk should not be important to an
investor. It can be almost completely eliminated by holding a well-diversified portfolio. An investor should not therefore require a higher expected return for bearing non- systematic risk. Systematic risk, in contrast, cannot be diversified away. It arises from a correlation between returns from the investment and returns from the whole stock market. An investor generally requires a higher expected return than the risk-free interest rate for bearing positive amounts of systematic risk. Also, an investor is
prepared to accept a lower expected return than the risk-free interest rate when the systematic risk in an investment is negative.
The Risk in a Futures Position
Let us consider a speculator who takes a long position in a futures contract that lasts for T years in the hope that the spot price of the asset will be above the futures price at the
end of the life of the futures contract. We ignore daily settlement and assume that the futures contract can be treated as a forward contract. We suppose that the speculator puts the present value of the futures price into a risk-free investment while simul-
taneously taking a long futures position. The proceeds of the risk-free investment are used to buy the asset on the delivery date. The asset is then immediately sold for its market price. The cash flows to the speculator are as follows:
Today:
-F0e-rT
End of futures contract: +ST
where F0 is the futures price today, ST is the price of the asset at time T at the end of the
futures contract, and r is the risk-free return on funds invested for time T .
8 See: J. M. Keynes, A Treatise on Money. London: Macmillan, 1930; and J. R. Hicks, Value and Capital.
Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1939.
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146 CHAPTER 5
How do we value this investment? The discount rate we should use for the expected
cash flow at time T equals an investorās required return on the investment. Suppose that
k is an investorās required return for this investment. The present value of this
investment is
-F0e-rT+E1ST2e-kT
where E denotes expected value. We can assume that all investments in securities
markets are priced so that they have zero net present value. This means that
-F0e-rT+E1ST2e-kT=0
or
F0=E1ST2e1r-k2T (5. 20)
As we have just discussed, the returns investors require on an investment depend on its
systematic risk. The investment we have been considering is in essence an investment in the asset underlying the futures contract. If the returns from this asset are uncorrelated with the stock market, the correct discount rate to use is the risk-free rate r , so we
should set
k=r. Equation (5.20) then gives
F0=E1ST2
Futures Prices and Systematic Risk
- The relationship between a futures price and the expected future spot price is determined by the systematic risk of the underlying asset.
- When an asset has positive systematic risk, such as a stock index, the futures price typically understates the expected future spot price.
- Assets with negative systematic risk lead to futures prices that overstate the expected future spot price, while uncorrelated assets provide an unbiased estimate.
- The market conditions where the futures price is below or above the expected future spot price are defined as normal backwardation and contango, respectively.
- In theoretical models where interest rates are perfectly predictable, futures prices and forward prices are considered to be identical.
When the futures price is below the expected future spot price, the situation is known as normal backwardation; and when the futures price is above the expected future spot price, the situation is known as contango.
where E denotes expected value. We can assume that all investments in securities
markets are priced so that they have zero net present value. This means that
-F0e-rT+E1ST2e-kT=0
or
F0=E1ST2e1r-k2T (5. 20)
As we have just discussed, the returns investors require on an investment depend on its
systematic risk. The investment we have been considering is in essence an investment in the asset underlying the futures contract. If the returns from this asset are uncorrelated with the stock market, the correct discount rate to use is the risk-free rate r , so we
should set
k=r. Equation (5.20) then gives
F0=E1ST2
This shows that the futures price is an unbiased estimate of the expected future spot price when the return from the underlying asset is uncorrelated with the stock market.
If the return from the asset is positively correlated with the stock market,
k7r and
equation (5.20) leads to F06E1ST2. This shows that, when the asset underlying the
futures contract has positive systematic risk, we should expect the futures price to understate the expected future spot price. An example of an asset that has positive systematic risk is a stock index. The expected return of investors on the stocks underlying an index is generally more than the risk-free rate, r. The dividends provide a return of q.
The expected increase in the index must therefore be more than
r-q. Equation (5.8) is
therefore consistent with the prediction that the futures price understates the expected future stock price for a stock index.
If the return from the asset is negatively correlated with the stock market,
k6r and
equation (5.20) gives F07E1ST2. This shows that, when the asset underlying the futures
contract has negative systematic risk, we should expect the futures price to overstate the expected future spot price.
These results are summarized in Table 5.5.
Table 5.5 Relationship between futures price and expected future spot price.
Underlying asset Relationship of expected
return k from asset
to risk-free rate rRelationship of futures
price F to expected
future spot price E(S T)
No systematic risk k=r F0=E1ST2
Positive systematic risk k7r F06E1ST2
Negative systematic risk k6r F07E1ST2
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 147
Normal Backwardation and Contango
When the futures price is below the expected future spot price, the situation is known as
normal backwardation; and when the futures price is above the expected future spot price, the situation is known as contango. However, it should be noted that sometimes these terms are used to refer to whether the futures price is below or above the current spot price, rather than the expected future spot price.
SUMMARY
For most purposes, the futures price of a contract with a certain delivery date can be considered to be the same as the forward price for a contract with the same delivery date. It can be shown that in theory the two should be exactly the same when interest rates are perfectly predictable.
For the purposes of understanding futures (or forward) prices, it is convenient to
divide futures contracts into two categories: those in which the underlying asset is held for investment by at least some traders and those in which the underlying asset is held primarily for consumption purposes.
In the case of investment assets, we have considered three different situations:
1. The asset provides no income.
2. The asset provides a known dollar income.
3. The asset provides a known yield.
Pricing Futures and Forwards
- Futures and forward prices are theoretically identical when interest rates are perfectly predictable, though they diverge in practice.
- Investment assets like gold or stocks can be priced using spot prices and known income or yields, whereas consumption assets require accounting for a convenience yield.
- The convenience yield represents the non-monetary benefits of holding a physical commodity, such as maintaining production during local shortages.
- Cost of carry integrates storage costs and financing expenses minus asset income, serving as the primary driver for the gap between spot and futures prices.
- Under the capital asset pricing model, the relationship between futures prices and expected future spot prices is determined by the asset's correlation with the broader market.
It measures the extent to which users of the commodity feel that ownership of the physical asset provides benefits that are not obtained by the holders of the futures contract.
For most purposes, the futures price of a contract with a certain delivery date can be considered to be the same as the forward price for a contract with the same delivery date. It can be shown that in theory the two should be exactly the same when interest rates are perfectly predictable.
For the purposes of understanding futures (or forward) prices, it is convenient to
divide futures contracts into two categories: those in which the underlying asset is held for investment by at least some traders and those in which the underlying asset is held primarily for consumption purposes.
In the case of investment assets, we have considered three different situations:
1. The asset provides no income.
2. The asset provides a known dollar income.
3. The asset provides a known yield.
The results are summarized in Table 5.6. They enable futures prices to be obtained for contracts on stock indices, currencies, gold, and silver. Storage costs can be treated as negative income.
In the case of consumption assets, it is not possible to obtain the futures price as a
function of the spot price and other observable variables. Here the parameter known as the assetās convenience yield becomes important. It measures the extent to which users of the commodity feel that ownership of the physical asset provides benefits that are not obtained by the holders of the futures contract. These benefits may include the ability to profit from temporary local shortages or the ability to keep a production process running. We can obtain an upper bound for the futures price of consumption assets using arbitrage arguments, but we cannot nail down an equality relationship between futures and spot prices.
Table 5.6 Summary of results for a contract with time to maturity T on an investment
asset with price S0 when the risk-free interest rate for a T-year period is r.
Asset Forward>futures
priceValue of long forward contract
with delivery price K
Provides no income : S0erTS0-Ke-rT
Provides known income
with present value I : 1S0-I2erTS0-I-Ke-rT
Provides known yield q : S0e1r-q2TS0e-qT-Ke-rT
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148 CHAPTER 5
The concept of cost of carry is sometimes useful. The cost of carry is the storage cost
of the underlying asset plus the cost of financing it minus the income received from it.
In the case of investment assets, the futures price is greater than the spot price by an amount reflecting the cost of carry. In the case of consumption assets, the futures price is greater than the spot price by an amount reflecting the cost of carry net of the
convenience yield.
If we assume the capital asset pricing model is true, the relationship between the
futures price and the expected future spot price depends on whether the return on the asset is positively or negatively correlated with the return on the stock market. Positive correlation will tend to lead to a futures price lower than the expected future spot price, whereas negative correlation will tend to lead to a futures price higher than the expected future spot price. Only when the correlation is zero will the theoretical futures price be equal to the expected future spot price.
FURTHER READING
Cox, J. C., J. E. Ingersoll, and S. A. Ross. āThe Relation between Forward Prices and Futures
Prices, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 9 (December 1981): 321 ā46.
Jarrow, R. A., and G. S. Oldfield. āForward Contracts and Futures Contracts, ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 9 (December 1981): 373ā82.
Richard, S., and S. Sundaresan. ā A Continuous-Time Model of Forward and Futures Prices in a
Multigood Economy, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 9 (December 1981): 347ā72.
Routledge, B. R., D. J. Seppi, and C. S. Spatt. āEquilibrium Forward Curves for Commodities, ā
Journal of Finance, 55, 3 (2000) 1297ā1338.
M05_HULL0654_11_GE_C05.indd 148 30/04/2021 16:46
Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 149
Practice Questions
Forward and Futures Price Determination
- The text provides a series of quantitative practice problems focused on calculating the fair value of forward and futures contracts across various asset classes.
- Key variables in these calculations include the spot price, risk-free interest rates with continuous compounding, and dividend yields or storage costs.
- Specific scenarios explore the distinction between investment assets like gold and consumption commodities like copper regarding their price predictability.
- The exercises challenge the reader to identify arbitrage opportunities when market futures prices deviate from theoretical values derived from interest rate parity.
- Advanced problems address complex dividend structures where yields vary by month and the valuation of foreign currency as an asset with a known yield.
Explain carefully why the futures price of gold can be calculated from its spot price and other observable variables whereas the futures price of copper cannot.
Cox, J. C., J. E. Ingersoll, and S. A. Ross. āThe Relation between Forward Prices and Futures
Prices, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 9 (December 1981): 321 ā46.
Jarrow, R. A., and G. S. Oldfield. āForward Contracts and Futures Contracts, ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 9 (December 1981): 373ā82.
Richard, S., and S. Sundaresan. ā A Continuous-Time Model of Forward and Futures Prices in a
Multigood Economy, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 9 (December 1981): 347ā72.
Routledge, B. R., D. J. Seppi, and C. S. Spatt. āEquilibrium Forward Curves for Commodities, ā
Journal of Finance, 55, 3 (2000) 1297ā1338.
M05_HULL0654_11_GE_C05.indd 148 30/04/2021 16:46
Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 149
Practice Questions
5.1. What is the difference between the forward price and the value of a forward contract?
5.2. Suppose that you enter into a 6-month forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock
when the stock price is $30 and the risk-free interest rate (with continuous compounding) is 5% per annum. What is the forward price?
5.3. A stock index currently stands at 350. The risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum (with continuous compounding) and the dividend yield on the index is 3% per annum. What should the futures price for a 4-month contract be?
5.4. Explain carefully why the futures price of gold can be calculated from its spot price and other observable variables whereas the futures price of copper cannot.
5.5. Explain why a foreign currency can be treated as an asset providing a known yield.
5.6. Is the futures price of a stock index greater than or less than the expected future value of the index? Explain your answer.
5.7. A 1 -year long forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock is entered into when the stock price is $40 and the risk-free rate of interest is 5% per annum with continuous
compounding.
(a) What are the forward price and the initial value of the forward contract?
(b) Six months later, the price of the stock is $45 and the risk-free interest rate is still 5%.
What are the forward price and the value of the forward contract?
5.8. The risk-free rate of interest is 7% per annum with continuous compounding, and the dividend yield on a stock index is 3.2% per annum. The current value of the index is 150. What is the 6-month futures price?
5.9. Assume that the risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum with continuous compounding and that the dividend yield on a stock index varies throughout the year. In February,
May, August, and November, dividends are paid at a rate of 5% per annum. In other months, dividends are paid at a rate of 2% per annum. Suppose that the value of the index on July 31 is 1,300. What is the futures price for a contract deliverable in December 31 of the same year?
5.10. Suppose that the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum with continuous compounding and that the dividend yield on a stock index is 4% per annum. The index is standing at 400, and the futures price for a contract deliverable in four months is 405. What arbitrage opportunities does this create?
5.11. Estimate the difference between short-term interest rates in Japan and the United States on May 21, 2020, from the information in Table 5.4.
5.12. The 2-month interest rates in Switzerland and the United States are, respectively, 1% and 2% per annum with continuous compounding. The spot price of the Swiss franc is
$1.0500. The futures price for a contract deliverable in 2 months is $1.0500. What
arbitrage opportunities does this create?
5.13. The spot price of silver is $25 per ounce. The storage costs are $0.24 per ounce per year payable quarterly in advance. Assuming that interest rates are 5% per annum for all maturities, calculate the futures price of silver for delivery in 9 months.
5.14. Suppose that
F1 and F2 are two futures contracts on the same commodity with times to
maturity, t1 and t2, where t27t1. Prove that F2ā¦F1er1t2-t12, where r is the interest rate
Futures and Forwards Valuation Exercises
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating the forward and futures prices of various financial assets.
- It explores the impact of continuous compounding interest rates and dividend yields on the valuation of stock indices and individual equities.
- Specific scenarios address the distinction between commodities like gold, which can be priced via spot variables, and copper, which cannot.
- The exercises challenge readers to identify arbitrage opportunities when market futures prices deviate from theoretical values.
- Complex models are introduced for foreign currency valuation and commodities involving storage costs like silver.
Explain carefully why the futures price of gold can be calculated from its spot price and other observable variables whereas the futures price of copper cannot.
5.1. What is the difference between the forward price and the value of a forward contract?
5.2. Suppose that you enter into a 6-month forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock
when the stock price is $30 and the risk-free interest rate (with continuous compounding) is 5% per annum. What is the forward price?
5.3. A stock index currently stands at 350. The risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum (with continuous compounding) and the dividend yield on the index is 3% per annum. What should the futures price for a 4-month contract be?
5.4. Explain carefully why the futures price of gold can be calculated from its spot price and other observable variables whereas the futures price of copper cannot.
5.5. Explain why a foreign currency can be treated as an asset providing a known yield.
5.6. Is the futures price of a stock index greater than or less than the expected future value of the index? Explain your answer.
5.7. A 1 -year long forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock is entered into when the stock price is $40 and the risk-free rate of interest is 5% per annum with continuous
compounding.
(a) What are the forward price and the initial value of the forward contract?
(b) Six months later, the price of the stock is $45 and the risk-free interest rate is still 5%.
What are the forward price and the value of the forward contract?
5.8. The risk-free rate of interest is 7% per annum with continuous compounding, and the dividend yield on a stock index is 3.2% per annum. The current value of the index is 150. What is the 6-month futures price?
5.9. Assume that the risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum with continuous compounding and that the dividend yield on a stock index varies throughout the year. In February,
May, August, and November, dividends are paid at a rate of 5% per annum. In other months, dividends are paid at a rate of 2% per annum. Suppose that the value of the index on July 31 is 1,300. What is the futures price for a contract deliverable in December 31 of the same year?
5.10. Suppose that the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum with continuous compounding and that the dividend yield on a stock index is 4% per annum. The index is standing at 400, and the futures price for a contract deliverable in four months is 405. What arbitrage opportunities does this create?
5.11. Estimate the difference between short-term interest rates in Japan and the United States on May 21, 2020, from the information in Table 5.4.
5.12. The 2-month interest rates in Switzerland and the United States are, respectively, 1% and 2% per annum with continuous compounding. The spot price of the Swiss franc is
$1.0500. The futures price for a contract deliverable in 2 months is $1.0500. What
arbitrage opportunities does this create?
5.13. The spot price of silver is $25 per ounce. The storage costs are $0.24 per ounce per year payable quarterly in advance. Assuming that interest rates are 5% per annum for all maturities, calculate the futures price of silver for delivery in 9 months.
5.14. Suppose that
F1 and F2 are two futures contracts on the same commodity with times to
maturity, t1 and t2, where t27t1. Prove that F2ā¦F1er1t2-t12, where r is the interest rate
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150 CHAPTER 5
Futures and Forwards Problem Set
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating the forward and futures prices of various assets including stocks, indices, and commodities.
- It explores the theoretical differences between forward prices and the actual value of a forward contract over time as market conditions change.
- Specific scenarios address arbitrage opportunities that arise when market futures prices deviate from theoretical values calculated using risk-free rates and dividend yields.
- The problems delve into complex market dynamics such as storage costs for precious metals, foreign exchange risk in hedging, and the impact of geometric averaging on index pricing.
- Conceptual questions challenge the reader to distinguish why certain commodities like gold can be priced via spot markets while others like copper present different valuation hurdles.
Explain carefully why the futures price of gold can be calculated from its spot price and other observable variables whereas the futures price of copper cannot.
5.1. What is the difference between the forward price and the value of a forward contract?
5.2. Suppose that you enter into a 6-month forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock
when the stock price is $30 and the risk-free interest rate (with continuous compounding) is 5% per annum. What is the forward price?
5.3. A stock index currently stands at 350. The risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum (with continuous compounding) and the dividend yield on the index is 3% per annum. What should the futures price for a 4-month contract be?
5.4. Explain carefully why the futures price of gold can be calculated from its spot price and other observable variables whereas the futures price of copper cannot.
5.5. Explain why a foreign currency can be treated as an asset providing a known yield.
5.6. Is the futures price of a stock index greater than or less than the expected future value of the index? Explain your answer.
5.7. A 1 -year long forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock is entered into when the stock price is $40 and the risk-free rate of interest is 5% per annum with continuous
compounding.
(a) What are the forward price and the initial value of the forward contract?
(b) Six months later, the price of the stock is $45 and the risk-free interest rate is still 5%.
What are the forward price and the value of the forward contract?
5.8. The risk-free rate of interest is 7% per annum with continuous compounding, and the dividend yield on a stock index is 3.2% per annum. The current value of the index is 150. What is the 6-month futures price?
5.9. Assume that the risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum with continuous compounding and that the dividend yield on a stock index varies throughout the year. In February,
May, August, and November, dividends are paid at a rate of 5% per annum. In other months, dividends are paid at a rate of 2% per annum. Suppose that the value of the index on July 31 is 1,300. What is the futures price for a contract deliverable in December 31 of the same year?
5.10. Suppose that the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum with continuous compounding and that the dividend yield on a stock index is 4% per annum. The index is standing at 400, and the futures price for a contract deliverable in four months is 405. What arbitrage opportunities does this create?
5.11. Estimate the difference between short-term interest rates in Japan and the United States on May 21, 2020, from the information in Table 5.4.
5.12. The 2-month interest rates in Switzerland and the United States are, respectively, 1% and 2% per annum with continuous compounding. The spot price of the Swiss franc is
$1.0500. The futures price for a contract deliverable in 2 months is $1.0500. What
arbitrage opportunities does this create?
5.13. The spot price of silver is $25 per ounce. The storage costs are $0.24 per ounce per year payable quarterly in advance. Assuming that interest rates are 5% per annum for all maturities, calculate the futures price of silver for delivery in 9 months.
5.14. Suppose that
F1 and F2 are two futures contracts on the same commodity with times to
maturity, t1 and t2, where t27t1. Prove that F2ā¦F1er1t2-t12, where r is the interest rate
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150 CHAPTER 5
(assumed constant) and there are no storage costs. For the purposes of this problem,
assume that a futures contract is the same as a forward contract.
5.15. When a known future cash outflow in a foreign currency is hedged by a company using a forward contract, there is no foreign exchange risk. When it is hedged using futures
contracts, the daily settlement process does leave the company exposed to some risk. Explain the nature of this risk. In particular, consider whether the company is better off using a futures contract or a forward contract when:
(a) The value of the foreign currency falls rapidly during the life of the contract.
(b) The value of the foreign currency rises rapidly during the life of the contract.
(c) The value of the foreign currency first rises and then falls back to its initial value.
(d) The value of the foreign currency first falls and then rises back to its initial value.
Assume that the forward price equals the futures price.
5.16. It is sometimes argued that a forward exchange rate is an unbiased predictor of future
exchange rates. Under what circumstances is this so?
5.17. Show that the growth rate in an index futures price equals the excess return on the
portfolio underlying the index over the risk-free rate. Assume that the risk-free interest rate and the dividend yield are constant.
5.18. Explain carefully what is meant by the expected price of a commodity on a particular future date. Suppose that the futures price for crude oil declines with the maturity of the contract at the rate of 2% per year. Assume that speculators tend to be short crude oil futures and hedgers tend to be long. What does the Keynes and Hicks argument imply about the expected future price of oil?
5.19. The Value Line Index is designed to reflect changes in the value of a portfolio of over
1,600 equally weighted stocks. Prior to March 9, 1988, the change in the index from one day to the next was calculated as the geometric average of the changes in the prices of the
stocks underlying the index. In these circumstances, does equation (5.8) correctly relate the futures price of the index to its cash price? If not, does the equation overstate or understate the futures price?
5.20. A U.S. company is interested in using the futures contracts traded by the CME Group to hedge its Australian dollar exposure. Define r as the interest rate (all maturities) on the U.S. dollar and
Forward and Futures Pricing Problems
- The text explores the distinct risks associated with daily settlement in futures contracts compared to the fixed nature of forward contracts.
- It examines the theoretical relationship between forward exchange rates and their ability to act as unbiased predictors of future spot rates.
- Mathematical proofs are requested to demonstrate how index futures growth rates relate to excess returns over the risk-free rate.
- The problems address the 'cost of carry' concept across various asset classes including non-dividend stocks, indices, commodities, and currencies.
- Specific scenarios analyze the impact of geometric averaging on index futures pricing and the calculation of optimal hedge ratios for foreign currency exposure.
When a known future cash outflow in a foreign currency is hedged by a company using a forward contract, there is no foreign exchange risk.
(assumed constant) and there are no storage costs. For the purposes of this problem,
assume that a futures contract is the same as a forward contract.
5.15. When a known future cash outflow in a foreign currency is hedged by a company using a forward contract, there is no foreign exchange risk. When it is hedged using futures
contracts, the daily settlement process does leave the company exposed to some risk. Explain the nature of this risk. In particular, consider whether the company is better off using a futures contract or a forward contract when:
(a) The value of the foreign currency falls rapidly during the life of the contract.
(b) The value of the foreign currency rises rapidly during the life of the contract.
(c) The value of the foreign currency first rises and then falls back to its initial value.
(d) The value of the foreign currency first falls and then rises back to its initial value.
Assume that the forward price equals the futures price.
5.16. It is sometimes argued that a forward exchange rate is an unbiased predictor of future
exchange rates. Under what circumstances is this so?
5.17. Show that the growth rate in an index futures price equals the excess return on the
portfolio underlying the index over the risk-free rate. Assume that the risk-free interest rate and the dividend yield are constant.
5.18. Explain carefully what is meant by the expected price of a commodity on a particular future date. Suppose that the futures price for crude oil declines with the maturity of the contract at the rate of 2% per year. Assume that speculators tend to be short crude oil futures and hedgers tend to be long. What does the Keynes and Hicks argument imply about the expected future price of oil?
5.19. The Value Line Index is designed to reflect changes in the value of a portfolio of over
1,600 equally weighted stocks. Prior to March 9, 1988, the change in the index from one day to the next was calculated as the geometric average of the changes in the prices of the
stocks underlying the index. In these circumstances, does equation (5.8) correctly relate the futures price of the index to its cash price? If not, does the equation overstate or understate the futures price?
5.20. A U.S. company is interested in using the futures contracts traded by the CME Group to hedge its Australian dollar exposure. Define r as the interest rate (all maturities) on the U.S. dollar and
rf as the interest rate (all maturities) on the Australian dollar. Assume
that r and rf are constant and that the company uses a contract expiring at time T to
hedge an exposure at time t 1T7t2.
(a) Show that the optimal hedge ratio is e1rf-r21T-t2, ignoring daily settlement.
(b) Show that, when t is 1 day, the optimal hedge ratio is almost exactly S0>F0, where S0 is
the current spot price of the currency and F0 is the current futures price of the
currency for the contract maturing at time T.
(c) Show that the company can take account of the daily settlement of futures contracts for a hedge that lasts longer than 1 day by adjusting the hedge ratio so that it always equals the spot price of the currency divided by the futures price of the currency.
5.21. What is the cost of carry for:
(a) a non-dividend-paying stock
(b) a stock index
(c) a commodity with storage costs
(d) a foreign currency.
M05_HULL0654_11_GE_C05.indd 150 30/04/2021 16:46
Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 151
Pricing and Interest Rate Futures
- The text presents complex quantitative problems regarding optimal hedge ratios and the impact of daily settlement on futures contracts.
- A series of exercises explores the cost of carry for various assets including non-dividend stocks, indices, and foreign currencies.
- Practical arbitrage scenarios are analyzed using spot exchange rates, risk-free interest rates, and forward exchange rates.
- The transition to interest rate futures introduces the importance of day count conventions and duration measures for corporate hedging.
- Specific financial instruments like oil futures and Swiss franc exchange rates are used to demonstrate upper bounds and delivery date flexibility.
The company wants to reserve the right to choose the exact delivery date to fit in with its own cash flows.
that r and rf are constant and that the company uses a contract expiring at time T to
hedge an exposure at time t 1T7t2.
(a) Show that the optimal hedge ratio is e1rf-r21T-t2, ignoring daily settlement.
(b) Show that, when t is 1 day, the optimal hedge ratio is almost exactly S0>F0, where S0 is
the current spot price of the currency and F0 is the current futures price of the
currency for the contract maturing at time T.
(c) Show that the company can take account of the daily settlement of futures contracts for a hedge that lasts longer than 1 day by adjusting the hedge ratio so that it always equals the spot price of the currency divided by the futures price of the currency.
5.21. What is the cost of carry for:
(a) a non-dividend-paying stock
(b) a stock index
(c) a commodity with storage costs
(d) a foreign currency.
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Determination of Forward and Futures Prices 151
5.22. The spot exchange rate between the Swiss franc and U.S. dollar is 1.0404 ($ per franc).
Interest rates in the United States and Switzerland are 0.25% and 0% per annum,
respectively, with continuous compounding. The 3-month forward exchange rate was 1.0300 ($ per franc). What arbitrage strategy was possible? How does your answer change if the forward exchange rate is 1.0500 ($ per franc).
5.23. An index is 1,200. The three-month risk-free rate is 3% per annum and the dividend yield over the next three months is 1.2% per annum. The six-month risk-free rate is 3.5% per annum and the dividend yield over the next six months is 1% per annum. Estimate the futures price of the index for three-month and six-month contracts. All interest rates and dividend yields are continuously compounded.
5.24. Suppose the current USD/euro exchange rate is 1.2000 dollar per euro. The six-month forward exchange rate is 1.1950. The six-month USD interest rate is 1% per annum
continuously compounded. Estimate the six-month euro interest rate.
5.25. The spot price of oil is $50 per barrel and the cost of storing a barrel of oil for one year is $3, payable at the end of the year. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum
continuously compounded. What is an upper bound for the one-year futures price of oil?
5.26. A company that is uncertain about the exact date when it will pay or receive a foreign currency may try to negotiate with its bank a forward contract that specifies a period during which delivery can be made. The company wants to reserve the right to choose the exact delivery date to fit in with its own cash flows. Put yourself in the position of the
bank. How would you price the product that the company wants?
5.27. A company enters into a forward contract with a bank to sell a foreign currency for
K1 at
time T1. The exchange rate at time T1 proves to be S1 17K12. The company asks the bank
if it can roll the contract forward until time T2 17T12 rather than settle at time T1. The
bank agrees to a new delivery price, K2. Explain how K2 should be calculated.
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152
Interest Rate
Futures 6CHAPTER
So far we have covered futures contracts on commodities, stock indices, and foreign
currencies. We have seen how they work, how they are used for hedging, and how futures prices are determined. We now move on to consider interest rate futures.
This chapter explains the contracts that trade in the United States. Many of the other
interest rate futures contracts throughout the world have been modeled on these conĀtracts. The chapter also shows how interest rate futures contracts, when used in conĀjunction with the duration measure introduced in Chapter 4, can be used to hedge a companyās exposure to interest rate movements.
6.1 DAY COUNT AND QUOTATION CONVENTIONS
As a preliminary to the material in this chapter, we consider the day count and quotation conventions that apply to bonds and other instruments dependent on interest rates.
Day Counts
Interest Rate Day Counts
- The text introduces interest rate futures, focusing on U.S. contracts that serve as models for global financial markets.
- Day count conventions define how interest accrues by comparing the actual days elapsed to a standardized reference period.
- Treasury bonds utilize the 'Actual/actual' convention, calculating interest based on the exact number of days in a calendar period.
- Corporate and municipal bonds use the '30/360' convention, which simplifies calculations by assuming every month has exactly 30 days.
- Money market instruments apply the 'Actual/360' convention, meaning a full year of 365 days actually earns more than the quoted annual rate.
As shown in Business Snapshot 6.1, sometimes the 30/360 day count convention has surprising consequences.
So far we have covered futures contracts on commodities, stock indices, and foreign
currencies. We have seen how they work, how they are used for hedging, and how futures prices are determined. We now move on to consider interest rate futures.
This chapter explains the contracts that trade in the United States. Many of the other
interest rate futures contracts throughout the world have been modeled on these conĀtracts. The chapter also shows how interest rate futures contracts, when used in conĀjunction with the duration measure introduced in Chapter 4, can be used to hedge a companyās exposure to interest rate movements.
6.1 DAY COUNT AND QUOTATION CONVENTIONS
As a preliminary to the material in this chapter, we consider the day count and quotation conventions that apply to bonds and other instruments dependent on interest rates.
Day Counts
The day count defines the way in which interest accrues over time. Generally, we know the interest earned over some reference period (e.g., the time between coupon payments on a bond), and we are interested in calculating the interest earned over some other period.
The day count convention is usually expressed as
X>Y. When we are calculating the
interest earned between two dates, X defines the way in which the number of days between the two dates is calculated, and Y defines the way in which the total number of
days in the reference period is measured. The interest earned between the two dates is
Number of days between dates
Number of days in reference period*Interest earned in reference period
Three day count conventions that are commonly used in the United States are:
1. Actual/actual (in period)
2. 30>360
3. Actual>360
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Interest Rate Futures 153
The actual/actual (in period) day count is used for Treasury bonds in the United
States. This means that the interest earned between two dates is based on the ratio of the
actual days elapsed to the actual number of days in the period between coupon
payments. Assume that the bond principal is $100, coupon payment dates are March 1 and September 1, and the coupon rate is 8% per annum. (This means that $4 of interest is paid on each of March 1 and September 1.) Suppose that we wish to calculate the interest earned between March 1 and July 3. The reference period is from March 1 to September 1. There are 184 (actual) days in the reference period, and interest of $4 is earned during the period. There are 124 (actual) days between March 1 and July 3. The interest earned between March 1 and July 3 is therefore
124
184*4=2.6957
The 30>360 day count is used for corporate and municipal bonds in the United States. This means that we assume 30 days per month and 360 days per year when carrying out calculations. With the 30>360 day count, the total number of days between March 1 and September 1 is 180. The total number of days between March 1 and July 3 is
14*302+2=122. In a corporate bond with the same terms as the Treasury bond
just considered, the interest earned between March 1 and July 3 would therefore be
122
180*4=2.7111
As shown in Business Snapshot 6.1, sometimes the 30>360 day count convention has surprising consequences.
The actual> 360 day count is used for money market instruments in the United States.
This indicates that the reference period is 360 days. The interest earned during part of a year is calculated by dividing the actual number of elapsed days by 360 and multiplying by the rate. The interest earned in 90 days is therefore exactly oneĀfourth of the quoted rate, and the interest earned in a whole year of 365 days is 365> 360 times the quoted rate.
Conventions vary from country to country and from instrument to instrument. For
Bond Pricing and Day Counts
- Day count conventions like 30/360 and actual/360 significantly impact interest calculations across different financial instruments and countries.
- The 30/360 convention can create surprising anomalies, such as earning three days of interest for a single calendar day between February 28 and March 1.
- U.S. Treasury bills are quoted using a discount rate based on face value rather than a true interest rate based on the purchase price.
- Bond markets distinguish between the 'clean price,' which is the quoted price, and the 'dirty price,' which includes accrued interest since the last coupon.
- Global standards for LIBOR and money market instruments vary, with some regions using a 360-day reference period and others using 365 days.
The quoted price, which traders refer to as the clean price, is not the same as the cash price paid by the purchaser of the bond, which is referred to by traders as the dirty price.
As shown in Business Snapshot 6.1, sometimes the 30>360 day count convention has surprising consequences.
The actual> 360 day count is used for money market instruments in the United States.
This indicates that the reference period is 360 days. The interest earned during part of a year is calculated by dividing the actual number of elapsed days by 360 and multiplying by the rate. The interest earned in 90 days is therefore exactly oneĀfourth of the quoted rate, and the interest earned in a whole year of 365 days is 365> 360 times the quoted rate.
Conventions vary from country to country and from instrument to instrument. For
example, money market instruments are quoted on an actual>365 basis in Australia, Canada, and New Zealand. LIBOR is quoted on an actual>360 for all currencies except sterling, for which it is quoted on an actual>365 basis. EuroĀdenominated and sterling bonds are usually quoted on an actual/actual basis.Business Snapshot 6.1 Day Counts Can Be Deceptive
Between February 28, 2018, and March 1, 2018, you have a choice between owning a
U.S. government bond and a U.S. corporate bond. They pay the same coupon and have the same quoted price. Assuming no risk of default, which would you prefer?
It sounds as though you should be indifferent, but in fact you should have a
marked preference for the corporate bond. Under the 30>360 day count convention used for corporate bonds, there are 3 days between February 28, 2018, and March 1, 2018. Under the actual/actual (in period) day count convention used for government bonds, there is only 1 day. You would earn approximately three times as much
interest by holding the corporate bond!
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154 CHAPTER 6
Price Quotations of U.S. Treasury Bills
The prices of money market instruments are sometimes quoted using a discount rate.
This is the interest earned as a percentage of the final face value rather than as a
percentage of the initial price paid for the instrument. An example is Treasury bills in the United States. If the price of a 91Āday Treasury bill is quoted as 8, this means that the rate of interest earned is 8% of the face value per 360 days. Suppose that the face value is $100. Interest of
$2.02221= $100*0.08*91>3602 is earned over the 91 Āday
life. This corresponds to a true rate of interest of 2.0222>1100-2.02222=2.064% for
the 91 Āday period. In general, the relationship between the cash price per $100 of face
value and the quoted price of a Treasury bill in the United States is
P=360
n1100-Y2
where P is the quoted price, Y is the cash price, and n is the remaining life of the
Treasury bill measured in calendar days. For example, when the cash price of a 90Āday Treasury bill is 99, the quoted price is 4.
Price Quotations of U.S. Treasury Bonds
Treasury bond prices in the United States are quoted in dollars and thirty Āseconds of a
dollar. The quoted price is for a bond with a face value of $100. Thus, a quote of
120Ā05 or 1205
32 indicates that the quoted price for a bond with a face value of $100,000
is $120,156.25.
The quoted price, which traders refer to as the clean price, is not the same as the
cash price paid by the purchaser of the bond, which is referred to by traders as the dirty price. In general,
Cash price=Quoted price+Accrued interest since last coupon date
Treasury Bond Pricing and Futures
- U.S. Treasury bond prices are uniquely quoted in dollars and thirty-seconds of a dollar, requiring specific fractional conversions to determine actual value.
- Traders distinguish between the 'clean price,' which is the quoted market price, and the 'dirty price,' which includes accrued interest since the last coupon date.
- The cash price paid by a purchaser is calculated by adding the share of the upcoming coupon payment that has accrued to the bondholder based on an actual/actual day count.
- Treasury bond and note futures contracts vary by maturity requirements, with some allowing delivery of any bond within a specific age range, such as 15 to 25 years.
- Futures quotes for shorter-term instruments like 2-year and 5-year Treasury notes are quoted with extreme precision, down to a quarter of a thirty-second.
The quoted price, which traders refer to as the clean price, is not the same as the cash price paid by the purchaser of the bond, which is referred to by traders as the dirty price.
Treasury bond prices in the United States are quoted in dollars and thirty Āseconds of a
dollar. The quoted price is for a bond with a face value of $100. Thus, a quote of
120Ā05 or 1205
32 indicates that the quoted price for a bond with a face value of $100,000
is $120,156.25.
The quoted price, which traders refer to as the clean price, is not the same as the
cash price paid by the purchaser of the bond, which is referred to by traders as the dirty price. In general,
Cash price=Quoted price+Accrued interest since last coupon date
To illustrate this formula, suppose that it is March 5, 2018, and the bond under
consideration is an 11% coupon bond maturing on July 10, 2038, with a quoted price of 155Ā16 or $155.50. Because coupons are paid semiannually on government bonds (and the final coupon is at maturity), the most recent coupon date is January 10, 2018, and the next coupon date is July 10, 2018. The (actual) number of days between January 10, 2018, and March 5, 2018, is 54, whereas the (actual) number of days between January 10, 2018, and July 10, 2018, is 181. On a bond with $100 face value, the coupon payment is $5.50 on January 10 and July 10. The accrued interest on March 5, 2018, is the share of the
July 10 coupon accruing to the bondholder on March 5, 2018. Because actual/actual in period is used for Treasury bonds in the United States, this is
54
181*$5.50=$1.64
The cash price per $100 face value for the bond is therefore
$155.50+$1.64=$157.14
Thus, the cash price of a $100,000 bond is $157,140.
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Interest Rate Futures 155
Table 6.1 shows interest rate futures quotes on May 21, 2020. Trading in the Ultra T Ā
bond futures contract started in 2010. Any government bond with a maturity over
25 years can be delivered by the party with the short position under the terms of this
contract. In the T Ābond futures contract, any government bond that has a maturity
between 15 and 25 years can be delivered.
A Treasury note is a Treasury bond with maturity between one and ten years. As can
be seen from the volume of trading, the 10Āyear, 5Āyear, and 2Āyear Treasury note futures contracts with short maturities are very popular. In the 10Āyear Treasury note futures contract, any note with a maturity between
61
2 and 10 years can be delivered. In
the 5Āyear and 2Āyear Treasury note futures contracts, the note delivered has a remaining life of about 5 years and 2 years, respectively, and the original life must be less than 5.25 years.
The 30Āday Fed Funds Rate contract has a settlement price equal to 100 minus the
arithmetic average of the federal funds rate during the contract month. The Eurodollar and SOFR contracts will be discussed in Section 6.3.
Quotes
Ultra T Ābond futures and Treasury bond futures contracts are quoted in dollars and
thirty Āseconds of a dollar per $100 face value. This is similar to the way the bonds are
quoted in the spot market. In Table 6.1, the settlement price of the June 2020 Treasury bond futures contract is specified as 179Ā20. This means
17920
32, or 179.625. The
settlement price of the 10Āyear Treasury note futures contract is quoted to the nearest half of a thirty Āsecond. Thus the settlement price of 139Ā025 for the June 2020 contract
should be interpreted as
1392.5
32, or 139.078125. The 5Āyear and 2Āyear Treasury note
contracts are quoted even more precisely, to the nearest quarter of a thirty Āsecond. Thus
the opening price of 125Ā132 for the September 2020 5Āyear Treasury note contract should be interpreted as
12513.25
32, or 125.4140625. Similarly, the settlement price of 110Ā
127 for September 2020 2Āyear Treasury note contract should be interpreted as 11012.75
32,
or 110.3984375.
Conversion Factors
Treasury Futures and Conversion Factors
- Treasury note futures are quoted using a specialized fractional system based on thirty-seconds, with some contracts reaching precision levels of a quarter of a thirty-second.
- The conversion factor is a critical parameter that adjusts the price received by the short position holder based on the specific bond delivered.
- The final cash settlement for a bond delivery is calculated by multiplying the settlement price by the conversion factor and adding any accrued interest.
- Market data from the CME Group illustrates the high trading volumes and diverse maturity dates for Treasury bonds, notes, and interest rate benchmarks like SOFR.
The 5-year and 2-year Treasury note contracts are quoted even more precisely, to the nearest quarter of a thirty-second.
settlement price of the 10Āyear Treasury note futures contract is quoted to the nearest half of a thirty Āsecond. Thus the settlement price of 139Ā025 for the June 2020 contract
should be interpreted as
1392.5
32, or 139.078125. The 5Āyear and 2Āyear Treasury note
contracts are quoted even more precisely, to the nearest quarter of a thirty Āsecond. Thus
the opening price of 125Ā132 for the September 2020 5Āyear Treasury note contract should be interpreted as
12513.25
32, or 125.4140625. Similarly, the settlement price of 110Ā
127 for September 2020 2Āyear Treasury note contract should be interpreted as 11012.75
32,
or 110.3984375.
Conversion Factors
When a particular bond is delivered in a CME group bond futures contract, a parameter known as its conversion factor defines the price received for the bond by the party with the short position. The applicable quoted price for the bond delivered is the product of the conversion factor and the most recent settlement price for the futures contract. Taking accrued interest into account (see Section 6.1), the cash received for each $100 face value of the bond delivered is
1Most recent settlement price*Conversion factor2+Accrued interest
Each contract is for the delivery of $100,000 face value of bonds. Suppose that the most recent settlement price is 120Ā00, the conversion factor for the bond delivered is 1.3800, and the accrued interest on this bond at the time of delivery is $3 per $100 face value.6.2 TREASURY BOND FUTURES
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156 CHAPTER 6
Open High Low Prior
settlementLast
tradeChange Volume
Ultra T-Bond, $100,000
June 2020 220Ā06 221Ā31 220Ā06 220Ā17 220Ā28 +0Ā11 238,736
Sept. 2020 218Ā25 220Ā12 218Ā25 218Ā31 219Ā14 +0Ā15 137,715
Treasury Bond, $100,000June 2020 179Ā15 180Ā08 179Ā13 179Ā20 179Ā27
+0Ā07 395,908
Sept. 2020 177Ā29 178Ā22 177Ā29 178Ā03 178Ā08 +0Ā05 211,246
10-Year Treasury Notes, $100,000June 2020 139Ā005 139Ā070 138Ā315 139Ā025 139Ā020
-0Ā005 1,364,022
Sept. 2020 138Ā230 138Ā300 138Ā230 138Ā250 138Ā250 0Ā000 489,015
5-Year Treasury Notes, $100,000
June 2020 125Ā190 125Ā217 125Ā180 125Ā205 125Ā197 -0Ā007 1,149,055
Sept. 2020 125Ā132 125Ā162 125Ā125 125Ā147 125Ā142 -0Ā005 709,155
2-Year Treasury Notes, $200,000
June 2020 110Ā082 110Ā086 110Ā080 110Ā085 110Ā082 -0Ā002 547,322
Sept. 2020 110Ā123 110Ā130 110Ā122 110Ā127 110Ā127 0Ā000 351,107
30-Day Fed Funds Rate, $5,000,000
May 2020 99.9475 99.950 99.9525 99.9475 99.9475 0.000 2,703
June 2020 99.950 99.950 99.945 99.945 99.950 +0.005 15,306
July 2020 99.950 99.950 99.945 99.950 99.950 0.000 22,982
Eurodollar, $1,000,000
Sept. 2020 99.730 99.730 99.710 99.725 99.720 -0.005 100,166
Dec. 2020 99.710 99.720 99.700 99.715 99.710 -0.005 76,127
Dec. 2021 99.775 99.785 99.770 99.780 99.775 -0.005 77,528
Dec. 2022 99.665 99.680 99.655 99.670 99.665 -0.005 56,826
Dec. 2023 99.500 99.520 99.495 99.510 99.505 -0.005 33,203
Dec. 2024 99.320 99.345 99.310 99.320 99.320 0.000 27,584
1-Month SOFR, $5,000,000May 2020 99.9525 99.9575 99.9525 99.9525 99.9575
+0.005 5,497
June 2020 99.945 99.945 99.940 99.945 99.945 0.000 2,363
July 2020 99.945 99.945 99.940 99.945 99.940 -0.005 1,010
3-Month SOFR, $1,000,000
June 2020 99.940 99.945 99.940 99.940 99.9425 +0.0025 677
Dec. 2020 99.955 99.965 99.955 99.960 99.965 +0.005 942
June 2021 99.990 99.995 99.990 99.995 99.995 0.000 7,447
Dec. 2021 99.990 99.990 99.985 99.990 99.990 0.000 9,666Table 6.1 Futures quotes for a selection of CME Group contracts on interest
rates on May 21, 2020.
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Interest Rate Futures 157
The cash received by the party with the short position (and paid by the party with the
long position) is then
11.3800*120.002+3.00=$168.60
Bond Futures and Conversion Factors
- The text details how conversion factors are used to standardize the delivery of various bonds against a single interest rate futures contract.
- Conversion factors are calculated by assuming a universal 6% interest rate with semiannual compounding for all deliverable bonds.
- Specific rounding rules for maturity and coupon dates are applied to simplify the complex calculations required for exchange-wide tables.
- The 'cheapest-to-deliver' bond is identified by the short position holder as the bond that minimizes the difference between the purchase price and the adjusted settlement price.
- The financial mechanics of delivery involve adjusting the settlement price by the conversion factor and adding accrued interest to determine the final cash payment.
The party with the short position can choose which of the available bonds is ācheapestā to deliver.
June 2020 99.940 99.945 99.940 99.940 99.9425 +0.0025 677
Dec. 2020 99.955 99.965 99.955 99.960 99.965 +0.005 942
June 2021 99.990 99.995 99.990 99.995 99.995 0.000 7,447
Dec. 2021 99.990 99.990 99.985 99.990 99.990 0.000 9,666Table 6.1 Futures quotes for a selection of CME Group contracts on interest
rates on May 21, 2020.
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Interest Rate Futures 157
The cash received by the party with the short position (and paid by the party with the
long position) is then
11.3800*120.002+3.00=$168.60
per $100 face value. A party with the short position in one contract would deliver bonds with a face value of $100,000 and receive $168,600.
The conversion factor for a bond is set equal to the quoted price the bond would have
per dollar of principal on the first day of the delivery month on the assumption that the interest rate for all maturities equals 6% per annum (with semiannual compounding). In the case of the first three contracts in Table 6.1, the bond maturity and the times to the coupon payment dates are rounded down to the nearest 3 months for the purposes of the calculation. The practice enables the exchange to produce comprehensive tables. If, after rounding, the bond lasts for an exact number of 6Āmonth periods, the first coupon is assumed to be paid in 6 months. If, after rounding, the bond does not last for an exact number of 6Āmonth periods (i.e., there are an extra 3 months), the first coupon is
assumed to be paid after 3 months and accrued interest is subtracted.
As a first example of these rules, consider a 10% coupon bond with 20 years and
2 months to maturity that is deliverable in the T Ābond futures contract. For the purposes
of calculating the conversion factor, the bond is assumed to have exactly 20 years to maturity. The first coupon payment is assumed to be made after 6 months. Coupon payments are then assumed to be made at 6Āmonth intervals until the end of the 20 years when the principal payment is made. Assume that the face value is $100. When the
discount rate is 6% per annum with semiannual compounding (or 3% per 6 months), the value of the bond is
a40
i=15
1.03i+100
1.0340=$146.23
Dividing by the face value gives a conversion factor of 1.4623.
As a second example of the rules, consider an 8% coupon bond with 18 years and
4 months to maturity. For the purposes of calculating the conversion factor, the bond is assumed to have exactly 18 years and 3 months to maturity. Discounting all the payments back to a point in time 3 months from today at 6% per annum (compounded semiĀannually) gives a value of
4+a36
i=14
1.03i+100
1.0336=$125.8323
The interest rate for a 3Āmonth period is 21.03-1, or 1.4889%. Hence, discounting
back to the present gives the bondās value as 125.8323>1.014889=$123.99. Subtracting
the accrued interest of 2.0 gives $121.99. The conversion factor is therefore 1.2199.
In the case of the 2Āyear and 5Āyear note futures contract, a similar calculation is used
to determine the conversion factor except that the time to maturity is rounded to the nearest month.
Cheapest-to-Deliver Bond
At any given time during the delivery month, there are many bonds that can be delivered in bond futures contracts. These vary widely as far as coupon and maturity are
concerned. The party with the short position can choose which of the available bonds
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158 CHAPTER 6
is ācheapestā to deliver. Because the party with the short position receives
1Most recent settlement price*Conversion factor2+Accrued interest
and the cost of purchasing a bond is
Quoted bond price+Accrued interest
the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond is the one for which
Quoted bond price-1Most recent settlement price*Conversion factor2
is least. Once the party with the short position has decided to deliver, it can determine
the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond by examining each of the deliverable bonds in turn.
Example 6.1
Cheapest-to-Deliver Bond Selection
- The party with a short position in a Treasury bond futures contract seeks to deliver the bond that minimizes the difference between the quoted price and the adjusted settlement price.
- Specific market conditions, such as bond yields being above or below 6%, influence whether low-coupon long-maturity or high-coupon short-maturity bonds are favored for delivery.
- The shape of the yield curve further dictates delivery preferences, with upward-sloping curves favoring long-maturity bonds and downward-sloping curves favoring short-maturity ones.
- Calculating an exact theoretical futures price is complex because it must account for the short party's options regarding delivery timing and bond selection, including the 'wild card play.'
- If the delivery date and specific bond are known, the futures price can be estimated by adjusting the spot price for the present value of coupons and the risk-free interest rate.
When bond yields are in excess of 6%, the conversion factor system tends to favor the delivery of low-coupon long-maturity bonds.
is ācheapestā to deliver. Because the party with the short position receives
1Most recent settlement price*Conversion factor2+Accrued interest
and the cost of purchasing a bond is
Quoted bond price+Accrued interest
the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond is the one for which
Quoted bond price-1Most recent settlement price*Conversion factor2
is least. Once the party with the short position has decided to deliver, it can determine
the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond by examining each of the deliverable bonds in turn.
Example 6.1
The party with the short position has decided to deliver and is trying to choose
between the three bonds in the table below. Assume the most recent settlement price is 93Ā08, or 93.25.
Bond Quoted bond
price ($)Conversion
factor
1 99.50 1.0382
2 143.50 1.5188
3 119.75 1.2615
The cost of delivering each of the bonds is as follows:
Bond 1: 99.50-193.25*1.03822=$2.69
Bond 2: 143.50-193.25*1.51882=$1.87
Bond 3: 119.75-193.25*1.26152=$2.12
The cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond is Bond 2.
A number of factors determine the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond. When bond yields are in excess of 6%, the conversion factor system tends to favor the delivery of low Ācoupon
longĀmaturity bonds. When yields are less than 6%, the system tends to favor the
delivery of highĀcoupon shortĀmaturity bonds. Also, when the yield curve is upwardĀ sloping, there is a tendency for bonds with a long time to maturity to be favored,
whereas when it is downwardĀsloping, there is a tendency for bonds with a short time to maturity to be delivered.
In addition to the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond option, the party with a short position
has an option known as the wild card play. This is described in Business Snapshot 6.2.
Determining the Futures Price
An exact theoretical futures price for the Treasury bond contract is difficult to
determine because the short partyās options concerned with the timing of delivery
and choice of the bond that is delivered cannot easily be valued. However, if we assume that both the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond and the delivery date are known, the Treasury
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Interest Rate Futures 159
bond futures contract is a futures contract on a traded security (the bond) that provides
the holder with known income.1 Equation (5.2) then shows that the futures price, F0, is
related to the spot price, S0, by
F0=1S0-I2erT (6.1)
where I is the present value of the coupons during the life of the futures contract, T is
the time until the futures contract matures, and r is the riskĀfree interest rate applicable to a time period of length T.
Example 6.2
Pricing Treasury Bond Futures
- The price of a bond futures contract is determined by relating the spot price to the present value of coupon income expected during the contract's life.
- Calculations for bond futures must account for accrued interest to convert between quoted prices and the actual cash prices paid by investors.
- The 'wild card play' is a strategic option for short position holders to profit from price declines occurring after the official settlement time.
- Conversion factors are used to standardize different bonds, allowing various securities to be delivered against a single futures contract.
- Because the short position holds several delivery options, the market price of the futures contract is typically lower than it would be otherwise.
If bond prices decline after 2:00 p.m. on the first day of the delivery month, the party with the short position can issue a notice of intention to deliver at, say, 3:45 p.m. and proceed to buy bonds in the spot market for delivery at a price calculated from the 2:00 p.m. futures price.
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Interest Rate Futures 159
bond futures contract is a futures contract on a traded security (the bond) that provides
the holder with known income.1 Equation (5.2) then shows that the futures price, F0, is
related to the spot price, S0, by
F0=1S0-I2erT (6.1)
where I is the present value of the coupons during the life of the futures contract, T is
the time until the futures contract matures, and r is the riskĀfree interest rate applicable to a time period of length T.
Example 6.2
Suppose that, in a Treasury bond futures contract, it is known that the cheapestĀ
toĀdeliver bond will be a 12% coupon bond with a conversion factor of 1.6000. Suppose also that it is known that delivery will take place in 270 days. Coupons are payable semiannually on the bond. As illustrated in Figure 6.1, the last coupon date was 60 days ago, the next coupon date is in 122 days, and the coupon date thereafter is in 305 days. The term structure is flat, and the rate of interest (with continuous compounding) is 10% per annum. Assume that the current quoted Business Snapshot 6.2 The Wild Card Play
The settlement price in the CME Groupās Treasury bond futures contract is the price at 2:00 p.m. Chicago time. However, Treasury bonds continue trading in
the spot market beyond this time and a trader with a short position can issue to
the clearing house a notice of intention to deliver later in the day. If the notice is issued, the invoice price is calculated on the basis of the settlement price that
day, that is, the price at 2:00 p.m.
This practice gives rise to an option known as the wild card play. If bond
prices decline after 2:00 p.m. on the first day of the delivery month, the party with the short position can issue a notice of intention to deliver at, say, 3:45
p.m. and proceed to buy bonds in the spot market for delivery at a price
calculated from the 2:00 p.m. futures price. If the bond price does not decline, the party with the short position keeps the position open and waits until the
next day when the same strategy can be used.
As with the other options open to the party with the short position, the wild
card play is not free. Its value is reflected in the futures price, which is lower
than it would be without the option.
1 In practice, for the purposes of estimating the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond, analysts usually assume that zero
rates at the maturity of the futures contract will equal todayās forward rates.Figure 6.1 Time chart for Example 6.2.
60
days122
days148
days35
daysCurrent
timeCoupon
paymentCoupon
paymentMaturity
of
futures
contractCoupon
payment
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160 CHAPTER 6
bond price is $115. The cash price of the bond is obtained by adding to this
quoted price the proportion of the next coupon payment that accrues to the holder. The cash price is therefore
115+60
60+122*6=116.978
A coupon of $6 will be received after 122 days ( = 0.3342 years). The present value
of this is
6e-0.1*0.3342=5.803
The futures contract lasts for 270 days ( = 0.7397 years). The cash futures price, if
the contract were written on the 12% bond, would therefore be
1116.978-5.8032e0.1*0.7397=119.711
At delivery, there are 148 days of accrued interest. The quoted futures price, if the contract were written on the 12% bond, is calculated by subtracting the accrued interest
119.711-6*148
148+35=114.859
From the definition of the conversion factor, 1.6000 standard bonds are considered equivalent to each 12% bond. The quoted futures price should therefore be
114.859
1.6000=71.79
6.3 EURODOLLAR AND SOFR FUTURES
Eurodollar and SOFR Futures
- The text details the transition from Eurodollar futures, based on the three-month LIBOR, to SOFR-based contracts as LIBOR is phased out.
- Eurodollar futures are settled based on a price of 100 minus the interest rate, meaning long positions profit when interest rates fall.
- A single basis point move in the futures quote is mathematically equivalent to a $25 gain or loss per contract, reflecting interest on a $1 million principal.
- If LIBOR estimates cease to be provided, the CME plans to settle remaining contracts using SOFR with specific spread adjustments.
- The conversion factor method is used to normalize different bond types into standard equivalents for futures pricing calculations.
This is a little surprising given that LIBOR is being phased out at the end of 2021.
the contract were written on the 12% bond, would therefore be
1116.978-5.8032e0.1*0.7397=119.711
At delivery, there are 148 days of accrued interest. The quoted futures price, if the contract were written on the 12% bond, is calculated by subtracting the accrued interest
119.711-6*148
148+35=114.859
From the definition of the conversion factor, 1.6000 standard bonds are considered equivalent to each 12% bond. The quoted futures price should therefore be
114.859
1.6000=71.79
6.3 EURODOLLAR AND SOFR FUTURES
A very popular interest rate futures contract in the United States has historically been the threeĀmonth Eurodollar futures contract traded by the CME group. The underlying interest rate is threeĀmonth (90Āday) U.S. dollar LIBOR and the maturities offered by the CME for this contract extend ten years into the future. Table 6.1 indicates that the volume of trading in Eurodollar futures was still quite high in May 2020. This is a little surprising given that LIBOR is being phased out at the end of 2021 (see Section 4.2). The expectation is that Eurodollar futures will over time be replaced by SOFR futures and this is slowly happening. The volume of trading and open interest for Eurodollar futures has been declining while that for SOFR futures has been increasing. In this section, we explain how both contracts work.
Eurodollar Futures
Eurodollar futures trade until two days before the third Wednesday of the delivery month. At that point, there is a final settlement equal to
100-R, where R is the threeĀ
month U.S. dollar LIBOR fixing on that day expressed with a quarterly compounding and an actual>360 day count convention. Thus, if threeĀmonth LIBOR proved to be 0.75% two days before the third Wednesday of the delivery month, the final settlement price would be 99.250. Once a final settlement has taken place all contracts are
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Interest Rate Futures 161
declared closed. Table 6.1 indicates that there is trading in contracts that mature well
after 2021. As explained in Section 4.2, it may well be that banks will stop providing
the estimates necessary to determine LIBOR at the end of 2021. If that happens, the
CME has indicated that it will base the final settlement on SOFR with appropriate adjustments for the spread between the two rates.
The contract is designed so that a oneĀbasisĀpoint
1= 0.012 move in the futures quote
corresponds to a gain or loss of $25 per contract. When a Eurodollar futures quote increases by one basis point, a trader who is long one contract gains $25 and a trader who is short one contract loses $25. Similarly, when the quote decreases by one basis point a trader who is long one contract loses $25 and a trader who is short one contract gains $25. Suppose, for example, the settlement price for the September 2020 contract changes from 99.725 to 99.685 between May 21 and May 22, 2020. Traders with long positions lose
4*25=$100 per contract; traders with short positions gain $100 per
contract. A oneĀbasisĀpoint change in the futures quote corresponds to a 0.01% change in the underlying interest rate. This in turn leads to a
1,000,000*0.0001*0.25=25
or $25 change in the interest that will be earned on $1 million in three months. The $25 per basis point rule is therefore consistent with the underlying interest rate applying to $1 million of principal.
The futures quote is 100 minus the futures interest rate. A trader who is long gains
when interest rates fall and one who is short gains when interest rates rise. Table 6.2 shows a possible set of outcomes for the September 2020 contract in Table 6.1 for a trader who takes a long position on May 21, 2020, at the last trade price of 99.720.
The contract in Table 6.2 could be used as a hedge if LIBOR Ābased payments were
due to be received on a principal of $1 million for the threeĀmonth period starting on September 14, 2020. The contract locks in a LIBOR rate of
100-99.720, or 0.28% per
Interest Rate Futures Mechanics
- The Eurodollar futures contract uses a $25 per basis point rule to reflect interest changes on a $1 million principal over three months.
- Hedging with futures allows traders to lock in specific interest rates, though the hedge is imperfect due to daily settlement and timing differences.
- One-month SOFR futures are designed to mirror federal funds rate futures, settling based on the arithmetic average of daily rates.
- Three-month SOFR futures settle by compounding one-day rates over a three-month period, with the contract size typically hedging a $5 million position.
The hedge works well, but it should be noted that it is not perfect.
or $25 change in the interest that will be earned on $1 million in three months. The $25 per basis point rule is therefore consistent with the underlying interest rate applying to $1 million of principal.
The futures quote is 100 minus the futures interest rate. A trader who is long gains
when interest rates fall and one who is short gains when interest rates rise. Table 6.2 shows a possible set of outcomes for the September 2020 contract in Table 6.1 for a trader who takes a long position on May 21, 2020, at the last trade price of 99.720.
The contract in Table 6.2 could be used as a hedge if LIBOR Ābased payments were
due to be received on a principal of $1 million for the threeĀmonth period starting on September 14, 2020. The contract locks in a LIBOR rate of
100-99.720, or 0.28% per
year. The LIBOR rate on September 14, 2020, in Table 6.2 proves to be 100-99.810,
or 0.19% per year. The interest received will be 0.25*0.0019*$1,000,000=$475.
When the $225 gain on the contract is taken into account, the amount received is $700, which corresponds to a LIBOR rate of 0.28%
10.25*0.0028*$1,000,000=$7002.
The hedge works well, but it should be noted that it is not perfect. One reason is that
Date Trade
priceSettlement
futures priceChange Gain per
long contract
May 21, 2020 99.720
May 21, 2020 99.715 -0.005 -12.50
May 22, 2020 99.665 -0.050 -125.00
f f f f
Sept. 14, 2020 99.810 +0.010 +25.00
Total +0.090 +225.00Table 6.2 Possible sequence of prices for September 2020 Eurodollar
futures contract.
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162 CHAPTER 6
the futures contract is settled daily rather than all at the end. The other is that
settlement is on September 14, 2020, while interest is paid three months later.2
SOFR Futures
Table 6.1 shows futures quotes for oneĀmonth and threeĀmonth SOFR futures. The
oneĀmonth SOFR futures contract is designed to be as similar as possible to the federal
funds rate futures contract. The settlement at the end of a contract month equals 100 minus the arithmetic average of SOFR oneĀday rates during the month (with rates on a weekend or a holiday being assumed to be the same as the rate on the most recent business day). It can be seen that the May 2020 contract still traded on May 21, 2020, even though the rate on about two thirds of the days in the month had already been observed. The settlement futures rate implied by the May, June, and July futures
contracts are 0.0475%, 0.055%, and 0.55%, respectively. The rates implied by the
corresponding federal funds futures contracts are similar. (In theory, they should be slightly higher because the federal funds rate is an unsecured rate while SOFR is secured, but in practice the difference is so small that it is not noticeable in the quotes.)
A oneĀmonth SOFR contract is designed to hedge a $5,000,000 position. In this
respect, it is similar to the federal funds rate contract. When the rate implied by the contract changes by one basis point, the gain or loss per contract is $41.67. (This is
consistent with the $5,000,000 size because
$5,000,0000*0.0001*1>12=$41.67.)
Contracts trade for the 13 months following the current month.
The threeĀmonth SOFR futures contract is designed to be as similar as possible to the
Eurodollar futures contract. The settlement is on the third Wednesday of a month. It equals 100 minus the result of compounding oneĀday SOFR rates over the previous three months in the way described in Section 4.2. The contract month specified in Table 6.1 is the beginning of the threeĀmonth period. The delivery month is three months later. The June 2020 contract was therefore settled on September 16, 2020. The settlement price equaled
100-R, where R is the rate obtained by compounding the oneĀday SOFR rates
observed on days between June 17, 2020, and September 15, 2020. (The rate observed on the final day of the period is not included in the compounding calculation.)
SOFR Futures Mechanics
- Three-month SOFR futures are designed to mirror Eurodollar futures, with settlement values based on 100 minus the compounded one-day SOFR rates.
- A key structural difference is that SOFR futures settle at the end of the interest period after all daily rates are observed, unlike Eurodollar futures which settle at the beginning.
- The CME offers contracts extending up to 10 years into the future, allowing for long-term hedging and speculation on interest rate movements.
- Investors can lock in borrowing rates by shorting contracts, where a one basis point change in the quote results in a $25 gain or loss per contract.
- The text illustrates how futures can hedge against rising rates or even accommodate the possibility of negative interest rates in a volatile economic environment.
The main difference is that the Eurodollar futures contract is settled at the beginning of the three-month period to which the rate applies whereas the three-moth SOFR futures contract is settled at the end of the three-month period.
Contracts trade for the 13 months following the current month.
The threeĀmonth SOFR futures contract is designed to be as similar as possible to the
Eurodollar futures contract. The settlement is on the third Wednesday of a month. It equals 100 minus the result of compounding oneĀday SOFR rates over the previous three months in the way described in Section 4.2. The contract month specified in Table 6.1 is the beginning of the threeĀmonth period. The delivery month is three months later. The June 2020 contract was therefore settled on September 16, 2020. The settlement price equaled
100-R, where R is the rate obtained by compounding the oneĀday SOFR rates
observed on days between June 17, 2020, and September 15, 2020. (The rate observed on the final day of the period is not included in the compounding calculation.)
ThreeĀmonth SOFR futures trade for the contract months of March, June, SeptemĀ
ber, and December. Perhaps optimistically, the CME offers a total of 39 contract
months so that traders can hedge or speculate on SOFR rates as far in the future as
10 years. The contract is designed to hedge a $1 million position (similarly to the
Eurodollar futures contract). When the quote changes by one basis point, the gain or loss per contract is $25. ThreeĀmonth SOFR futures and Eurodollar futures contracts are therefore structurally very similar. The main difference is that the Eurodollar futures contract is settled at the beginning of the threeĀmonth period to which the rate applies whereas the threeĀmoth SOFR futures contract is settled at the end of the threeĀmonth period (after all the underlying oneĀday rates have been observed).
Example 6.3
Suppose that on May 21, 2020, an investor has agreed to pay the threeĀmonth
SOFR rate plus 200 basis points on $100 million of borrowings for three months
2 One way of approximately allowing for the second point is to discount the principal underlying one
contract by the futures rate for three months. In the very low interest rate environment on May 21, 2020, this
would make very little difference. The principal that is hedged by one contract would be assumed to be
$1,000,000>11+0.25*0.00282=$999,300.
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Interest Rate Futures 163
beginning on December 16, 2021. From Table 6.1, the December 2021 threeĀ
month SOFR futures is 99.990. The futures markets are therefore indicating a SOFR rate of only 0.01% (one basis point) for the period of the borrowings. The investor thinks that rates may increase and so would like to use futures to lock in a borrowing rate of 2.01%. The investor can do this by shorting 100 December contracts. If rates increase, the futures quote will decline and there will be a gain to compensate for the extra interest paid; if rates decrease, the quote will increase and there will be a loss on the futures, but this will be compensated for by less interest being paid.
For example, suppose that the final settlement proves to be 99.200, which
corresponds to a rate of 0.8% per annum. The rate paid on the loan would then be 2.8% per annum and the total interest would be
0.25*$100,000,000*0.028
= $700,000. However, the futures contract has declined by 79 basis points (from
99.990 to 99.200). The gain is $25 per basis point or 100*$25*79=$197,500
on 100 contracts. When this is taken into account, the amount paid is
$700,000-$197,000=$502,500, which corresponds to a rate of 2.01% (that is,
$502,500=0.25*$100,000,000*0.0201).
On May 21, 2020, negative SOFR rates were considered a possibility. (The
Federal Reserve Board was taking steps to stimulate the economy by reducing interest rates following the CovidĀ19 crisis and the interest rates in some other countries were negative.) Suppose that the final settlement is 100.400. The SOFR rate applicable to the borrowings is then
-0.4% and the investor will pay
2%-0.4%=1.6%. The interest payment will be 0.25*$100,000,000*0.016
Futures and Convexity Adjustments
- The text demonstrates how SOFR futures contracts can effectively hedge interest rate risk even in scenarios where rates become negative.
- A convexity adjustment is necessary to distinguish between futures and forward rates when contracts exceed a two-year duration.
- Daily settlement favors futures traders because gains can be reinvested at higher rates while losses are financed at lower rates.
- The timing of settlement in Eurodollar futures versus Forward Rate Agreements (FRAs) further contributes to the positive value of the convexity adjustment.
- Adjusted futures rates are essential tools for estimating forward interest rates and constructing accurate zero curves for financial modeling.
When rates increase, Trader A makes an immediate gain and, because rates have just increased, the gain will tend to be invested at a relatively high interest rate.
$700,000-$197,000=$502,500, which corresponds to a rate of 2.01% (that is,
$502,500=0.25*$100,000,000*0.0201).
On May 21, 2020, negative SOFR rates were considered a possibility. (The
Federal Reserve Board was taking steps to stimulate the economy by reducing interest rates following the CovidĀ19 crisis and the interest rates in some other countries were negative.) Suppose that the final settlement is 100.400. The SOFR rate applicable to the borrowings is then
-0.4% and the investor will pay
2%-0.4%=1.6%. The interest payment will be 0.25*$100,000,000*0.016
= $400,000. However, the futures contract has increased by 41 basis points, leadĀ
ing to a loss of 100*$25*41=$102,250 and bringing the total payment to
$502,250, as before.
Convexity Adjustments
In Chapter 5 we argued that for most contracts it is not necessary to distinguish between futures and forward prices because the two are very similar. When the futures contracts we have just considered last longer than about two years, it does become important to distinguish between futures and forward. What is termed a convexity adjustment is made so that
Forward Rate=Futures Rate-c
where c is the convexity adjustment.
One reason for the convexity adjustment is daily settlement. Consider two traders.
Trader A has entered into a futures contract where there will be a gain if rates increase and a loss if rates decrease. (Trader A could be the investor in Example 6.3.) Trader B has entered into a similar forward contract. The contracts are the same except that Trader A ās contract is settled daily, while Trader Bās contract is settled at the end of its life. The daily settlement will tend to favor Trader A. When rates increase, Trader A makes an immediate gain and, because rates have just increased, the gain will tend to be invested at a relatively high interest rate. When rates decrease, Trader A takes an
immediate loss but because rates have just decreased this will tend to be financed at
a relatively low rate. To put this another way, Trader A will tend to have more funds in his or her margin account when rates are high than when rates are low. Trader B, who
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164 CHAPTER 6
has entered into an FRA does not benefit from day ĀtoĀday changes in rates in this way.
To compensate for this, Trader Bās forward quote should be more attractive than
Trader A ās futures quote. In this case, a more attractive quote corresponds to a lower forward rate, so that we should expect to see a positive value for the convexity
adjustment, c.
In the case of Eurodollar futures contracts, there is another consideration. The futures
contracts are settled at the beginning of the time period to which the rate applies. In an FRA, as explained in Section 4.9, settlement reflects the fact the interest is normally paid at the end of a period rather than the beginning.
3 Consider again Trader A and Trader B
who will gain if rates increase and lose if rates decrease. When rates prove to be high, the impact of delaying settlement on the value of Trader Bās gain is relatively high. When rates prove to be low, the impact of delaying settlement on Trader Bās loss is relatively low. As a result, the difference in the timing of the settlement favors Trader A and, like daily settlement, leads to forward rates being lower than futures rates.
The convexity adjustment, c , is therefore positive. It increases as the life of the
contract increases and the volatility of interest rates increase.
4
Calculating Zero Curves
Futures contracts (with the convexity adjustments we have just mentioned being applied as appropriate) can be used to provide estimates of forward interest rates. These can then be used to determine zero rates. From equation (4.5) the forward rate applicable to the period between times
T1 and T2 is
RF=R2T2-R1T1
T2-T1
where R1 and R2 are the zero rates for maturities T1 and T2, respectively. (All rates are
Calculating Zero Curves
- The convexity adjustment is a positive value that accounts for the timing differences in settlement between forward and futures contracts.
- Convexity adjustments increase in magnitude as the life of the contract and the volatility of interest rates increase.
- Futures contracts can be used to estimate forward interest rates, which are then utilized to determine zero rates through a process called bootstrapping.
- The bootstrapping method allows for the extension of LIBOR or SOFR zero curves by iteratively applying forward rates to known zero rates.
- Calculating short-maturity SOFR rates requires specific compounding of observed overnight rates to solve for implied zero rates.
The convexity adjustment, c , is therefore positive. It increases as the life of the contract increases and the volatility of interest rates increase.
who will gain if rates increase and lose if rates decrease. When rates prove to be high, the impact of delaying settlement on the value of Trader Bās gain is relatively high. When rates prove to be low, the impact of delaying settlement on Trader Bās loss is relatively low. As a result, the difference in the timing of the settlement favors Trader A and, like daily settlement, leads to forward rates being lower than futures rates.
The convexity adjustment, c , is therefore positive. It increases as the life of the
contract increases and the volatility of interest rates increase.
4
Calculating Zero Curves
Futures contracts (with the convexity adjustments we have just mentioned being applied as appropriate) can be used to provide estimates of forward interest rates. These can then be used to determine zero rates. From equation (4.5) the forward rate applicable to the period between times
T1 and T2 is
RF=R2T2-R1T1
T2-T1
where R1 and R2 are the zero rates for maturities T1 and T2, respectively. (All rates are
assumed be continuously compounded.) It follows from this that
R2=RF1T2-T12+R1T1
T2 (6.2)
This equation can be used to bootstrap LIBOR or SOFR zero curves.
Consider first LIBOR. Its zero curve is known for maturities up to one year
(providing banks continue to provide submissions estimating their borrowing rates).
Equation (6.2) can be used extend this zero curve, as we will now show.
Example 6.4
A 300Āday LIBOR zero rate has been calculated (using interpolation between the
6Āmonth and 12Āmonth rate) as 2.80% with continuous compounding. From
Eurodollar futures quotes, it has been calculated that (a) the forward rate for a 90Āday period beginning in 300 days is 3.30% with continuous compounding,
3 The settlement in a FRA is usually at the beginning of the time period, but is calculated as the present value
of what the settlement would be if it were made at the end of the period.
4 Determining c involves an assumption about the underlying interest rate model. See Technical Note 1 at
www Ā2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for the calculation of convexity adjustments for
Eurodollar futures and M. P . A. Henrard, Overnight Futures: Convexity Adjustment (February 2018),
available at SSRN: https://ssrn.com/abstract=3134346, for the calculation of the convexity adjustment for
SOFR futures.
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Interest Rate Futures 165
(b) the forward rate for a 90Āday period beginning in 391 days is 3.50% with
continuous compounding, and (c) the forward rate for the 90Āday period beginning in 489 days is 3.60% with continuous compounding. We can use equation (6.2) to obtain the 391 rate as
0.033*91+0.028*300
391=0.02916
or 2.916%. Similarly we can use the second forward rate to determine to 489Āday rate as
0.035*98+0.02916*391
489=0.03033
or 3.033%. The next forward rate would be used to extend the zero curve for a further three months, and so on. Note that even though the the rate underlying the Eurodollar futures contract is a 90Āday rate, it is assumed to apply to the 91 or 98 days between contract maturities to facilitate the bootstrapping.
Determining shortĀmaturity SOFR rates requires a little more work. We illustrate this with another example.
Example 6.5
It is October and the current threeĀmonth SOFR futures contract has two months
until the December delivery date. Suppose further that compounding the over Ā
night rates (already observed) for the first month of the contract gives a rate of 2% per year and that the futures quote gives a rate for the whole threeĀmonth period of 2.5% per year. If all rates are expressed with continuous compounding, the implied zero rate, R , for the next two months is given by solving
0.02*11>122+R*12>122=0.025*13>122
Duration-Based Hedging Strategies
- SOFR futures contracts can be used to derive implied zero rates for specific future time periods through continuous compounding calculations.
- The duration-based hedge ratio determines the number of futures contracts needed to protect a bond portfolio against parallel shifts in the yield curve.
- When using Treasury bond futures, the hedge's effectiveness depends on correctly identifying which specific bond will be the 'cheapest to deliver' at maturity.
- Hedging requires a directional strategy where long positions protect against falling rates and short positions protect against rising rates.
- Effective hedging involves matching the duration of the underlying futures asset as closely as possible to the duration of the portfolio being protected.
If, subsequently, the interest rate environment changes so that it looks as though a different bond will be cheapest to deliver, then the hedge has to be adjusted and as a result its performance may be worse than anticipated.
It is October and the current threeĀmonth SOFR futures contract has two months
until the December delivery date. Suppose further that compounding the over Ā
night rates (already observed) for the first month of the contract gives a rate of 2% per year and that the futures quote gives a rate for the whole threeĀmonth period of 2.5% per year. If all rates are expressed with continuous compounding, the implied zero rate, R , for the next two months is given by solving
0.02*11>122+R*12>122=0.025*13>122
It is 0.0275, or 2.75%. The forward rate calculated from the contract covering the December to March period can be used in conjunction with this estimate and equation (6.2) to obtain the 5Āmonth zero rate as in Example 6.4. The contract covering the March to June period can similarly determine the 8Āmonth zero rate, and so on.
6.4 DURATION-BASED HEDGING STRATEGIES USING FUTURES
We discussed duration in Section 4.10. Interest rate futures can be used to hedge the yield on a bond portfolio at a future time. Define:
VF : Contract price for one interest rate futures contract
DF : Duration of the asset underlying the futures contract at the maturity of the
futures contract
P : Forward value of the portfolio being hedged at the maturity of the hedge (in practice, this is usually assumed to be the same as the value of the portfolio today)
DP : Duration of the portfolio at the maturity of the hedge.
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166 CHAPTER 6
If we assume that the change in the forward yield, āy, is the same for all maturities, it is
approximately true that
āP=-PDPāy
It is also approximately true that
āVF=-VFDFāy
The number of contracts required to hedge against an uncertain āy, therefore, is
N*=PDP
VFDF (6.3)
This is the duration-based hedge ratio. It is sometimes also called the price sensitivity
hedge ratio.5
When the hedging instrument is a Treasury bond futures contract, the hedger must
base DF on an assumption that one particular bond will be delivered. This means that
the hedger must estimate which of the available bonds is likely to be cheapest to deliver at the time the hedge is put in place. If, subsequently, the interest rate environment changes so that it looks as though a different bond will be cheapest to deliver, then the hedge has to be adjusted and as a result its performance may be worse than anticipated.
When hedges are constructed using interest rate futures, it is important to bear in
mind that interest rates and futures prices move in opposite directions. When interest rates go up, an interest rate futures price goes down. When interest rates go down, the reverse happens, and the interest rate futures price goes up. Thus, a company in a
position to lose money if interest rates drop should hedge by taking a long futures
position. Similarly, a company in a position to lose money if interest rates rise should hedge by taking a short futures position.
The hedger tries to choose the futures contract so that the duration of the underlying
asset is as close as possible to the duration of the asset being hedged. Eurodollar futures tend to be used for exposures to shortĀterm interest rates, whereas ultra T Ābond,
Treasury bond, and Treasury note futures contracts are used for exposures to longer Ā
term rates.
Example 6.6
Hedging with Interest Rate Futures
- Hedging with Treasury bond futures requires identifying the 'cheapest-to-deliver' bond, which can shift if interest rates change unexpectedly.
- Interest rates and futures prices move in opposite directions, dictating whether a hedger should take a long or short position.
- Effective hedging involves matching the duration of the futures contract's underlying asset as closely as possible to the asset being protected.
- Short-term interest rate exposures are typically managed with Eurodollar futures, while long-term rates utilize Treasury bond or note futures.
- The number of contracts required for a hedge is determined by a formula involving the portfolio value, futures price, and the ratio of asset durations.
If, subsequently, the interest rate environment changes so that it looks as though a different bond will be cheapest to deliver, then the hedge has to be adjusted and as a result its performance may be worse than anticipated.
When the hedging instrument is a Treasury bond futures contract, the hedger must
base DF on an assumption that one particular bond will be delivered. This means that
the hedger must estimate which of the available bonds is likely to be cheapest to deliver at the time the hedge is put in place. If, subsequently, the interest rate environment changes so that it looks as though a different bond will be cheapest to deliver, then the hedge has to be adjusted and as a result its performance may be worse than anticipated.
When hedges are constructed using interest rate futures, it is important to bear in
mind that interest rates and futures prices move in opposite directions. When interest rates go up, an interest rate futures price goes down. When interest rates go down, the reverse happens, and the interest rate futures price goes up. Thus, a company in a
position to lose money if interest rates drop should hedge by taking a long futures
position. Similarly, a company in a position to lose money if interest rates rise should hedge by taking a short futures position.
The hedger tries to choose the futures contract so that the duration of the underlying
asset is as close as possible to the duration of the asset being hedged. Eurodollar futures tend to be used for exposures to shortĀterm interest rates, whereas ultra T Ābond,
Treasury bond, and Treasury note futures contracts are used for exposures to longer Ā
term rates.
Example 6.6
It is August 2 and a fund manager with $10 million invested in government bonds is
concerned that interest rates are expected to be highly volatile over the next
3 months. The fund manager decides to use the December T Ābond futures contract
to hedge the value of the portfolio. The current futures price is 93Ā02, or 93.0625. Because each contract is for the delivery of $100,000 face value of bonds, the futures contract price is $93,062.50.
Suppose that the duration of the bond portfolio in 3 months will be
6.80 years. The cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond in the T Ābond contract is expected to
be a 20Āyear 12% per annum coupon bond. The yield on this bond is currently 8.80% per annum, and the duration will be 9.20 years at maturity of the futures contract.
5 For a more detailed discussion of equation (6.5), see R. J. Rendleman, āDurationĀBased Hedging with
Treasury Bond Futures, ā Journal of Fixed Income 9, 1 (June 1999): 84ā91.
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Interest Rate Futures 167
The fund manager requires a short position in T Ābond futures to hedge the
bond portfolio. If interest rates go up, a gain will be made on the short futures
position, but a loss will be made on the bond portfolio. If interest rates decrease, a
loss will be made on the short position, but there will be a gain on the bond portfolio. The number of bond futures contracts that should be shorted can be calculated from equation (6.3) as
10,000,000
93,062.50*6.80
9.20=79.42
Interest Rate Risk Management
- Fund managers use short positions in Treasury bond futures to hedge portfolios against rising interest rates.
- Duration matching, or portfolio immunization, aims to offset gains and losses between assets and liabilities during parallel interest rate shifts.
- A significant weakness of duration matching is its inability to protect against nonparallel shifts in the yield curve.
- GAP management involves dividing the yield curve into 'buckets' to analyze how specific rate changes affect a bank's portfolio value.
- Financial institutions utilize swaps, FRAs, and various futures contracts to correct mismatches in their interest rate exposure.
In practice, short-term rates are usually more volatile than, and are not perfectly correlated with, long-term rates.
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Interest Rate Futures 167
The fund manager requires a short position in T Ābond futures to hedge the
bond portfolio. If interest rates go up, a gain will be made on the short futures
position, but a loss will be made on the bond portfolio. If interest rates decrease, a
loss will be made on the short position, but there will be a gain on the bond portfolio. The number of bond futures contracts that should be shorted can be calculated from equation (6.3) as
10,000,000
93,062.50*6.80
9.20=79.42
To the nearest whole number, the portfolio manager should short 79 contracts.Business Snapshot 6.3 AssetāLiability Management by Banks
The assetāliability management (ALM) committees of banks now monitor their exposure to interest rates very carefully. Matching the durations of assets and
liabilities is sometimes a first step, but this does not protect a bank against nonĀ parallel shifts in the yield curve. A popular approach is known as GAP management. This involves dividing the zeroĀcoupon yield curve into segments, known as buckets. The first bucket might be 0 to 1 month, the second 1 to 3 months, and so on. The ALM committee then investigates the effect on the value of the bankās portfolio of the zero rates corresponding to one bucket changing while those corresponding to all other buckets stay the same.
If there is a mismatch, corrective action is usually taken. This can involve changing
deposit and lending rates in the way described in Section 4.12. Alternatively, tools such as swaps, FRAs, bond futures, Eurodollar futures, and other interest rate
derivatives can be used.
6.5 HEDGING PORTFOLIOS OF ASSETS AND LIABILITIES
Financial institutions sometimes attempt to hedge themselves against interest rate risk by ensuring that the average duration of their assets equals the average duration of their liabilities. (The liabilities can be regarded as short positions in bonds.) This strategy is known as duration matching or portfolio immunization. When implemented, it ensures that a small parallel shift in interest rates will have little effect on the value of the
portfolio of assets and liabilities. The gain (loss) on the assets should offset the loss (gain) on the liabilities.
Duration matching does not immunize a portfolio against nonparallel shifts in the
zero curve. This is a weakness of the approach. In practice, shortĀterm rates are usually more volatile than, and are not perfectly correlated with, longĀterm rates. Sometimes it even happens that shortĀ and longĀterm rates move in opposite directions to each other. Duration matching is therefore only a first step and financial institutions have developed other tools to help them manage their interest rate exposure. See Business Snapshot 6.3.
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168 CHAPTER 6
SUMMARY
In the Treasury bond futures contracts, the party with the short position has a number
of interesting delivery options:
1. Delivery can be made on any day during the delivery month.
2. There are a number of alternative bonds that can be delivered.
3. On any day during the delivery month, the notice of intention to deliver at the
2:00 p.m. settlement price can be made later in the day.
Interest Rate Futures and Hedging
- Treasury bond futures provide the short position holder with several delivery options, including timing and bond selection, which generally lower the futures price.
- The Eurodollar futures contract, traditionally based on 3-month LIBOR, is transitioning toward 3-month SOFR futures as LIBOR is phased out.
- Duration-based hedging allows institutions to calculate the number of futures contracts needed to protect a portfolio against small parallel shifts in the yield curve.
- A significant limitation of duration matching is the assumption that all interest rates change by the same amount, ignoring the higher volatility of short-term rates.
- In reality, short-term and long-term rates are not perfectly correlated and can even move in opposite directions, potentially leading to poor hedge performance.
Sometimes it even happens that shortĀ and longĀterm rates move in opposite directions to each other.
zero curve. This is a weakness of the approach. In practice, shortĀterm rates are usually more volatile than, and are not perfectly correlated with, longĀterm rates. Sometimes it even happens that shortĀ and longĀterm rates move in opposite directions to each other. Duration matching is therefore only a first step and financial institutions have developed other tools to help them manage their interest rate exposure. See Business Snapshot 6.3.
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168 CHAPTER 6
SUMMARY
In the Treasury bond futures contracts, the party with the short position has a number
of interesting delivery options:
1. Delivery can be made on any day during the delivery month.
2. There are a number of alternative bonds that can be delivered.
3. On any day during the delivery month, the notice of intention to deliver at the
2:00 p.m. settlement price can be made later in the day.
These options all tend to reduce the futures price.
The Eurodollar futures contract is a contract on the 3Āmonth LIBOR interest rate
two days before the third Wednesday of the delivery month. It is expected that as LIBOR is phased out this will be replaced by the 3Āmonth SOFR futures contract. This is a futures contract on the rate obtained by compounding oneĀday SOFR rates over a threeĀmonth period.
The concept of duration is important in hedging interest rate risk. It enables a hedger
to assess the sensitivity of a bond portfolio to small parallel shifts in the yield curve. It also enables the hedger to assess the sensitivity of an interest rate futures price to small changes in the yield curve. The number of futures contracts necessary to protect the bond portfolio against small parallel shifts in the yield curve can therefore be calculated.
The key assumption underlying durationĀbased hedging is that all interest rates
change by the same amount. This means that only parallel shifts in the term structure are allowed for. In practice, shortĀterm interest rates are generally more volatile than are longĀterm interest rates, and hedge performance is liable to be poor if the duration of the bond underlying the futures contract differs markedly from the duration of the asset being hedged.
FURTHER READING
Burghardt, G., and W. Hoskins. āThe Convexity Bias in Eurodollar Futures, ā Risk, 8, 3 (1995):
63ā70.
Grinblatt, M., and N. Jegadeesh. āThe Relative Price of Eurodollar Futures and Forward
Contracts, ā Journal of Finance, 51, 4 (September 1996): 1499ā1522.
Henrard, M. P . A., Overnight Futures: Convexity Adjustment (February 2018). Available at
SSRN: https://ssrn.com/abstract=3134346.
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Interest Rate Futures 169
Practice Questions
Interest Rate Futures Dynamics
- Standard duration-based hedging assumes parallel shifts in the term structure, which may not reflect real-world market behavior.
- Short-term interest rates typically exhibit higher volatility than long-term rates, potentially degrading hedge performance.
- The 'cheapest-to-deliver' bond feature in Treasury futures creates complex arbitrage considerations for traders.
- Calculating bond cash prices requires accounting for accrued interest based on specific coupon dates and principal amounts.
- Eurodollar and SOFR futures pricing involves convexity adjustments and continuous compounding rate estimations.
In practice, short-term interest rates are generally more volatile than are long-term interest rates, and hedge performance is liable to be poor if the duration of the bond underlying the futures contract differs markedly from the duration of the asset being hedged.
change by the same amount. This means that only parallel shifts in the term structure are allowed for. In practice, shortĀterm interest rates are generally more volatile than are longĀterm interest rates, and hedge performance is liable to be poor if the duration of the bond underlying the futures contract differs markedly from the duration of the asset being hedged.
FURTHER READING
Burghardt, G., and W. Hoskins. āThe Convexity Bias in Eurodollar Futures, ā Risk, 8, 3 (1995):
63ā70.
Grinblatt, M., and N. Jegadeesh. āThe Relative Price of Eurodollar Futures and Forward
Contracts, ā Journal of Finance, 51, 4 (September 1996): 1499ā1522.
Henrard, M. P . A., Overnight Futures: Convexity Adjustment (February 2018). Available at
SSRN: https://ssrn.com/abstract=3134346.
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Interest Rate Futures 169
Practice Questions
6.1. A U.S. Treasury bond pays a 7% coupon on January 7 and July 7. How much interest
accrues per $100 of principal to the bondholder between July 7 , 2017 , and August 8, 2017?
How would your answer be different if it were a corporate bond?
6.2. It is January 9, 2018. The price of a Treasury bond with a 6% coupon that matures on October 12, 2030, is quoted as 102Ā07. What is the cash price?
6.3. A threeĀmonth SOFR futures price changes from 96.76 to 96.82. What is the gain or loss to a trader who is long two contracts?
6.4. The 350Āday LIBOR rate is 3% with continuous compounding and the forward rate
calculated from a Eurodollar futures contract that matures in 350 days is 3.2% with
continuous compounding. Estimate the 440Āday zero rate.
6.5. It is January 30. You are managing a bond portfolio worth $6 million. The duration of the portfolio in 6 months will be 8.2 years. The September Treasury bond futures price is currently 108Ā15, and the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond will have a duration of 7.6 years in
September. How should you hedge against changes in interest rates over the next
6 months?
6.6. The price of a 90Āday Treasury bill is quoted as 10.00. What continuously compounded return (on an actual>365 basis) does an investor earn on the Treasury bill for the 90Āday period?
6.7. It is May 5, 2021. The quoted price of a government bond with a 12% coupon that
matures on July 27, 2034, is 110Ā17. What is the cash price?
6.8. Suppose that the Treasury bond futures price is 101 Ā12. Which of the following four
bonds is cheapest to deliver?
Bond Price Conversion factor
1 125Ā05 1.2131
2 142Ā15 1.3792
3 115Ā31 1.1149
4 144Ā02 1.4026
6.9. It is July 30, 2021. The cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond in a September 2021 Treasury bond futures contract is a 13% coupon bond, and delivery is expected to be made on September 30, 2021. Coupon payments on the bond are made on February 4 and August 4 each year. The term structure is flat, and the rate of interest with semiannual compounding is 12% per annum. The conversion factor for the bond is 1.5. The current quoted bond price is $110. Calculate the quoted futures price for the contract.
6.10. A trader is looking for arbitrage opportunities in the Treasury bond futures market. What complications are created by the fact that the party with a short position can choose to deliver any bond with a maturity between 15 and 25 years?
6.11. Suppose that the 9Āmonth SOFR interest rate is 8% per annum and the 6Āmonth SOFR interest rate is 7.5% per annum (both with actual>365 and continuous compounding). Estimate the 3Āmonth SOFR futures price quote for a contract maturing in 6 months.
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170 CHAPTER 6
Interest Rate Futures Problems
- The text presents complex quantitative problems involving the calculation of quoted futures prices for Treasury bonds using conversion factors and accrued interest.
- Several scenarios explore the mechanics of hedging bond portfolios and commercial paper issues using Eurodollar and Treasury bond futures contracts.
- The problems highlight the impact of day count conventions on bond valuation, specifically comparing U.S. government and corporate bond standards.
- Arbitrage opportunities are examined through the lens of SOFR and LIBOR rate discrepancies and the delivery options available to short position holders.
- The exercises address the relationship between forward and futures interest rates, noting that forward rates are typically lower than those derived from Eurodollar futures.
Consider carefully the day count conventions discussed in this chapter and decide which of the two bonds you would prefer to own.
6.9. It is July 30, 2021. The cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond in a September 2021 Treasury bond futures contract is a 13% coupon bond, and delivery is expected to be made on September 30, 2021. Coupon payments on the bond are made on February 4 and August 4 each year. The term structure is flat, and the rate of interest with semiannual compounding is 12% per annum. The conversion factor for the bond is 1.5. The current quoted bond price is $110. Calculate the quoted futures price for the contract.
6.10. A trader is looking for arbitrage opportunities in the Treasury bond futures market. What complications are created by the fact that the party with a short position can choose to deliver any bond with a maturity between 15 and 25 years?
6.11. Suppose that the 9Āmonth SOFR interest rate is 8% per annum and the 6Āmonth SOFR interest rate is 7.5% per annum (both with actual>365 and continuous compounding). Estimate the 3Āmonth SOFR futures price quote for a contract maturing in 6 months.
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170 CHAPTER 6
6.12. Suppose that the 300Āday LIBOR zero rate is 4% and Eurodollar quotes for contracts
maturing in 300, 398, and 489 days are 95.83, 95.62, and 95.48. Calculate 398Āday and
489Āday LIBOR zero rates. Assume no difference between forward and futures rates for the purposes of your calculations.
6.13. Suppose that a bond portfolio with a duration of 12 years is hedged using a futures
contract in which the underlying asset has a duration of 4 years. What is likely to be the impact on the hedge of the fact that the 12Āyear rate is less volatile than the 4Āyear rate?
6.14. Suppose that it is February 20 and a treasurer realizes that on July 17 the company will have to issue $5 million of commercial paper with a maturity of 180 days. If the paper
were issued today, the company would realize $4,820,000. (In other words, the company
would receive $4,820,000 for its paper and have to redeem it at $5,000,000 in 180 daysā time.) The September Eurodollar futures price is quoted as 92.00. How should the
treasurer hedge the companyās exposure?
6.15. On August 1, a portfolio manager has a bond portfolio worth $10 million. The duration of the portfolio in October will be 7.1 years. The December Treasury bond futures price is
currently 91 Ā12 and the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond will have a duration of 8.8 years at
maturity. How should the portfolio manager immunize the portfolio against changes in interest rates over the next 2 months?
6.16. How can the portfolio manager change the duration of the portfolio to 3.0 years in Problem 6.15?
6.17. Between October 30, 2022, and November 1, 2022, you have a choice between owning a
U.S. government bond paying a 12% coupon and a U.S. corporate bond paying a 12% coupon. Consider carefully the day count conventions discussed in this chapter and decide which of the two bonds you would prefer to own. Ignore the risk of default.
6.18. The 60Āday SOFR rate has been estimated as 3%. The 3Āmonth SOFR futures quote for the period between 60 and 150 days is 96.5. Estimate the 150Āday SOFR rate.
6.19. Explain why the forward interest rate is less than the corresponding futures interest rate calculated from a Eurodollar futures contract.
6.20. It is April 7, 2022. The quoted price of a U.S. government bond with a 6% per annum
coupon (paid semiannually) is 120Ā00. The bond matures on July 27, 2033. What is the
cash price? How does your answer change if it is a corporate bond?
6.21. It is March 10, 2022. The cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond in a December 2022 Treasury bond
futures contract is an 8% coupon bond, and delivery is expected to be made on
December 31, 2022. Coupon payments on the bond are made on March 1 and September 1
each year. The rate of interest with continuous compounding is 5% per annum for all maturities. The conversion factor for the bond is 1.2191. The current quoted bond price is $137. Calculate the quoted futures price for the contract.
6.22. Assume that a bank can borrow or lend money at the same interest rate in the LIBOR market. The 90Āday rate is 2% per annum, and the 180Āday rate is 2.2% per annum, both expressed with continuous compounding and actual/actual day count. The Eurodollar
futures price for a contract maturing in 91 days is quoted as 97.95. What arbitrage
opportunities are open to the bank?
Interest Rate Futures Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating LIBOR and SOFR zero rates from futures quotes.
- Several scenarios address hedging strategies for commercial paper and bond portfolios using Treasury and Eurodollar futures.
- The problems explore technical nuances such as day count conventions, conversion factors, and the calculation of cash prices for government versus corporate bonds.
- Theoretical concepts are tested through questions on the convexity adjustment between forward and futures rates and the identification of arbitrage opportunities.
- Advanced applications include the immunization of portfolios and the synthetic creation of foreign LIBOR futures using exchange rate forwards.
Explain why the forward interest rate is less than the corresponding futures interest rate calculated from a Eurodollar futures contract.
6.12. Suppose that the 300Āday LIBOR zero rate is 4% and Eurodollar quotes for contracts
maturing in 300, 398, and 489 days are 95.83, 95.62, and 95.48. Calculate 398Āday and
489Āday LIBOR zero rates. Assume no difference between forward and futures rates for the purposes of your calculations.
6.13. Suppose that a bond portfolio with a duration of 12 years is hedged using a futures
contract in which the underlying asset has a duration of 4 years. What is likely to be the impact on the hedge of the fact that the 12Āyear rate is less volatile than the 4Āyear rate?
6.14. Suppose that it is February 20 and a treasurer realizes that on July 17 the company will have to issue $5 million of commercial paper with a maturity of 180 days. If the paper
were issued today, the company would realize $4,820,000. (In other words, the company
would receive $4,820,000 for its paper and have to redeem it at $5,000,000 in 180 daysā time.) The September Eurodollar futures price is quoted as 92.00. How should the
treasurer hedge the companyās exposure?
6.15. On August 1, a portfolio manager has a bond portfolio worth $10 million. The duration of the portfolio in October will be 7.1 years. The December Treasury bond futures price is
currently 91 Ā12 and the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond will have a duration of 8.8 years at
maturity. How should the portfolio manager immunize the portfolio against changes in interest rates over the next 2 months?
6.16. How can the portfolio manager change the duration of the portfolio to 3.0 years in Problem 6.15?
6.17. Between October 30, 2022, and November 1, 2022, you have a choice between owning a
U.S. government bond paying a 12% coupon and a U.S. corporate bond paying a 12% coupon. Consider carefully the day count conventions discussed in this chapter and decide which of the two bonds you would prefer to own. Ignore the risk of default.
6.18. The 60Āday SOFR rate has been estimated as 3%. The 3Āmonth SOFR futures quote for the period between 60 and 150 days is 96.5. Estimate the 150Āday SOFR rate.
6.19. Explain why the forward interest rate is less than the corresponding futures interest rate calculated from a Eurodollar futures contract.
6.20. It is April 7, 2022. The quoted price of a U.S. government bond with a 6% per annum
coupon (paid semiannually) is 120Ā00. The bond matures on July 27, 2033. What is the
cash price? How does your answer change if it is a corporate bond?
6.21. It is March 10, 2022. The cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond in a December 2022 Treasury bond
futures contract is an 8% coupon bond, and delivery is expected to be made on
December 31, 2022. Coupon payments on the bond are made on March 1 and September 1
each year. The rate of interest with continuous compounding is 5% per annum for all maturities. The conversion factor for the bond is 1.2191. The current quoted bond price is $137. Calculate the quoted futures price for the contract.
6.22. Assume that a bank can borrow or lend money at the same interest rate in the LIBOR market. The 90Āday rate is 2% per annum, and the 180Āday rate is 2.2% per annum, both expressed with continuous compounding and actual/actual day count. The Eurodollar
futures price for a contract maturing in 91 days is quoted as 97.95. What arbitrage
opportunities are open to the bank?
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Interest Rate Futures 171
6.23. A Canadian company wishes to create a Canadian LIBOR futures contract from a U.S.
Eurodollar futures contract and forward contracts on foreign exchange. Using an
Interest Rate Futures Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating LIBOR and SOFR zero rates from futures quotes.
- Several exercises explore hedging strategies for bond portfolios using Treasury bond and Eurodollar futures based on duration matching.
- The problems address technical nuances in finance such as day count conventions, conversion factors, and cheapest-to-deliver bond selection.
- Theoretical concepts are tested through questions regarding the convexity adjustment between forward and futures interest rates.
- Practical arbitrage scenarios are presented, requiring the identification of mispriced contracts relative to the underlying LIBOR market.
Explain why the forward interest rate is less than the corresponding futures interest rate calculated from a Eurodollar futures contract.
6.12. Suppose that the 300Āday LIBOR zero rate is 4% and Eurodollar quotes for contracts
maturing in 300, 398, and 489 days are 95.83, 95.62, and 95.48. Calculate 398Āday and
489Āday LIBOR zero rates. Assume no difference between forward and futures rates for the purposes of your calculations.
6.13. Suppose that a bond portfolio with a duration of 12 years is hedged using a futures
contract in which the underlying asset has a duration of 4 years. What is likely to be the impact on the hedge of the fact that the 12Āyear rate is less volatile than the 4Āyear rate?
6.14. Suppose that it is February 20 and a treasurer realizes that on July 17 the company will have to issue $5 million of commercial paper with a maturity of 180 days. If the paper
were issued today, the company would realize $4,820,000. (In other words, the company
would receive $4,820,000 for its paper and have to redeem it at $5,000,000 in 180 daysā time.) The September Eurodollar futures price is quoted as 92.00. How should the
treasurer hedge the companyās exposure?
6.15. On August 1, a portfolio manager has a bond portfolio worth $10 million. The duration of the portfolio in October will be 7.1 years. The December Treasury bond futures price is
currently 91 Ā12 and the cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond will have a duration of 8.8 years at
maturity. How should the portfolio manager immunize the portfolio against changes in interest rates over the next 2 months?
6.16. How can the portfolio manager change the duration of the portfolio to 3.0 years in Problem 6.15?
6.17. Between October 30, 2022, and November 1, 2022, you have a choice between owning a
U.S. government bond paying a 12% coupon and a U.S. corporate bond paying a 12% coupon. Consider carefully the day count conventions discussed in this chapter and decide which of the two bonds you would prefer to own. Ignore the risk of default.
6.18. The 60Āday SOFR rate has been estimated as 3%. The 3Āmonth SOFR futures quote for the period between 60 and 150 days is 96.5. Estimate the 150Āday SOFR rate.
6.19. Explain why the forward interest rate is less than the corresponding futures interest rate calculated from a Eurodollar futures contract.
6.20. It is April 7, 2022. The quoted price of a U.S. government bond with a 6% per annum
coupon (paid semiannually) is 120Ā00. The bond matures on July 27, 2033. What is the
cash price? How does your answer change if it is a corporate bond?
6.21. It is March 10, 2022. The cheapestĀtoĀdeliver bond in a December 2022 Treasury bond
futures contract is an 8% coupon bond, and delivery is expected to be made on
December 31, 2022. Coupon payments on the bond are made on March 1 and September 1
each year. The rate of interest with continuous compounding is 5% per annum for all maturities. The conversion factor for the bond is 1.2191. The current quoted bond price is $137. Calculate the quoted futures price for the contract.
6.22. Assume that a bank can borrow or lend money at the same interest rate in the LIBOR market. The 90Āday rate is 2% per annum, and the 180Āday rate is 2.2% per annum, both expressed with continuous compounding and actual/actual day count. The Eurodollar
futures price for a contract maturing in 91 days is quoted as 97.95. What arbitrage
opportunities are open to the bank?
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Interest Rate Futures 171
6.23. A Canadian company wishes to create a Canadian LIBOR futures contract from a U.S.
Eurodollar futures contract and forward contracts on foreign exchange. Using an
example, explain how the company should proceed. For the purposes of this problem,
assume that a futures contract is the same as a forward contract.
6.24. A portfolio manager plans to use a Treasury bond futures contract to hedge a bond portfolio over the next 3 months. The portfolio is worth $100 million and will have a duration of 4.0 years in 3 months. The futures price is 122, and each futures contract is on
$100,000 of bonds. The bond that is expected to be cheapest to deliver will have a duration of 9.0 years at the maturity of the futures contract. What position in futures contracts is required?
(a) What adjustments to the hedge are necessary if after 1 month the bond that is
expected to be cheapest to deliver changes to one with a duration of 7 years?
(b) Suppose that all rates increase over the next 3 months, but longĀterm rates increase
less than shortĀterm and mediumĀterm rates. What is the effect of this on the
performance of the hedge?
The Mechanics of Swaps
- The over-the-counter swap market originated in 1981 with a landmark currency swap between IBM and the World Bank.
- A swap is defined as a private agreement between two parties to exchange future cash flows based on market variables like interest or exchange rates.
- While forward contracts involve a single exchange of cash flows, swaps typically involve multiple exchanges over a series of future dates.
- Interest rate swaps involve exchanging a fixed interest rate for a floating reference rate applied to a specific principal amount.
- The swap market has experienced phenomenal growth since its inception, expanding into various complex financial instruments.
The birth of the over-the-counter swap market can be traced to a currency swap negotiated between IBM and the World Bank in 1981.
example, explain how the company should proceed. For the purposes of this problem,
assume that a futures contract is the same as a forward contract.
6.24. A portfolio manager plans to use a Treasury bond futures contract to hedge a bond portfolio over the next 3 months. The portfolio is worth $100 million and will have a duration of 4.0 years in 3 months. The futures price is 122, and each futures contract is on
$100,000 of bonds. The bond that is expected to be cheapest to deliver will have a duration of 9.0 years at the maturity of the futures contract. What position in futures contracts is required?
(a) What adjustments to the hedge are necessary if after 1 month the bond that is
expected to be cheapest to deliver changes to one with a duration of 7 years?
(b) Suppose that all rates increase over the next 3 months, but longĀterm rates increase
less than shortĀterm and mediumĀterm rates. What is the effect of this on the
performance of the hedge?
M06_HULL0654_11_GE_C06.indd 171 12/05/2021 17:22
172
Swaps
The birth of the over-the-counter swap market can be traced to a currency swap
negotiated between IBM and the World Bank in 1981. The World Bank had borrowings denominated in U.S. dollars while IBM had borrowings denominated in German deutsche marks and Swiss francs. The World Bank (which was restricted in the deutsche mark and Swiss franc borrowing it could do directly) agreed to make interest payments on IBMās borrowings while IBM in return agreed to make interest payments on the World Bankās borrowings. Since that first transaction in 1981, the swap market has seen phenomenal growth.
A swap is an over-the-counter agreement between two companies to exchange cash
flows in the future. The agreement defines the dates when the cash flows are to be paid and the way in which they are to be calculated. Usually the calculation of the cash flows involves the future value of an interest rate, an exchange rate, or other market variable.
A forward contract can be viewed as a simple example of a swap. Suppose it is
March 1, 2022, and a company enters into a forward contract to buy 100 ounces of gold for $1,700 per ounce in one year. The company can sell the gold in one year as soon as it is received. The forward contract is therefore equivalent to a swap where the company agrees that on March 1, 2023, it will pay $170,000 and receive 100S, where S is the market price of one ounce of gold on that date.
Whereas a forward contract is equivalent to the exchange of cash flows on just one
future date, swaps typically lead to cash-flow exchanges taking place on several future dates. In this chapter we examine how swaps are used and how they are valued. Our discussion centers on interest rate swaps and currency swaps. Other types of swaps are briefly reviewed at the end of this chapter and discussed in more detail in Chapter 34.7 CHAPTER
An interest rate swap is a swap where interest at a predetermined fixed rate, applied to a
certain principal, is exchanged for interest at a floating reference rate, applied to the same principal, with regular exchanges being made for an agreed period of time. Historically, the most common floating reference interest rate in an interest rate swap 7.1 MECHANICS OF INTEREST RATE SWAPS
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Swaps 173
Mechanics of Interest Rate Swaps
- A swap is a financial agreement to exchange cash flows on multiple future dates based on market variables like interest or exchange rates.
- Interest rate swaps typically involve exchanging a predetermined fixed rate for a floating reference rate applied to a specific principal amount.
- The financial industry is currently navigating a complex transition from LIBOR to overnight reference rates like SOFR and SONIA.
- Unlike LIBOR, which is known at the start of a period, overnight rates are calculated through an averaging process known only at the end of the period.
- Legacy swaps with long maturities face significant valuation challenges as the market must find ways to estimate discontinued LIBOR rates using new benchmarks.
The transition period will be tricky for the swaps market.
flows in the future. The agreement defines the dates when the cash flows are to be paid and the way in which they are to be calculated. Usually the calculation of the cash flows involves the future value of an interest rate, an exchange rate, or other market variable.
A forward contract can be viewed as a simple example of a swap. Suppose it is
March 1, 2022, and a company enters into a forward contract to buy 100 ounces of gold for $1,700 per ounce in one year. The company can sell the gold in one year as soon as it is received. The forward contract is therefore equivalent to a swap where the company agrees that on March 1, 2023, it will pay $170,000 and receive 100S, where S is the market price of one ounce of gold on that date.
Whereas a forward contract is equivalent to the exchange of cash flows on just one
future date, swaps typically lead to cash-flow exchanges taking place on several future dates. In this chapter we examine how swaps are used and how they are valued. Our discussion centers on interest rate swaps and currency swaps. Other types of swaps are briefly reviewed at the end of this chapter and discussed in more detail in Chapter 34.7 CHAPTER
An interest rate swap is a swap where interest at a predetermined fixed rate, applied to a
certain principal, is exchanged for interest at a floating reference rate, applied to the same principal, with regular exchanges being made for an agreed period of time. Historically, the most common floating reference interest rate in an interest rate swap 7.1 MECHANICS OF INTEREST RATE SWAPS
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Swaps 173
has been LIBOR. For example, a swap negotiated in the past might be an agreement to
exchange interest at 2% on a principal of $50 million for interest at three-month LIBOR on the same principal for the next five years with exchanges every three months.
As explained in Chapter 4, LIBOR has proved to be an unsatisfactory reference rate
because it is based on estimates made by banks, not on actual transactions. The plan in financial markets is to phase out the use of LIBOR and replace it by a reference rate based on overnight transactions between banks. The transition period will be tricky for the swaps market. Many LIBOR-for-fixed swaps have been negotiated in the past with long lives and will continue to be in existence after the use of LIBOR has been discontinued.
For example, a 20-year swap negotiated at the end of 2013 will still have 12 years to run at the end of 2021 (which was the original date chosen for the end of LIBOR). If banks stop providing LIBOR estimates after the end of 2021, it will be necessary for the market to agree on a way of estimating LIBOR from the new reference rates. For example, three-month U.S. LIBOR is likely to be estimated as three-month SOFR plus x , where x is some
average of the difference between the two rates observed in the past.
At this point, it is worth reviewing the differences between LIBOR and the overnight
reference rates that are replacing it:
⢠LIBOR rates are the borrowing rates estimated by banks in the interbank market for periods between one day and one year.
⢠Overnight rates such as SOFR and SONIA are based on actual transactions
between banks.
⢠The overnight rates are converted to longer reference rates using what might be termed an āaveraging process. ā Usually the averaging involves daily compounding as described in Section 4.2, but occasionally a simple arithmetic average is used (as for CMEās one-month SOFR futures).
⢠LIBOR rates for a period are known at the beginning of the period to which they apply, whereas the result of the averaging process for overnight rates is known only at the end of the period.
⢠LIBOR rates incorporate some credit risk, whereas rates based on overnight rates
Transition to Overnight Indexed Swaps
- Overnight rates are converted into longer reference rates through an averaging process, typically involving daily compounding.
- Unlike LIBOR, which is known at the start of a period, the reference rates for overnight swaps are only finalized at the end of the period.
- LIBOR rates incorporate credit risk, whereas newer benchmarks like SOFR and SONIA are considered risk-free rates.
- Overnight indexed swaps (OISs) allow parties to exchange a fixed interest rate for a floating rate based on realized overnight benchmarks.
- Long-term OIS contracts are structured into subperiods, often three months each, where payments are settled based on the compounded daily rates.
LIBOR rates for a period are known at the beginning of the period to which they apply, whereas the result of the averaging process for overnight rates is known only at the end of the period.
⢠The overnight rates are converted to longer reference rates using what might be termed an āaveraging process. ā Usually the averaging involves daily compounding as described in Section 4.2, but occasionally a simple arithmetic average is used (as for CMEās one-month SOFR futures).
⢠LIBOR rates for a period are known at the beginning of the period to which they apply, whereas the result of the averaging process for overnight rates is known only at the end of the period.
⢠LIBOR rates incorporate some credit risk, whereas rates based on overnight rates
such as SOFR and SONIA are considered to be risk-free rates.
As LIBOR is phased out, swaps based on overnight rates are becoming more popular. These are referred to as overnight indexed swaps (OISs).
An OIS is an agreement to exchange a fixed rate of interest for a reference rate of
interest that is calculated from realized overnight rates. A simple example of an OIS is a swap lasting for three months. This leads to a single exchange at the end of the three months. The fixed rate of interest applied to a certain principal is exchanged for the reference rate applied to the same principal. Other similar OISs that last for one month, six months, and one year lead to a single exchange calculated in a similar way. When the life of the OIS is greater than one year, it is typically divided into three-month subperiods, with the fixed rate being exchanged at the end of each three-month period
for the three-month reference rate that is calculated for that period from one-day rates. OISs lasting ten years or longer are now traded.
Consider a hypothetical two-year OIS initiated on March 8, 2022, between Apple and
Citigroup. We suppose Apple agrees to pay to Citigroup interest at the rate of 3% per annum every three months on a notional principal of $100 million, and in return
Citgroup agrees to pay Apple the three-month SOFR floating reference rate on the
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174 CHAPTER 7
Date SOFR rate
(%)Floating cash flow
received ($ā000s)Fixed cash flow
paid ($ā000s)Net cash flow
($ā000s)
June 8, 2022 2.20 550 750 -200
Sept. 8, 2022 2.60 650 750 -100
Dec. 8, 2022 2.80 700 750 -50
Mar. 8, 2023 3.10 775 750 +25
June 8, 2023 3.30 825 750 +75
Sept. 8, 2023 3.40 850 750 +100
Dec. 8, 2023 3.60 900 750 +150
Mar. 8, 2024 3.80 950 750 +200Table 7.1 Cash flows to Apple for one possible outcome of the OIS in Figure 7.1.
The swap lasts two years and the notional principal is $100 million.Figure 7.1 Interest rate swap between Apple and Citigroup.
Citigroup Apple3.0%
Floatin g
same notional principal. Apple is the fixed-rate payer; Citigroup is the floating-rate
Mechanics of Interest Rate Swaps
- The text illustrates a two-year interest rate swap between Apple and Citigroup with a notional principal of $100 million.
- Apple acts as the fixed-rate payer at 3.0%, while Citigroup pays a floating rate based on the three-month SOFR.
- Payments are netted quarterly, resulting in a single cash flow between the parties based on the difference between fixed and floating rates.
- A key distinction is made between OIS and LIBOR swaps regarding when the floating rate for a period is determined.
- Overnight indexed swaps are identified as essential tools for establishing risk-free rates used in derivative valuation.
The difference is that the LIBOR rate for a period is known at the beginning of the period, whereas the overnight reference rate is not known until the end of the period.
Sept. 8, 2022 2.60 650 750 -100
Dec. 8, 2022 2.80 700 750 -50
Mar. 8, 2023 3.10 775 750 +25
June 8, 2023 3.30 825 750 +75
Sept. 8, 2023 3.40 850 750 +100
Dec. 8, 2023 3.60 900 750 +150
Mar. 8, 2024 3.80 950 750 +200Table 7.1 Cash flows to Apple for one possible outcome of the OIS in Figure 7.1.
The swap lasts two years and the notional principal is $100 million.Figure 7.1 Interest rate swap between Apple and Citigroup.
Citigroup Apple3.0%
Floatin g
same notional principal. Apple is the fixed-rate payer; Citigroup is the floating-rate
payer. For ease of exposition, we assume that rates are quoted with quarterly com-pounding and we ignore the impact of day count conventions and holiday conventions (which are explained later in this chapter). The swap is shown in Figure 7.1.
In total there are eight exchanges on the swap. One possible outcome is shown in
Table 7.1. The first exchange of payments would take place on June 8, 2022. Apple
would pay Citigroup $750,000 (one quarter of 3% applied to $100 million). Citigroup would pay Apple the three-month rate calculated from daily SOFR rates over the
previous three months. The 3-month SOFR rate calculated on June 8, 2022 (from
overnight rates between March 8, 2022, and June 8, 2022) is assumed to be 2.2% per annum or 0.55% per three months using the formula in Section 4.2. The floating
payment from Citigroup to Apple is therefore $550,000. The fixed and floating pay -
ments are netted with the result that Apple pays Citigroup $200,000 on June 8, 2022. The second exchange of payments is on September 8, 2022. Again, the fixed payment from Apple to Citigroup is $750,000. We assume that the 3-month SOFR rate on
September 8, 2022 (calculated from overnight rates between June 8, 2022 and Septem-ber 8, 2022) is 2.6% per annum or 0.65% per three months. The floating payment is therefore $650,000 and the net payment from Apple to Citigroup is therefore $100,000.
What is the difference between an OIS and a LIBOR swap? If the heading of the
second column in Table 7.1 is changed to āLIBOR rateā the table could provide an example of a LIBOR swap. The difference is that the LIBOR rate for a period is known at the beginning of the period, whereas the overnight reference rate is not known until the end of the period. The 2.20% floating rate applicable to the first exchange on June 8, 2002, if LIBOR, would be known at the beginning of the swapās life on March 8, 2022; the 2.60% floating rate applicable to the second exchange on September 8, 2022, would be known on June 8, 2022; and so on.
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Swaps 175
Overnight indexed swaps play an important role in determining the risk-free rates which
are needed for valuing derivatives.1
Mechanics of Overnight Indexed Swaps
- Overnight Indexed Swaps (OIS) involve the exchange of a fixed interest rate for a floating rate based on daily overnight rates, such as SOFR.
- A primary distinction between OIS and LIBOR swaps is that LIBOR rates are determined at the start of a period, while OIS rates are calculated at the end.
- OIS contracts are initially valued at zero, making the fixed OIS rate equivalent to the coupon on a par-value fixed-rate bond.
- Financial markets utilize OIS rates as a critical benchmark for determining risk-free rates used in the valuation of various derivatives.
- The notional principal in an OIS is never exchanged, but its presence allows the swap to be modeled as an exchange of fixed and floating rate bonds.
The difference is that the LIBOR rate for a period is known at the beginning of the period, whereas the overnight reference rate is not known until the end of the period.
payer. For ease of exposition, we assume that rates are quoted with quarterly com-pounding and we ignore the impact of day count conventions and holiday conventions (which are explained later in this chapter). The swap is shown in Figure 7.1.
In total there are eight exchanges on the swap. One possible outcome is shown in
Table 7.1. The first exchange of payments would take place on June 8, 2022. Apple
would pay Citigroup $750,000 (one quarter of 3% applied to $100 million). Citigroup would pay Apple the three-month rate calculated from daily SOFR rates over the
previous three months. The 3-month SOFR rate calculated on June 8, 2022 (from
overnight rates between March 8, 2022, and June 8, 2022) is assumed to be 2.2% per annum or 0.55% per three months using the formula in Section 4.2. The floating
payment from Citigroup to Apple is therefore $550,000. The fixed and floating pay -
ments are netted with the result that Apple pays Citigroup $200,000 on June 8, 2022. The second exchange of payments is on September 8, 2022. Again, the fixed payment from Apple to Citigroup is $750,000. We assume that the 3-month SOFR rate on
September 8, 2022 (calculated from overnight rates between June 8, 2022 and Septem-ber 8, 2022) is 2.6% per annum or 0.65% per three months. The floating payment is therefore $650,000 and the net payment from Apple to Citigroup is therefore $100,000.
What is the difference between an OIS and a LIBOR swap? If the heading of the
second column in Table 7.1 is changed to āLIBOR rateā the table could provide an example of a LIBOR swap. The difference is that the LIBOR rate for a period is known at the beginning of the period, whereas the overnight reference rate is not known until the end of the period. The 2.20% floating rate applicable to the first exchange on June 8, 2002, if LIBOR, would be known at the beginning of the swapās life on March 8, 2022; the 2.60% floating rate applicable to the second exchange on September 8, 2022, would be known on June 8, 2022; and so on.
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Swaps 175
Overnight indexed swaps play an important role in determining the risk-free rates which
are needed for valuing derivatives.1
OISs, when first entered into, into have a value of zero. (In this respect an OIS is like
a forward contract.) The fixed rate that is exchanged for floating is referred to as the OIS rate. The OIS rates for a range of maturities can be observed in the market at a particular time. OIS rates with maturities one year or less, because they lead to just one exchange, have a straightforward interpretation. They provide the risk-free zero rates that are equivalent to the underlying overnight rates.
Now consider OIS rates for maturities greater than a year. The notional principal is
not exchanged in an OIS. (This is why the principal is termed ānotional. ā) However, if we did exchange the notional principal at the end of the life of the swap, the cash exchanges would not change in any way because the notional principal is the same for both the fixed and floating payments. Table 7.2 is produced from Table 7.1 by adding exchanges of principal at the end. The table shows that the swap is equivalent to the exchange of a floating rate bond (cash flows in the third column) for a fixed rate bond (cash flows in the fourth column).
A key point is that the floating-rate bond in Table 7.2 is worth $100,000. This is
because it provides the payments necessary to service $100 million of borrowings at overnight rates. (To see this, imagine that (a) $100 million plus accumulated interest is borrowed at successive overnight rates during each quarter, (b) the accumulated interest is paid at the end of each quarter, and (c) $100 million principal is repaid at the end of the two years.) Because an OIS is worth zero when first entered into, the fixed-rate bond (fourth column of Table 7.2) must also be worth $100 million. This shows that the OIS rate of 3% is the interest rate on a two-year fixed-rate bond that is worth par and pays interest quarterly.
OIS rates can therefore be used in the same way as the Treasury rates in Section 4.7 to
define a zero curve. The OIS rates out to one year define zero rates in a direct way. The OIS rates for longer maturities define bonds worth par. The zero curve can be assumed 7.2 DETERMINING RISK-FREE RATES
Overnight Indexed Swaps Mechanics
- Overnight Indexed Swaps (OIS) are financial contracts that exchange a fixed interest rate for a floating rate based on overnight benchmarks.
- At inception, an OIS has a value of zero, meaning the fixed OIS rate is set so that the present value of fixed and floating payments are equal.
- An OIS can be conceptually viewed as an exchange of a fixed-rate bond for a floating-rate bond, both valued at par when the swap begins.
- OIS rates are increasingly used to define the risk-free zero curve, serving as a more accurate proxy for risk-free rates than Treasury rates.
- For maturities over one year, the OIS rate represents the coupon on a par-value bond that pays interest at the specified frequency.
This is because it provides the payments necessary to service $100 million of borrowings at overnight rates.
OISs, when first entered into, into have a value of zero. (In this respect an OIS is like
a forward contract.) The fixed rate that is exchanged for floating is referred to as the OIS rate. The OIS rates for a range of maturities can be observed in the market at a particular time. OIS rates with maturities one year or less, because they lead to just one exchange, have a straightforward interpretation. They provide the risk-free zero rates that are equivalent to the underlying overnight rates.
Now consider OIS rates for maturities greater than a year. The notional principal is
not exchanged in an OIS. (This is why the principal is termed ānotional. ā) However, if we did exchange the notional principal at the end of the life of the swap, the cash exchanges would not change in any way because the notional principal is the same for both the fixed and floating payments. Table 7.2 is produced from Table 7.1 by adding exchanges of principal at the end. The table shows that the swap is equivalent to the exchange of a floating rate bond (cash flows in the third column) for a fixed rate bond (cash flows in the fourth column).
A key point is that the floating-rate bond in Table 7.2 is worth $100,000. This is
because it provides the payments necessary to service $100 million of borrowings at overnight rates. (To see this, imagine that (a) $100 million plus accumulated interest is borrowed at successive overnight rates during each quarter, (b) the accumulated interest is paid at the end of each quarter, and (c) $100 million principal is repaid at the end of the two years.) Because an OIS is worth zero when first entered into, the fixed-rate bond (fourth column of Table 7.2) must also be worth $100 million. This shows that the OIS rate of 3% is the interest rate on a two-year fixed-rate bond that is worth par and pays interest quarterly.
OIS rates can therefore be used in the same way as the Treasury rates in Section 4.7 to
define a zero curve. The OIS rates out to one year define zero rates in a direct way. The OIS rates for longer maturities define bonds worth par. The zero curve can be assumed 7.2 DETERMINING RISK-FREE RATES
Date SOFR rate
(%)Floating cash flow
received ($ā000s)Fixed cash flow
paid ($ā000s)Net cash flow
($ā000s)
June 8, 2022 2.20 550 750 -200
Sept. 8, 2022 2.60 650 750 -100
Dec. 8, 2022 2.80 700 750 -50
Mar. 8, 2023 3.10 775 750 +25
June 8, 2023 3.30 825 750 +75
Sept. 8, 2023 3.40 850 750 +100
Dec. 8, 2023 3.60 900 750 +150
Mar. 8, 2024 3.80 100,950 100,750 +200Table 7.2 Cash flows in Table 7.1 when the notional principal is exchanged at
the end.
1 As mentioned in Section 4.3, overnight reference rates are considered to be better proxies for risk-free rates
than Treasury rates.
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176 CHAPTER 7
OIS
maturityOIS
rateCompounding frequency
for OIS rateZero rate
(cont. comp.)
1 month 1.8% Monthly 1.7987%
3 months 2.0% Quarterly 1.9950%
6 months 2.2% Semiannually 2.1880%
12 months 2.5% Annually 2.4693%
2 years 3.0% Quarterly 2.9994%
5 years 4.0% Quarterly 4.0401%Table 7.3 OIS Rates and the calculation of the OIS zero curve.
Swaps have proved to be very popular because they have many uses, as we will now explain. Most of the discussion of interest rate swaps in the next few sections applies regardless of the floating reference rate used. For ease of exposition we will therefore simply refer to the floating rate as āfloating. ā
Using the Swap to Transform a Liability
Mechanics of Interest Rate Swaps
- Interest rate swaps allow companies to transform the nature of their financial liabilities from floating-rate to fixed-rate or vice versa.
- By netting three distinct cash flowsāpayments to lenders, payments under the swap, and receipts from the swapāa firm can lock in a specific net interest rate.
- The OIS zero curve is calculated using an iterative search procedure to ensure that bonds making quarterly payments are worth par at specific maturities.
- Beyond liabilities, swaps can also be utilized to transform the nature of assets, such as converting a fixed-rate bond into a floating-rate investment.
- Financial institutions like Citigroup act as intermediaries, facilitating these swaps for corporations like Apple and Intel to manage their interest rate exposure.
These three sets of cash flows net out to an interest rate payment of floating plus 0.23% (or floating plus 23 basis points).
12 months 2.5% Annually 2.4693%
2 years 3.0% Quarterly 2.9994%
5 years 4.0% Quarterly 4.0401%Table 7.3 OIS Rates and the calculation of the OIS zero curve.
Swaps have proved to be very popular because they have many uses, as we will now explain. Most of the discussion of interest rate swaps in the next few sections applies regardless of the floating reference rate used. For ease of exposition we will therefore simply refer to the floating rate as āfloating. ā
Using the Swap to Transform a Liability
For Apple, the swap in Figure 7.1 could be used to transform a floating-rate loan into a
fixed-rate loan, as indicated in Figure 7.3. Suppose that Apple has arranged to borrow $100 million for two years at the floating rate plus 10 basis points. (One basis point is 7.3 REASONS FOR TRADING INTEREST RATE SWAPSto be linear between maturities and calculations can be carried out by DerivaGem. A example of the result of the calculations is shown in Table 7.3 and Figure 7.2. In this example, the two-year and five-year zero rates would be chosen using an iterative search procedure (such as Solver in Excel) so that they are consistent with the following:
⢠A two-year bond making quarterly interest payments at 3% per annum is worth par.
⢠A five-year bond making quarterly interest payments at 4% per annum is worth par.
Figure 7.2 OIS zero rates in Table 7.3.
0.00%0.50%1.00%1.50%2.00%2.50%3.00%3.50%4.00%4.50%
0246 81 0Zero rate
Maturity (years)
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Swaps 177
0.01%, so the rate is floating plus 0.1%.) After Apple has entered into the swap, it has
three sets of cash flows:
1. It pays floating plus 0.1% to its outside lenders.
2. It receives floating under the terms of the swap.
3. It pays 3% under the terms of the swap.
These three sets of cash flows net out to an interest rate payment of 3.1%. Thus, for Apple the swap could have the effect of transforming borrowings at the floating rate plus 10 basis points into borrowings at a fixed rate of 3.1%.
A company wishing to transform a fixed-rate loan into a floating-rate loan would
enter into the opposite swap. Suppose that Intel has borrowed $100 million at 3.2% for two years and wishes to switch to the floating rate. Like Apple, it contacts Citigroup. We assume that it agrees to enter into a swap where it pays the floating rate and receives 2.97%. Its position would then be as indicated Figure 7.4. It has three sets of cash flows:
1. It pays 3.2% to its outside lenders.
2. It pays floating under the terms of the swap.
3. It receives 2.97% under the terms of the swap.
These three sets of cash flows net out to an interest rate payment of floating plus 0.23% (or floating plus 23 basis points). Thus, for Intel the swap could have the effect of transforming borrowings at a fixed rate of 3.2% into borrowings at the floating rate plus 23 basis points.
Using the Swap to Transform an Asset
Swaps can also be used to transform the nature of an asset. Consider Apple in our example. The swap in Figure 7.1 could have the effect of transforming an asset earning
a fixed rate of interest into an asset earning a floating rate of interest. Suppose that Apple owns $100 million in bonds that will provide interest at 2.7% per annum over the Figure 7.3 Apple uses the swap in Figure 7.1 to convert floating-rate
borrowings into fixed-rate borrowings.
Citigroup Apple3.0%
FloatingFloating 1 0.1%
Figure 7.4 Intel uses a swap to convert fixed-rate borrowings
into floating-rate borrowings.
Citigroup Intel2.97%
3.2%
Floatin g
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178 CHAPTER 7
next two years. After Apple has entered into the swap, it is in the position shown in
Figure 7.5. It has three sets of cash flows:
1. It receives 2.7% on the bonds.
2. It receives floating under the terms of the swap.
3. It pays 3% under the terms of the swap.
Transforming Assets with Swaps
- Interest rate swaps allow companies to transform the fundamental nature of their financial assets from fixed to floating rates or vice versa.
- Apple demonstrates how entering a swap can convert a 2.7% fixed-rate bond into a floating-rate inflow net of 30 basis points.
- Intel illustrates the reverse process, using a swap to turn a floating-rate investment into a guaranteed fixed-rate return of 2.77%.
- Financial institutions like Citigroup facilitate these transactions by acting as market makers, providing bid and ask quotes for fixed-rate exchanges.
- The net result of these swaps is a synthetic restructuring of cash flows without requiring the sale or purchase of the underlying principal assets.
The swap has therefore transformed an asset earning 2.7% into an asset earning floating minus 30 basis points.
Swaps can also be used to transform the nature of an asset. Consider Apple in our example. The swap in Figure 7.1 could have the effect of transforming an asset earning
a fixed rate of interest into an asset earning a floating rate of interest. Suppose that Apple owns $100 million in bonds that will provide interest at 2.7% per annum over the Figure 7.3 Apple uses the swap in Figure 7.1 to convert floating-rate
borrowings into fixed-rate borrowings.
Citigroup Apple3.0%
FloatingFloating 1 0.1%
Figure 7.4 Intel uses a swap to convert fixed-rate borrowings
into floating-rate borrowings.
Citigroup Intel2.97%
3.2%
Floatin g
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178 CHAPTER 7
next two years. After Apple has entered into the swap, it is in the position shown in
Figure 7.5. It has three sets of cash flows:
1. It receives 2.7% on the bonds.
2. It receives floating under the terms of the swap.
3. It pays 3% under the terms of the swap.
These three sets of cash flows net out to an interest rate inflow of floating minus 30 basis points. The swap has therefore transformed an asset earning 2.7% into an asset earning floating minus 30 basis points.
Consider next the swap entered into by Intel in Figure 7.4. The swap could have the
effect of transforming an asset earning a floating rate of interest into an asset earning a fixed rate of interest. Suppose that Intel has an investment of $100 million that yields floating minus 20 basis points. After it has entered into the swap, it is in the position shown in Figure 7.6. It has three sets of cash flows:
1. It receives floating minus 20 basis points on its investment.
2. It pays floating under the terms of the swap.
3. It receives 2.97% under the terms of the swap.
These three sets of cash flows net out to an interest rate inflow of 2.77%. Thus, one possible use of the swap for Intel is to transform an asset earning floating minus 20 basis points into an asset earning 2.77%.Figure 7.5 Apple uses the swap in Figure 7.1 to convert a fixed-rate
investment into a floating-rate investment.
Citigroup Apple3.0%
Floatin g2.7%
Financial institutions such as Citigroup act as market makers and provide bid and ask quotes for the fixed rates that they are prepared to exchange in swaps. Table 7.4 shows the full set of quotes that might be made at the time of the trades considered in Figures 7.3 to 7.6. The bid quote is the fixed rate that applies when the financial 7.4 THE ORGANIZATION OF TRADING
Figure 7.6 Intel uses the swap in Figure 7.3 to convert a floating-rate
investment into a fixed-rate investment.
Citigroup Intel2.97%
Floating 2 0.2%
Floatin g
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Swaps 179
Swap Market Mechanics and Conventions
- Financial institutions act as market makers by providing bid and ask quotes for fixed rates in swap agreements.
- The bid-ask spread, typically three to four basis points, serves as compensation for the market maker's operational costs and risks.
- Post-2008 regulations require standard swaps between financial institutions to be cleared through central counterparties, necessitating collateral and margin.
- Day count conventions, such as actual/360 or 30/360, create subtle variations in payment calculations and can make fixed and floating rates difficult to compare directly.
- Market makers often hedge their exposure by entering into offsetting trades with other financial institutions when a direct match between nonfinancial companies is unavailable.
Whereas the trade with Intel might require no collateral to be posted, the hedging trade with another financial institution would require both initial and variation margin because it would be cleared through a CCP.
Financial institutions such as Citigroup act as market makers and provide bid and ask quotes for the fixed rates that they are prepared to exchange in swaps. Table 7.4 shows the full set of quotes that might be made at the time of the trades considered in Figures 7.3 to 7.6. The bid quote is the fixed rate that applies when the financial 7.4 THE ORGANIZATION OF TRADING
Figure 7.6 Intel uses the swap in Figure 7.3 to convert a floating-rate
investment into a fixed-rate investment.
Citigroup Intel2.97%
Floating 2 0.2%
Floatin g
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Swaps 179
institution is paying the fixed rate and receiving floating. The ask quote is the fixed rate
that applies when it is receiving the fixed rate and paying floating. The average of the bid and ask rates is known as the swap rate and is shown in the final column. The spread between the bid and the ask (three to four basis points in the table) compensates the market maker for its costs.
Occasionally a market maker may be lucky enough to enter into offsetting trades
with two different nonfinancial companies. Usually, however, when it enters into a trade with a nonfinancial company, it must enter into the opposite trade with another
financial institution to hedge its risk. This is less profitable. Also, as explained in earlier chapters, the financial crisis of 2008 led to an international agreement that standard swaps between financial institutions be traded on electronic platforms and cleared though central counterparties (CCPs). This agreement would not apply to the swap
in Figures 7.4 and 7.6 because Intel is a nonfinancial company, but it would apply to Citigroupās hedging trade with another financial institution. Whereas the trade with Intel might require no collateral to be posted, the hedging trade with another financial institution would require both initial and variation margin because it would be cleared through a CCP . This point is discussed further in Chapter 9.
Day Count Issues
We discussed day count conventions in Section 6.1. The day count conventions affect payments on a swap and mean that some of the numbers calculated in the examples we have given earlier in this chapter are only approximately correct. Floating reference rates such as SOFR and U.S. LIBOR are quoted on an actual> 360 basis. The first
floating payment in Table 7.1 is based on a rate of 2.2%. Because there are 92 days between March 8, 2022, and June 8, 2022, the floating payment that reflects an actual> 360 day count is
$100,000,000*0.022*92
360=$562,222
In general, it is LRn>360 where L is the principal, R is the floating rate, and n is the
number of days in the accrual period.
The fixed rate in a swap is also quoted with a day count convention. Popular fixed-
rate day counts are actual>365 and 30>360. This means that the fixed and floating rates are often not directly comparable because one applies to 360 days while the other applies to a full year. Also, in the case of actual>365, the fixed-rate cash flows in a swap will vary slightly according to the number of days in the applicable period.Maturity (years) Bid Ask Swap rate
2 2.97 3.00 2.985
3 3.05 3.08 3.065
4 3.15 3.19 3.170
5 3.26 3.30 3.280
7 3.40 3.44 3.420
10 3.48 3.52 3.500Table 7.4 Example of bid and ask fixed rates in the swap market for a swap where
payments are exchanged quarterly (percent per annum).
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180 CHAPTER 7
Business Snapshot 7.1 Extract from Hypothetical Swap Confirmation
Trade date 1 -March-2022
Effective date 8-March-2022
Business day convention (all dates) Following business day
Holiday calendar U.S.
Termination date 8-March-2024
Fixed amounts
Fixed-rate payer Apple Inc.
Fixed-rate notional principal USD 100 million
Fixed rate 3.0% per annum
Fixed-rate day count convention Actual>365
Fixed-rate payment dates Each 8-March, 8-June, 8-September, and
Swap Confirmations and Comparative Advantage
- A swap confirmation is a formal legal agreement between two parties that defines the specific terms of an over-the-counter derivative transaction.
- The International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) provides standardized Master Agreements to handle defaults, collateral, and legal contingencies.
- Business day conventions, such as the 'following business day' rule, ensure payment schedules remain consistent despite weekends or regional holidays.
- The theory of comparative advantage suggests that companies should borrow in the market where they are treated most favorably and then use swaps to reach their desired debt structure.
- Credit ratings significantly influence the borrowing rates offered to corporations, creating the spreads that make interest rate swaps mutually beneficial.
To obtain a new loan, it makes sense for a company to go to the market where it has a comparative advantage.
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180 CHAPTER 7
Business Snapshot 7.1 Extract from Hypothetical Swap Confirmation
Trade date 1 -March-2022
Effective date 8-March-2022
Business day convention (all dates) Following business day
Holiday calendar U.S.
Termination date 8-March-2024
Fixed amounts
Fixed-rate payer Apple Inc.
Fixed-rate notional principal USD 100 million
Fixed rate 3.0% per annum
Fixed-rate day count convention Actual>365
Fixed-rate payment dates Each 8-March, 8-June, 8-September, and
8-December commencing 8-June, 2022, up to and including 8-March, 2024
Floating amounts
Floating-rate payer Citigroup Inc.
Floating-rate notional principal USD 100 million
Floating rate 3-month SOFR reference rate
Floating-rate day count convention Actual>360
Floating-rate payment dates Each 8-March, 8-June, 8-September, and
8-December commencing 8-June, 2022, up to and including 8-March, 2024
For ease of exposition, we will ignore day count issues in our valuations in this
chapter.
Confirmations
When swaps are traded bilaterally a legal agreement, known as a confirmation, is signed by representatives of the two parties. The drafting of confirmations has been facilitated by the work of the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) in New York. This organization has produced a number of Master Agreements that are
designed to cover all over-the-counter derivative transactions between two parties and define what happens in the event of default by either side, collateral requirements (if any), and so on. Business Snapshot 7.1 shows a possible extract from the confirmation for the swap between Apple and the Citigroup in Figure 7.1. Almost certainly, the full confirmation would state that the provisions of an ISDA Master Agreement apply to the contract.
The confirmation specifies that the following business day convention is to be used
and that the U.S. calendar determines which days are business days and which days are holidays. This means that, if a payment date falls on a weekend or a U.S. holiday, the payment is made on the next business day.
2
2 Another business day convention that is sometimes specified is the modified following business day
convention, which is the same as the following business day convention except that when the next business
day falls in a different month from the specified day, the payment is made on the immediately preceding business day. Preceding and modified preceding business day conventions are defined analogously.
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Swaps 181
Fixed rate Floating rate
AAACorp 4.0% Floating -0.1%
BBBCorp 5.2% Floating +0.6%Table 7.5 Borrowing rates that provide a basis for the comparative-advantage
argument. āFloatingā is the floating reference rate.An explanation commonly put forward to explain the popularity of swaps concerns
comparative advantages. In this context, a comparative advantage is advantage that leads to company being treated more favorably in one debt market than in another debt market. Consider the use of an interest rate swap to transform a liability. Some companies, it is argued, have a comparative advantage when borrowing in fixed-rate markets, whereas other companies have a comparative advantage when borrowing in floating-rate markets. To obtain a new loan, it makes sense for a company to go to the market where it has a comparative advantage. As a result, the company may borrow fixed when it wants floating, or borrow floating when it wants fixed. The swap is used to transform a fixed-rate loan into a floating-rate loan, and vice versa.
Illustration
Suppose that two companies, AAACorp and BBBCorp, both wish to borrow $10 million for five years and have been offered the rates shown in Table 7.5. AAACorp has a AAA credit rating; BBBCorp has a BBB credit rating.
3 We assume that BBBCorp wants to
The Comparative-Advantage Swap Argument
- Interest rate swaps are often driven by comparative advantages where companies are treated more favorably in one debt market than another.
- A company may choose to borrow in a market where it has a relative advantage even if it prefers a different type of interest rate liability.
- The comparative advantage arises when the difference in rates between two companies is greater in the fixed-rate market than in the floating-rate market.
- By entering a swap, both parties can transform their liabilities and achieve a lower net interest rate than they could obtain independently.
- In the provided example, AAACorp and BBBCorp both reduce their borrowing costs by 0.25% through a direct swap agreement.
One of my students summarized the situation as follows: ā AAACorp pays more less in fixed-rate markets; BBBCorp pays less more in floating-rate markets. ā
BBBCorp 5.2% Floating +0.6%Table 7.5 Borrowing rates that provide a basis for the comparative-advantage
argument. āFloatingā is the floating reference rate.An explanation commonly put forward to explain the popularity of swaps concerns
comparative advantages. In this context, a comparative advantage is advantage that leads to company being treated more favorably in one debt market than in another debt market. Consider the use of an interest rate swap to transform a liability. Some companies, it is argued, have a comparative advantage when borrowing in fixed-rate markets, whereas other companies have a comparative advantage when borrowing in floating-rate markets. To obtain a new loan, it makes sense for a company to go to the market where it has a comparative advantage. As a result, the company may borrow fixed when it wants floating, or borrow floating when it wants fixed. The swap is used to transform a fixed-rate loan into a floating-rate loan, and vice versa.
Illustration
Suppose that two companies, AAACorp and BBBCorp, both wish to borrow $10 million for five years and have been offered the rates shown in Table 7.5. AAACorp has a AAA credit rating; BBBCorp has a BBB credit rating.
3 We assume that BBBCorp wants to
borrow at a fixed rate of interest, whereas AAACorp wants to borrow at a floating rate. Since BBBCorp has a worse credit rating than AAACorp, it pays a higher rate of interest in both fixed and floating markets.
A key feature of the rates offered to AAACorp and BBBCorp is that the difference
between the two fixed rates is greater than that between the two floating rates. BBBCorp pays 1.2% more than AAACorp in fixed-rate markets and only 0.7% more than AAACorp in floating-rate markets. BBBCorp appears to have a comparative advantage in floating-rate markets, whereas AAACorp appears to have a comparative advantage in fixed-rate markets.
4 It is this apparent anomaly that can lead to a swap being negotiated.
AAACorp borrows fixed-rate funds at 4% per annum. BBBCorp borrows funds at
floating plus 0.6% per annum. They then enter into a swap agreement to ensure that AAACorp ends up with floating-rate funds and BBBCorp with fixed-rate funds.
To understand how the swap might work, we first assume (somewhat unrealistically)
that AAACorp and BBBCorp get in touch with each other directly. The sort of swap 7.5 THE COMPARATIVE-ADVANTAGE ARGUMENT
4 Note that BBBCorpās comparative advantage in floating-rate markets does not imply that BBBCorp pays
less than AAACorp in this market. It means that the extra amount that BBBCorp pays over the amount paid
by AAACorp is less in this market. One of my students summarized the situation as follows: ā AAACorp pays more less in fixed-rate markets; BBBCorp pays less more in floating-rate markets. ā3 The credit ratings assigned to companies by S&P and Fitch (in order of decreasing creditworthiness) are
AAA, AA, A, BBB, BB, B, and CCC. The corresponding ratings assigned by Moodyās are Aaa, Aa, A, Baa, Ba, B, and Caa, respectively.
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182 CHAPTER 7
they might negotiate is shown in Figure 7.7. AAACorp agrees to pay BBBCorp interest
at a floating reference rate on $10 million. In return, BBBCorp agrees to pay AAACorp interest at a fixed rate of 4.35% per annum on $10 million.
AAACorp has three sets of interest rate cash flows:
1. It pays 4% per annum to outside lenders.
2. It receives 4.35% per annum from BBBCorp.
3. It pays floating to BBBCorp.
The net effect of the three cash flows is that AAACorp pays floating minus 0.35% per annum. This is 0.25% per annum less than it would pay if it went directly to floating- rate markets.
BBBCorp also has three sets of interest rate cash flows:
1. It pays floating
+0.6% per annum to outside lenders.
2. It receives floating from AAACorp.
3. It pays 4.35% per annum to AAACorp.
Mechanics of Interest Rate Swaps
- Interest rate swaps allow companies to exchange cash flows to achieve lower borrowing costs than those available in direct markets.
- The total gain from a swap is determined by the difference between the fixed-rate spread and the floating-rate spread of the two participating entities.
- Financial institutions often act as intermediaries in these transactions, taking a small spread while facilitating gains for both the fixed and floating-rate payers.
- The apparent comparative advantage in these markets may be an illusion caused by the different risk profiles of long-term fixed rates versus short-term floating rates.
- Lenders in floating-rate markets retain the right to review creditworthiness and adjust spreads periodically, a flexibility not available in fixed-rate bond contracts.
In extreme circumstances, the lender can refuse to continue the loan.
AAACorp has three sets of interest rate cash flows:
1. It pays 4% per annum to outside lenders.
2. It receives 4.35% per annum from BBBCorp.
3. It pays floating to BBBCorp.
The net effect of the three cash flows is that AAACorp pays floating minus 0.35% per annum. This is 0.25% per annum less than it would pay if it went directly to floating- rate markets.
BBBCorp also has three sets of interest rate cash flows:
1. It pays floating
+0.6% per annum to outside lenders.
2. It receives floating from AAACorp.
3. It pays 4.35% per annum to AAACorp.
The net effect of the three cash flows is that BBBCorp pays 4.95% per annum. This is 0.25% per annum less than it would pay if it went directly to fixed-rate markets.
In this example, the swap has been structured so that the net gain to both sides is the
same, 0.25%. This need not be the case. However, the total apparent gain from this
type of interest rate swap arrangement is always
a-b, where a is the difference between
the interest rates facing the two companies in fixed-rate markets, and b is the difference between the interest rates facing the two companies in floating-rate markets. In this case,
a=1.2% and b=0.7%, so that the total gain is 0.5%.
If the transaction between AAACorp and BBBCorp were brokered by a financial
institution, an arrangement such as that shown in Figure 7.8 might result. In this case, AAACorp ends up borrowing at
floating-0.33%, BBBCorp ends up borrowing at
4.97%, and the financial institution earns a spread of four basis points per year. The
gain to AAACorp is 0.23%; the gain to BBBCorp is 0.23%; and the gain to the
financial institution is 0.04%. The total gain to all three parties is 0.5% as before.Figure 7.7 Swap agreement between AAACorp and BBBCorp when rates
in Table 7.5 apply.
AAA Corp BBBCorp4.35%
4% FloatingFloating 1 0.6%
Figure 7.8 Swap agreement between AAACorp and BBBCorp when rates in Table 7.5
apply and swap is brokered by a financial institution.
AAA CorpFinancial
institutionBBBCorp4.33%4%
Floating4.37%
Floating Floating 1 0.6%
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Swaps 183
Criticism of the Comparative-Advantage Argument
The comparative-advantage argument we have just outlined for explaining the attractive-
ness of interest rate swaps is open to question. Why in Table 7.5 should the spreads between the rates offered to AAACorp and BBBCorp be different in fixed and floating markets? Now that the interest rate swap market has been in existence for a long time, we might reasonably expect these types of differences to have been arbitraged away.
The reason that spread differentials appear to exist is due to the nature of the
contracts available to companies in fixed and floating markets. Suppose that the
floating reference rate is a three-month rate. The 4.0% and 5.2% rates available to AAACorp and BBBCorp in fixed-rate markets are five-year rates (for example, the rates
at which the companies can issue five-year fixed-rate bonds). The rates offered in floating-rate markets are three-month rates. In the floating-rate market, the lender usually has the opportunity to review the spread above the floating reference rate every time rates are reset. (In our example, rates are reset quarterly.) If the creditworthiness of AAACorp or BBBCorp has declined, the lender has the option of increasing the spread over the floating reference rate that is charged. In extreme circumstances, the lender can refuse to continue the loan. The providers of fixed-rate financing do not have the option
to change the terms of the loan in this way.
5
Interest Rate Swap Valuation
- Fixed-rate markets reflect long-term default probabilities, whereas floating-rate markets allow lenders to adjust spreads based on credit rating changes.
- The apparent cost savings of a swap for a lower-rated company may be illusory if its creditworthiness declines and floating-rate spreads increase during the swap's life.
- High-rated companies using swaps to lower borrowing costs take on counterparty risk from financial institutions that they would not face in traditional borrowing.
- Interest rate swaps are valued by treating them as a portfolio of forward rate agreements where future floating rates are assumed to equal current forward rates.
- The valuation process involves calculating forward rates, determining expected cash flows, and discounting them back to the present at the risk-free rate.
In extreme circumstances, the lender can refuse to continue the loan.
floating reference rate is a three-month rate. The 4.0% and 5.2% rates available to AAACorp and BBBCorp in fixed-rate markets are five-year rates (for example, the rates
at which the companies can issue five-year fixed-rate bonds). The rates offered in floating-rate markets are three-month rates. In the floating-rate market, the lender usually has the opportunity to review the spread above the floating reference rate every time rates are reset. (In our example, rates are reset quarterly.) If the creditworthiness of AAACorp or BBBCorp has declined, the lender has the option of increasing the spread over the floating reference rate that is charged. In extreme circumstances, the lender can refuse to continue the loan. The providers of fixed-rate financing do not have the option
to change the terms of the loan in this way.
5
The spreads between the rates offered to AAACorp and BBBCorp are a reflection of
the extent to which BBBCorp is more likely to default than AAACorp. During the next three months, there is very little chance that either AAACorp or BBBCorp will default. As we look further ahead, default statistics show that on average the probability of a default by a company with a BBB credit rating increases faster than the probability of a default by a company with a AAA credit rating. This is why the spread between the
five-year rates is greater than the spread between the three-month floating rates.
After negotiating a loan at
floating+0.6% and entering into the swap shown in
Figure 7.8, BBBCorp appears to obtain a fixed-rate loan at 4.97%. The arguments just
presented show that this is not really the case. In practice, the rate paid is 4.97% only if BBBCorp can continue to borrow floating-rate funds at a spread of 0.6% over the floating reference rate. If, for example, the credit rating of BBBCorp declines so that the
floating-rate loan is rolled over at
floating+1.6%, the rate paid by BBBCorp increases
to 5.97%. The market expects that BBBCorpās spread over the floating reference rate will on average rise during the swapās life. BBBCorpās expected average borrowing rate when it enters into the swap is therefore greater than 4.97%.
The swap in Figure 7.8 locks in 0.33% below the floating reference rate for AAACorp
for the next five years, not just for the next three months. This appears to be a good deal for AAACorp. The downside is that unless collateral is posted it is bearing the risk of a default by the financial institution. If it borrowed floating-rate funds in the usual way, it would not be bearing this risk.
5 If the floating-rate loans are structured so that the spread over the reference rate is guaranteed in advance
regardless of changes in credit rating, there is in practice little or no comparative advantage.We now move on to discuss the valuation of interest rate swaps. An interest rate swap is worth close to zero when it is first initiated. After it has been in existence for some time, its value may be positive or negative.7.6 VALUATION OF INTEREST RATE SWAPS
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184 CHAPTER 7
Each exchange of payment in a swap can be regarded as a forward rate agreement
(FRA). As shown at the end of Section 4.9, an FRA can be valued by assuming that
forward rates are realized. Because it is nothing more than a portfolio of FRAs, an interest rate swap can also be valued by assuming that forward rates are realized. The procedure is:
1. Calculate forward rates for each of the unknown floating rates that will determine swap cash flows.
2. Calculate the swap cash flows on the assumption that unknown floating rates will
equal forward rates.
3. Discount the swap cash flows at the risk-free rate.
Valuing Interest Rate Swaps
- An interest rate swap can be valued as a portfolio of forward rate agreements (FRAs) by assuming that forward rates are realized.
- The valuation process involves calculating forward rates for unknown floating payments and discounting the resulting net cash flows at the risk-free rate.
- For OIS swaps, forward rates are derived from the risk-free zero curve, while LIBOR swaps utilize Eurodollar futures and existing swap rates for estimation.
- The first floating payment in a swap often does not require a forward rate calculation because the rate has already been partially or fully observed.
- A practical example demonstrates how semiannual fixed and floating cash flows are netted and discounted to determine the swap's current present value.
Because it is nothing more than a portfolio of FRAs, an interest rate swap can also be valued by assuming that forward rates are realized.
Each exchange of payment in a swap can be regarded as a forward rate agreement
(FRA). As shown at the end of Section 4.9, an FRA can be valued by assuming that
forward rates are realized. Because it is nothing more than a portfolio of FRAs, an interest rate swap can also be valued by assuming that forward rates are realized. The procedure is:
1. Calculate forward rates for each of the unknown floating rates that will determine swap cash flows.
2. Calculate the swap cash flows on the assumption that unknown floating rates will
equal forward rates.
3. Discount the swap cash flows at the risk-free rate.
The value of a swap therefore requires a calculation of forward rates corresponding to
all floating payments and risk-free rates to discount the net cash flows from payments dates to the present. We explained how to calculate a risk-free zero curve from OIS rates earlier in the chapter. This provides the necessary risk-free rates. Furthermore, if the swap is an OIS, the relevant forward rates can be calculated from this risk-free zero curve using the formulas in Section 4.8. Note that the first rate required is not really a forward rate. It is a blend of one-day rates already observed and the zero rate that corresponds to the remaining one-day rates in the period.
In the case of a LIBOR swap, the necessary forward rates are estimated from
Eurodollar futures and swap rates (assuming these are available). Eurodollar futures
provide a direct estimate of forward rates (although a convexity adjustment might be necessary as discussed in Chapter 6). In the case of swap rates, we use that fact that
swap rates such as those in Table 7.4 define swaps that are worth zero. This provides equations that must be satisfied by forward rates. With appropriate interpolation a complete forward curve consistent with the swaps rates can be obtained. Note that the
first LIBOR payment has generally already been determined and does not require a forward rate calculation.
Example 7.1
Suppose that some time ago a financial institution entered into a swap where it
agreed to make semiannual payments at a rate of 3% per annum and receive the SOFR six-month reference rate on a notional principal of $100 million. The swap now has a remaining life of 1.2 years. Payments will therefore be exchanged at 0.2,
0.7, and 1.2 years. Assume the risk-free rates with continuous compounding
(calculated from SOFR) for 0.2, 0.7, and 1.2 years are 2.8%, 3.2%, and 3.4%,
respectively. Assume also that the continuously compounded risk-free rate ob-served for the last 0.3 years (which contain 60% of the days that will determine
the exchange at 0.2 years) is 2.3%. The floating rate for the exchange at 0.2 years is
assumed to be
0.6*2.3%+0.4*2.8%, or 2.50%. The floating rate for exchange
at 0.7 years is the forward rate for the period between 0.2 and 0.7 years. This is 3.36% with continuous compounding. Similarly, the floating rate for the exchange at 1.2 years is the forward rate for the period between 0.7 years and 1.2 years. This is 3.68% with continuous compounding.
The swap is therefore valued assuming that the three floating rates are 2.50%,
3.36%, and 3.68% with continuous compounding. With semiannual compound-ing, these rates become 2.516%, 3.388%, and 3.714%. The calculations for valuing
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Swaps 185
the swap are therefore as indicated in the following table (all cash flows are in
millions of dollars):
Time
(years)Fixed
cash flowFloating
cash flowNet
cash flowDiscount
factorPresent value
of net cash flow
0.2 -1.500 +1.258 -0.242 0.9944 -0.241
0.7 -1.500 +1.694 +0.194 0.9778 +0.190
1.2 -1.500 +1.857 +0.357 0.9600 +0.343
Total +0.292
Consider, for example, the 0.7 year row. The fixed cash flow is -0.5*0.03*100,
or -$1.500 million. The floating cash flow, assuming forward rates are realized, is
0.5*0.03388*100, or $1.694 million. The net cash flow is therefore $0.194 mil-
Valuing Interest Rate Swaps
- The value of an interest rate swap is determined by summing the present values of all future net cash flows, calculated using forward rates and discount factors.
- While a swap is structured to have a net value of zero at initiation, individual cash flow exchanges within the swap typically have non-zero values.
- The term structure of interest rates dictates whether early exchanges in a swap will have positive or negative values relative to later ones.
- Currency swaps differ from interest rate swaps by requiring the exchange of principal amounts in two different currencies at both the beginning and end of the contract.
- The expected future value of a swap changes over time as early exchanges are completed, potentially shifting the contract from a positive to a negative valuation.
The fixed rate in an interest rate swap is chosen so that the swap is worth zero initially.
the swap are therefore as indicated in the following table (all cash flows are in
millions of dollars):
Time
(years)Fixed
cash flowFloating
cash flowNet
cash flowDiscount
factorPresent value
of net cash flow
0.2 -1.500 +1.258 -0.242 0.9944 -0.241
0.7 -1.500 +1.694 +0.194 0.9778 +0.190
1.2 -1.500 +1.857 +0.357 0.9600 +0.343
Total +0.292
Consider, for example, the 0.7 year row. The fixed cash flow is -0.5*0.03*100,
or -$1.500 million. The floating cash flow, assuming forward rates are realized, is
0.5*0.03388*100, or $1.694 million. The net cash flow is therefore $0.194 mil-
lion. The discount factor is e-0.032*0.7=0.9778, so that the present value is
$0.194*0.9778=$0.190.
The value of the swap is obtained by summing the present values. It is
$0.292 million. (Note that these calculations are approximate because they do not take account of holiday calendars and day count conventions.)
The fixed rate in an interest rate swap is chosen so that the swap is worth zero initially. This does not mean that each cash flow exchange in the swap is worth zero initially. Instead, it means that the sum of the values of the cash flow exchanges is zero. Figure 7.9 shows two alternative situations in swap where there are ten cash-flow exchanges.
Figure 7.9a would arise in the situation where the term structure of interest rates is
upward sloping and a fixed rate of interest is being received while the floating rate is paid. The upward-sloping term structure produces forward rates that increase with maturity. As a result the value of the exchanges decreases with maturity. Because the sum of the exchanges is zero, it follows that the early exchanges must have a positive value while the later ones have a negative value. If the term structure of rates is upward sloping and the fixed rate is being paid while the floating rate is received, a similar argument shows that the early exchanges will have a negative value while the later exchanges have a positive value. This is the situation in Figure 7.9b. When the term structure is downward sloping, the position is reversed, so that Figure 7.9a shows
the situation where the fixed rate is paid and Figure 7.9b where the fixed rate is received.
These results can be used to determine whether the swap is expected to have a
positive or negative value in the future. In Figure 7.9a the value of the swap is expected
to become negative with the passage of time because the early positive-value exchanges
will have been made. Similarly, in Figure 7.9b the value of the swap is expected to become positive with the passage of time because the early negative-value exchanges will have been made.
67.7 HOW THE VALUE CHANGES THROUGH TIME
6 Expected values are those that are expected to happen on average, not what is certain to happen. For
example, if interest rates decline unexpectedly, the swap in Figure 7.9a could have a positive value for the
whole of its life.
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186 CHAPTER 7
Figure 7.9 Two possible patterns for the value of the cash-flow exchanges in an interest
rate swap.
Value of e xchange
Maturity
(a)
Value of e xchange
Maturity
(b)
Another popular type of swap is a fixed-for-fixed currency swap. This involves exchang-
ing principal and interest payments at a fixed rate in one currency for principal and interest payments at a fixed rate in another currency.
A currency swap agreement requires the principal to be specified in each of the two
currencies. The principal amounts in each currency are usually exchanged at the beginning and at the end of the life of the swap. Usually the principal amounts are
chosen to be approximately equivalent using the exchange rate at the swapās initiation. But when they are exchanged at the end of the life of the swap, their values may be quite different.
Illustration
Fixed-for-Fixed Currency Swaps
- A fixed-for-fixed currency swap involves the exchange of principal and interest payments in one currency for those in another at predetermined fixed rates.
- Unlike interest rate swaps, currency swaps typically require the exchange of principal amounts at both the beginning and the end of the contract's life.
- The principal amounts are usually set to be equivalent based on the exchange rate at the swap's initiation, though their market values may diverge significantly by the end of the term.
- These financial instruments allow corporations to transform liabilities by effectively converting a loan in one currency into a loan in another.
- Swaps also serve to transform assets, allowing investors to switch the currency denomination of their returns to capitalize on predicted exchange rate movements.
The principal amounts in each currency are usually exchanged at the beginning and at the end of the life of the swap.
Another popular type of swap is a fixed-for-fixed currency swap. This involves exchang-
ing principal and interest payments at a fixed rate in one currency for principal and interest payments at a fixed rate in another currency.
A currency swap agreement requires the principal to be specified in each of the two
currencies. The principal amounts in each currency are usually exchanged at the beginning and at the end of the life of the swap. Usually the principal amounts are
chosen to be approximately equivalent using the exchange rate at the swapās initiation. But when they are exchanged at the end of the life of the swap, their values may be quite different.
Illustration
Consider a hypothetical five-year currency swap agreement between British Petroleum and Barclays entered into on February 1, 2022. We suppose that British Petroleum pays
a fixed rate of interest of 3% in dollars to Barclays and receives a fixed rate of interest of 7.8 FIXED-FOR-FIXED CURRENCY SWAPS
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Swaps 187
4% in British pounds (sterling) from Barclays. Interest rate payments are made once a
year and the principal amounts are $15 million and £10 million. This is termed a fixed-
for-fixed currency swap because the interest rate in both currencies is fixed. The swap is shown in Figure 7.10. Initially, the principal amounts flow in the opposite direction to
the arrows in Figure 7.10. The interest payments during the life of the swap and the final principal payment flow in the same direction as the arrows. Thus, at the outset of the
swap, British Petroleum pays £10 million and receives $15 million. Each year during the life of the swap contract, British Petroleum receives £0.40 million (
= 4% of £10 million)
and pays $0.45 million ( = 3% of $15 million). At the end of the life of the swap, it pays
$15 million and receives £10 million. These cash flows are shown in Table 7.6. The cash flows to Barclays are the opposite to those shown.
Use of a Currency Swap to Transform Liabilities
and Assets
A swap such as the one just considered can be used to transform borrowings in one currency to borrowings in another currency. Suppose that British Petroleum can borrow £10 million at 4% interest. The swap has the effect of transforming this loan into one where it has borrowed $15 million at 3% interest. The initial exchange of principal converts the amount borrowed from sterling to dollars. The subsequent exchanges in the swap have the effect of swapping the interest and principal payments from sterling to dollars.
The swap can also be used to transform the nature of assets. Suppose that British
Petroleum can invest $15 million to earn 3% in U.S. dollars for the next five years, but feels that sterling will strengthen (or at least not depreciate) against the dollar and prefers a U.K.-denominated investment. The swap has the effect of transforming the U.S. investment into a £10 million investment in the U.K. yielding 4%.
Date Dollar cash flow
(millions)Sterling cash flow
(millions)
February 1, 2022 +15.00 -10.00
February 1, 2023 -0.45 +0.40
February 1, 2024 -0.45 +0.40
February 1, 2025 -0.45 +0.40
February 1, 2026 -0.45 +0.40
February 1, 2027 -15.45 +10.40Table 7.6 Cash flows to British Petroleum in currency swap.Figure 7.10 A currency swap.
BarclaysBritish
PetroleumDollars 3.0%
Sterling 4.0%
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188 CHAPTER 7
Comparative Advantage
Currency swaps can be motivated by comparative advantage. To illustrate this, we
consider another hypothetical example. Suppose the five-year fixed-rate borrowing costs
Currency Swaps and Comparative Advantage
- Currency swaps allow companies to exploit comparative advantages in different national borrowing markets to lower their overall interest costs.
- A comparative advantage exists when the spread between borrowing rates for two companies differs across two different currencies.
- Unlike plain vanilla interest rate swaps, comparative advantages in currency markets are often genuine and frequently driven by international tax structures.
- Financial institutions typically act as intermediaries in these swaps, bearing the foreign exchange risk while facilitating gains for both borrowing parties.
- In the provided example, General Electric and Qantas Airways achieve a combined annual gain of 1.6% by borrowing in their most favorable markets and swapping the obligations.
In Table 7.5, where a plain vanilla interest rate swap was considered, we argued that comparative advantages are largely illusory. Here we are comparing the rates offered in two different currencies, and it is more likely that the comparative advantages are genuine.
February 1, 2024 -0.45 +0.40
February 1, 2025 -0.45 +0.40
February 1, 2026 -0.45 +0.40
February 1, 2027 -15.45 +10.40Table 7.6 Cash flows to British Petroleum in currency swap.Figure 7.10 A currency swap.
BarclaysBritish
PetroleumDollars 3.0%
Sterling 4.0%
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188 CHAPTER 7
Comparative Advantage
Currency swaps can be motivated by comparative advantage. To illustrate this, we
consider another hypothetical example. Suppose the five-year fixed-rate borrowing costs
to General Electric and Qantas Airways in U.S. dollars (USD) and Australian dollars (AUD) are as shown in Table 7.7. The data in the table suggest that Australian rates are higher than U.S. interest rates. Also, General Electric is more creditworthy than Qantas Airways, because it is offered a more favorable rate of interest in both currencies. From the viewpoint of a swap trader, the interesting aspect of Table 7.7 is that the spreads between the rates paid by General Electric and Qantas Airways in the two markets are not the same. Qantas Airways pays 2% more than General Electric in the USD market and only 0.4% more than General Electric in the AUD market.
This situation is analogous to that in Table 7.5. General Electric has a comparative
advantage in the USD market, whereas Qantas Airways has a comparative advantage in the AUD market. In Table 7.5, where a plain vanilla interest rate swap was
considered, we argued that comparative advantages are largely illusory. Here we are comparing the rates offered in two different currencies, and it is more likely that the comparative advantages are genuine. One possible source of comparative advantage is tax. General Electricās position might be such that USD borrowings lead to lower taxes on its worldwide income than AUD borrowings. Qantas Airwaysā position might be the reverse. (Note that we assume that the interest rates in Table 7.7 have been adjusted to reflect these types of tax advantages.)
We suppose that General Electric wants to borrow 20 million AUD and Qantas
Airways wants to borrow 15 million USD and that the current exchange rate (USD per AUD) is 0.7500. This creates a perfect situation for a currency swap. General Electric and Qantas Airways each borrow in the market where they have a comparative advantage; that is, General Electric borrows USD whereas Qantas Airways borrows
AUD. They then use a currency swap to transform General Electricās loan into a AUD loan and Qantas Airwaysā loan into a USD loan.
As already mentioned, the difference between the dollar interest rates is 2%, whereas
the difference between the AUD interest rates is 0.4%. By analogy with the interest rate swap case, we expect the total gain to all parties to be
2.0-0.4=1.6% per annum.
There are many ways in which the swap can be arranged. Figure 7.11 shows one
way a swap might be brokered by a financial institution. General Electric borrows USD and Qantas Airways borrows AUD. The effect of the swap is to transform the USD interest rate of 5% per annum to an AUD interest rate of 6.9% per annum for General Electric. As a result, General Electric is 0.7% per annum better off than it would be if it went directly to AUD markets. Similarly, Qantas exchanges an AUD loan at 8% per annum for a USD loan at 6.3% per annum and ends up 0.7% per
USD*AUD*
General Electric 5.0% 7.6%
Qantas Airways 7.0% 8.0%
* Quoted rates have been adjusted to reflect the differential impact of taxes.Table 7.7 Borrowing rates providing basis for currency swap.
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Swaps 189
7 Usually it makes sense for the financial institution to bear the foreign exchange risk, because it is in the best
position to hedge the risk.Figure 7.11 A currency swap motivated by comparative advantage.
Financial
institutionGeneral
ElectricQantas
AirwaysUSD 5.0%
AUD 6.9%USD 6.3%
AUD 8.0%AUD 8.0% USD 5.0%
Currency Swap Mechanics and Valuation
- Currency swaps leverage comparative advantage to allow parties like General Electric and Qantas to borrow more efficiently in foreign markets.
- Financial institutions typically act as intermediaries, bearing and hedging foreign exchange risk to ensure the primary parties remain risk-free.
- The total gain from a swap is distributed among the participants, with the intermediary often locking in profits through forward market contracts.
- Fixed-for-fixed currency swaps can be valued by treating each exchange of payments as a series of individual forward contracts.
- Valuation involves projecting future cash flows in both currencies, converting them using forward exchange rates, and discounting them to the present.
Usually it makes sense for the financial institution to bear the foreign exchange risk, because it is in the best position to hedge the risk.
* Quoted rates have been adjusted to reflect the differential impact of taxes.Table 7.7 Borrowing rates providing basis for currency swap.
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Swaps 189
7 Usually it makes sense for the financial institution to bear the foreign exchange risk, because it is in the best
position to hedge the risk.Figure 7.11 A currency swap motivated by comparative advantage.
Financial
institutionGeneral
ElectricQantas
AirwaysUSD 5.0%
AUD 6.9%USD 6.3%
AUD 8.0%AUD 8.0% USD 5.0%
Figure 7.12 Alternative arrangement for currency swap: Qantas Airways bears some
foreign exchange risk.
Financial
institutionGeneral
ElectricQantas
AirwaysUSD 5.0%
AUD 6.9%USD 5.2%
AUD 6.9%AUD 8.0% USD 5.0%
Figure 7.13 Alternative arrangement for currency swap: General Electric bears some
foreign exchange risk.
Financial
institutionGeneral
ElectricQantas
AirwaysUSD 6.1%
AUD 8.0%USD 6.3%
AUD 8.0%AUD 8.0% USD 5.0%
annum better off than it would be if it went directly to USD markets. The financial
institution gains 1.3% per annum on its USD cash flows and loses 1.1% per annum on its AUD flows. If we ignore the difference between the two currencies, the financial institution makes a net gain of 0.2% per annum. As predicted, the total gain to all parties is 1.6% per annum.
Each year the financial institution makes a gain of USD 195,000 (
= 1.3% of
15 million) and incurs a loss of AUD 220,000 ( = 1.1% of 20 million). The financial
institution can avoid any foreign exchange risk by buying AUD 220,000 per annum in the forward market for each year of the life of the swap, thus locking in a net gain
in USD.
It is possible to redesign the swap so that the financial institution does not need to
hedge. Figures 7.12 and 7.13 present two alternatives. These alternatives are unlikely to be used in practice because they do not lead to General Electric and Qantas being free of foreign exchange risk.
7 In Figure 7.12, Qantas bears some foreign exchange risk because
it pays 1.1% per annum in AUD and pays 5.2% per annum in USD. In Figure 7.13, General Electric bears some foreign exchange risk because it receives 1.1% per annum in USD and pays 8% per annum in AUD.
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190 CHAPTER 7
Each exchange of payments in a fixed-for-fixed currency swap is a forward contract. As
shown in Section 5.7, forward foreign exchange contracts can be valued by assuming that forward exchange rates are realized. A fixed-for-fixed currency swap can therefore be valued assuming that forward rates are realized.
Example 7.2
Suppose that the term structure of risk-free interest rates is flat in both Japan and
the United States. The Japanese rate is 1.5% per annum and the U.S. rate is 2.5% per annum (both with continuous compounding). A financial institution has entered into a currency swap in which it receives 3% per annum in yen and pays 4% per annum in dollars once a year. The principals in the two currencies are
$10 million and 1,200 million yen. The swap will last for another three years, and the current exchange rate is 110 yen per dollar. The calculations for valuing the swap as the sum of forward foreign exchange contracts are summarized in the following table (all amounts are in millions):
Time
(years)Dollar
cash flowYen
cash flowForward
exchange rateDollar value of
yen cash flowNet
cash flowPresent
value
1 -0.4 +36 0.009182 0.3306 -0.0694-0.0677
2 -0.4 +36 0.009275 0.3339 -0.0661-0.0629
3 -10.4 +1236 0.009368 11.5786 +1.1786+1.0934
Total +0.9629
The financial institution pays 0.04*10=$0.4 million dollars and receives
1,200*0.03=36 million yen each year. In addition, the dollar principal of
$10 million is paid and the yen principal of 1,200 million is received at the end of year 3. The current spot rate is
1>110=0.009091 dollar per yen. In this case,
r=2.5% and rf=1.5% so that the one-year forward exchange rate is, from
Valuation of Currency Swaps
- Currency swaps can be valued by decomposing them into a series of individual forward contracts based on interest rate differentials.
- While a swap typically has zero value at inception, the individual forward contracts within it often have non-zero values.
- The payer of a high-interest-rate currency generally sees positive swap value over time, while the low-interest-rate payer sees negative value.
- An alternative valuation method treats the swap as the difference between the prices of a domestic bond and a foreign bond.
- These valuation fluctuations are critical for assessing credit risk in bilaterally cleared financial transactions.
For the payer of the high-interest-rate currency, the reverse is true. The value of the swap will tend to be positive during most of its life.
1 -0.4 +36 0.009182 0.3306 -0.0694-0.0677
2 -0.4 +36 0.009275 0.3339 -0.0661-0.0629
3 -10.4 +1236 0.009368 11.5786 +1.1786+1.0934
Total +0.9629
The financial institution pays 0.04*10=$0.4 million dollars and receives
1,200*0.03=36 million yen each year. In addition, the dollar principal of
$10 million is paid and the yen principal of 1,200 million is received at the end of year 3. The current spot rate is
1>110=0.009091 dollar per yen. In this case,
r=2.5% and rf=1.5% so that the one-year forward exchange rate is, from
equation (5.9), 0.009091e10.025-0.0152*1=0.009182. The two- and three-year for -
ward exchange rates in the table are calculated similarly. The forward contracts underlying the swap can be valued by assuming that the forward exchange rates are realized. If the one-year forward exchange rate is realized, the value of yen
cash flow in year 1 will be
36*0.009182=0.3306 million dollars and the net cash
flow at the end of year 1 will be 0.3306-0.4=-0.0694 million dollars. This has
a present value of -0.0694e-0.025*1=-0.0677 million dollars. This is the value
of the forward contract corresponding to the exchange of cash flows at the end of
year 1. The value of the other forward contracts are calculated similarly. As
shown in the table, the total value of the forward contracts is $0.9629 million.
The value of a currency swap is normally zero when it is first negotiated. If the two principals are worth exactly the same using the exchange rate at the start of the swap, the value of the swap is also zero immediately after the initial exchange of principal. However, as in the case of interest rate swaps, this does not mean that each of the individual forward contracts underlying the swap has zero value. It can be shown that when interest rates in two currencies are significantly different, the payer of the high-interest-rate currency is in the position where the forward contracts corresponding to 7.9 VALUATION OF FIXED-FOR-FIXED CURRENCY SWAPS
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Swaps 191
the early exchanges of cash flows have negative values, and the forward contract
corresponding to final exchange of principals has a positive value. The payer of the low-interest-rate currency is likely to be in the opposite position; that is, the early exchanges of cash flows have positive values and the final exchange has a negative value.
For the payer of the low-interest-rate currency, the swap will tend to have a negative
value during most of its life. The forward contracts corresponding to the early
exchanges of payments have positive values, and once these exchanges have taken place, there is a tendency for the remaining forward contracts to have, in total, a
negative value. For the payer of the high-interest-rate currency, the reverse is true. The value of the swap will tend to be positive during most of its life. Results of this sort are important when the credit risk in bilaterally cleared transactions is considered.
Valuation in Terms of Bond Prices
A fixed-for-fixed currency swap can also be valued in a straightforward way as the difference between two bonds. If we define
Vswap as the value in U.S. dollars of an
outstanding swap where dollars are received and a foreign currency is paid, that is,
Vswap=BD-S0BF
where BF is the value, measured in the foreign currency, of the bond defined by the
foreign cash flows on the swap and BD is the value of the bond defined by the domestic
cash flows on the swap, and S0 is the spot exchange rate (expressed as number of
dollars per unit of foreign currency). The value of a swap can therefore be determined
from the term structure of interest rates in the two currencies and the spot exchange rate.
Similarly, the value of a swap where the foreign currency is received and dollars are
paid is
Vswap=S0BF-BD
Example 7.3
Valuing Currency Swaps
- Currency swaps can be valued by treating the transaction as a combination of a long position in one bond and a short position in another.
- The valuation formula incorporates the spot exchange rate and the present values of cash flows in both the domestic and foreign currencies.
- A practical example demonstrates how differing interest rates in Japan and the U.S. affect the present value of yen and dollar-denominated bonds.
- The total value of the swap is determined by converting the foreign bond value into the domestic currency and subtracting the domestic bond value.
- Beyond fixed-for-fixed swaps, other common variations include fixed-for-floating and floating-for-floating currency exchanges.
The value of a swap can therefore be determined from the term structure of interest rates in the two currencies and the spot exchange rate.
where BF is the value, measured in the foreign currency, of the bond defined by the
foreign cash flows on the swap and BD is the value of the bond defined by the domestic
cash flows on the swap, and S0 is the spot exchange rate (expressed as number of
dollars per unit of foreign currency). The value of a swap can therefore be determined
from the term structure of interest rates in the two currencies and the spot exchange rate.
Similarly, the value of a swap where the foreign currency is received and dollars are
paid is
Vswap=S0BF-BD
Example 7.3
Consider again the situation in Example 7.2. The term structure of risk-free interest rates is flat in both Japan and the United States. The Japanese rate is
1.5% per annum and the U.S. rate is 2.5% per annum (both with continuous
compounding). A financial institution has entered into a currency swap in which it
receives 3% per annum in yen and pays 4% per annum in dollars once a year. The principals in the two currencies are $10 million and 1,200 million yen. The swap will last for another three years, and the current exchange rate is
110 yen=$1.
The calculations for valuing the swap in terms of bonds are summarized in the following table (all amounts are in millions):
Time
(years)Cash flows on
dollar bond ($)Present value
($)Cash flows on
yen bond (yen)Present value
(yen)
1 0.4 0.3901 36 35.46
2 0.4 0.3805 36 34.94
3 10.4 9.6485 1,236 1,181.61
Total 10.4191 1,252.01
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192 CHAPTER 7
The cash flows from the dollar bond underlying the swap are as shown in the
second column. The present value of the cash flows using the dollar discount rate
of 2.5% are shown in the third column. The cash flows from the yen bond
underlying the swap are shown in the fourth column. The present value of the
cash flows using the yen discount rate of 1.5% are shown in the final column of
the table. The value of the dollar bond, BD, is 10.4191 million dollars. The value
of the yen bond is 1,252.01 million yen. The value of the swap in dollars is
therefore 11,252.01>1102-10.4191=0.9629 million. This is in agreement with
the calculation in Example 7.2.
Two other popular currency swaps are:
1. Fixed-for-floating where a floating interest rate in one currency is exchanged for a fixed interest rate in another currency
2. Floating-for-floating where a floating interest rate in one currency is exchanged for a floating interest rate in another currency.
Valuing Complex Currency Swaps
- Currency swaps are valued by calculating the difference between the present values of cash flows in two different currencies using respective discount rates.
- Fixed-for-floating swaps involve exchanging a fixed interest rate in one currency for a floating rate in another, often structured with initial and final principal exchanges.
- A complex swap can be decomposed into a portfolio consisting of a fixed-for-fixed currency swap and one or more interest rate swaps.
- Floating-for-floating swaps are the most complex, effectively acting as a combination of a fixed-for-fixed swap and two separate interest rate swaps in each currency.
- Valuation of floating payments requires assuming that forward rates will be realized and discounting those projected cash flows at the risk-free rate.
A fixed-for-floating swap can be regarded as a portfolio consisting of a fixed-for-fixed currency swap and a fixed-for-floating interest rate swap.
The cash flows from the dollar bond underlying the swap are as shown in the
second column. The present value of the cash flows using the dollar discount rate
of 2.5% are shown in the third column. The cash flows from the yen bond
underlying the swap are shown in the fourth column. The present value of the
cash flows using the yen discount rate of 1.5% are shown in the final column of
the table. The value of the dollar bond, BD, is 10.4191 million dollars. The value
of the yen bond is 1,252.01 million yen. The value of the swap in dollars is
therefore 11,252.01>1102-10.4191=0.9629 million. This is in agreement with
the calculation in Example 7.2.
Two other popular currency swaps are:
1. Fixed-for-floating where a floating interest rate in one currency is exchanged for a fixed interest rate in another currency
2. Floating-for-floating where a floating interest rate in one currency is exchanged for a floating interest rate in another currency.
An example of the first type of swap would be an exchange where a floating rate on a
principal of Ā£7 million is paid and 3% on a principal of $10 million is received with payments being made semiannually for 10 years. Similarly to a fixed-for-fixed currency swap, this would involve an initial exchange of principal in the opposite direction to the interest payments and a final exchange of principal in the same direction as the interest payments at the end of the swapās life. A fixed-for-floating swap can be regarded as a portfolio consisting of a fixed-for-fixed currency swap and a fixed-for-floating interest rate swap. For instance, the swap in our example can be regarded as (a) a swap where 3% on a principal of $10 million is received and (say) 4% on a principal of Ā£7 million is paid plus (b) an interest rate swap where 4% is received and floating is paid on a notional principal of Ā£7 million.
To value the swap we are considering we can calculate the value of the dollar
payments in dollars by discounting them at the dollar risk-free rate. We can calculate the value of the sterling payments by assuming that floating forward rates will be
realized and discounting the cash flows at the sterling risk-free rate. The value of the swap is the difference between the values of the two sets of payments using current exchange rates.
An example of the second type of swap would be the exchange where floating on a
principal of £7 million is paid and floating on a principal of $10 million is received. As
in the other cases we have considered, this would involve an initial exchange of principal in the opposite direction to the interest payments and a final exchange of
principal in the same direction as the interest payments at the end of the swapās life.
A floating-for-floating swap can be regarded as a portfolio consisting of a fixed-for- fixed currency swap and two interest rate swaps, one in each currency. For instance, the swap in our example can be regarded as (a) a swap where 3% on a principal of
$10 million is received and 4% on a principal of £7 million is paid plus (b) an interest rate swap where 4% is received and floating is paid on a notional principal of £7 million plus (c) an interest rate swap where 3% is paid and floating is received on a notional principal of $10 million.7.10 OTHER CURRENCY SWAPS
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Swaps 193
Currency Swap Valuation and Risk
- Fixed-for-floating currency swaps can be decomposed into a portfolio consisting of a fixed-for-fixed currency swap and a standard interest rate swap.
- Valuation of these complex swaps involves assuming forward interest rates are realized and discounting cash flows at the respective currency's risk-free rate.
- Floating-for-floating swaps are even more complex, effectively acting as a combination of a fixed-for-fixed currency swap and two separate interest rate swaps.
- While central clearing minimizes credit risk, bilateral transactions between corporations and dealers remain subject to default risk based on net transaction values.
- The value of any currency swap is ultimately determined by the difference between the two sets of payments converted at current exchange rates.
A floating-for-floating swap can be regarded as a portfolio consisting of a fixed-for-fixed currency swap and two interest rate swaps, one in each currency.
An example of the first type of swap would be an exchange where a floating rate on a
principal of Ā£7 million is paid and 3% on a principal of $10 million is received with payments being made semiannually for 10 years. Similarly to a fixed-for-fixed currency swap, this would involve an initial exchange of principal in the opposite direction to the interest payments and a final exchange of principal in the same direction as the interest payments at the end of the swapās life. A fixed-for-floating swap can be regarded as a portfolio consisting of a fixed-for-fixed currency swap and a fixed-for-floating interest rate swap. For instance, the swap in our example can be regarded as (a) a swap where 3% on a principal of $10 million is received and (say) 4% on a principal of Ā£7 million is paid plus (b) an interest rate swap where 4% is received and floating is paid on a notional principal of Ā£7 million.
To value the swap we are considering we can calculate the value of the dollar
payments in dollars by discounting them at the dollar risk-free rate. We can calculate the value of the sterling payments by assuming that floating forward rates will be
realized and discounting the cash flows at the sterling risk-free rate. The value of the swap is the difference between the values of the two sets of payments using current exchange rates.
An example of the second type of swap would be the exchange where floating on a
principal of £7 million is paid and floating on a principal of $10 million is received. As
in the other cases we have considered, this would involve an initial exchange of principal in the opposite direction to the interest payments and a final exchange of
principal in the same direction as the interest payments at the end of the swapās life.
A floating-for-floating swap can be regarded as a portfolio consisting of a fixed-for- fixed currency swap and two interest rate swaps, one in each currency. For instance, the swap in our example can be regarded as (a) a swap where 3% on a principal of
$10 million is received and 4% on a principal of £7 million is paid plus (b) an interest rate swap where 4% is received and floating is paid on a notional principal of £7 million plus (c) an interest rate swap where 3% is paid and floating is received on a notional principal of $10 million.7.10 OTHER CURRENCY SWAPS
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Swaps 193
A floating-for-floating swap can be valued by assuming that forward interest rates in
each currency will be realized and discounting the cash flows at risk-free rates. The
value of the swap is the difference between the values of the two sets of payments using current exchange rates.
When swaps and other derivatives are cleared through a central counterparty there is
very little credit risk. As has been explained, standard swap transactions between a nonfinancial corporation and a derivatives dealer can be cleared bilaterally. Both sides are then potentially subject to credit risk. Consider the bilaterally cleared transaction between Intel and Citigroup in Figure 7.4. This would be netted with all other
bilaterally cleared derivatives between Intel and Citigroup. If Intel defaults when the net value of the outstanding transactions to Citigroup is greater than the collateral (if any) posted by Intel, Citigroup will incur a loss.
8 Similarly, if Citigroup defaults when
Swap Risks and Credit Protection
- Floating-for-floating swaps are valued by projecting forward interest rates and discounting cash flows at risk-free rates across different currencies.
- Central counterparties significantly reduce credit risk, whereas bilateral clearing exposes both parties to potential losses if net values exceed posted collateral.
- Financial institutions must distinguish between market risk, which can be hedged through offsetting contracts, and credit risk, which is more difficult to manage.
- The emergence of Credit Default Swaps (CDS) allows entities to hedge credit risk by paying a spread for insurance against a reference entity's default.
- Legal risk remains a volatile factor in swap markets, as evidenced by historical cases involving local authorities and unexpected contract invalidations.
Market risks can be hedged by entering into offsetting contracts; credit risks are less easy to hedge.
A floating-for-floating swap can be valued by assuming that forward interest rates in
each currency will be realized and discounting the cash flows at risk-free rates. The
value of the swap is the difference between the values of the two sets of payments using current exchange rates.
When swaps and other derivatives are cleared through a central counterparty there is
very little credit risk. As has been explained, standard swap transactions between a nonfinancial corporation and a derivatives dealer can be cleared bilaterally. Both sides are then potentially subject to credit risk. Consider the bilaterally cleared transaction between Intel and Citigroup in Figure 7.4. This would be netted with all other
bilaterally cleared derivatives between Intel and Citigroup. If Intel defaults when the net value of the outstanding transactions to Citigroup is greater than the collateral (if any) posted by Intel, Citigroup will incur a loss.
8 Similarly, if Citigroup defaults when
the net value of the outstanding transactions to Intel is greater than the collateral (if any) posted by Citigroup, Intel will incur a loss.
It is important to distinguish between the credit risk and market risk to a financial
institution in any contract. The credit risk arises from the possibility that a loss will be incurred because of a default by the counterparty. The market risk arises from the possibility that market variables such as interest rates, equity prices, and exchange rates will move in such a way that the value of a contract to the financial institution becomes negative. Market risks can be hedged by entering into offsetting contracts; credit risks are less easy to hedge.
One of the more bizarre stories in swap markets is outlined in Business Snapshot 7.2.
It concerns a British Local Authority, Hammersmith and Fulham, and shows that, in addition to bearing market risk and credit risk, banks trading swaps also sometimes bear legal risk.7.11 CREDIT RISK
8 The Master Agreement between Intel and Citigroup covers all oustanding derivatives and may or may not
require collateral to be posted as the net value of the transactions changes.A swap which has grown in importance since the year 2000 is a credit default swap
(CDS). This is a swap that allows companies to hedge credit risks in the same way that they have hedged market risks for many years. A CDS is like an insurance contract that pays off if a particular company or country defaults. The company or country is known as the reference entity. The buyer of credit protection pays an insurance premium, known as the CDS spread, to the seller of protection for the life of the contract or until the reference entity defaults. Suppose that the notional principal of the CDS is $100 million and the CDS spread for a five-year deal is 120 basis points. The insurance premium would be 120 basis points applied to $100 million or $1.2 million per year. If the reference entity does not default during the five years, nothing is received in return for the insurance premiums. If reference entity does default and bonds issued by the reference entity are worth 40 cents per dollar of principal immediately after default, the 7.12 CREDIT DEFAULT SWAPS
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Financial Risks and Swaps
- Financial institutions must distinguish between market risk, which involves fluctuations in variables like interest rates, and credit risk, which involves counterparty default.
- While market risks can often be hedged through offsetting contracts, credit risks are significantly more difficult for institutions to manage.
- Credit Default Swaps (CDS) function as insurance contracts, allowing buyers to hedge against the default of a specific reference entity by paying a spread.
- The Hammersmith and Fulham case illustrates 'legal risk,' where a counterparty entered into massive speculative trades without fully understanding the underlying mechanics.
- In the event of a default, a CDS seller compensates the buyer for the loss in bond value, effectively restoring the portfolio's principal value.
The two employees of Hammersmith and Fulham that were responsible for the trades had only a sketchy understanding of the risks they were taking and how the products they were trading worked.
the net value of the outstanding transactions to Intel is greater than the collateral (if any) posted by Citigroup, Intel will incur a loss.
It is important to distinguish between the credit risk and market risk to a financial
institution in any contract. The credit risk arises from the possibility that a loss will be incurred because of a default by the counterparty. The market risk arises from the possibility that market variables such as interest rates, equity prices, and exchange rates will move in such a way that the value of a contract to the financial institution becomes negative. Market risks can be hedged by entering into offsetting contracts; credit risks are less easy to hedge.
One of the more bizarre stories in swap markets is outlined in Business Snapshot 7.2.
It concerns a British Local Authority, Hammersmith and Fulham, and shows that, in addition to bearing market risk and credit risk, banks trading swaps also sometimes bear legal risk.7.11 CREDIT RISK
8 The Master Agreement between Intel and Citigroup covers all oustanding derivatives and may or may not
require collateral to be posted as the net value of the transactions changes.A swap which has grown in importance since the year 2000 is a credit default swap
(CDS). This is a swap that allows companies to hedge credit risks in the same way that they have hedged market risks for many years. A CDS is like an insurance contract that pays off if a particular company or country defaults. The company or country is known as the reference entity. The buyer of credit protection pays an insurance premium, known as the CDS spread, to the seller of protection for the life of the contract or until the reference entity defaults. Suppose that the notional principal of the CDS is $100 million and the CDS spread for a five-year deal is 120 basis points. The insurance premium would be 120 basis points applied to $100 million or $1.2 million per year. If the reference entity does not default during the five years, nothing is received in return for the insurance premiums. If reference entity does default and bonds issued by the reference entity are worth 40 cents per dollar of principal immediately after default, the 7.12 CREDIT DEFAULT SWAPS
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seller of protection has to make a payment to the buyer of protection equal to
$60 million. The idea here is that, if the buyer of protection owned a portfolio of
bonds issued by the reference entity with a principal of $100 million, the insurance payoff would be sufficient to bring the value of the portfolio back up to $100 million.
Credit default swaps are discussed in more detail in Chapter 25.Business Snapshot 7.2 The Hammersmith and Fulham Story
Between 1987 to 1989 the London Borough of Hammersmith and Fulham in Great Britain entered into about 600 interest rate swaps and related instruments with a total notional principal of about 6 billion pounds. The transactions appear to have been entered into for speculative rather than hedging purposes. The two employees of Hammersmith and Fulham that were responsible for the trades had only a sketchy understanding of the risks they were taking and how the products they were trading worked.
By 1989, because of movements in sterling interest rates, Hammersmith and Fulham
had lost several hundred million pounds on the swaps. To the banks on the other side of the transactions, the swaps were worth several hundred million pounds. The banks were concerned about credit risk. They had entered into offsetting swaps to hedge their interest rate risks. If Hammersmith and Fulham defaulted they would still have to honor their obligations on the offsetting swaps and would take a huge loss.
What happened was something a little different from a default. Hammersmith and
Swap Variations and Legal Risks
- The Hammersmith and Fulham case resulted in hundreds of millions in losses for banks when the House of Lords declared local government swap contracts void.
- Courts ruled that the local authority lacked the legal capacity to enter into swap transactions, effectively nullifying the banks' hedges and credit protections.
- Standard interest rate swaps can be customized into amortizing, step-up, or deferred versions to match specific loan repayment schedules or future needs.
- Advanced swap structures include compounding swaps, accrual swaps based on rate ranges, and 'quantos' which apply rates from one currency to a principal in another.
Needless to say, banks were furious that their contracts were overturned in this way by the courts.
By 1989, because of movements in sterling interest rates, Hammersmith and Fulham
had lost several hundred million pounds on the swaps. To the banks on the other side of the transactions, the swaps were worth several hundred million pounds. The banks were concerned about credit risk. They had entered into offsetting swaps to hedge their interest rate risks. If Hammersmith and Fulham defaulted they would still have to honor their obligations on the offsetting swaps and would take a huge loss.
What happened was something a little different from a default. Hammersmith and
Fulhamās auditor asked to have the transactions declared void because Hammersmith and Fulham did not have the authority to enter into the transactions. The British courts agreed. The case was appealed and went all the way to the House of Lords, then Britainās highest court. The final decision was that Hammersmith and Fulham did not have the authority to enter into the swaps, but that they ought to have the authority to do so in the future for risk management purposes. Needless to say, banks were furious that their contracts were overturned in this way by the courts.
Many other types of swaps are traded. We will discuss some of them in Chapter 34. At this stage we provide an overview.
Variations on the Standard Interest Rate Swap
In fixed-for-floating interest rate swaps, the frequency of payments on the two sides can be different. For example, a three-month floating rate might be exchanged for a six-month fixed rate with the first being paid every three months and the second being paid every six months. Floating rates such as the commercial paper (CP) rate are occasion-ally used. Sometimes floating-for-floating interest rates swaps (known as basis swaps) are negotiated. For example, the three-month CP rate minus 10 basis points might be exchanged for an overnight reference rate with both being applied to the same principal. (This deal would allow a company to hedge its exposure when assets and liabilities are subject to different floating rates.)7.13 OTHER TYPES OF SWAPS
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Swaps 195
The principal in a swap agreement can be varied throughout the term of the swap to
meet the needs of a counterparty. In an amortizing swap, the principal reduces in a
predetermined way. (This might be designed to correspond to the amortization schedule on a loan.) In a step-up swap, the principal increases in a predetermined way. (This might be designed to correspond to drawdowns on a loan agreement.) Forward swaps (sometimes referred to as deferred swaps) where the parties do not begin to exchange interest payments until some future date are also sometimes arranged. Sometimes swaps are negotiated where the principal to which the fixed payments are applied is different from the principal to which the floating payments are applied.
In a compounding swap, interest on one or both sides is compounded forward to the
end of the life of the swap according to preagreed rules and there is only one payment date at the end of the life of the swap. In an accrual swap, the interest on one side of the
swap accrues only when the floating reference rate is in a certain range.
Quantos
Sometimes a rate observed in one currency is applied to a principal amount in another currency. One such deal would be where a U.S. floating rate is exchanged for a U.K. floating rate with both principals being applied to a principal of 10 million British pounds. This type of swap is referred to as a diff swap or a quanto.
Equity Swaps
Variations in Swap Agreements
- Swap principals can be structured to fluctuate over time, such as in amortizing swaps where principal reduces or step-up swaps where it increases to match loan schedules.
- Specialized instruments like diff swaps or 'quantos' allow a rate observed in one currency to be applied to a principal amount denominated in a different currency.
- Equity swaps enable portfolio managers to exchange the total return of an index, including dividends and capital gains, for fixed or floating interest rates.
- Embedded options like extendable or puttable features allow parties to lengthen or terminate the life of a swap based on future market conditions.
- Exotic variations such as volatility and commodity swaps demonstrate that these financial instruments are limited only by the imagination of financial engineers.
Swaps are limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the desire of corporate treasurers and fund managers for exotic structures.
The principal in a swap agreement can be varied throughout the term of the swap to
meet the needs of a counterparty. In an amortizing swap, the principal reduces in a
predetermined way. (This might be designed to correspond to the amortization schedule on a loan.) In a step-up swap, the principal increases in a predetermined way. (This might be designed to correspond to drawdowns on a loan agreement.) Forward swaps (sometimes referred to as deferred swaps) where the parties do not begin to exchange interest payments until some future date are also sometimes arranged. Sometimes swaps are negotiated where the principal to which the fixed payments are applied is different from the principal to which the floating payments are applied.
In a compounding swap, interest on one or both sides is compounded forward to the
end of the life of the swap according to preagreed rules and there is only one payment date at the end of the life of the swap. In an accrual swap, the interest on one side of the
swap accrues only when the floating reference rate is in a certain range.
Quantos
Sometimes a rate observed in one currency is applied to a principal amount in another currency. One such deal would be where a U.S. floating rate is exchanged for a U.K. floating rate with both principals being applied to a principal of 10 million British pounds. This type of swap is referred to as a diff swap or a quanto.
Equity Swaps
An equity swap is an agreement to exchange the total return (dividends and capital
gains) realized on an equity index for either a fixed or a floating rate of interest. For example, the total return on the S&P 500 in successive six-month periods might be exchanged for 3% with both being applied to the same principal. Equity swaps can be used by portfolio managers to convert returns from a fixed or floating investment to the returns from investing in an equity index, and vice versa.
Options
Sometimes there are options embedded in a swap agreement. For example, in an
extendable swap, one party has the option to extend the life of the swap beyond the specified period. In a puttable swap, one party has the option to terminate the swap early. Options on swaps, or swaptions, are also available. These provide one party with
the right at a future time to enter into a swap where a predetermined fixed rate is exchanged for floating.
Commodity, Volatility, and Other Swaps
Commodity swaps are in essence a series of forward contracts on a commodity with different maturity dates and the same delivery prices. In a volatility swap, there are a series of time periods. At the end of each period, one side pays a preagreed volatility while the other side pays the historical volatility realized during the period. Both volatilities are multiplied by the same notional principal in calculating payments.
Swaps are limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the desire of
corporate treasurers and fund managers for exotic structures. In Chapter 34 we will
describe the famous 5>30 swap entered into between Procter and Gamble and Bankers
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196 CHAPTER 7
Trust where payments depended in a complex way on the 30-day commercial paper rate,
a 30-year Treasury bond price, and the yield on a 5-year Treasury bond.
SUMMARY
Mechanics and Diversity of Swaps
- Interest rate swaps allow parties to exchange fixed-rate payments for floating-rate payments on a notional principal.
- Currency swaps involve exchanging interest and principal in different currencies, typically at both the start and end of the contract.
- Swaps function as versatile financial tools that can transform the nature of loans or investments from fixed to floating or between different currencies.
- Beyond standard rates, commodity and volatility swaps allow parties to hedge or speculate on prices and historical market fluctuations.
- The complexity of swaps is limited only by the creativity of financial engineers, as seen in exotic structures involving multiple bond yields and paper rates.
Swaps are limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the desire of corporate treasurers and fund managers for exotic structures.
Commodity swaps are in essence a series of forward contracts on a commodity with different maturity dates and the same delivery prices. In a volatility swap, there are a series of time periods. At the end of each period, one side pays a preagreed volatility while the other side pays the historical volatility realized during the period. Both volatilities are multiplied by the same notional principal in calculating payments.
Swaps are limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the desire of
corporate treasurers and fund managers for exotic structures. In Chapter 34 we will
describe the famous 5>30 swap entered into between Procter and Gamble and Bankers
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196 CHAPTER 7
Trust where payments depended in a complex way on the 30-day commercial paper rate,
a 30-year Treasury bond price, and the yield on a 5-year Treasury bond.
SUMMARY
The two most common types of swaps are interest rate swaps and currency swaps. In an interest rate swap, one party agrees to pay the other party interest at a fixed rate on a notional principal for a number of years. In return, it receives interest at a floating rate on the same notional principal for the same period of time. In a currency swap, one
party agrees to pay interest on a principal amount in one currency. In return, it receives interest on a principal amount in another currency.
Principal amounts are not exchanged in an interest rate swap. In a currency swap,
principal amounts are usually exchanged at both the beginning and the end of the life of
the swap. For a party paying interest in the foreign currency, the foreign principal is received, and the domestic principal is paid at the beginning of the life of the swap. At the end of the life of the swap, the foreign principal is paid and the domestic principal is received.
An interest rate swap can be used to transform a floating-rate loan into a fixed-rate
loan, or vice versa. It can also be used to transform a floating-rate investment to a fixed-rate investment, or vice versa. A currency swap can be used to transform a loan in one currency into a loan in another currency. It can also be used to transform an investment denominated in one currency into an investment denominated in another currency.
The interest rate and currency swaps considered in main part of the chapter can be
regarded portfolios of forward contracts. They can be valued by assuming the
forward interest rates and exchange rates observed in the market today will occur
in the future.
FURTHER READING
Alm, J., and F. Lindskog, āForeign Currency Interest Rate Swaps in Asset-Liability Management
for Insurers, ā European Actuarial Journal, 3 (2013): 133ā58.
Corb, H. Interest Rate Swaps and Other Derivatives. New York: Columbia University Press, 2012.
Flavell, R. Swaps and Other Derivatives, 2nd edn. Chichester: Wiley, 2010.
Johannes, M., and S. Sundaresan, āThe Impact of Collateralization on Swap Rates, ā Journal of
Finance, 61, 1 (February 2007): 383ā410.
Litzenberger, R. H. āSwaps: Plain and Fanciful, ā Journal of Finance, 47 , 3 (1992): 831 ā50.
Memmel, C., and A. Schertler. āBank Management of the Net Interest Margin: New Measures, ā
Financial Markets and Portfolio Management, 27 , 3 (2013): 275ā97.
Purnanandan, A. āInterest Rate Derivatives at Commercial Banks: An Empirical Investigation, ā
Journal of Monetary Economics, 54 (2007): 1769ā1808.
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Swaps 197
Practice Questions
7.1. Companies A and B have been offered the following rates per annum on a $20 million
five-year loan:
Fixed rate Floating rate
Company A 5.0% SOFR+0.1%
Company B 6.4% SOFR+0.6%
Swap Mechanics and Practice
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of academic research on interest rate swaps, collateralization, and bank management of net interest margins.
- Practical exercises challenge readers to design intermediary-led swaps that balance comparative advantages between companies while securing bank profits.
- Quantitative problems focus on the valuation of interest rate and currency swaps using forward rates, OIS discounting, and exchange rate fluctuations.
- The material distinguishes between market risk and credit risk, highlighting the complexities of counterparty obligations in derivative contracts.
- A conceptual scenario questions the validity of 'comparative advantage' in floating-rate markets, suggesting hidden risks or misinterpretations by corporate treasurers.
What has the treasurer overlooked?
Alm, J., and F. Lindskog, āForeign Currency Interest Rate Swaps in Asset-Liability Management
for Insurers, ā European Actuarial Journal, 3 (2013): 133ā58.
Corb, H. Interest Rate Swaps and Other Derivatives. New York: Columbia University Press, 2012.
Flavell, R. Swaps and Other Derivatives, 2nd edn. Chichester: Wiley, 2010.
Johannes, M., and S. Sundaresan, āThe Impact of Collateralization on Swap Rates, ā Journal of
Finance, 61, 1 (February 2007): 383ā410.
Litzenberger, R. H. āSwaps: Plain and Fanciful, ā Journal of Finance, 47 , 3 (1992): 831 ā50.
Memmel, C., and A. Schertler. āBank Management of the Net Interest Margin: New Measures, ā
Financial Markets and Portfolio Management, 27 , 3 (2013): 275ā97.
Purnanandan, A. āInterest Rate Derivatives at Commercial Banks: An Empirical Investigation, ā
Journal of Monetary Economics, 54 (2007): 1769ā1808.
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Swaps 197
Practice Questions
7.1. Companies A and B have been offered the following rates per annum on a $20 million
five-year loan:
Fixed rate Floating rate
Company A 5.0% SOFR+0.1%
Company B 6.4% SOFR+0.6%
Company A requires a floating-rate loan; Company B requires a fixed-rate loan. Design a swap that will net a bank, acting as intermediary, 0.1% per annum and that will appear equally attractive to both companies.
7.2. A $100 million interest rate swap has a remaining life of 10 months. Under the terms of the swap, six-month LIBOR is exchanged for 4% per annum (compounded semiannually). Six-month LIBOR forward rates for all maturities are 3% (with semiannual compounding). The six-month LIBOR rate was 2.4% two months ago. OIS rates for all maturities are 2.7% with continuous compounding. What is the current value of the swap to the party paying floating? What is the value to the party paying fixed?
7.3. Company X wishes to borrow U.S. dollars at a fixed rate of interest. Company Y wishes
to borrow Japanese yen at a fixed rate of interest. The amounts required by the two companies are roughly the same at the current exchange rate. The companies have been
quoted the following interest rates, which have been adjusted for the impact of taxes:
Yen Dollars
Company X 5.0% 9.6%
Company Y 6.5% 10.0%
Design a swap that will net a bank, acting as intermediary, 50 basis points per annum. Make the swap equally attractive to the two companies and ensure that all foreign exchange risk is assumed by the bank.
7.4. A currency swap has a remaining life of 15 months. It involves exchanging interest at 10% on £20 million for interest at 6% on $30 million once a year. The term structure of risk-free interest rates in the United Kingdom is flat at 7% and the term structure of risk-free interest rates in the United States is flat at 4% (both with annual compounding). The current exchange rate (dollars per pound sterling) is 1.5500. What is the value of the swap to the party paying sterling? What is the value of the swap to the party paying dollars?
7.5. Explain the difference between the credit risk and the market risk in a swap.
7.6. A corporate treasurer tells you that he has just negotiated a five-year loan at a competitive
fixed rate of interest of 5.2%. The treasurer explains that he achieved the 5.2% rate by borrowing at a six-month floating reference rate plus 150 basis points and swapping the floating reference rate for 3.7%. He goes on to say that this was possible because his company has a comparative advantage in the floating-rate market. What has the trea -
surer overlooked?
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198 CHAPTER 7
Swap Valuation and Risk
- The text presents complex quantitative problems for valuing currency and interest rate swaps using term structures and exchange rates.
- It distinguishes between credit risk and market risk, highlighting how counterparty default impacts financial institutions during market fluctuations.
- A critical conceptual exercise challenges the notion of comparative advantage in floating-rate markets, suggesting hidden risks or misinterpretations by treasurers.
- The problems explore the role of banks as intermediaries that net basis points while assuming specific risks, such as foreign exchange exposure.
- Calculations involve determining losses during default scenarios by comparing forward LIBOR rates and OIS rates against original swap terms.
What has the treasurer overlooked?
Design a swap that will net a bank, acting as intermediary, 50 basis points per annum. Make the swap equally attractive to the two companies and ensure that all foreign exchange risk is assumed by the bank.
7.4. A currency swap has a remaining life of 15 months. It involves exchanging interest at 10% on £20 million for interest at 6% on $30 million once a year. The term structure of risk-free interest rates in the United Kingdom is flat at 7% and the term structure of risk-free interest rates in the United States is flat at 4% (both with annual compounding). The current exchange rate (dollars per pound sterling) is 1.5500. What is the value of the swap to the party paying sterling? What is the value of the swap to the party paying dollars?
7.5. Explain the difference between the credit risk and the market risk in a swap.
7.6. A corporate treasurer tells you that he has just negotiated a five-year loan at a competitive
fixed rate of interest of 5.2%. The treasurer explains that he achieved the 5.2% rate by borrowing at a six-month floating reference rate plus 150 basis points and swapping the floating reference rate for 3.7%. He goes on to say that this was possible because his company has a comparative advantage in the floating-rate market. What has the trea -
surer overlooked?
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198 CHAPTER 7
7.7. A bank enters into an interest rate swap with a nonfinancial counterparty using bilaterally
clearing where it is paying a fixed rate of 3% and receiving floating. No collateral is posted and no other transactions are outstanding between the bank and the counterparty. What credit risk is the bank subject to? Discuss whether the credit risk is greater when the yield curve is upward sloping or when it is downward sloping.
7.8. Companies X and Y have been offered the following rates per annum on a $5 million 10-year investment:
Fixed rate Floating rate
Company X 8.0% LIBOR
Company Y 8.8% LIBOR
Company X requires a fixed-rate investment; company Y requires a floating-rate invest-ment. Design a swap that will net a bank, acting as intermediary, 0.2% per annum and will appear equally attractive to X and Y.
7.9. A financial institution has entered into an interest rate swap with company X. Under the terms of the swap, it receives 4% per annum and pays six-month LIBOR on a principal of $10 million for five years. Payments are made every six months. Suppose that company X defaults on the sixth payment date (end of year 3) when six-month forward LIBOR rates for all maturities are 2% per annum. What is the loss to the financial institution? Assume that six-month LIBOR was 3% per annum halfway through year 3 and that at the time of the default all OIS rates are 1.8% per annum. OIS rates are expressed with continuous compounding; other rates are expressed with semiannual compounding.
7.10. A financial institution has entered into a 10-year currency swap with company Y. Under the terms of the swap, the financial institution receives interest at 3% per annum in Swiss francs and pays interest at 8% per annum in U.S. dollars. Interest payments are exchanged once a year. The principal amounts are 7 million dollars and 10 million francs. Suppose that company Y declares bankruptcy at the end of year 6, when the exchange rate is $0.80 per franc. What is the cost to the financial institution? Assume that, at the end of year 6, risk-free interest rates are 3% per annum in Swiss francs and 8% per annum in U.S. dollars for all maturities. All interest rates are quoted with annual compounding.
7.11. Companies A and B face the following interest rates (adjusted for the differential impact
of taxes):
Company A Company B
U.S. dollars Floating+0.5% Floating+1.0%
Canadian dollars 5.0% 6.5%
Swap Valuation and Default
- The text presents quantitative problems focused on designing interest rate swaps that satisfy specific corporate investment requirements while providing a bank intermediary spread.
- Calculations are required to determine the financial loss incurred when a counterparty defaults on a five-year interest rate swap mid-term.
- Currency swap scenarios explore the impact of bankruptcy on long-term agreements involving different interest rates and fluctuating exchange rates.
- Comparative advantage analysis is used to determine optimal borrowing rates for companies with different credit profiles in international markets.
- The problems emphasize the role of financial institutions in bridging the gap between fixed and floating rate preferences across different currencies.
Suppose that company X defaults on the sixth payment date (end of year 3) when six-month forward LIBOR rates for all maturities are 2% per annum.
Company X requires a fixed-rate investment; company Y requires a floating-rate invest-ment. Design a swap that will net a bank, acting as intermediary, 0.2% per annum and will appear equally attractive to X and Y.
7.9. A financial institution has entered into an interest rate swap with company X. Under the terms of the swap, it receives 4% per annum and pays six-month LIBOR on a principal of $10 million for five years. Payments are made every six months. Suppose that company X defaults on the sixth payment date (end of year 3) when six-month forward LIBOR rates for all maturities are 2% per annum. What is the loss to the financial institution? Assume that six-month LIBOR was 3% per annum halfway through year 3 and that at the time of the default all OIS rates are 1.8% per annum. OIS rates are expressed with continuous compounding; other rates are expressed with semiannual compounding.
7.10. A financial institution has entered into a 10-year currency swap with company Y. Under the terms of the swap, the financial institution receives interest at 3% per annum in Swiss francs and pays interest at 8% per annum in U.S. dollars. Interest payments are exchanged once a year. The principal amounts are 7 million dollars and 10 million francs. Suppose that company Y declares bankruptcy at the end of year 6, when the exchange rate is $0.80 per franc. What is the cost to the financial institution? Assume that, at the end of year 6, risk-free interest rates are 3% per annum in Swiss francs and 8% per annum in U.S. dollars for all maturities. All interest rates are quoted with annual compounding.
7.11. Companies A and B face the following interest rates (adjusted for the differential impact
of taxes):
Company A Company B
U.S. dollars Floating+0.5% Floating+1.0%
Canadian dollars 5.0% 6.5%
Assume that A wants to borrow U.S. dollars at a floating rate of interest and B wants to borrow Canadian dollars at a fixed rate of interest. A financial institution is planning to arrange a swap and requires a 50-basis-point spread. If the swap is equally attractive to A and B, what rates of interest will A and B end up paying?
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Swaps 199
Swap Valuation and Risk
- The text presents complex quantitative problems for calculating financial losses when a counterparty defaults on interest rate and currency swaps.
- It explores the comparative advantages of different companies in fixed versus floating rate markets and how intermediaries structure swaps to capture spreads.
- A critical distinction is made between the credit risk of a swap versus a loan, noting that swap losses are typically lower due to the nature of principal exchange.
- The exercises detail the use of Overnight Index Swap (OIS) rates and SOFR as benchmarks for valuing derivatives in modern financial markets.
- Strategic scenarios illustrate how banks can use swaps to hedge the risk of mismatched assets and liabilities, such as floating-rate deposits and fixed-rate loans.
Why is the expected loss to a bank from a default on a swap with a counterparty less than the expected loss from the default on a loan to the counterparty when the loan and swap have the same principal?
Company X requires a fixed-rate investment; company Y requires a floating-rate invest-ment. Design a swap that will net a bank, acting as intermediary, 0.2% per annum and will appear equally attractive to X and Y.
7.9. A financial institution has entered into an interest rate swap with company X. Under the terms of the swap, it receives 4% per annum and pays six-month LIBOR on a principal of $10 million for five years. Payments are made every six months. Suppose that company X defaults on the sixth payment date (end of year 3) when six-month forward LIBOR rates for all maturities are 2% per annum. What is the loss to the financial institution? Assume that six-month LIBOR was 3% per annum halfway through year 3 and that at the time of the default all OIS rates are 1.8% per annum. OIS rates are expressed with continuous compounding; other rates are expressed with semiannual compounding.
7.10. A financial institution has entered into a 10-year currency swap with company Y. Under the terms of the swap, the financial institution receives interest at 3% per annum in Swiss francs and pays interest at 8% per annum in U.S. dollars. Interest payments are exchanged once a year. The principal amounts are 7 million dollars and 10 million francs. Suppose that company Y declares bankruptcy at the end of year 6, when the exchange rate is $0.80 per franc. What is the cost to the financial institution? Assume that, at the end of year 6, risk-free interest rates are 3% per annum in Swiss francs and 8% per annum in U.S. dollars for all maturities. All interest rates are quoted with annual compounding.
7.11. Companies A and B face the following interest rates (adjusted for the differential impact
of taxes):
Company A Company B
U.S. dollars Floating+0.5% Floating+1.0%
Canadian dollars 5.0% 6.5%
Assume that A wants to borrow U.S. dollars at a floating rate of interest and B wants to borrow Canadian dollars at a fixed rate of interest. A financial institution is planning to arrange a swap and requires a 50-basis-point spread. If the swap is equally attractive to A and B, what rates of interest will A and B end up paying?
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Swaps 199
7.12. After it hedges its foreign exchange risk using forward contracts, is the financial
institutionās average spread in Figure 7.11 likely to be greater than or less than 20 basis
points? Explain your answer.
7.13. āNonfinancial companies with high credit risks are the ones that cannot access fixed-rate
markets directly. They are the companies that are most likely to be paying fixed and receiving floating in an interest rate swap.ā Assume that this statement is true. Do you think it increases or decreases the risk of a financial institutionās swap portfolio? Assume that companies are most likely to default when interest rates are high.
7.14. Why is the expected loss to a bank from a default on a swap with a counterparty less than the expected loss from the default on a loan to the counterparty when the loan and swap have the same principal? Assume that there are no other derivatives transactions between the bank and the counterparty, that the swap is cleared bilaterally, and that no collateral is provided by the counterparty in the case of either the swap or the loan.
7.15. A bank finds that its assets are not matched with its liabilities. It is taking floating-rate deposits and making fixed-rate loans. How can swaps be used to offset the risk?
7.16. Explain how you would value a swap that is the exchange of a floating rate in one currency for a fixed rate in another currency.
7.17. OIS rates are 3.4% for all maturities. What is the value of an OIS swap with two years to
maturity where 3% is received and the floating reference rate is paid. Assume annual compounding, annual payments, and $100 million principal.
7.18. A financial institution has entered into a swap where it agreed to make quarterly payments at a rate of 3% per annum and receive the SOFR three-month reference rate on a notional principal of $100 million. The swap now has a remaining life of 7.5 months. Assume the risk-free rates with continuous compounding (calculated from SOFR) for 1.5, 4.5, and 7.5 months are 2.8%, 3.0%, and 3.1%, respectively. Assume also that the conti nuously
compounded risk-free rate observed for the last 1.5 months is 2.7%. Estimate the value
of the swap.
7.19. (a) Company A has been offered the swap quotes in Table 7.4. It can borrow for three
years at 3.45%. What floating rate can it swap this fixed rate into? (b) Company B has been offered the swap quotes in Table 7.4. It can borrow for five years at floating plus 75 basis points. What fixed rate can it swap this rate into? (c) Explain the rollover risks that Company B is taking.
7.20. The one-year LIBOR rates is 3%, and the LIBOR forward rate for the 1 - to 2-year period is 3.2%. The three-year swap rate for a swap with annual payments is 3.2%. What is the LIBOR forward rate for the 2- to 3-year period if OIS zero rates for maturities of one, two, and three years are 2.5%, 2.7%, and 2.9%, respectively. What is the value of a three-year swap where 4% is received and LIBOR is paid on a principal of $100 million. All rates are annually compounded.
7.21. A financial institution has entered into a swap where it agreed to receive quarterly
payments at a rate of 2% per annum and pay the SOFR three-month reference rate on
a notional principal of $100 million. The swap now has a remaining life of 10 months.
Financial Swap Problem Sets
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on the valuation and risk management of interest rate and currency swaps.
- It explores the credit risk dynamics of nonfinancial companies, noting that those with higher risk often pay fixed rates in swaps.
- Calculations involve determining swap values using SOFR-based risk-free rates, OIS rates, and forward LIBOR rates across various maturities.
- The problems address the structural advantages of swaps over loans, specifically why expected losses from defaults are lower for swaps of the same principal.
- Comparative advantage scenarios are introduced, requiring the design of borrowing strategies for international companies seeking specific currency exposures.
Assume that companies are most likely to default when interest rates are high.
7.12. After it hedges its foreign exchange risk using forward contracts, is the financial
institutionās average spread in Figure 7.11 likely to be greater than or less than 20 basis
points? Explain your answer.
7.13. āNonfinancial companies with high credit risks are the ones that cannot access fixed-rate
markets directly. They are the companies that are most likely to be paying fixed and receiving floating in an interest rate swap.ā Assume that this statement is true. Do you think it increases or decreases the risk of a financial institutionās swap portfolio? Assume that companies are most likely to default when interest rates are high.
7.14. Why is the expected loss to a bank from a default on a swap with a counterparty less than the expected loss from the default on a loan to the counterparty when the loan and swap have the same principal? Assume that there are no other derivatives transactions between the bank and the counterparty, that the swap is cleared bilaterally, and that no collateral is provided by the counterparty in the case of either the swap or the loan.
7.15. A bank finds that its assets are not matched with its liabilities. It is taking floating-rate deposits and making fixed-rate loans. How can swaps be used to offset the risk?
7.16. Explain how you would value a swap that is the exchange of a floating rate in one currency for a fixed rate in another currency.
7.17. OIS rates are 3.4% for all maturities. What is the value of an OIS swap with two years to
maturity where 3% is received and the floating reference rate is paid. Assume annual compounding, annual payments, and $100 million principal.
7.18. A financial institution has entered into a swap where it agreed to make quarterly payments at a rate of 3% per annum and receive the SOFR three-month reference rate on a notional principal of $100 million. The swap now has a remaining life of 7.5 months. Assume the risk-free rates with continuous compounding (calculated from SOFR) for 1.5, 4.5, and 7.5 months are 2.8%, 3.0%, and 3.1%, respectively. Assume also that the conti nuously
compounded risk-free rate observed for the last 1.5 months is 2.7%. Estimate the value
of the swap.
7.19. (a) Company A has been offered the swap quotes in Table 7.4. It can borrow for three
years at 3.45%. What floating rate can it swap this fixed rate into? (b) Company B has been offered the swap quotes in Table 7.4. It can borrow for five years at floating plus 75 basis points. What fixed rate can it swap this rate into? (c) Explain the rollover risks that Company B is taking.
7.20. The one-year LIBOR rates is 3%, and the LIBOR forward rate for the 1 - to 2-year period is 3.2%. The three-year swap rate for a swap with annual payments is 3.2%. What is the LIBOR forward rate for the 2- to 3-year period if OIS zero rates for maturities of one, two, and three years are 2.5%, 2.7%, and 2.9%, respectively. What is the value of a three-year swap where 4% is received and LIBOR is paid on a principal of $100 million. All rates are annually compounded.
7.21. A financial institution has entered into a swap where it agreed to receive quarterly
payments at a rate of 2% per annum and pay the SOFR three-month reference rate on
a notional principal of $100 million. The swap now has a remaining life of 10 months.
Assume the risk-free rates with continuous compounding (calculated from SOFR) for
1 month, 4 months, 7 months, and 10 months are 1.4%, 1.6%, 1.7%, and 1.8%,
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200 CHAPTER 7
respectively. Assume also that the continuously compounded risk-free rate observed for
the last two months is 1.1%. Estimate the value of the swap.
7.22. Company A, a British manufacturer, wishes to borrow U.S. dollars at a fixed rate of interest. Company B, a U.S. multinational, wishes to borrow sterling at a fixed rate of
interest. They have been quoted the following rates per annum:
Sterling U.S. Dollars
Company A 11.0% 7.0%
Company B 10.6% 6.2%
Securitization and Financial Crisis
- Securitization serves as a primary mechanism for transferring risk from one economic entity to another, moving beyond traditional derivatives like forwards and swaps.
- The 2007 financial crisis originated from mortgage-backed products in the U.S. and rapidly destabilized the global real economy and major financial institutions.
- The mortgage-backed security market was initially developed in the 1960s to help banks fund residential mortgages when loan demand outpaced deposit growth.
- Government-sponsored entities like Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac facilitated this market by purchasing bank portfolios and guaranteeing payments to investors.
- Over time, securitization expanded to include diverse asset classes like auto loans and credit cards, with investors eventually accepting risks without default guarantees.
There can be no question that the first decade of the twenty-first century was disastrous for the financial sector.
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200 CHAPTER 7
respectively. Assume also that the continuously compounded risk-free rate observed for
the last two months is 1.1%. Estimate the value of the swap.
7.22. Company A, a British manufacturer, wishes to borrow U.S. dollars at a fixed rate of interest. Company B, a U.S. multinational, wishes to borrow sterling at a fixed rate of
interest. They have been quoted the following rates per annum:
Sterling U.S. Dollars
Company A 11.0% 7.0%
Company B 10.6% 6.2%
(Rates have been adjusted for differential tax effects.) Design a swap that will net a bank, acting as intermediary, 10 basis points per annum and that will produce a gain of 15 basis points per annum for each of the two companies.
7.23. The five-year swap rate when cash flows are exchanged semiannually is 4%. A company
wants a swap where it receives payments at 4.2% per annum on a notional principal of $10 million. The OIS zero curve is flat at 3.6%. How much should a derivatives dealer charge the company. Assume that all rates are expressed with semiannual compounding and ignore bidāask spreads.
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201
Derivatives such as forwards, futures, swaps, and options are concerned with transferring
risk from one entity in the economy to another. The first seven chapters of this book have focused on forwards, futures, and swaps. Before moving on to discuss options, we
consider another important way of transferring risk in the economy: securitization.
Securitization is of particular interest because of its role in the financial crisis that
started in 2007. The crisis had its origins in financial products created from mortgages in the United States, but rapidly spread from the United States to other countries and from financial markets to the real economy. Some financial institutions failed; others had to be rescued by national governments. There can be no question that the first decade of the twenty-first century was disastrous for the financial sector.
In this chapter, we examine the nature of securitization and its role in the crisis. In
the course of the chapter, we will learn about the U.S. mortgage market, asset-backed securities, collateralized debt obligations, waterfalls, and the importance of incentives in financial markets.Securitization
and the Financial
Crisis of 2007ā88 CHAPTER
Traditionally, banks have funded their loans primarily from deposits. In the 1960s, U.S. banks found that they could not keep pace with the demand for residential mortgages with this type of funding. This led to the development of the mortgage-backed security (MBS) market. Organizations that were active in this market are:
⢠The Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA, also known as Ginnie Mae)
⢠The Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA, also known as Fannie Mae)
⢠The Federal Home Loan Mortagage Corporation (FHLMC, also known as
Freddie Mac).
These organizations bought portfolios of mortgages from the originating banks and packaged them as securities that were sold to investors. They guaranteed (for a fee) the interest and principal payments on the mortgages.
Thus, although banks originated the mortgages, they did not keep them on their
balance sheets. Securitization allowed them to increase their lending faster than their 8.1 SECURITIZATION
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202 CHAPTER 8
deposits were growing. The guarantees provided by GNMA, FNMA, and FHLMC
protected MBS investors against defaults by borrowers.1
In the 1980s, the securitization techniques developed for the mortgage market were
applied to asset classes such as automobile loans and credit card receivables in the United States. Securitization also become popular in other parts of the world. As the securitization market developed, investors became comfortable with situations where they did not have a guarantee against defaults by borrowers.
ABSs
The Evolution of Securitization
- Securitization techniques originally developed for mortgages were expanded in the 1980s to include auto loans and credit card receivables.
- As the market matured, investors grew comfortable purchasing asset-backed securities without government-backed guarantees against borrower defaults.
- Asset-backed securities (ABS) function by selling a portfolio of income-producing assets to a special purpose vehicle (SPV) which then allocates cash flows to different tranches.
- The tranches are structured by risk level, typically categorized as senior, mezzanine, and equity, with higher risk tranches offering significantly higher returns.
- Early mortgage-backed security investors often faced lower-than-expected returns due to the unpredictable nature of mortgage prepayments during low-interest periods.
As the securitization market developed, investors became comfortable with situations where they did not have a guarantee against defaults by borrowers.
deposits were growing. The guarantees provided by GNMA, FNMA, and FHLMC
protected MBS investors against defaults by borrowers.1
In the 1980s, the securitization techniques developed for the mortgage market were
applied to asset classes such as automobile loans and credit card receivables in the United States. Securitization also become popular in other parts of the world. As the securitization market developed, investors became comfortable with situations where they did not have a guarantee against defaults by borrowers.
ABSs
A securitization arrangement of the type used during the 2000 to 2007 period (with no guarantees against default) is shown in Figure 8.1. This is known as an asset-backed security or ABS. A portfolio of income-producing assets such as loans is sold by the originating banks to a special purpose vehicle (SPV) and the cash flows from the assets are then allocated to tranches. Figure 8.1 is simpler than the structures that were
typically created because it has only three tranches (in practice, many more tranches were used). These are the senior tranche, the mezzanine tranche, and the equity tranche.
The portfolio in Figure 8.1 has a principal of $100 million. This is divided as follows:
$80 million to the senior tranche, $15 million to the mezzanine tranche, and $5 million to the equity tranche. The senior trancheās return is LIBOR plus 60 basis points, the mezzanine trancheās return is LIBOR plus 250 basis points, and the equity trancheās return is LIBOR plus 2,000 basis points.
1 However, MBS investors did face uncertainty about mortgage prepayments. Prepayments tend to be
greatest when interest rates are low and the reinvestment opportunities open to investors are not particularly
attractive. In the early days of MBSs, many MBS investors realized lower returns than they expected because they did not take this into account.Asset 1
Asset 2
Asset 3
...
...
...
...
...
Asset n
Principal:
$100 millionSPVSenior tranche
Principal: $80 mill ion
LIBOR 1 60 bp
Mezzanine tranche
Principal: $15 mill ion
LIBOR 1 250 bp
Equity tranche
Principal: $5 mill ion
LIBOR 1 2,000 bp ...Figure 8.1 An asset-backed security (simplified); bp=basis points 11 bp=0.01%2.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 202 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 203
Mechanics of Asset-Backed Securities
- Asset-backed securities (ABS) are created by selling a portfolio of income-producing assets to a special purpose vehicle which then allocates cash flows to different tranches.
- The structure typically consists of senior, mezzanine, and equity tranches, each offering different levels of risk and potential return based on their seniority.
- A 'waterfall' mechanism dictates the order of payments, ensuring senior tranches are fully compensated before lower tranches receive any principal or interest.
- Losses on the underlying assets are absorbed in reverse order, with the equity tranche bearing the first 5% of losses before the mezzanine and senior tranches are affected.
- Credit rating agencies typically assign the highest AAA rating to the senior tranche, while the equity tranche usually remains unrated due to its high risk profile.
The first 5% of losses are borne by the equity tranche. If losses exceed 5%, the equity tranche loses all its principal and some losses are borne by the principal of the mezzanine tranche.
A securitization arrangement of the type used during the 2000 to 2007 period (with no guarantees against default) is shown in Figure 8.1. This is known as an asset-backed security or ABS. A portfolio of income-producing assets such as loans is sold by the originating banks to a special purpose vehicle (SPV) and the cash flows from the assets are then allocated to tranches. Figure 8.1 is simpler than the structures that were
typically created because it has only three tranches (in practice, many more tranches were used). These are the senior tranche, the mezzanine tranche, and the equity tranche.
The portfolio in Figure 8.1 has a principal of $100 million. This is divided as follows:
$80 million to the senior tranche, $15 million to the mezzanine tranche, and $5 million to the equity tranche. The senior trancheās return is LIBOR plus 60 basis points, the mezzanine trancheās return is LIBOR plus 250 basis points, and the equity trancheās return is LIBOR plus 2,000 basis points.
1 However, MBS investors did face uncertainty about mortgage prepayments. Prepayments tend to be
greatest when interest rates are low and the reinvestment opportunities open to investors are not particularly
attractive. In the early days of MBSs, many MBS investors realized lower returns than they expected because they did not take this into account.Asset 1
Asset 2
Asset 3
...
...
...
...
...
Asset n
Principal:
$100 millionSPVSenior tranche
Principal: $80 mill ion
LIBOR 1 60 bp
Mezzanine tranche
Principal: $15 mill ion
LIBOR 1 250 bp
Equity tranche
Principal: $5 mill ion
LIBOR 1 2,000 bp ...Figure 8.1 An asset-backed security (simplified); bp=basis points 11 bp=0.01%2.
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Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 203
It sounds as though the equity tranche has the best deal, but this is not necessarily the
case. The payments of interest and principal are not guaranteed. The return is like the
yield on a bond. It is the return that will be realized if there are no defaults affecting the tranche. As we will see, the equity tranche is more likely to lose part of its principal, and less likely to receive the promised interest payments on its outstanding principal, than the other tranches.
Cash flows are allocated to tranches by specifying what is known as a waterfall. The
general way a waterfall works is illustrated in Figure 8.2. A separate waterfall is applied to
principal and interest payments. Principal payments are allocated to the senior tranche until its principal has been fully repaid. They are then allocated to mezzanine tranche until its principal has been fully repaid. Only after this has happened do principal
repayments go to the equity tranche. Interest payments are allocated to the senior tranche until the senior tranche has received its promised return on its outstanding principal. Assuming that this promised return can be made, interest payments are then allocated to the mezzanine tranche. If the promised return to the mezzanine tranche can be made and cash flows are left over, they are allocated to pay interest on the equity tranche.
The extent to which the tranches get their principal back depends on losses on the
underlying assets. The effect of the waterfall is roughly as follows. The first 5% of losses are borne by the equity tranche. If losses exceed 5%, the equity tranche loses all its principal and some losses are borne by the principal of the mezzanine tranche. If losses exceed 20%, the mezzanine tranche loses all its principal and some losses are borne by the principal of the senior tranche.
There are therefore two ways of looking at an ABS. One is with reference to the
waterfall in Figure 8.2. Cash flows go first to the senior tranche, then to the mezzanine tranche, and then to the equity tranche. The other is in terms of losses. Losses of principal are first borne by the equity tranche, then by the mezzanine tranche, and then by the senior tranche. Rating agencies such as Moodyās, S&P , and Fitch played a key role in securitization. The ABS in Figure 8.1 is likely to be designed so that the senior tranche is given the highest possible rating, AAA. The mezzanine tranche is typically rated BBB (well below AAA, but still investment grade). The equity tranche is typically unrated.
The ABS Waterfall Structure
- Asset-backed securities are divided into senior, mezzanine, and equity tranches to distribute risk and cash flows.
- A waterfall mechanism dictates that senior tranches receive principal and interest payments first, followed by mezzanine and then equity tranches.
- Losses on underlying assets are absorbed in reverse order, with the equity tranche bearing the first 5% of losses before other tranches are impacted.
- Rating agencies typically assign AAA ratings to senior tranches, while the equity tranche usually remains unrated due to its high risk.
- In practice, the legal documents governing these complex sequential cash flows can span several hundred pages.
In practice, the rules are somewhat more complicated than this and are described in a legal document that is several hundred pages long.
It sounds as though the equity tranche has the best deal, but this is not necessarily the
case. The payments of interest and principal are not guaranteed. The return is like the
yield on a bond. It is the return that will be realized if there are no defaults affecting the tranche. As we will see, the equity tranche is more likely to lose part of its principal, and less likely to receive the promised interest payments on its outstanding principal, than the other tranches.
Cash flows are allocated to tranches by specifying what is known as a waterfall. The
general way a waterfall works is illustrated in Figure 8.2. A separate waterfall is applied to
principal and interest payments. Principal payments are allocated to the senior tranche until its principal has been fully repaid. They are then allocated to mezzanine tranche until its principal has been fully repaid. Only after this has happened do principal
repayments go to the equity tranche. Interest payments are allocated to the senior tranche until the senior tranche has received its promised return on its outstanding principal. Assuming that this promised return can be made, interest payments are then allocated to the mezzanine tranche. If the promised return to the mezzanine tranche can be made and cash flows are left over, they are allocated to pay interest on the equity tranche.
The extent to which the tranches get their principal back depends on losses on the
underlying assets. The effect of the waterfall is roughly as follows. The first 5% of losses are borne by the equity tranche. If losses exceed 5%, the equity tranche loses all its principal and some losses are borne by the principal of the mezzanine tranche. If losses exceed 20%, the mezzanine tranche loses all its principal and some losses are borne by the principal of the senior tranche.
There are therefore two ways of looking at an ABS. One is with reference to the
waterfall in Figure 8.2. Cash flows go first to the senior tranche, then to the mezzanine tranche, and then to the equity tranche. The other is in terms of losses. Losses of principal are first borne by the equity tranche, then by the mezzanine tranche, and then by the senior tranche. Rating agencies such as Moodyās, S&P , and Fitch played a key role in securitization. The ABS in Figure 8.1 is likely to be designed so that the senior tranche is given the highest possible rating, AAA. The mezzanine tranche is typically rated BBB (well below AAA, but still investment grade). The equity tranche is typically unrated.
Senior tranche
Mezzanine tranch e
Asse t
cash
flows
Equi ty trancheFigure 8.2 The waterfall in an asset-backed security.
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204 CHAPTER 8
The description of ABSs that we have given so far is somewhat simplified. Typically,
more than three tranches with a wide range of ratings were created. In the waterfall rules,
as we have described them, the allocation of cash flows to tranches is sequential in that they always flow first to the most senior tranche, then to the next most senior tranche, and so on. In practice, the rules are somewhat more complicated than this and are described in a legal document that is several hundred pages long. Another complication is that there was often some overcollateralization where the total principal of the tranches was less than the total principal of the underlying assets. Also, the weighted average return
promised to the tranches was less than the weighted average return payable on the assets.
2
ABS CDOs
The Complexity of ABS CDOs
- Asset-backed securities (ABS) utilize complex waterfall rules and overcollateralization to manage cash flows and increase profitability for creators.
- While senior AAA-rated tranches were easy to sell due to attractive returns, mezzanine tranches proved much harder to place with investors.
- To solve the mezzanine demand issue, financial engineers created ABS CDOs by repackaging mezzanine tranches into new portfolios and re-tranching them.
- This layering process allowed approximately 90% of the original principal to be rated as AAA, a percentage that grew even higher with further securitization.
- The legal documentation governing these intricate cash flow allocations often spanned several hundred pages, masking the underlying complexity.
In practice, the rules are somewhat more complicated than this and are described in a legal document that is several hundred pages long.
The description of ABSs that we have given so far is somewhat simplified. Typically,
more than three tranches with a wide range of ratings were created. In the waterfall rules,
as we have described them, the allocation of cash flows to tranches is sequential in that they always flow first to the most senior tranche, then to the next most senior tranche, and so on. In practice, the rules are somewhat more complicated than this and are described in a legal document that is several hundred pages long. Another complication is that there was often some overcollateralization where the total principal of the tranches was less than the total principal of the underlying assets. Also, the weighted average return
promised to the tranches was less than the weighted average return payable on the assets.
2
ABS CDOs
Finding investors to buy the senior AAA-rated tranches of ABSs was usually not difficult, because the tranches promised returns that were very attractive when compared with the return on AAA-rated bonds. Equity tranches were typically retained by the originator of the assets or sold to a hedge fund.
Finding investors for mezzanine tranches was more difficult. This led to the creation of
ABSs of ABSs. The way this was done is shown in Figure 8.3. Many different mezzanine tranches, created in the way indicated in Figure 8.1, are put in a portfolio and the risks associated with the cash flows from the portfolio are tranched out in the same way as the risks associated with cash flows from the assets are tranched out in Figure 8.1. The resulting structure is known as an ABS CDO or Mezz ABS CDO. (CDO is short for
collateralized debt obligation.) In the example in Figure 8.3, the senior tranche of the ABS CDO accounts for 65% of the principal of the ABS mezzanine tranches, the
mezzanine tranche of the ABS CDO accounts for 25% of the principal, and the equity tranche accounts for the remaining 10% of the principal. The structure is designed so that the senior tranche of the ABS CDO is given the highest credit rating of AAA. This means that the total of the AAA-rated instruments created in the example that is
considered here is about 90% (80% plus 65% of 15%) of the principal of the underlying portfolios. This seems high but, if the securitization were carried further with an ABS being created from tranches of ABS CDOs (and this did happen), the percentage would be pushed even higher.
2 Both this feature and overcollateralization had the potential to increase the profitability of the structure for
its creator.Assets Senior tranche (80%)
AAA
Mezzanine tranche (15%)
BBB
Equity tranche (5%)
Not ratedSenior tranche (65%)
AAA
Mezzanine tranche (25%)
BBB
Equity tranche (10%)ABSs
ABS CDOFigure 8.3 Creation of ABSs and an ABS CDO from portfolios of assets (simplified).
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Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 205
The Mechanics of ABS CDOs
- Securitization involves dividing asset portfolios into senior, mezzanine, and equity tranches based on risk and return profiles.
- To find buyers for difficult-to-sell mezzanine tranches, financial institutions bundled them into new portfolios called ABS CDOs.
- The layering of these structures allowed creators to re-tranche mezzanine debt into new AAA-rated senior instruments, artificially inflating the volume of high-rated securities.
- While a standard AAA tranche might survive a 20% loss on underlying assets, a senior ABS CDO tranche can be wiped out by much smaller losses due to its leveraged position.
- The complexity of these structures meant that a 17% loss on the original assets could result in a devastating 69.2% loss for the supposedly safe senior tranche of an ABS CDO.
This means that the total of the AAA-rated instruments created in the example that is considered here is about 90% of the principal of the underlying portfolios.
Finding investors to buy the senior AAA-rated tranches of ABSs was usually not difficult, because the tranches promised returns that were very attractive when compared with the return on AAA-rated bonds. Equity tranches were typically retained by the originator of the assets or sold to a hedge fund.
Finding investors for mezzanine tranches was more difficult. This led to the creation of
ABSs of ABSs. The way this was done is shown in Figure 8.3. Many different mezzanine tranches, created in the way indicated in Figure 8.1, are put in a portfolio and the risks associated with the cash flows from the portfolio are tranched out in the same way as the risks associated with cash flows from the assets are tranched out in Figure 8.1. The resulting structure is known as an ABS CDO or Mezz ABS CDO. (CDO is short for
collateralized debt obligation.) In the example in Figure 8.3, the senior tranche of the ABS CDO accounts for 65% of the principal of the ABS mezzanine tranches, the
mezzanine tranche of the ABS CDO accounts for 25% of the principal, and the equity tranche accounts for the remaining 10% of the principal. The structure is designed so that the senior tranche of the ABS CDO is given the highest credit rating of AAA. This means that the total of the AAA-rated instruments created in the example that is
considered here is about 90% (80% plus 65% of 15%) of the principal of the underlying portfolios. This seems high but, if the securitization were carried further with an ABS being created from tranches of ABS CDOs (and this did happen), the percentage would be pushed even higher.
2 Both this feature and overcollateralization had the potential to increase the profitability of the structure for
its creator.Assets Senior tranche (80%)
AAA
Mezzanine tranche (15%)
BBB
Equity tranche (5%)
Not ratedSenior tranche (65%)
AAA
Mezzanine tranche (25%)
BBB
Equity tranche (10%)ABSs
ABS CDOFigure 8.3 Creation of ABSs and an ABS CDO from portfolios of assets (simplified).
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Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 205
In the example in Figure 8.3, the AAA-rated tranche of the ABS can expect to receive
its promised return and get its principal back if losses on the underlying portfolio of
assets is less than 20% because all losses of principal would then be absorbed by the more junior tranches. The AAA-rated tranche of the ABS CDO in Figure 8.3 is more risky. It will receive the promised return and get its principal back if losses on the
underlying assets are 10.25% or less. This is because a loss of 10.25% means that
mezzanine tranches of ABSs have to absorb losses equal to 5.25% of the ABS principal. As these tranches have a total principal equal to 15% of the ABS principal, they lose 5.25> 15 or 35% of their principal. The equity and mezzanine tranches of the ABS CDO
are then wiped out, but the senior tranche just manages to survive intact.
The senior tranche of the ABS CDO suffers losses if losses on the underlying
portfolios are more than 10.25%. Consider, for example, the situation where losses are 17% on the underlying portfolios. Of the 17%, 5% is borne by the equity tranche of the ABS and 12% by the mezzanine tranche of the ABS. Losses on the mezzanine tranches are therefore 12> 15 or 80% of their principal. The first 35% is absorbed by the
equity and mezzanine tranches of the ABS CDO. The senior tranche of the ABS CDO therefore loses 45> 65 or 69.2% of its value. These and other results are summarized in
Table 8.1. Our calculations assume that all ABS portfolios have the same default rate.Table 8.1 Estimated losses to tranches of ABS CDO in Figure 8.3.
Losses on underlying
assetsLosses to
mezzanine tranche
of ABSLosses to
equity tranche
of ABS CDOLosses to
mezzanine tranche
of ABS CDOLosses to
senior tranche
of ABS CDO
10% 33.3% 100.0% 93.3% 0.0%
13% 53.3% 100.0% 100.0% 28.2%
17% 80.0% 100.0% 100.0% 69.2%
20% 100.0% 100.0% 100.0% 100.0%
Subprime Mortgages and CDO Risk
- The senior tranches of ABS CDOs are significantly more vulnerable to losses than standard ABS tranches, with a 10.25% loss in underlying assets potentially wiping out junior layers.
- Mathematical modeling shows that once losses on underlying portfolios reach 20%, even the highest-rated senior tranches of an ABS CDO can lose 100% of their value.
- The U.S. housing bubble was fueled by historically low interest rates and a fundamental shift in lending practices that embraced subprime first mortgages.
- Lending standards were relaxed as rising house prices created a feedback loop where lenders felt protected by collateral value even when borrowers were not creditworthy.
- Mortgage brokers and lenders were incentivized to increase loan volumes because higher house prices reduced the perceived risk of loss during foreclosure.
The equity and mezzanine tranches of the ABS CDO are then wiped out, but the senior tranche just manages to survive intact.
In the example in Figure 8.3, the AAA-rated tranche of the ABS can expect to receive
its promised return and get its principal back if losses on the underlying portfolio of
assets is less than 20% because all losses of principal would then be absorbed by the more junior tranches. The AAA-rated tranche of the ABS CDO in Figure 8.3 is more risky. It will receive the promised return and get its principal back if losses on the
underlying assets are 10.25% or less. This is because a loss of 10.25% means that
mezzanine tranches of ABSs have to absorb losses equal to 5.25% of the ABS principal. As these tranches have a total principal equal to 15% of the ABS principal, they lose 5.25> 15 or 35% of their principal. The equity and mezzanine tranches of the ABS CDO
are then wiped out, but the senior tranche just manages to survive intact.
The senior tranche of the ABS CDO suffers losses if losses on the underlying
portfolios are more than 10.25%. Consider, for example, the situation where losses are 17% on the underlying portfolios. Of the 17%, 5% is borne by the equity tranche of the ABS and 12% by the mezzanine tranche of the ABS. Losses on the mezzanine tranches are therefore 12> 15 or 80% of their principal. The first 35% is absorbed by the
equity and mezzanine tranches of the ABS CDO. The senior tranche of the ABS CDO therefore loses 45> 65 or 69.2% of its value. These and other results are summarized in
Table 8.1. Our calculations assume that all ABS portfolios have the same default rate.Table 8.1 Estimated losses to tranches of ABS CDO in Figure 8.3.
Losses on underlying
assetsLosses to
mezzanine tranche
of ABSLosses to
equity tranche
of ABS CDOLosses to
mezzanine tranche
of ABS CDOLosses to
senior tranche
of ABS CDO
10% 33.3% 100.0% 93.3% 0.0%
13% 53.3% 100.0% 100.0% 28.2%
17% 80.0% 100.0% 100.0% 69.2%
20% 100.0% 100.0% 100.0% 100.0%
Figure 8.4 gives the S&P>CaseāShiller composite-10 index for house prices in the
United States between January 1987 and February 2020. This tracks house prices for
ten metropolitan areas of the United States. It shows that, in about the year 2000, house prices started to rise much faster than they had in the previous decade. The very low level of interest rates between 2002 and 2005 was an important contributory factor, but the bubble in house prices was also fueled by mortgage-lending practices.
The 2000 to 2006 period was characterized by a huge increase in what is termed
subprime mortgage lending. Subprime mortgages are mortgages that are considered to be significantly more risky than average. Before 2000, most mortgages classified as subprime were second mortgages. After 2000, this changed as financial institutions became more comfortable with the notion of a subprime first mortgage.
The Relaxation of Lending Standards
The relaxation of lending standards and the growth of subprime mortgages made house purchase possible for many families that had previously been considered to be not 8.2 THE U.S. HOUSING MARKET
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 205 30/04/2021 16:49
206 CHAPTER 8
sufficiently creditworthy to qualify for a mortgage. These families increased the demand
for real estate and prices rose. To mortgage brokers and mortgage lenders, it was
attractive to make more loans, particularly when higher house prices resulted. More lending meant bigger profits. Higher house prices meant that the lending was well covered by the underlying collateral. If the borrower defaulted, it was less likely that the resulting foreclosure would lead to a loss.
Mortgage brokers and mortgage lenders naturally wanted to keep increasing their
The Subprime Lending Spiral
- Rising house prices encouraged lenders to relax credit standards to attract new buyers and maximize profits.
- Lenders introduced predatory adjustable-rate mortgages with low teaser rates that eventually reset to much higher levels.
- The securitization process shifted the focus from credit risk assessment to whether a mortgage could be sold to third parties.
- Key metrics like FICO scores and loan-to-value ratios were often manipulated through inflated appraisals and credit coaching.
- Mortgage originators frequently ignored or failed to verify applicant income, prioritizing volume over loan quality.
When considering new mortgage applications, the question was not āIs this a credit risk we want to assume?ā Instead it was āIs this a mortgage we can make money on by selling it to someone else?ā
sufficiently creditworthy to qualify for a mortgage. These families increased the demand
for real estate and prices rose. To mortgage brokers and mortgage lenders, it was
attractive to make more loans, particularly when higher house prices resulted. More lending meant bigger profits. Higher house prices meant that the lending was well covered by the underlying collateral. If the borrower defaulted, it was less likely that the resulting foreclosure would lead to a loss.
Mortgage brokers and mortgage lenders naturally wanted to keep increasing their
profits. Their problem was that, as house prices rose, it was more difficult for first-time buyers to afford a house. In order to continue to attract new entrants to the housing market, they had to find ways to relax their lending standards even moreāand this is exactly what they did. The amount lent as a percentage of the house price increased. Adjustable-rate mortgages (ARMS) were developed where there was a low āteaserā rate of interest that would last for two or three years and be followed by a rate that was much higher.
3 A typical teaser rate was about 6% and the interest rate after the
end of the teaser rate period was typically six-month LIBOR plus 6%.4 However,
teaser rates as low as 1% or 2% have been reported. Lenders also became more cavalier in the way they reviewed mortgage applications. Indeed, the applicantās income and other information reported on the application form were frequently not checked.
Subprime Mortgage Securitization
Subprime mortgages were frequently securitized in the way indicated in Figures 8.1
to 8.3. The investors in tranches created from subprime mortgages usually had no
3 If real estate prices increased, lenders expected the borrowers to prepay and take out a new mortgage at the
end of the teaser rate period. However, prepayment penalties, often zero on prime mortgages, were quite high
on subprime mortgages.
4 A ā2>28ā ARM, for example, is an ARM where the rate is fixed for two years and then floats for the
remaining 28 years.50100150200250
Jan-20 Jan-17 Jan-14 Jan-11 Jan-08 Jan-05 Jan-02 Jan-99 Jan-96 Jan-93 Jan-90 Jan-87Figure 8.4 The S&P/CaseāShiller Composite-10 index of U.S. real estate
prices, 1987ā2020.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 206 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 207
guarantees that interest and principal would be paid. Securitization played a part in the
crisis. The behavior of mortgage originators was influenced by their knowledge that mortgages would be securitized.
5 When considering new mortgage applications, the
question was not āIs this a credit risk we want to assume?ā Instead it was āIs this a mortgage we can make money on by selling it to someone else?ā
When a portfolio of mortgages was securitized, the buyers of the products that were
created felt they had enough information if they knew, for each mortgage in the
portfolio, the loan-to-value ratio (i.e., the ratio of the size of the loan to the assessed value of the house) and the borrowerās FICO score.
6 Other information on the
mortgage application forms was considered irrelevant and, as already mentioned, was often not even checked by lenders. The most important thing for the lender was whether the mortgage could be sold to othersāand this depended largely on the loan-to-value ratio and the applicantās FICO score.
It is interesting to note in passing that both the loan-to-value ratio and the FICO
score were of doubtful quality. The property assessors who determined the value of a house at the time of a mortgage application sometimes succumbed to pressure from the lenders to come up with high values. Potential borrowers were sometimes counseled to take certain actions that would improve their FICO scores.
7
Why was the government not regulating the behavior of mortgage lenders? The
The Subprime Mortgage Collapse
- Lenders prioritized the ability to sell mortgages over the actual accuracy of applicant data, leading to the rise of 'liar loans' and 'NINJA' borrowers.
- Key metrics like loan-to-value ratios and FICO scores were often manipulated through pressure on assessors or strategic counseling of borrowers.
- The U.S. government encouraged lax lending standards starting in the 1990s to expand home ownership among low- and moderate-income populations.
- The bubble burst in 2007 when teaser rates expired, causing a wave of foreclosures and a subsequent crash in housing prices.
- Nonrecourse mortgage laws in many states allowed borrowers with negative equity to walk away from their homes without risking other assets.
Another term used to describe some borrowers is āNINJAā (no income, no job, no assets).
mortgage application forms was considered irrelevant and, as already mentioned, was often not even checked by lenders. The most important thing for the lender was whether the mortgage could be sold to othersāand this depended largely on the loan-to-value ratio and the applicantās FICO score.
It is interesting to note in passing that both the loan-to-value ratio and the FICO
score were of doubtful quality. The property assessors who determined the value of a house at the time of a mortgage application sometimes succumbed to pressure from the lenders to come up with high values. Potential borrowers were sometimes counseled to take certain actions that would improve their FICO scores.
7
Why was the government not regulating the behavior of mortgage lenders? The
answer is that the U.S. government had since the 1990s been trying to expand home ownership and had been applying pressure to mortgage lenders to increase loans to low- and moderate-income people. Some state legislators, such as those in Ohio and
Georgia, were concerned about what was going on and wanted to curtail predatory lending.
8 However, the courts decided that national standards should prevail.
A number of terms have been used to describe mortgage lending during the period
leading up to the 2007ā8 crisis. One is āliar loansā because individuals applying for a mortgage, knowing that no checks would be carried out, sometimes chose to lie on the application form. Another term used to describe some borrowers is āNINJAā (no income, no job, no assets).
The Bubble Bursts
All bubbles burst eventually and this one was no exception. In 2007, many mortgage holders found they could no longer afford their mortgages when the teaser rates ended. This led to foreclosures and large numbers of houses coming on the market, which in turn led to a decline in house prices. Other mortgage holders, who had borrowed 100%, or close to 100%, of the cost of a house found that they had negative equity.
One of the features of the U.S. housing market is that mortgages are nonrecourse in
many states. This means that, when there is a default, the lender is able to take
possession of the house, but other assets of the borrower are off-limits. Consequently, the borrower has a free American-style put option. He or she can at any time sell the
5 See B. J. Keys, T. Mukherjee, A. Seru, and V . Vig, āDid Securitization Lead to Lax Screening? Evidence
from Subprime Loans, ā Quarterly Journal of Economics, 125, 1 (February 2010): 307ā62
6 FICO is a credit score developed by the Fair Isaac Corporation and is widely used in the United States. It
ranges from 300 to 850.
7 One such action might be to make regular payments on a new credit card for a few months.
8 Predatory lending describes the situation where a lender deceptively convinces borrowers to agree to unfair
and abusive loan terms.
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208 CHAPTER 8
The Housing Bubble Burst
- The 2007 housing market collapse was triggered by the expiration of teaser rates, leading to widespread foreclosures and negative equity.
- Nonrecourse mortgage laws in many U.S. states effectively granted borrowers a free American-style put option to walk away from debt.
- Speculators frequently exploited these put options by abandoning rental properties, often leaving tenants to suffer the consequences.
- Strategic defaults became a mathematical optimization where neighbors could theoretically swap foreclosed homes to reduce their debt.
- While the crisis was global, with the United Kingdom also severely affected, U.S. house prices eventually began a recovery after 2012.
The answer is that each person should exercise the put option and buy the neighborās house.
All bubbles burst eventually and this one was no exception. In 2007, many mortgage holders found they could no longer afford their mortgages when the teaser rates ended. This led to foreclosures and large numbers of houses coming on the market, which in turn led to a decline in house prices. Other mortgage holders, who had borrowed 100%, or close to 100%, of the cost of a house found that they had negative equity.
One of the features of the U.S. housing market is that mortgages are nonrecourse in
many states. This means that, when there is a default, the lender is able to take
possession of the house, but other assets of the borrower are off-limits. Consequently, the borrower has a free American-style put option. He or she can at any time sell the
5 See B. J. Keys, T. Mukherjee, A. Seru, and V . Vig, āDid Securitization Lead to Lax Screening? Evidence
from Subprime Loans, ā Quarterly Journal of Economics, 125, 1 (February 2010): 307ā62
6 FICO is a credit score developed by the Fair Isaac Corporation and is widely used in the United States. It
ranges from 300 to 850.
7 One such action might be to make regular payments on a new credit card for a few months.
8 Predatory lending describes the situation where a lender deceptively convinces borrowers to agree to unfair
and abusive loan terms.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 207 30/04/2021 16:49
208 CHAPTER 8
house to the lender for the principal outstanding on the mortgage. This feature
encouraged speculative activity and was partly responsible for the bubble. Market participants realized belatedly how costly and destabilizing the put option could be. If the borrower had negative equity, the optimal decision was to exchange the house for the outstanding principal on the mortgage. The house was then sold by the lender, adding to the downward pressure on house prices.
It would be a mistake to assume that all mortgage defaulters were in the same
position. Some were unable to meet mortgage payments and suffered greatly when they had to give up their homes. But many of the defaulters were speculators who bought multiple homes as rental properties and chose to exercise their put options. It was their tenants who suffered. There are also reports that some house owners (who were not speculators) were quite creative in extracting value from their put options. After handing the keys to their houses to the lender, they turned around and bought (some-times at a bargain price) other houses that were in foreclosure. Imagine two people owning identical houses next to each other. Both have mortgages of $250,000. Both houses are worth $200,000 and in foreclosure can be expected to sell for $170,000. What is the ownersā optimal strategy? The answer is that each person should exercise the put option and buy the neighborās house.
The United States was not alone in having declining real estate prices. Prices declined
in many other countries as well. Real estate prices in the United Kingdom were
particularly badly affected. As Figure 8.4 indicates, average house prices in the United States did recover after 2012.
The Losses
Mortgage Defaults and Market Collapse
- The 'put option' in US mortgages allowed borrowers with negative equity to exchange their homes for the outstanding principal, fueling speculative bubbles and market instability.
- Strategic defaults were common among speculators and even creative homeowners who would abandon their mortgages to buy neighboring foreclosed properties at lower prices.
- Foreclosure losses far exceeded the drop in market value, with some lenders recovering only 25% of the principal due to the poor condition of abandoned homes.
- The collapse of subprime mortgage-backed securities led to the near-total loss of value in AAA-rated tranches and the subsequent government rescue of major financial institutions.
- The year 2008 marked a historic low in financial history, characterized by the failure of Lehman Brothers and the forced acquisition of firms like Merrill Lynch and Bear Stearns.
The answer is that each person should exercise the put option and buy the neighborās house.
house to the lender for the principal outstanding on the mortgage. This feature
encouraged speculative activity and was partly responsible for the bubble. Market participants realized belatedly how costly and destabilizing the put option could be. If the borrower had negative equity, the optimal decision was to exchange the house for the outstanding principal on the mortgage. The house was then sold by the lender, adding to the downward pressure on house prices.
It would be a mistake to assume that all mortgage defaulters were in the same
position. Some were unable to meet mortgage payments and suffered greatly when they had to give up their homes. But many of the defaulters were speculators who bought multiple homes as rental properties and chose to exercise their put options. It was their tenants who suffered. There are also reports that some house owners (who were not speculators) were quite creative in extracting value from their put options. After handing the keys to their houses to the lender, they turned around and bought (some-times at a bargain price) other houses that were in foreclosure. Imagine two people owning identical houses next to each other. Both have mortgages of $250,000. Both houses are worth $200,000 and in foreclosure can be expected to sell for $170,000. What is the ownersā optimal strategy? The answer is that each person should exercise the put option and buy the neighborās house.
The United States was not alone in having declining real estate prices. Prices declined
in many other countries as well. Real estate prices in the United Kingdom were
particularly badly affected. As Figure 8.4 indicates, average house prices in the United States did recover after 2012.
The Losses
As foreclosures increased, the losses on mortgages also increased. It might be thought that a 35% reduction in house prices would lead to at most a 35% loss of principal on defaulting mortgages. In fact, the losses were far greater than that. Houses in fore-closure were often in poor condition and sold for a small fraction of their value prior to the financial crisis. In 2008 and 2009, losses as high 75% of the mortgage principal were reported for mortgages on houses in foreclosure in some cases.
Investors in tranches that were formed from the mortgages incurred big losses. The
value of the ABS tranches created from subprime mortgages was monitored by a series of indices known as ABX. These indices indicated that the tranches originally rated BBB had lost about 80% of their value by the end of 2007 and about 97% of their value by mid-2009. The value of the ABS CDO tranches created from BBB tranches was monitored by a series of indices known as TABX. These indices indicated that the tranches originally rated AAA lost about 80% of their value by the end of 2007 and were essentially worthless by mid-2009.
Financial institutions such as UBS, Merrill Lynch, and Citigroup had big positions
in some of the tranches and incurred huge losses, as did the insurance giant AIG, which provided protection against losses on ABS CDO tranches that had originally been rated AAA. Many financial institutions had to be rescued with government funds. There have been few worse years in financial history than 2008. Bear Stearns was taken over by JP Morgan Chase; Merrill Lynch was taken over by Bank of America; Goldman Sachs and Morgan Stanley, which had formerly been investment banks, became bank holding companies with both commercial and investment banking interests; and Lehman Brothers was allowed to fail (see Business Snapshot 1. 1).
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 208 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 209
Credit Spreads
The 2008 Financial Collapse
- Major financial institutions like AIG and Lehman Brothers suffered catastrophic losses due to high-rated tranches of mortgage-backed securities failing.
- The crisis led to a massive erosion of bank capital, causing a shift from easy lending to extreme risk aversion among major lenders.
- Key market stress indicators, such as the LIBORāOIS and TED spreads, reached historic highs as banks became reluctant to lend even to each other.
- The crisis was fueled by 'irrational exuberance,' where investors and lenders incorrectly assumed that U.S. house prices would never experience a widespread decline.
- The structural failure of ABS and ABS CDOs forced the government to rescue several formerly stable investment banks with public funds.
The three-month LIBORāOIS spread briefly reached 364 basis points in October 2008, indicating an extreme reluctance of banks to lend to each other for longer periods than overnight.
in some of the tranches and incurred huge losses, as did the insurance giant AIG, which provided protection against losses on ABS CDO tranches that had originally been rated AAA. Many financial institutions had to be rescued with government funds. There have been few worse years in financial history than 2008. Bear Stearns was taken over by JP Morgan Chase; Merrill Lynch was taken over by Bank of America; Goldman Sachs and Morgan Stanley, which had formerly been investment banks, became bank holding companies with both commercial and investment banking interests; and Lehman Brothers was allowed to fail (see Business Snapshot 1. 1).
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 208 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 209
Credit Spreads
The losses on securities backed by residential mortgages led to a severe financial crisis. In
2006, banks were reasonably well capitalized, loans were relatively easy to obtain, and credit spreads (the excess of the interest rate on a loan over the risk-free interest rate) were low. By 2008, the situation was totally different. The capital of banks had been badly eroded by their losses. They had become much more risk-averse and were reluctant to lend. Creditworthy individuals and corporations found borrowing difficult. Credit spreads had increased dramatically. The world experienced its worst recession in several generations. The three-month LIBORāOIS spread briefly reached 364 basis points in October 2008, indicating an extreme reluctance of banks to lend to each other for longer periods than overnight. Another measure of the stress in financial markets is the TED spread. This is the excess of the three-month Eurodollar deposit rate over the three-month Treasury interest. In normal market conditions, it is 30 to 50 basis points. It reached over 450 basis points in October 2008.
āIrrational exuberanceā is a phrase coined by Alan Greenspan, Chairman of the Federal
Reserve Board, to describe the behavior of investors during the bull market of the 1990s. It can also be applied to the period leading up to the financial crisis. Mortgage lenders, the investors in tranches of ABSs and ABS CDOs that were created from residential mortgages, and the companies that sold protection on the tranches assumed that the good times would last for ever. They thought that U.S. house prices would continue to increase. There might be declines in one or two areas, but the possibility of the
widespread decline shown in Figure 8.4 was a scenario not considered by most people.
Many factors contributed to the crisis that started in 2007. Mortgage originators
The 2008 Financial Crisis
- The erosion of bank capital due to mortgage-backed security losses led to a severe global recession and a dramatic spike in credit spreads.
- Market participants operated under 'irrational exuberance,' assuming that U.S. house prices would never experience a widespread decline.
- Lax lending standards and the transfer of credit risk to investors through complex structured products fueled the systemic collapse.
- Rating agencies struggled to accurately assess new structured products, providing high ratings for assets with little historical data.
- Investors relied heavily on these ratings for high-yield AAA products rather than conducting independent due diligence on underlying risks.
- The safety of senior tranches was falsely predicated on the assumption that mortgage default correlations would remain low.
Investors in the structured products that were created thought they had found a money machine and chose to rely on rating agencies rather than forming their own opinions about the underlying risks.
The losses on securities backed by residential mortgages led to a severe financial crisis. In
2006, banks were reasonably well capitalized, loans were relatively easy to obtain, and credit spreads (the excess of the interest rate on a loan over the risk-free interest rate) were low. By 2008, the situation was totally different. The capital of banks had been badly eroded by their losses. They had become much more risk-averse and were reluctant to lend. Creditworthy individuals and corporations found borrowing difficult. Credit spreads had increased dramatically. The world experienced its worst recession in several generations. The three-month LIBORāOIS spread briefly reached 364 basis points in October 2008, indicating an extreme reluctance of banks to lend to each other for longer periods than overnight. Another measure of the stress in financial markets is the TED spread. This is the excess of the three-month Eurodollar deposit rate over the three-month Treasury interest. In normal market conditions, it is 30 to 50 basis points. It reached over 450 basis points in October 2008.
āIrrational exuberanceā is a phrase coined by Alan Greenspan, Chairman of the Federal
Reserve Board, to describe the behavior of investors during the bull market of the 1990s. It can also be applied to the period leading up to the financial crisis. Mortgage lenders, the investors in tranches of ABSs and ABS CDOs that were created from residential mortgages, and the companies that sold protection on the tranches assumed that the good times would last for ever. They thought that U.S. house prices would continue to increase. There might be declines in one or two areas, but the possibility of the
widespread decline shown in Figure 8.4 was a scenario not considered by most people.
Many factors contributed to the crisis that started in 2007. Mortgage originators
used lax lending standards. Products were developed to enable mortgage originators to profitably transfer credit risk to investors. Rating agencies moved from their traditional business of rating bonds, where they had a great deal of experience, to rating structured products, which were relatively new and for which there were relatively little historical data. The products bought by investors were complex and in many instances investors and rating agencies had inaccurate or incomplete information about the quality of the underlying assets. Investors in the structured products that were created thought they had found a money machine and chose to rely on rating agencies rather than forming their own opinions about the underlying risks. The return offered by the products rated AAA was high compared with the returns on bonds rated AAA.
Structured products such as those in Figures 8.1 and 8.3 are highly dependent on the
default correlation between the underlying assets. Default correlation measures the tendency for different borrowers to default at about the same time. If the default
correlation between the underlying assets in Figure 8.1 is low, the AAA-rated tranches are very unlikely to experience losses. As this default correlation increases, they become more vulnerable. The tranches of ABS CDOs in Figure 8.3 are even more heavily dependent on default correlation.
If mortgages exhibit moderate default correlation (as they do in normal times), there
is very little chance of a high overall default rate and the AAA-rated tranches of both ABSs and ABS CDOs that are created from mortgages are fairly safe. However, as 8.3 WHAT WENT WRONG?
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210 CHAPTER 8
The Illusion of Safety
- Lax lending standards allowed mortgage originators to transfer credit risk to investors through complex structured products.
- Rating agencies applied traditional bond-rating methodologies to new structured products despite having limited historical data and incomplete information.
- The safety of AAA-rated tranches was highly dependent on default correlation, which spiked unexpectedly during stressed market conditions.
- Thin tranches created a binary risk profile where investors were likely to either lose nothing or be completely wiped out with no chance of partial recovery.
- Investors mistakenly equated the risk of thin BBB-rated tranches with that of BBB-rated bonds, ignoring the catastrophic loss potential of the former.
Investors in the structured products that were created thought they had found a money machine and chose to rely on rating agencies rather than forming their own opinions about the underlying risks.
used lax lending standards. Products were developed to enable mortgage originators to profitably transfer credit risk to investors. Rating agencies moved from their traditional business of rating bonds, where they had a great deal of experience, to rating structured products, which were relatively new and for which there were relatively little historical data. The products bought by investors were complex and in many instances investors and rating agencies had inaccurate or incomplete information about the quality of the underlying assets. Investors in the structured products that were created thought they had found a money machine and chose to rely on rating agencies rather than forming their own opinions about the underlying risks. The return offered by the products rated AAA was high compared with the returns on bonds rated AAA.
Structured products such as those in Figures 8.1 and 8.3 are highly dependent on the
default correlation between the underlying assets. Default correlation measures the tendency for different borrowers to default at about the same time. If the default
correlation between the underlying assets in Figure 8.1 is low, the AAA-rated tranches are very unlikely to experience losses. As this default correlation increases, they become more vulnerable. The tranches of ABS CDOs in Figure 8.3 are even more heavily dependent on default correlation.
If mortgages exhibit moderate default correlation (as they do in normal times), there
is very little chance of a high overall default rate and the AAA-rated tranches of both ABSs and ABS CDOs that are created from mortgages are fairly safe. However, as 8.3 WHAT WENT WRONG?
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210 CHAPTER 8
many investors found to their cost, default correlations tend to increase in stressed
market conditions. This makes very high default rates possible.
There was a tendency to assume that a tranche with a particular rating could be
equated to a bond with the that rating. The rating agencies published the criteria they used for rating tranches. S&P and Fitch rated a tranche so as to ensure that the
probability of the tranche experiencing a loss was the same as the probability of a
similarly rated bond experiencing a loss. Moodyās rated a tranche so that the expected loss from the tranche was the the same as the expected loss from a similarly rated bond.
9
The procedures used by rating agencies were therefore designed to ensure that one aspect of the loss distributions of tranches and bonds were matched. However, other aspects of the distributions were liable to be quite different.
The differences between tranches and bonds were accentuated by the fact tranches
were often quite thin. The AAA tranches often accounted for about 80% of the
principal as in Figure 8.1, but it was not unusual for there to be 15 to 20 other
tranches. Each of these tranches would be 1% or 2% wide. Such thin tranches are likely to either incur no losses or be totally wiped out. The chance of investors
recovering part of their principal (as bondholders usually do) is small. Consider, for example, a BBB tranche that is responsible for losses in the range 5% to 6%, If losses on the underlying portfolio are less than 5%, the tranche is safe. If losses are greater than 6%, the tranche is wiped out. Only in the case where losses are between 5% and 6% is a partial recovery made by investors.
The difference between a thin BBB-rated tranche and a BBB-rated bond was over-
looked by many investors. The difference makes the tranches of ABS CDOs created from the BBB-rated tranches of ABSs much riskier than tranches created in a similar way from BBB bonds. Losses on a portfolio of BBB bonds can reasonably be assumed to be unlikely to exceed 25% in even the most severe market conditions. Table 8.1
shows that 100% losses on a portfolio of BBB tranches can occur relatively easilyāand this is even more true when the tranches are only 1% or 2% wide.
Regulatory Arbitrage
Thin Tranches and Regulatory Arbitrage
- Thin tranches of asset-backed securities, often only 1% to 2% wide, create a binary risk profile where investors either lose nothing or are completely wiped out.
- Investors frequently overlooked the critical risk difference between a standard BBB-rated bond and a thin BBB-rated tranche of a collateralized debt obligation.
- Banks engaged in regulatory arbitrage by securitizing mortgages to significantly lower the amount of regulatory capital they were required to hold.
- The securitization process was plagued by agency costs, where the incentives of the originators and the investors were fundamentally misaligned.
- While a portfolio of BBB bonds rarely exceeds 25% in losses, a portfolio of BBB tranches can be 100% destroyed with relative ease under similar market conditions.
Such thin tranches are likely to either incur no losses or be totally wiped out.
were often quite thin. The AAA tranches often accounted for about 80% of the
principal as in Figure 8.1, but it was not unusual for there to be 15 to 20 other
tranches. Each of these tranches would be 1% or 2% wide. Such thin tranches are likely to either incur no losses or be totally wiped out. The chance of investors
recovering part of their principal (as bondholders usually do) is small. Consider, for example, a BBB tranche that is responsible for losses in the range 5% to 6%, If losses on the underlying portfolio are less than 5%, the tranche is safe. If losses are greater than 6%, the tranche is wiped out. Only in the case where losses are between 5% and 6% is a partial recovery made by investors.
The difference between a thin BBB-rated tranche and a BBB-rated bond was over-
looked by many investors. The difference makes the tranches of ABS CDOs created from the BBB-rated tranches of ABSs much riskier than tranches created in a similar way from BBB bonds. Losses on a portfolio of BBB bonds can reasonably be assumed to be unlikely to exceed 25% in even the most severe market conditions. Table 8.1
shows that 100% losses on a portfolio of BBB tranches can occur relatively easilyāand this is even more true when the tranches are only 1% or 2% wide.
Regulatory Arbitrage
Many of the mortgages were originated by banks and it was banks that were the main investors in the tranches that were created from the mortgages. Why would banks choose to securitize mortgages and then buy the securitized products that were created? The answer concerns what is termed regulatory arbitrage. The regulatory capital banks were required to keep for the tranches created from a portfolio of mortgages was much less than the regulatory capital that would be required for the mortgages themselves.
Incentives
One of the lessons from the crisis is the importance of incentives. Economists use the term āagency costsā to describe the situation where incentives are such that the interests of two parties in a business relationship are not perfectly aligned. The process by which
9 For a discussion of the criteria used by rating agencies and the reasonableness of the ratings given the
criteria used, see J. C. Hull and A. White, āRatings Arbitrage and Structured Products, ā Journal of
Derivatives, 20, 1 (Fall 2012): 80ā86, and āThe Risk of Tranches Created from Mortgages, ā Financial
Analysts Journal, 66, 5 (September/October 2010): 54ā67.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 210 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 211
mortgages were originated, securitized, and sold to investors was unfortunately riddled
Agency Costs and Misaligned Incentives
- The 2007ā2008 financial crisis was driven by agency costs, where the interests of business parties were fundamentally misaligned.
- Mortgage originators and house appraisers were incentivized to maximize loan volume and valuations rather than ensure long-term credit quality.
- Rating agencies faced a conflict of interest because they were paid by the issuers of the structured products they were responsible for rating.
- Financial institution compensation structures focused on short-term annual bonuses, encouraging employees to take high risks for immediate personal gain.
- Traders often continued investing in housing bubbles they knew would burst because the potential for a year-end bonus outweighed the risk of future losses.
If an employee generates huge profits one year and is responsible for severe losses the next, the employee will often receive a big bonus the first year and will not have to return it the following year.
One of the lessons from the crisis is the importance of incentives. Economists use the term āagency costsā to describe the situation where incentives are such that the interests of two parties in a business relationship are not perfectly aligned. The process by which
9 For a discussion of the criteria used by rating agencies and the reasonableness of the ratings given the
criteria used, see J. C. Hull and A. White, āRatings Arbitrage and Structured Products, ā Journal of
Derivatives, 20, 1 (Fall 2012): 80ā86, and āThe Risk of Tranches Created from Mortgages, ā Financial
Analysts Journal, 66, 5 (September/October 2010): 54ā67.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 210 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 211
mortgages were originated, securitized, and sold to investors was unfortunately riddled
with agency costs.
The incentive of the originators of mortgages was to make loans that would be
acceptable to the creators of the ABS and ABS CDO tranches. The incentive of the individuals who valued the houses on which the mortgages were written was to please the lender by providing as high a valuation as possible so that the loan-to-value ratio was as low as possible. (Pleasing the lender was likely to lead to more business from that lender.) The main concern of the creators of tranches was how the tranches would be rated. They wanted the volume of AAA-rated tranches that they created to be as
high as possible and found ways of using the published criteria of rating agencies to achieve this. The rating agencies were paid by the issuers of the securities they rated and about half their income came from structured products.
Another source of agency costs concerns the incentives of the employees of financial
institutions. Employee compensation falls into three categories: regular salary, the end-of-year bonus, and stock or stock options. Many employees at all levels of seniority in financial institutions, particularly traders, receive much of their compensation in the form of end-of-year bonuses. This form of compensation is focused on short-term
performance. If an employee generates huge profits one year and is responsible for severe losses the next, the employee will often receive a big bonus the first year and will not have to return it the following year. (The employee might lose his or her job as a result of the second year losses, but even that is not a disaster. Financial institutions seem to be surprisingly willing to recruit individuals with losses on their rƩsumƩs.)
Imagine you are an employee of a financial institution in 2006 responsible for
investing in ABS CDOs created from mortgages. Almost certainly you would have recognized that there was a bubble in the U.S. housing market and would expect that bubble to burst sooner or later. However, it is possible that you would decide to
continue with your ABS CDO investments. If the bubble did not burst until after the end of 2006, you would still get a nice bonus at the end of 2006.
Prior to the crisis, over-the-counter derivatives markets were largely unregulated. This
Agency Costs and Crisis
- Misaligned incentives led mortgage originators and house appraisers to inflate valuations to ensure loan approvals and repeat business.
- Rating agencies faced a conflict of interest because they were paid by the issuers of the structured products they were responsible for rating.
- Short-term bonus structures encouraged financial employees to pursue risky investments even when they recognized a housing bubble was likely to burst.
- Post-crisis regulations like the Dodd-Frank Act have introduced mandatory clearing for derivatives and clawback provisions for executive bonuses.
If an employee generates huge profits one year and is responsible for severe losses the next, the employee will often receive a big bonus the first year and will not have to return it the following year.
with agency costs.
The incentive of the originators of mortgages was to make loans that would be
acceptable to the creators of the ABS and ABS CDO tranches. The incentive of the individuals who valued the houses on which the mortgages were written was to please the lender by providing as high a valuation as possible so that the loan-to-value ratio was as low as possible. (Pleasing the lender was likely to lead to more business from that lender.) The main concern of the creators of tranches was how the tranches would be rated. They wanted the volume of AAA-rated tranches that they created to be as
high as possible and found ways of using the published criteria of rating agencies to achieve this. The rating agencies were paid by the issuers of the securities they rated and about half their income came from structured products.
Another source of agency costs concerns the incentives of the employees of financial
institutions. Employee compensation falls into three categories: regular salary, the end-of-year bonus, and stock or stock options. Many employees at all levels of seniority in financial institutions, particularly traders, receive much of their compensation in the form of end-of-year bonuses. This form of compensation is focused on short-term
performance. If an employee generates huge profits one year and is responsible for severe losses the next, the employee will often receive a big bonus the first year and will not have to return it the following year. (The employee might lose his or her job as a result of the second year losses, but even that is not a disaster. Financial institutions seem to be surprisingly willing to recruit individuals with losses on their rƩsumƩs.)
Imagine you are an employee of a financial institution in 2006 responsible for
investing in ABS CDOs created from mortgages. Almost certainly you would have recognized that there was a bubble in the U.S. housing market and would expect that bubble to burst sooner or later. However, it is possible that you would decide to
continue with your ABS CDO investments. If the bubble did not burst until after the end of 2006, you would still get a nice bonus at the end of 2006.
Prior to the crisis, over-the-counter derivatives markets were largely unregulated. This
has changed. As mentioned in earlier chapters, there is now a requirement that most standardized over-the-counter derivatives be cleared through central counterparties (CCPs). This means that they are treated similarly to derivatives such as futures that trade on exchanges. Banks are usually members of one or more CCPs. When trading standardized derivatives, they are required to post initial margin and variation margin with the CCP and are also required to contribute to a default fund. For transactions between financial institutions that continue to be cleared bilaterally, collateral arrange-ments are now regulated rather than chosen by the parties involved.
The bonuses paid by banks have come under more scrutiny and in some jurisdictions
there are limits on the size of the bonuses that can be paid. The way bonuses are paid is changing. Before the crisis it was common for a traderās bonus for a year to be paid in full at the end of the year with no possibility of the bonus having to be returned. It is now more common for this bonus to be spread over several years so that part of the bonus can be clawed back if results are not as good as expected.
8.4 THE AFTERMATH
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212 CHAPTER 8
The DoddāFrank Act in the United States and similar legislation in the United
Kingdom and European Union provide for more oversight of financial institutions and
Post-Crisis Financial Regulation
- Standardized over-the-counter derivatives must now be cleared through central counterparties, mirroring the structure of exchange-traded futures.
- Bank bonus structures have shifted from immediate payouts to multi-year distributions with clawback provisions to align incentives with long-term performance.
- Legislative reforms like the Volcker Rule and the Vickers Report aim to ring-fence retail banking from high-risk proprietary trading activities.
- The Basel Committee has progressively tightened capital and liquidity requirements through Basel III and IV to prevent reliance on short-term funding for long-term needs.
It is now more common for this bonus to be spread over several years so that part of the bonus can be clawed back if results are not as good as expected.
has changed. As mentioned in earlier chapters, there is now a requirement that most standardized over-the-counter derivatives be cleared through central counterparties (CCPs). This means that they are treated similarly to derivatives such as futures that trade on exchanges. Banks are usually members of one or more CCPs. When trading standardized derivatives, they are required to post initial margin and variation margin with the CCP and are also required to contribute to a default fund. For transactions between financial institutions that continue to be cleared bilaterally, collateral arrange-ments are now regulated rather than chosen by the parties involved.
The bonuses paid by banks have come under more scrutiny and in some jurisdictions
there are limits on the size of the bonuses that can be paid. The way bonuses are paid is changing. Before the crisis it was common for a traderās bonus for a year to be paid in full at the end of the year with no possibility of the bonus having to be returned. It is now more common for this bonus to be spread over several years so that part of the bonus can be clawed back if results are not as good as expected.
8.4 THE AFTERMATH
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212 CHAPTER 8
The DoddāFrank Act in the United States and similar legislation in the United
Kingdom and European Union provide for more oversight of financial institutions and
include much new legislation affecting financial institutions. For example, in the United States proprietary trading and other similar activities of deposit-taking institutions are being restricted. (This is known as the āVolcker ruleā because it was proposed by
former Federal Reserve chairman Paul Volcker.) An independent committee in the United Kingdom chaired by Sir John Vickers has proposed that the retail operations of banks be ring-fenced. The Liikanen committee in the European Union similarly
recommends that proprietary trading and other high-risk activities be separated from other banking activities.
Banks throughout the world are regulated by the Basel Committee on Banking
Supervision.
10 Prior to the crisis, the committee implemented regulations known as
Basel I and Basel II. These are summarized in Business Snapshot 8.1. Following the crisis, it has implemented what is known as āBasel II.5. ā This increases the capital requirements for market risk. Basel III was published in 2010 has been implemented over a period lasting until 2019. It increases the amount of capital and quality of capital that banks are required to keep. It also requires banks to satisfy certain liquidity
requirements. As discussed in Business Snapshot 4.2, one cause of problems during the crisis was the tendency of banks to place too much reliance on the use of short-term liabilities for long-term funding needs. The liquidity requirements are designed to make it more difficult for them to do this. Basel IV , to be implemented between 2022 and 2027, revises some of the rules in Basel III and reduces the extent to which banks can use their own internal models to determine their capital requirements.Business Snapshot 8.1 The Basel Committee
As the activities of banks became more global in the 1980s, it became necessary for regulators in different countries to work together to determine an international
regulatory framework. As a result the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision was formed. In 1988, it published a set of rules for the capital banks were required to keep for credit risk. These capital requirements have become known as Basel I.
They were modified to accommodate the netting of transactions in 1995. In 1996 a new capital requirement for market risk was published. This capital requirement was implemented in 1998. In 1999 significant changes were proposed for the
calculation of the capital requirements for credit risk and a capital requirement
Evolution of Basel Accords
- The Basel Committee was established to create an international regulatory framework as banking activities became increasingly global in the 1980s.
- Basel I and II introduced foundational capital requirements for credit, market, and operational risks, though Basel II faced significant implementation delays.
- In response to the 2007-2008 financial crisis, Basel III introduced stricter capital quality standards and new liquidity requirements to prevent over-reliance on short-term funding.
- Basel IV aims to standardize risk assessment by reducing the ability of banks to use their own internal models for determining capital needs.
- The regulatory timeline shows a shift from simple credit risk rules to a complex system addressing market volatility and systemic liquidity.
One cause of problems during the crisis was the tendency of banks to place too much reliance on the use of short-term liabilities for long-term funding needs.
Basel I and Basel II. These are summarized in Business Snapshot 8.1. Following the crisis, it has implemented what is known as āBasel II.5. ā This increases the capital requirements for market risk. Basel III was published in 2010 has been implemented over a period lasting until 2019. It increases the amount of capital and quality of capital that banks are required to keep. It also requires banks to satisfy certain liquidity
requirements. As discussed in Business Snapshot 4.2, one cause of problems during the crisis was the tendency of banks to place too much reliance on the use of short-term liabilities for long-term funding needs. The liquidity requirements are designed to make it more difficult for them to do this. Basel IV , to be implemented between 2022 and 2027, revises some of the rules in Basel III and reduces the extent to which banks can use their own internal models to determine their capital requirements.Business Snapshot 8.1 The Basel Committee
As the activities of banks became more global in the 1980s, it became necessary for regulators in different countries to work together to determine an international
regulatory framework. As a result the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision was formed. In 1988, it published a set of rules for the capital banks were required to keep for credit risk. These capital requirements have become known as Basel I.
They were modified to accommodate the netting of transactions in 1995. In 1996 a new capital requirement for market risk was published. This capital requirement was implemented in 1998. In 1999 significant changes were proposed for the
calculation of the capital requirements for credit risk and a capital requirement
for operational risk was introduced. These rules are referred to as Basel II. Basel II is considerably more complicated than Basel I and its implementation was delayed until 2007 (later in some countries). During the financial crisis and afterwards, the Basel committee introduced new regulatory requirements known as Basel II.5, which increased capital for market risk. This was followed by Basel III, which
tightened capital requirements and introduced liquidity requirements. Basel IV , which will be implemented between 2022 and 2027, revises Basel III, placing more emphasis on standardized approaches developed by the Basel committee for
determining capital requirements.
10 For more details on the work of the Basel Committee and bank regulatory requirements, see J. C. Hull,
Risk Management and Financial Institutions, 5th edition, Wiley, 2018.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 212 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 213
SUMMARY
Securitization and Regulatory Evolution
- Securitization allows banks to move loans off their balance sheets, enabling faster lending expansion by selling income-producing assets to investors.
- The 2007 financial crisis was fueled by relaxed lending standards and the creation of complex tranches from subprime mortgages.
- A disconnect between original lenders and those bearing credit risk led to AAA ratings for high-yield, high-risk securities.
- The collapse of the housing bubble was accelerated by 'teaser rates' and negative equity, forcing widespread defaults and foreclosures.
- In response to the crisis, the Basel Committee introduced increasingly stringent capital and liquidity requirements through Basel II, III, and IV.
Banks thought the āgood timesā would continue and, because compensation plans focused their attention on short-term profits, chose to ignore the housing bubble.
for operational risk was introduced. These rules are referred to as Basel II. Basel II is considerably more complicated than Basel I and its implementation was delayed until 2007 (later in some countries). During the financial crisis and afterwards, the Basel committee introduced new regulatory requirements known as Basel II.5, which increased capital for market risk. This was followed by Basel III, which
tightened capital requirements and introduced liquidity requirements. Basel IV , which will be implemented between 2022 and 2027, revises Basel III, placing more emphasis on standardized approaches developed by the Basel committee for
determining capital requirements.
10 For more details on the work of the Basel Committee and bank regulatory requirements, see J. C. Hull,
Risk Management and Financial Institutions, 5th edition, Wiley, 2018.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 212 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 213
SUMMARY
Securitization is a process used by banks to create securities from loans and other
income-producing assets. The securities are sold to investors. This removes the loans from the banksā balance sheets and enables the banks to expand their lending faster than would otherwise be possible. The first loans to be securitized were mortgages in the United States in the 1960s and 1970s. Investors who bought the mortgage-backed
securities were not exposed to the risk of borrowers defaulting because the loans were backed by the Government National Mortgage Association. Later automobile loans, corporate loans, credit card receivables, and subprime mortgages were securitized. In many cases, investors in the securities created from these instruments did not have a guarantee against defaults.
Securitization played a part in the financial crisis that started in 2007. Tranches were
created from subprime mortgages and new tranches were then created from these tranches. The origins of the crisis can be found in the U.S. housing market. The U.S. government was keen to encourage home ownership. Interest rates were low. Mortgage brokers and mortgage lenders found it attractive to do more business by relaxing their lending standards. Securitization meant that the investors bearing the credit risk were not usually the same as the original lenders. Rating agencies gave AAA ratings to the senior tranches that were created. There was no shortage of buyers for these AAA-rated tranches because their yields were higher than the yields on other AAA-rated securities. Banks thought the āgood timesā would continue and, because compensation plans focused their attention on short-term profits, chose to ignore the housing bubble and its potential impact on some very complicated products they were trading.
House prices rose as both first-time buyers and speculators entered the market. Some
mortgages had included a low āteaser rateā for two or three years. After the teaser rate ended, there was a significant increase in the interest rate for some borrowers. Unable to meet the higher interest rate they had no choice but to default. This led to foreclosures and an increase in the supply of houses be sold. The price increases between 2000 and 2006 began to be reversed. Speculators and others who found that the amount owing on their mortgages was greater than the value of their houses (i.e., they had negative equity) defaulted. This accentuated the price decline.
Banks are paying a price for the crisis. New legislation and regulation will reduce their
profitability. For example, capital requirements are being increased, liquidity regulations are being introduced, and OTC derivatives are being much more tightly regulated.
FURTHER READING
Gorton, G. āThe Subprime Panic, ā European Financial Management, 15, 1 (January 2009): 10ā46.
Hull, J. C. āThe Financial Crisis of 2007: Another Case of Irrational Exuberance, ā in: The
Finance Crisis and Rescue: What Went Wrong? Why? What Lessons Can be Learned. University
Securitization and the Financial Crisis
- Securitization allows banks to move loans off their balance sheets, enabling faster lending expansion by selling income-producing assets to investors.
- The 2007 financial crisis was fueled by the creation of complex tranches from subprime mortgages, where original lenders no longer bore the credit risk.
- Low interest rates and government pressure to increase home ownership led mortgage brokers to relax lending standards and offer predatory teaser rates.
- The collapse of the housing bubble was accelerated by negative equity and defaults, leading to a cycle of foreclosures and falling property values.
- In response to the crisis, new global regulations have increased capital requirements and tightened oversight on over-the-counter derivatives.
Banks thought the āgood timesā would continue and, because compensation plans focused their attention on short-term profits, chose to ignore the housing bubble and its potential impact on some very complicated products they were trading.
Securitization is a process used by banks to create securities from loans and other
income-producing assets. The securities are sold to investors. This removes the loans from the banksā balance sheets and enables the banks to expand their lending faster than would otherwise be possible. The first loans to be securitized were mortgages in the United States in the 1960s and 1970s. Investors who bought the mortgage-backed
securities were not exposed to the risk of borrowers defaulting because the loans were backed by the Government National Mortgage Association. Later automobile loans, corporate loans, credit card receivables, and subprime mortgages were securitized. In many cases, investors in the securities created from these instruments did not have a guarantee against defaults.
Securitization played a part in the financial crisis that started in 2007. Tranches were
created from subprime mortgages and new tranches were then created from these tranches. The origins of the crisis can be found in the U.S. housing market. The U.S. government was keen to encourage home ownership. Interest rates were low. Mortgage brokers and mortgage lenders found it attractive to do more business by relaxing their lending standards. Securitization meant that the investors bearing the credit risk were not usually the same as the original lenders. Rating agencies gave AAA ratings to the senior tranches that were created. There was no shortage of buyers for these AAA-rated tranches because their yields were higher than the yields on other AAA-rated securities. Banks thought the āgood timesā would continue and, because compensation plans focused their attention on short-term profits, chose to ignore the housing bubble and its potential impact on some very complicated products they were trading.
House prices rose as both first-time buyers and speculators entered the market. Some
mortgages had included a low āteaser rateā for two or three years. After the teaser rate ended, there was a significant increase in the interest rate for some borrowers. Unable to meet the higher interest rate they had no choice but to default. This led to foreclosures and an increase in the supply of houses be sold. The price increases between 2000 and 2006 began to be reversed. Speculators and others who found that the amount owing on their mortgages was greater than the value of their houses (i.e., they had negative equity) defaulted. This accentuated the price decline.
Banks are paying a price for the crisis. New legislation and regulation will reduce their
profitability. For example, capital requirements are being increased, liquidity regulations are being introduced, and OTC derivatives are being much more tightly regulated.
FURTHER READING
Gorton, G. āThe Subprime Panic, ā European Financial Management, 15, 1 (January 2009): 10ā46.
Hull, J. C. āThe Financial Crisis of 2007: Another Case of Irrational Exuberance, ā in: The
Finance Crisis and Rescue: What Went Wrong? Why? What Lessons Can be Learned. University
of Toronto Press, 2008.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āRatings Arbitrage and Structured Products, ā Journal of Derivatives,
20, 1 (Fall 2012): 80ā86.
Keys, B. J., T. Mukherjee, A. Seru, and V . Vig. āDid Securitization Lead to Lax Screening?
Evidence from Subprime Loans, ā Quarterly Journal of Economics, 125, 1 (2010): 307ā62.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 213 30/04/2021 16:49
214 CHAPTER 8
Krinsman, A. N. āSubprime Mortgage Meltdown: How Did It Happen and How Will It End, ā
Journal of Structured Finance, 13, 2 (Summer 2007): 13ā19.
Mian, A., and A. Sufi. āThe Consequences of Mortgage Credit Expansion: Evidence from the U.S.
Mortgage Default Crisis, ā Quarterly Journal of Economics, 124, 4 (November 2009): 1449ā96.
Sorkin, A. R. Too Big to Fail. New York: Penguin, 2009.
Tett, G. Foolās Gold: How the Bold Dream of a Small Tribe at JP Morgan Was Corrupted by Wall
Street Greed and Unleashed a Catastrophe. New York: Free Press, 2009
Securitization and Financial Crisis Analysis
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of scholarly works and books detailing the 2007ā2008 subprime mortgage meltdown.
- A series of practice questions explores the mechanics of Asset-Backed Securities (ABS) and Collateralized Debt Obligations (CDOs).
- The material scrutinizes the failure of mortgage lenders to verify borrower information and the subsequent misjudgment of risk by the market.
- Specific focus is placed on the structural flaws of resecuritization, particularly how AAA-rated tranches of CDOs carry higher risks than their ABS counterparts.
- The text introduces the concept of 'CDO squared' to illustrate how layering financial products can exponentially increase vulnerability to asset losses.
AAA tranches created from the mezzanine tranches of ABSs are bound to have a higher probability of default than the AAA-rated tranches of ABSs.
Krinsman, A. N. āSubprime Mortgage Meltdown: How Did It Happen and How Will It End, ā
Journal of Structured Finance, 13, 2 (Summer 2007): 13ā19.
Mian, A., and A. Sufi. āThe Consequences of Mortgage Credit Expansion: Evidence from the U.S.
Mortgage Default Crisis, ā Quarterly Journal of Economics, 124, 4 (November 2009): 1449ā96.
Sorkin, A. R. Too Big to Fail. New York: Penguin, 2009.
Tett, G. Foolās Gold: How the Bold Dream of a Small Tribe at JP Morgan Was Corrupted by Wall
Street Greed and Unleashed a Catastrophe. New York: Free Press, 2009
Zimmerman, T. āThe Great Subprime Meltdown, ā Journal of Structured Finance, Fall 2007,
7ā20.
M08_HULL0654_11_GE_C08.indd 214 30/04/2021 16:49
Securitization and the Financial Crisis of 2007ā8 215
Practice Questions
8.1. What are the numbers in Table 8.1 for a loss rate of (a) 12% and (b) 15%?
8.2. Why do you think the increase in house prices during the 2000 to 2007 period is referred
to as a bubble?
8.3. Why did mortgage lenders frequently not check on information provided by potential borrowers on mortgage application forms during the 2000 to 2007 period?
8.4. How were the risks in ABS CDOs misjudged by the market?
8.5. How is an ABS CDO created? What was the motivation to create ABS CDOs?
8.6. Explain the impact of an increase in default correlation on the risks of the senior tranche of an ABS. What is its impact on the risks of the equity tranche?
8.7. Explain why the AAA-rated tranche of an ABS CDO is more risky than the AAA-rated tranche of an ABS.
8.8. Explain why the end-of-year bonus is sometimes referred to as āshort-term compensation. ā
8.9. Add rows in Table 8.1 corresponding to losses on the underlying assets of (a) 2%, (b) 6%, (c) 14%, and (d) 18%.
8.10. Suppose that the principal assigned to the senior, mezzanine, and equity tranches is 70%, 20%, and 10% for both the ABS and the ABS CDO in Figure 8.3. What difference does this make to Table 8.1?
8.11. āResecuritization was a badly flawed idea. AAA tranches created from the mezzanine tranches of ABSs are bound to have a higher probability of default than the AAA-rated tranches of ABSs. ā Discuss this point of view.
8.12. Suppose that mezzanine tranches of the ABS CDOs, similar to those in Figure 8.3, are resecuritized to form what is referred to as a āCDO squared. ā As in the case of tranches created from ABSs in Figure 8.3, 65% of the principal is allocated to a AAA tranche,
25% to a BBB tranche, and 10% to the equity tranche. How high does the loss percentage have to be on the underlying assets for losses to be experienced by a AAA-rated tranche that is created in this way? (Assume that every portfolio of assets that is used to create ABSs experiences the same loss rate.)
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216
XVAs
Before moving on to discuss how options and other more complex derivatives are
valued, we consider various price adjustments that have become important in derivatives
Financial Crisis and XVAs
- The text examines the structural failures of the 2000-2007 housing bubble, specifically questioning the misjudgment of risks in ABS CDOs and the flaws of resecuritization.
- It introduces XVAs as a collective set of price adjustments for derivatives, including credit, debit, funding, margin, and capital valuation adjustments.
- Financial economists distinguish between adjustments with strong theoretical foundations, like CVA and DVA, and more controversial ones like FVA, MVA, and KVA.
- The concept of netting is explained as a mechanism where all outstanding derivatives between two parties are treated as a single transaction in the event of a default.
- CVA and DVA serve as critical adjustments to the 'no-default value' of a derivative to account for the counterparty's or the bank's own potential bankruptcy.
As we shall see, financial economists have no problem with CVA and DVA, but have reservations about FVA, MVA, and KVA.
8.1. What are the numbers in Table 8.1 for a loss rate of (a) 12% and (b) 15%?
8.2. Why do you think the increase in house prices during the 2000 to 2007 period is referred
to as a bubble?
8.3. Why did mortgage lenders frequently not check on information provided by potential borrowers on mortgage application forms during the 2000 to 2007 period?
8.4. How were the risks in ABS CDOs misjudged by the market?
8.5. How is an ABS CDO created? What was the motivation to create ABS CDOs?
8.6. Explain the impact of an increase in default correlation on the risks of the senior tranche of an ABS. What is its impact on the risks of the equity tranche?
8.7. Explain why the AAA-rated tranche of an ABS CDO is more risky than the AAA-rated tranche of an ABS.
8.8. Explain why the end-of-year bonus is sometimes referred to as āshort-term compensation. ā
8.9. Add rows in Table 8.1 corresponding to losses on the underlying assets of (a) 2%, (b) 6%, (c) 14%, and (d) 18%.
8.10. Suppose that the principal assigned to the senior, mezzanine, and equity tranches is 70%, 20%, and 10% for both the ABS and the ABS CDO in Figure 8.3. What difference does this make to Table 8.1?
8.11. āResecuritization was a badly flawed idea. AAA tranches created from the mezzanine tranches of ABSs are bound to have a higher probability of default than the AAA-rated tranches of ABSs. ā Discuss this point of view.
8.12. Suppose that mezzanine tranches of the ABS CDOs, similar to those in Figure 8.3, are resecuritized to form what is referred to as a āCDO squared. ā As in the case of tranches created from ABSs in Figure 8.3, 65% of the principal is allocated to a AAA tranche,
25% to a BBB tranche, and 10% to the equity tranche. How high does the loss percentage have to be on the underlying assets for losses to be experienced by a AAA-rated tranche that is created in this way? (Assume that every portfolio of assets that is used to create ABSs experiences the same loss rate.)
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216
XVAs
Before moving on to discuss how options and other more complex derivatives are
valued, we consider various price adjustments that have become important in derivatives
markets. These are the credit valuation adjustment (CVA), the debit (or debt) valuation adjustment (DVA), the funding valuation adjustment (FVA), the margin valuation adjustment (MVA), and the capital valuation adjustment (KVA). Collectively the adjustments are known as XVAs. Some of the adjustments have a stronger theoretical basis than others. As we shall see, financial economists have no problem with CVA and DVA, but have reservations about FVA, MVA, and KVA.9 CHAPTER
Most of this book is concerned with determining the no-default value of derivatives, that is, the value assuming that neither of the two sides will default. CVA and DVA are adjustments to the no-default value reflecting the possibility of a default by one of the two sides. Here we provide an overview of them. More details on their calculation are in Chapter 24.
Suppose that a bank and a counterparty have entered into a portfolio of derivative
transactions that are cleared bilaterally. The master agreement between the bank and the counterparty will almost certainly state that netting applies. This means that all outstanding derivatives between the two sides are considered as a single derivative in the event of a default. When one party declares bankruptcy, fails to post collateral as required, or fails to perform as promised in some other way, the other party will declare an event of default. This leads to an early termination of the outstanding derivatives between the bank and the counterparty a few days later and a settlement amount is calculated. The settlement amount reflects the value of the derivatives and is adjusted to allow for the fact that the nondefaulting party will incur costs equal to half the
applicable bidāask spreads when replacing the transactions in the portfolio.
Suppose that it is the bankās counterparty that defaults and neither side posts
collateral. (Later we explain the impact of collateral.) If the early termination happens when the outstanding derivatives portfolio has a positive value to the bank and a
negative value to the counterparty, the bank will be an unsecured creditor for the
settlement amount and is likely to incur a loss because it will fail to receive it in full. In 9.1 CVA AND DVA
Understanding XVA and Credit Risk
- The financial industry uses a suite of adjustments known as XVAs to account for credit, funding, and capital costs in derivative valuations.
- While CVA and DVA have strong theoretical foundations in financial economics, other adjustments like FVA and KVA remain more controversial.
- Bilateral master agreements typically include netting provisions, treating all outstanding derivatives as a single unit during a default event.
- The Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) represents the expected cost to a bank if a counterparty defaults on its obligations.
- Calculating CVA involves complex modeling of default probabilities and expected losses across multiple time intervals over the life of a portfolio.
This formula is deceptively simple but the procedure for implementing it is quite complicated and computationally very time-consuming.
markets. These are the credit valuation adjustment (CVA), the debit (or debt) valuation adjustment (DVA), the funding valuation adjustment (FVA), the margin valuation adjustment (MVA), and the capital valuation adjustment (KVA). Collectively the adjustments are known as XVAs. Some of the adjustments have a stronger theoretical basis than others. As we shall see, financial economists have no problem with CVA and DVA, but have reservations about FVA, MVA, and KVA.9 CHAPTER
Most of this book is concerned with determining the no-default value of derivatives, that is, the value assuming that neither of the two sides will default. CVA and DVA are adjustments to the no-default value reflecting the possibility of a default by one of the two sides. Here we provide an overview of them. More details on their calculation are in Chapter 24.
Suppose that a bank and a counterparty have entered into a portfolio of derivative
transactions that are cleared bilaterally. The master agreement between the bank and the counterparty will almost certainly state that netting applies. This means that all outstanding derivatives between the two sides are considered as a single derivative in the event of a default. When one party declares bankruptcy, fails to post collateral as required, or fails to perform as promised in some other way, the other party will declare an event of default. This leads to an early termination of the outstanding derivatives between the bank and the counterparty a few days later and a settlement amount is calculated. The settlement amount reflects the value of the derivatives and is adjusted to allow for the fact that the nondefaulting party will incur costs equal to half the
applicable bidāask spreads when replacing the transactions in the portfolio.
Suppose that it is the bankās counterparty that defaults and neither side posts
collateral. (Later we explain the impact of collateral.) If the early termination happens when the outstanding derivatives portfolio has a positive value to the bank and a
negative value to the counterparty, the bank will be an unsecured creditor for the
settlement amount and is likely to incur a loss because it will fail to receive it in full. In 9.1 CVA AND DVA
M09_HULL0654_11_GE_C09.indd 216 30/04/2021 16:50
XVAs 217
the opposite situation, where the portfolio has a negative value to the bank and a
positive value to the counterparty, the settlement amount is owed by the bank to the
counterparty (or to the counterpartyās liquidators) and will be paid in full so that there is no loss.
The credit valuation adjustment (CVA) is the bankās estimate of the present value of
the expected cost to the bank of a counterparty default. Suppose that the life of the longest outstanding derivatives transaction between the bank and the counterparty is T years. To calculate CVA, the bank divides the next T years into a number of intervals.
For each interval, it calculates:
1. The probability of an early termination during the interval arising from a
counterparty default; and
2. The present value of the expected loss from the derivatives portfolio if there is an early termination at the midpoint of the interval.
Suppose that there are N intervals,
qi is the probability of default by the counterparty
during the ith interval, and vi is the present value of the expected loss if there is a
default at the midpoint of the ith interval. CVA is calculated as:
CVA=aN
i=1 qivi (9.1)
This formula is deceptively simple but the procedure for implementing it is quite com-
plicated and computationally very time-consuming. It will be explained in Chapter 24.
Define fnd as the no-default value of the derivatives portfolio to the bank. As
explained earlier, this is the value of the portfolio assuming that neither side will default. When the possibility of a counterparty default is taken into account, the value of the portfolio to the bank becomes
fnd-CVA
CVA and DVA Mechanics
- Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) represents the reduction in a portfolio's value due to the risk of a counterparty defaulting.
- Debit Valuation Adjustment (DVA) accounts for the bank's own default risk, representing a theoretical gain because the bank may avoid honoring its obligations.
- The total value of a derivatives portfolio is calculated by taking the no-default value, subtracting the CVA, and adding the DVA.
- DVA acts as a necessary bridge in negotiations, allowing two parties with different credit risks to reach a common valuation for a trade.
- A counterintuitive consequence of DVA is that a bank's portfolio value increases as its own creditworthiness declines.
The idea that a bank will gain from its own default seems strange to many people.
default at the midpoint of the ith interval. CVA is calculated as:
CVA=aN
i=1 qivi (9.1)
This formula is deceptively simple but the procedure for implementing it is quite com-
plicated and computationally very time-consuming. It will be explained in Chapter 24.
Define fnd as the no-default value of the derivatives portfolio to the bank. As
explained earlier, this is the value of the portfolio assuming that neither side will default. When the possibility of a counterparty default is taken into account, the value of the portfolio to the bank becomes
fnd-CVA
But this is not the end of the story. The bank itself might default. This is liable to lead to a loss to the counterparty and an equal and opposite gain to the bank. The debit (or debt) valuation adjustment (DVA) is the present value of the expected gain to the bank from the possibility that it might itself default. It is calculated similarly to CVA:
DVA=aN
i=1q*
iv*
i (9.2)
where q*i is the probability of a default by the bank during the ith interval and v*i is the
present value of the bankās gain (and the counterpartyās loss) if the bank defaults at the
midpoint of the interval. Taking both CVA and DVA into account, the value of the portfolio to the bank is
fnd-CVA+DVA
The idea that a bank will gain from its own default seems strange to many people. How can there be a gain from a default? One way of thinking about this is as follows.
Derivatives are what are referred to as āzero-sum games.ā The gain to one side always equals the loss to the other side. If the bankās counterparty is worse off because of the possibility that the bank will default on the outstanding derivatives, the bank (or the bankās creditors) must be better off. The reason why this is so is that, in circumstances
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218 CHAPTER 9
where it defaults, a bank avoids having to honor its contracts when the no-default value
of those contracts to the bank is negative.
Without DVA, it is liable to be difficult for derivatives transactions to be agreed to.
Consider two market participants, X and Y, who are negotiating a bilaterally cleared interest rate swap where X will be paying a fixed rate of interest and receiving LIBOR with no collateral being posted. For the purposes of our example we assume that there are no other trades between these two parties.
1 The two sides agree that, if there is no
default risk, the fixed rate should be 2.2%. We suppose that, when X takes Yās default risk into account, it determines it should pay 2.1% rather than 2.2%. (The 0.1% per annum reduction is compensation to X for possibility that Y might default.) But when Y takes Xās default risk into account, it determines that it should receive 2.35% rather than 2.2%. (The extra 0.15% is compensation to Y for the possibility that X might default.) It is easy to see that the two sides are unlikely do a deal if each side considers only the possibility of the other side defaulting. But if each side calculates a DVA
(recognizing that it might itself default), the two sides will have a better chance of doing a deal because they will value the expected cash flows from the swap similarly.
DVA has a counterintuitive effect. As the bankās creditworthiness declines,
q*
i in
equation (9.2) increases and DVA increases. This makes the derivatives portfolio more valuable to the bank. As the bankās creditworthiness improves,
q*
i decreases and DVA
decreases so that the portfolio is less valuable. Why should the bank gain from a
worsening of its credit quality? The reason is that as the bank becomes more likely to default it is more likely that it will not have to honor its derivatives obligations.
Collateral
DVA and Collateral Mechanics
- Debt Value Adjustment (DVA) creates a counterintuitive scenario where a bank's derivatives portfolio becomes more valuable as its own creditworthiness declines.
- The gain from worsening credit quality stems from the increased likelihood that a bank will not have to honor its future derivatives obligations.
- Credit Support Annexes (CSAs) define the complex rules for posting collateral, including interest rates on cash and haircuts on securities.
- In the event of default, parties are entitled to keep collateral up to the settlement amount owed but must return any excess funds or securities.
- Valuation calculations under collateral agreements must account for a 'cure period,' which assumes a defaulting party stops posting collateral several days before termination.
Why should the bank gain from a worsening of its credit quality? The reason is that as the bank becomes more likely to default it is more likely that it will not have to honor its derivatives obligations.
DVA has a counterintuitive effect. As the bankās creditworthiness declines,
q*
i in
equation (9.2) increases and DVA increases. This makes the derivatives portfolio more valuable to the bank. As the bankās creditworthiness improves,
q*
i decreases and DVA
decreases so that the portfolio is less valuable. Why should the bank gain from a
worsening of its credit quality? The reason is that as the bank becomes more likely to default it is more likely that it will not have to honor its derivatives obligations.
Collateral
When the agreement between the two parties requires collateral to be posted, the
situation is more complicated. A credit support annex (CSA) to the master agreement specifies how the required amount of collateral is calculated and what form the
collateral can take. Interest is normally paid on cash collateral at close to the fed funds rate or similar overnight rate. When the collateral takes the form of securities, a haircut is usually applied to the market value of the securities.
If a bankās counterparty defaults, the bank is entitled to keep any collateral that has
been posted by the counterparty if it is less than any settlement amount it is owed. Similarly, if the bank defaults, the counterparty can use any collateral posted by the bank to cover any settlement amount it is owed. Any collateral in excess of the
settlement amount must be returned.
Equations (9.1) and (9.2) are still correct when collateral is posted, but the calculation
of
vi and v*
i is more complicated. The calculation must take into account the collateral
that would be provided by the bank to the counterparty or by the counterparty to the bank at the time of an early termination. Usually the calculation involves an assumption that the defaulting party will stop posting collateral, and will stop returning excess collateral, several days before the early termination. The number of days assumed here is known as the cure period or margin period of risk. For example, if the cure period is 10
days, the collateral at the time of the early termination would be assumed to be that specified in the CSA 10 days earlier.
1 When there are other trades and a master agreement covering them is in place, each side should assess
expected incremental losses arising from the new trade on the portfolio of trades between the two sides.
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XVAs 219
The funding valuation adjustment (FVA) and margin valuation adjustment (MVA) are
Valuation Adjustments and Funding
- The margin period of risk or cure period accounts for the delay in collateral posting before an early termination occurs.
- Funding Valuation Adjustment (FVA) and Margin Valuation Adjustment (MVA) account for the costs of maintaining derivative positions.
- A bank faces funding costs when a trade is cleared through a CCP requiring initial margin while the offsetting trade is bilateral and uncollateralized.
- The MVA specifically represents the cost of funding incremental initial margin when that cost exceeds the interest paid by the CCP.
- Variation margin requirements can tie up a bank's funds if they are not offset by incoming collateral from the counterparty.
It appears that Bank A has locked in a profit of 0.1% per year because it receives 3% from Bank B and pays 2.9% to the end user.
that would be provided by the bank to the counterparty or by the counterparty to the bank at the time of an early termination. Usually the calculation involves an assumption that the defaulting party will stop posting collateral, and will stop returning excess collateral, several days before the early termination. The number of days assumed here is known as the cure period or margin period of risk. For example, if the cure period is 10
days, the collateral at the time of the early termination would be assumed to be that specified in the CSA 10 days earlier.
1 When there are other trades and a master agreement covering them is in place, each side should assess
expected incremental losses arising from the new trade on the portfolio of trades between the two sides.
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XVAs 219
The funding valuation adjustment (FVA) and margin valuation adjustment (MVA) are
adjustments to the value of a derivatives portfolio for the cost of funding derivative positions. To illustrate how they might arise, suppose that a derivatives dealer, Bank A, is in the situation illustrated in Figure 9.1. It has entered into a five-year interest rate swap with a corporate end user and has hedged its risk by entering into an exactly offsetting swap with another dealer, Bank B. It appears that Bank A has locked in a profit of 0.1% per year because it receives 3% from Bank B and pays 2.9% to the end user. We suppose that the transaction between Bank A and Bank B is cleared through a CCP with both sides posting initial margin and variation margin. (As explained in earlier chapters, this is required under post-crisis regulations for a standard swap such as this.)
If the transaction with the end user in Figure 9.1 were cleared through the same CCP
as the transaction between the banks, Bank Aās situation is straightforward. The CCP will net off the two transactions so that they do not lead to any incremental initial
margin requirement for Bank A. Indeed, because the transactions always give a net positive value to the bank, margin requirements should be slightly less than they would be without the two transactions.
But let us assume that the transaction between Bank A and the end user is cleared
bilaterally with no collateral being required while, as already mentioned, the transaction between Bank A and Bank B is cleared through a CCP. The transactions do then have some funding implications. First, the swap with Bank B is liable to lead the CCP
requiring additional initial margin from Bank A during the life of the transaction. If
we assume that the cost of funding initial margin is greater than the interest paid by the CCP on initial margin there is a cost to Bank A in funding the incremental initial margin attributable to the transaction. This is referred to as a margin valuation adjustment (MVA) and reduces the value to the bank of its transaction with the end user.
2
The CCPās variation margin can also lead to funding requirements. Suppose that the
transaction with Bank B has a negative value to Bank A so that the transaction with the end user has a positive value to Bank A. Bank A will have funds tied up in the variation margin it has posted with the CCP.
3 It will not receive any collateral to offset this initial
Funding and Margin Valuation Adjustments
- Derivatives dealers face funding costs when hedging a bilateral trade with a corporate end user through a central counterparty (CCP).
- A Margin Valuation Adjustment (MVA) arises when a bank must fund initial margin requirements that exceed the interest paid by the CCP.
- Variation margin creates funding needs or benefits depending on whether the bank's position with the CCP has a negative or positive value.
- The lack of collateral from end users in bilateral trades prevents banks from offsetting the margin requirements imposed by regulated clearing houses.
- Funding costs are asymmetrical, as banks typically pay more to borrow funds for margin than they receive in interest on posted collateral.
Bank A will have funds tied up in the variation margin it has posted with the CCP.
adjustments to the value of a derivatives portfolio for the cost of funding derivative positions. To illustrate how they might arise, suppose that a derivatives dealer, Bank A, is in the situation illustrated in Figure 9.1. It has entered into a five-year interest rate swap with a corporate end user and has hedged its risk by entering into an exactly offsetting swap with another dealer, Bank B. It appears that Bank A has locked in a profit of 0.1% per year because it receives 3% from Bank B and pays 2.9% to the end user. We suppose that the transaction between Bank A and Bank B is cleared through a CCP with both sides posting initial margin and variation margin. (As explained in earlier chapters, this is required under post-crisis regulations for a standard swap such as this.)
If the transaction with the end user in Figure 9.1 were cleared through the same CCP
as the transaction between the banks, Bank Aās situation is straightforward. The CCP will net off the two transactions so that they do not lead to any incremental initial
margin requirement for Bank A. Indeed, because the transactions always give a net positive value to the bank, margin requirements should be slightly less than they would be without the two transactions.
But let us assume that the transaction between Bank A and the end user is cleared
bilaterally with no collateral being required while, as already mentioned, the transaction between Bank A and Bank B is cleared through a CCP. The transactions do then have some funding implications. First, the swap with Bank B is liable to lead the CCP
requiring additional initial margin from Bank A during the life of the transaction. If
we assume that the cost of funding initial margin is greater than the interest paid by the CCP on initial margin there is a cost to Bank A in funding the incremental initial margin attributable to the transaction. This is referred to as a margin valuation adjustment (MVA) and reduces the value to the bank of its transaction with the end user.
2
The CCPās variation margin can also lead to funding requirements. Suppose that the
transaction with Bank B has a negative value to Bank A so that the transaction with the end user has a positive value to Bank A. Bank A will have funds tied up in the variation margin it has posted with the CCP.
3 It will not receive any collateral to offset this initial
margin from the end user. This gives rise to a funding need because Bank A has to increase its funding from external sources. In the opposite situation, where the trans-action with Bank B has a positive value and the transaction with the end user has a negative value, it receives variation margin from the CCP and does not have to provide any collateral or margin to the end user. This gives rise to a source of funding.
We continue to assume that the cost of funding margin is greater than the interest
paid on it. There is a cost in the first case just considered (Bank A has to increase its funding from external sources) and a benefit in the second case (Bank A can reduce its 9.2 FVA AND MVA
2 The initial margin required by the CCP does not necessarily increase as a result of the transaction. In
determining initial margin the CCP will look at all the transactions Bank A has that are cleared with the CCP.
It can be the case that the swap with Bank B partially offsets other transactions that Bank A is clearing through the CCP and the initial margin decreases as a result. The incremental MVA for the transaction is then negative.
3 Remember that, although a CCP is in many ways similar to a futures clearing house, swaps are different
from futures in that they are not settled daily. Therefore, when Bank A pays variation margin, it receives interest on it and when it receives variation margin it must pay interest on it. In the case of futures, the daily settlement means that the variation margin belongs to the recipient and there is no interest paid on it.
FVA and MVA Mechanics
- Funding Value Adjustment (FVA) accounts for the costs and benefits of funding collateral when a bank hedges an uncollateralized trade with a collateralized one.
- The Funding Cost Adjustment (FCA) represents the present value of future funding costs, while the Funding Benefit Adjustment (FBA) represents the present value of future benefits.
- Margin Value Adjustment (MVA) arises from the incremental initial margin requirements imposed by central counterparties or bilateral regulations.
- Initial margin requirements are not always additive; a new transaction can actually decrease total margin if it offsets existing positions, resulting in a negative incremental MVA.
- The net FVA is determined by the excess of FCA over FBA and is heavily influenced by the term structure of interest rates over the life of the derivative.
It can be the case that the swap with Bank B partially offsets other transactions that Bank A is clearing through the CCP and the initial margin decreases as a result.
margin from the end user. This gives rise to a funding need because Bank A has to increase its funding from external sources. In the opposite situation, where the trans-action with Bank B has a positive value and the transaction with the end user has a negative value, it receives variation margin from the CCP and does not have to provide any collateral or margin to the end user. This gives rise to a source of funding.
We continue to assume that the cost of funding margin is greater than the interest
paid on it. There is a cost in the first case just considered (Bank A has to increase its funding from external sources) and a benefit in the second case (Bank A can reduce its 9.2 FVA AND MVA
2 The initial margin required by the CCP does not necessarily increase as a result of the transaction. In
determining initial margin the CCP will look at all the transactions Bank A has that are cleared with the CCP.
It can be the case that the swap with Bank B partially offsets other transactions that Bank A is clearing through the CCP and the initial margin decreases as a result. The incremental MVA for the transaction is then negative.
3 Remember that, although a CCP is in many ways similar to a futures clearing house, swaps are different
from futures in that they are not settled daily. Therefore, when Bank A pays variation margin, it receives interest on it and when it receives variation margin it must pay interest on it. In the case of futures, the daily settlement means that the variation margin belongs to the recipient and there is no interest paid on it.
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220 CHAPTER 9
4 To see how this works in Figure 9.1, note that the swap with the end user is uncollateralized. When it has a
positive value (and the offsetting deal with the CCP has a negative value), there is a funding cost. When it has
a negative value (and the offsetting deal with the CCP has a positive value), there is a funding benefit.funding from external sources). FVA is an adjustment to the value of derivatives that
reflects these costs and benefits. The present value of the expected future funding cost is referred to as the funding cost adjustment (FCA) and the present value of the expected future funding benefit is referred to as the funding benefit adjustment (FBA). The funding value adjustment, FVA, reduces the value of derivatives by the excess of FCA over FBA. Whether there is a positive or negative adjustment to the value of the swaps in Figure 9.1 depends on whether the swap with Bank B is more likely to have a positive or negative value as time passes. This depends on the shape of the term structure of interest rates, as discussed in Section 7.7.
The situation in Figure 9.1 is not the only way FVA and MVA can arise. An FVA
potentially arises whenever a bank enters into an uncollateralized derivative transaction with a counterparty. When the uncollateralized derivative has a positive value, there is a funding cost. When it has a negative value, there is a funding benefit.
4 For example, if
the bank buys an uncollateralized option from a counterparty, the option has a positive value and there is a funding cost equal to the excess of the assumed cost of funding over the risk-free rate assumed in the pricing of the option. If the bank sells an uncollater-alized option to the counterparty, the option has a negative value and there is a funding benefit. MVA can arise whenever a transaction gives rise to incremental initial margin requirements. As explained in earlier chapters, rules are being implemented requiring initial margin for bilaterally cleared transactions between financial institutions as well as for those cleared through CCPs.
5
To calculate the MVA or FVA it is necessary to answer the question: āWhat is the
Funding and Margin Valuation
- Uncollateralized options create funding costs or benefits based on whether the bank is buying or selling the instrument.
- Margin Valuation Adjustment (MVA) arises from incremental initial margin requirements for both bilateral and CCP-cleared transactions.
- A significant debate exists between banks, which use average debt funding costs, and financial economists, who argue funding costs should reflect the risk of the investment.
- Hull and White argue that using high average funding costs is incorrect because banks gain a benefit from their own credit spread, similar to DVA.
- The choice of currency or securities for margin involves complex calculations and can significantly impact the net funding cost.
This is where there is often a disagreement between theory and practice.
the bank buys an uncollateralized option from a counterparty, the option has a positive value and there is a funding cost equal to the excess of the assumed cost of funding over the risk-free rate assumed in the pricing of the option. If the bank sells an uncollater-alized option to the counterparty, the option has a negative value and there is a funding benefit. MVA can arise whenever a transaction gives rise to incremental initial margin requirements. As explained in earlier chapters, rules are being implemented requiring initial margin for bilaterally cleared transactions between financial institutions as well as for those cleared through CCPs.
5
To calculate the MVA or FVA it is necessary to answer the question: āWhat is the
cost of funding the margin in a situation such as Figure 9.1?ā This is where there is
often a disagreement between theory and practice. Many banks argue that the cost of funding margin is equal to their average debt funding cost. Suppose the margin is provided in U.S. dollars.
6 If the interest received by a bank on U.S. dollar margin is the
federal funds rate minus 20 basis points and a bankās average funding cost is the federal
funds rate plus 100 basis points, FVA and MVA would be calculated by these banks on the assumption of a funding cost of 120 basis points per year.
Financial economics argues that the way an investment is funded should not affect
the required return on the investment. The required return should reflect the riskiness of Figure 9.1 Swaps entered into by Bank A. The transaction with Bank B is cleared
through a CCP. The transaction with the end user is cleared bilaterally.
Corporate
End UserBank A2.9%
LIBORBank B3.0%
LIBOR
5 Also default fund contributions to CCPs can be considered to be akin to initial margin from a funding
perspective.
6 In practice a bank can choose which currency to post margin in and can in some circumstances post
securities such as Treasury bills instead of cash. (Securities are typically subject to a haircut in determining
their value for collateral purposes.) Choosing what is best can involve complex calculations.
M09_HULL0654_11_GE_C09.indd 220 30/04/2021 16:50
XVAs 221
the investment. An investment in initial margin or variation margin usually has very
low risk.7 As such, the bank should be comfortable with a return that is close to the
risk-free rate. If the return requirement on margin in our example is assumed to be the fed funds rate plus 10 basis points and the interest paid on margin is the federal funds rate minus 20 basis points, then the funding cost (or benefit) is 30 basis points, not the 120 basis points calculated earlier.
To explain why the average funding cost of the fed funds rate plus 100 basis points
should not be used, Hull and White (2012) use two arguments.
8 The first argument is
that there is a gain to the bank from the 100 basis points credit spread because it might default on the debt it issues. This is similar to the DVA discussed earlier and is referred to as DVA2 by Hull and White. Because of this benefit, the bank does not have to pass the funding cost on to the derivatives desk.
9
The FVA Funding Debate
- Hull and White argue that banks should use a risk-free rate rather than their average funding cost when evaluating low-risk margin investments.
- The bank's credit spread represents a potential gain from default (DVA2), which offsets the higher cost of issuing debt to fund derivatives.
- Using a high average funding cost as a hurdle rate incorrectly makes low-risk projects appear unattractive while favoring high-risk ones.
- Andersen et al. suggest that investing in low-risk margin can cause a wealth transfer from shareholders to debtholders by reducing the bank's overall risk profile.
- The debate mirrors corporate finance principles where the discount rate should reflect the risk of the project itself, not the company's weighted average cost of capital.
If the average funding cost of 3.5% is used as the required return for all projects, low-risk projects will tend to seem unattractive and high-risk projects will tend to seem attractive.
the investment. An investment in initial margin or variation margin usually has very
low risk.7 As such, the bank should be comfortable with a return that is close to the
risk-free rate. If the return requirement on margin in our example is assumed to be the fed funds rate plus 10 basis points and the interest paid on margin is the federal funds rate minus 20 basis points, then the funding cost (or benefit) is 30 basis points, not the 120 basis points calculated earlier.
To explain why the average funding cost of the fed funds rate plus 100 basis points
should not be used, Hull and White (2012) use two arguments.
8 The first argument is
that there is a gain to the bank from the 100 basis points credit spread because it might default on the debt it issues. This is similar to the DVA discussed earlier and is referred to as DVA2 by Hull and White. Because of this benefit, the bank does not have to pass the funding cost on to the derivatives desk.
9
For the second argument, suppose that the risk-free rate is 2% and the bankās
funding cost is 3.5%. If a project comes along that is risk-free and provides a return
of 3%, should the bank undertake it? The answer is that the project should be
undertaken. The appropriate discount rate for the projectās cash flows is 2% and the project has a positive present value when this discount rate is used. It is not correct to argue that the bank is funding itself at 3.5% and should therefore only undertake
projects earning more than 3.5%.
Consider what happens as the bank enters into projects that are risk-free (or nearly
risk-free). Its funding costs should come down in such a way that the incremental costs of funding a risk-free project should be 2%, not 3.5%. To take an extreme example, suppose that the bank we are considering were to double in size by undertaking entirely risk-free projects. The bankās funding cost should change to 2.75% (an average of 3.5% for the old projects and 2% for the new projects). If the average funding cost of 3.5% is used as the required return for all projects, low-risk projects will tend to seem
unattractive and high-risk projects will tend to seem attractive.
Andersen et al. (2016) also question the use of average funding costs in calculating
FVA. They consider the situation where debtholders do not anticipate the investment in margin that will be made by the bank and are pleasantly surprised because it leads to the bank becoming less risky.
10 There is then a transfer of wealth from the shareholders
to the debtholders.
The XVA debate has an interesting analogy. In a first corporate finance course,
students learn how to calculate a weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for a
(nonfinancial) corporation and how the discount rate used for the expected cash flows of a capital investment project should be calculated. They learn that the discount rate should depend on the risk of the project, not how it is financed. For projects that are more risky than average, the discount rate should be higher than the WACC. For
projects that are less risky than average, the discount rate should be lower than
the WACC.
7 For instance, in the example in Figure 9.1 there might be a very small chance of margin being lost because
of a failure of the CCP.
8 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe FVA Debate,ā Risk, 25th anniversary edition (July 2012): 83ā85.
9 However, if part of the 100 basis points is for liquidity or other things that are not reflective of the default
risk of the bank, this is a deadweight cost of doing business and could be a valid source of FVA.
10 See L. B. G. Andersen, D. Duffie, and Y. Song, āFunding Value Adjustments,ā Working Paper,
SSRN 2746010.
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222 CHAPTER 9
The XVA Funding Debate
- The text draws an analogy between XVA adjustments and the corporate finance principle that discount rates should reflect project risk rather than funding sources.
- Using a single average cost of capital for all projects can lead to a dangerous bias where companies inadvertently favor risky projects over safe ones.
- Financial economists argue that funding costs for low-risk margin requirements should be lower than the bank's average cost of capital.
- Financial engineers counter that tying up funds in low-risk positions creates an opportunity cost by preventing investment in higher-return activities.
- The debate highlights a fundamental disagreement over whether capital markets are efficient enough to provide unlimited funding for all viable projects.
With all else equal, the use of a single discount rate leads to companies becoming more risky over time.
to the debtholders.
The XVA debate has an interesting analogy. In a first corporate finance course,
students learn how to calculate a weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for a
(nonfinancial) corporation and how the discount rate used for the expected cash flows of a capital investment project should be calculated. They learn that the discount rate should depend on the risk of the project, not how it is financed. For projects that are more risky than average, the discount rate should be higher than the WACC. For
projects that are less risky than average, the discount rate should be lower than
the WACC.
7 For instance, in the example in Figure 9.1 there might be a very small chance of margin being lost because
of a failure of the CCP.
8 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe FVA Debate,ā Risk, 25th anniversary edition (July 2012): 83ā85.
9 However, if part of the 100 basis points is for liquidity or other things that are not reflective of the default
risk of the bank, this is a deadweight cost of doing business and could be a valid source of FVA.
10 See L. B. G. Andersen, D. Duffie, and Y. Song, āFunding Value Adjustments,ā Working Paper,
SSRN 2746010.
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222 CHAPTER 9
11 In practice, capital requirements (like margin requirements) vary through time. Also, the expected
incremental capital required at any given time has a number of components: credit risk capital, market risk
capital, and operational risk capital. These must be estimated separately.But many companies use a single discount rate for all projects. This tends to make
risky projects more attractive than they should be and safe projects less attractive than
they should be. With all else equal, the use of a single discount rate leads to companies becoming more risky over time.
The XVA analogy is that many of a bankās investments that we are concerned with
when considering FVA and MVA are lower-than-average-risk investments. An invest-ment in initial margin or variation margin is usually low risk compared with other things the bank does. As such, its marginal effect is to lower the average cost of the bankās funding.
The difference between the views of some financial engineers and financial economists
on FVA and MVA is that financial economists work with marginal funding costs while the financial engineers work with average costs. The essence of the debate can be summarized by the following imaginary dialogue:
Financial Economist: The cost you should use for funding a project should reflect
the risk of the project. By using average funding costs you are assuming that all the bankās projects are equally risky.
Financial Engineer: But tying up funds in initial margin or a low-risk hedged
derivatives position prevents me from using the funds else-where. On average the bank gets a much higher return than it does on things like initial margin. There is a cost to low-risk, low-return projects.
Financial Economist: You talk as though funds for your business are in short supply. If you have good projects, whether they are low risk or high risk, the market will provide funding for you.
Financial Engineer: I am not sure that is how things work in practice.
KVA, capital valuation adjustment, is a charge to a derivatives transaction for the
incremental capital requirements that the transaction gives rise to. Suppose that as a result of entering into a particular transaction a bank calculates that regulations require it to hold an extra $1 million of equity capital throughout the life of the transaction.
11
What is the cost of this?
Again there is a divergence between between financial economics theory and the
The KVA Debate
- Capital Valuation Adjustment (KVA) represents a charge for the incremental equity capital required by regulations for a derivatives transaction.
- Practitioners argue that new transactions must meet a high hurdle rate, such as 15%, to satisfy equity shareholder expectations.
- Financial economists contend that increasing equity capital reduces a bank's overall risk, which should theoretically lower the required return for all investors.
- Calculating XVAs is computationally intensive, requiring Monte Carlo simulations to project future credit exposures and funding costs.
- While CVA and DVA must be calculated on a portfolio basis due to netting effects, FVA can be determined for individual transactions.
As a bank uses more equity to finance itself, it becomes less risky and the providers of both debt and equity capital require a lower return.
Financial Engineer: I am not sure that is how things work in practice.
KVA, capital valuation adjustment, is a charge to a derivatives transaction for the
incremental capital requirements that the transaction gives rise to. Suppose that as a result of entering into a particular transaction a bank calculates that regulations require it to hold an extra $1 million of equity capital throughout the life of the transaction.
11
What is the cost of this?
Again there is a divergence between between financial economics theory and the
opinions of many practitioners. Many practitioners would argue that if equity share-holders require a return of 15% per annum and a bank invests in a low-risk project that will require additional equity capital, the return on the additional capital should be at least 15%. (This is similar to nonfinancial companies using WACC as a hurdle rate for all projects, as discussed earlier.) In the derivatives context this means that there should be a price adjustment, a KVA, to ensure that the return on the incremental equity capital is 15%. Financial economists argue that how a company is financed should not affect how it evaluates projects (except possibly for tax effects). As a bank uses more 9.3 KVA
M09_HULL0654_11_GE_C09.indd 222 30/04/2021 16:50
XVAs 223
equity to finance itself, it becomes less risky and the providers of both debt and equity
capital require a lower return. This argument is over 50 years old in the finance
literature and so its theoretical validity has stood the test of time.12 Many practitioners
disagree with the theory. As in the case of MVA and FVA the difference between the
two sides is whether average or marginal capital costs should be used. We can imagine the following dialogue:
Financial Economist: You do not need to make a KVA. As long as a derivatives book provides a return reflecting its risk your investors will be happy.
Practitioner: Equity capital requirements for derivatives have gone up since the crisis. My equity investors require a 15% per annum return. If I enter into a derivatives transaction that requires additional capital under the new regulations, I need to make sure that the return on that capital is at least 15%.
Financial Economist: But as more of the bank is financed by equity capital it becomes less risky and the return required by equity in -vestors goes down. This is true even if the average risk of the whole bank does not change. So the marginal return required on new equity capital is low.
Practitioner: I am not sure that is how things work in practice.
All of the XVAs are computationally time-consuming to calculate. Monte Carlo
simulations are necessary to determine expected credit exposures, expected funding costs, and expected capital requirements at future times. CVA is often actively managed by banks. They sometimes buy protection against their counterparties defaulting using credit default swaps (see Section 7.12 and Chapter 25) or similar instruments. This reduces their expected losses from defaults.
As discussed in Section 9.1, CVA and DVA must be calculated on the whole
portfolio of derivatives that a bank has with a counterparty. It cannot be calculated
on a transaction-by-transaction basis. This is because of the impact of netting. A new bilaterally cleared transaction with a counterparty will increase or decrease CVA and DVA depending on what happens when it is netted with other transactions that have been entered into with the counterparty. If it tends to increase credit exposure for the bank in the future, the incremental CVA will be positive; if it tends to decrease credit exposure in the future, the incremental CVA will decrease. Similarly for DVA.
The incremental FVA can be calculated on a transaction-by-transaction basis. This is
because the net funding required for a portfolio of transactions at any future time is the sum of that for the individual transactions.
Calculating XVA and Machine Learning
- Banks use complex simulations to determine expected credit exposures, funding costs, and capital requirements for derivative portfolios.
- CVA and DVA must be calculated on a whole-portfolio basis because netting agreements mean a new transaction can either increase or decrease overall credit exposure.
- While funding adjustments (FVA) can often be calculated per transaction, capital and margin adjustments (KVA and MVA) require modeling the entire portfolio.
- To overcome the high computational costs of Monte Carlo simulations, banks are increasingly training neural networks to predict incremental XVA values.
- Machine learning models are particularly useful for providing near-instantaneous feedback on how a proposed new trade will impact a bank's total risk adjustments.
Because the calculation of XVAs is computationally quite time-consuming, some banks are using machine learning to get faster results.
simulations are necessary to determine expected credit exposures, expected funding costs, and expected capital requirements at future times. CVA is often actively managed by banks. They sometimes buy protection against their counterparties defaulting using credit default swaps (see Section 7.12 and Chapter 25) or similar instruments. This reduces their expected losses from defaults.
As discussed in Section 9.1, CVA and DVA must be calculated on the whole
portfolio of derivatives that a bank has with a counterparty. It cannot be calculated
on a transaction-by-transaction basis. This is because of the impact of netting. A new bilaterally cleared transaction with a counterparty will increase or decrease CVA and DVA depending on what happens when it is netted with other transactions that have been entered into with the counterparty. If it tends to increase credit exposure for the bank in the future, the incremental CVA will be positive; if it tends to decrease credit exposure in the future, the incremental CVA will decrease. Similarly for DVA.
The incremental FVA can be calculated on a transaction-by-transaction basis. This is
because the net funding required for a portfolio of transactions at any future time is the sum of that for the individual transactions.
13 MVA for transactions cleared through a 9.4 CALCULATION ISSUES
12 See F. Modigliani and M. H. Miller, āThe Cost of Capital, Corporation Finance, and the Theory of
Investment,ā American Economic Review, 48, 3 (1958): 261ā297; and F. Modigliani and M. H. Miller,
āCorporate Income Taxes and the Cost of Capital: A Correction,ā American Economic Review, 53, 3 (1963):
433ā443.
13 This is only approximately true when the impact of a default on funding requirements is considered.
M09_HULL0654_11_GE_C09.indd 223 30/04/2021 16:50
224 CHAPTER 9
CCP has to be calculated on a portfolio basis. In the case of the example in Figure 9.1, it
is the impact of a new transaction on the initial margin required by the CCP for portfolio that Bank A is clearing through the CCP that determines the incremental initial margin requirements and therefore MVA. KVA is even more complicated. The rules used by regulators are such that a bank must in theory sometimes model the bankās whole portfolio when calculating incremental capital requirements.
Application of Machine Learning
Because the calculation of XVAs is computationally quite time-consuming, some banks
are using machine learning to get faster results. They are particularly interested in being able to quickly answer queries about the incremental effect of a proposed new
transaction on the XVAs. A neural network is a tool that can be used to do this. It
is a flexible algorithm that can learn any continuous relationship between the value of a target variable (the output) and the values of features (the inputs) when a huge volume of data is available. Once the network has been constructed, calculating the target from the features is very fast.
To create a neural network to calculate incremental XVAs, an analyst randomly
creates many different data sets that are inputs to the calculation. (The data set will include features describing the proposed new transaction and features describing
relevant aspects of existing trades with the counterparty.) Monte Carlo simulation is used to calculate the XVAs for each data set and an algorithm is used to find a neural network that replicates the Monte Carlo calculations as accurately as possible.
SUMMARY
The Complexity of XVAs
- Neural networks are being developed to replicate complex Monte Carlo simulations for calculating incremental valuation adjustments (XVAs).
- Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) and Debit Valuation Adjustment (DVA) account for the default risk of counterparties and the bank itself, respectively.
- The inclusion of DVA remains controversial because it implies a bank's financial position improves as its own probability of default increases.
- Additional adjustments like FVA, MVA, and KVA account for the costs of funding, initial margin, and capital requirements associated with derivatives.
- A significant gap exists between finance theory and banking practice regarding whether average or incremental funding costs should influence valuation.
Why should a bank benefit from the possibility that it will itself default? As the probability of a default increases, the benefit increases.
To create a neural network to calculate incremental XVAs, an analyst randomly
creates many different data sets that are inputs to the calculation. (The data set will include features describing the proposed new transaction and features describing
relevant aspects of existing trades with the counterparty.) Monte Carlo simulation is used to calculate the XVAs for each data set and an algorithm is used to find a neural network that replicates the Monte Carlo calculations as accurately as possible.
SUMMARY
Banks and other derivatives market participants have for many years been concerned about counterparty credit risk. Two adjustments are the credit valuation adjustment (CVA) and debt or debit valuation adjustment (DVA). CVA is an adjustment by a bank for the possibility that its counterparty will default and it reduces the value of the
derivatives portfolio it has with the counterparty. DVA is an adjustment for the
possibility that the bank will default and it increases the value of the derivatives
portfolio. There is no real argument about whether these adjustments should be made, but many people are less comfortable with DVA than CVA. Why should a bank benefit from the possibility that it will itself default? As the probability of a default increases, the benefit increases.
The funding valuation adjustment (FVA) is an adjustment to the value of a
derivatives position arising from the funding required (or the funding generated) by
a derivatives transaction. The margin valuation adjustment (MVA) quantifies the cost of funding initial margin. The capital valuation adjustment (KVA) is a valuation
adjustment reflecting the impact of a derivatives position on capital requirements. Finance theory argues that the way a project is funded should not influence its
valuation. In particular, the current average debt and equity costs should not be
assumed to be the same as the incremental effect of a new transaction on funding
costs. In spite of this, many banks do calculate MVA, FVA, and KVA based on these average costs.
M09_HULL0654_11_GE_C09.indd 224 30/04/2021 16:50
XVAs 225
FURTHER READING
Andersen, L. B. G., D. Duffie, and Y. Song. āFunding Value Adjustments,ā Working Paper,
SSRN 2746010.
Gregory, J. The XVA Challenge: Counterparty Credit Risk, Funding, Collateral, and Capital.
Chichester: Wiley, 2015.
Hull, J. C. Machine Learning in Business: An Introduction to the World of Data Science, 2nd edn.,
2020. Available from Amazon. See: www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āThe FVA Debate,ā Risk, 25th anniversary edition (July 2012): 83ā85.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āValuing Derivatives: Funding Value Adjustments and Fair Value,ā
Financial Analysts Journal, 70, 3 (May/June 2014): 46ā56.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āCollateral and Credit Issues in Derivatives Pricing,ā Journal of Credit
Risk, 10, 3 (2014): 3ā28.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āXVAs: A Gap Between Theory and Practice,ā Risk, 29, 5 (May 2016):
50ā52.
Kenyon, C., and Green, A. D. (eds.) Landmarks in XVA. London: Risk Books, 2016.
M09_HULL0654_11_GE_C09.indd 225 30/04/2021 16:50
226 CHAPTER 9
Practice Questions
Mechanics of Options Markets
- The text transitions from advanced valuation adjustments like CVA and FVA to the fundamental mechanics of how options markets are organized and traded.
- A primary distinction is drawn between options and forward/futures contracts, focusing on the holder's right versus a binding obligation.
- Unlike forward or futures contracts which typically cost nothing to enter, options require an up-front payment known as a premium.
- Standard practice in options profit-and-loss charting often ignores the time value of money, calculating profit as the final payoff minus the initial cost.
- The scope of the material covers stock options primarily, while introducing currency, index, and futures options as specialized instruments.
An option gives the holder of the option the right to do something, but the holder does not have to exercise this right.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āThe FVA Debate,ā Risk, 25th anniversary edition (July 2012): 83ā85.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āValuing Derivatives: Funding Value Adjustments and Fair Value,ā
Financial Analysts Journal, 70, 3 (May/June 2014): 46ā56.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āCollateral and Credit Issues in Derivatives Pricing,ā Journal of Credit
Risk, 10, 3 (2014): 3ā28.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āXVAs: A Gap Between Theory and Practice,ā Risk, 29, 5 (May 2016):
50ā52.
Kenyon, C., and Green, A. D. (eds.) Landmarks in XVA. London: Risk Books, 2016.
M09_HULL0654_11_GE_C09.indd 225 30/04/2021 16:50
226 CHAPTER 9
Practice Questions
9.1. Explain the difference between the views of financial economists and most practitioners
on how MVA and FVA should be calculated.
9.2. Explain the difference between the views of financial economists and most practitioners on how KVA should be calculated.
9.3. Explain why FVA can be calculated for a transaction without considering the portfolio to which the transaction belongs, but that the same is not true of MVA.
9.4. Suppose that a bank buys an option from a client. The option is uncollateralized and
there are no other transactions outstanding with the client. The expected values of the option at the midpoint of years 1, 2, and 3 are 6, 5, and 4. The probability of the
counterparty defaulting in each of the three years is 3%. The probability of the bank defaulting in each of the three years is 2%. Estimate the bankās CVA and DVA for the transaction. Assume no recovery in the event of a default and zero interest rates.
9.5. āThe impact of DVA on earnings volatility is generally greater than that of CVA.ā
Explain this statement.
9.6. A company is trying to decide between issuing debt and equity to fulfill a funding need. What in theory should happen to the return required by equity holders if it chooses
(a) debt and (b) equity?
9.7 . Explain the meaning of ānettingā. Suppose no collateral is posted. Why does a netting agreement usually reduce credit risks to both sides? Under what circumstances does
netting have no effect on credit risk?
9.8. The average funding cost for a company is 5% per annum when the risk-free rate is 3%. The company is currently undertaking projects worth $9 million. It plans to increase its size by undertaking $1 million of risk-free projects. What would you expect to happen to its average funding cost?
M09_HULL0654_11_GE_C09.indd 226 30/04/2021 16:50
227
We introduced options in Chapter 1. This chapter explains how options markets are
organized, what terminology is used, how the contracts are traded, how margin
requirements are set, and so on. Later chapters will examine such topics as trading strategies involving options, the determination of option prices, and the ways in which portfolios of options can be hedged. This chapter is concerned primarily with stock options. It also presents some introductory material on currency options, index options, and futures options. More details concerning these instruments can be found in
Chapters 17 and 18.
Options are fundamentally different from forward and futures contracts. An option
gives the holder of the option the right to do something, but the holder does not have to exercise this right. By contrast, in a forward or futures contract, the two parties have committed themselves to some action. It costs a trader nothing (except for the margin/ collateral requirements) to enter into a forward or futures contract, whereas the
purchase of an option requires an up-front payment.
When charts showing the gain or loss from options trading are produced, the usual
practice is to ignore the time value of money, so that the profit is the final payoff minus the initial cost. This chapter follows this practice.Mechanics of
Options Markets10 CHAPTER
Mechanics of Options Markets
- Options provide the right but not the obligation to trade an asset, distinguishing them from forward and futures contracts which require commitment.
- Call options allow the holder to buy an asset at a strike price, while put options allow the holder to sell an asset at a strike price.
- American options offer the flexibility to be exercised at any time before expiration, whereas European options are restricted to the expiration date itself.
- An investor may choose to exercise an option even if it results in an overall net loss, provided the exercise reduces the total loss of the initial premium paid.
- The profit or loss on an option is typically calculated as the final payoff minus the initial up-front cost, often ignoring the time value of money.
It is important to realize that an investor sometimes exercises an option and makes a loss overall.
gives the holder of the option the right to do something, but the holder does not have to exercise this right. By contrast, in a forward or futures contract, the two parties have committed themselves to some action. It costs a trader nothing (except for the margin/ collateral requirements) to enter into a forward or futures contract, whereas the
purchase of an option requires an up-front payment.
When charts showing the gain or loss from options trading are produced, the usual
practice is to ignore the time value of money, so that the profit is the final payoff minus the initial cost. This chapter follows this practice.Mechanics of
Options Markets10 CHAPTER
As mentioned in Chapter 1, there are two types of options. A call option gives the holder of the option the right to buy an asset by a certain date for a certain price. A put option gives the holder the right to sell an asset by a certain date for a certain price. The date specified in the contract is known as the expiration date or the maturity date.
The price specified in the contract is known as the exercise price or the strike price.
Options can be either American or European, a distinction that has nothing to do
with geographical location. American options can be exercised at any time up to the expiration date, whereas European options can be exercised only on the expiration date itself. Most of the options that are traded on exchanges are American. However, European options are generally easier to analyze than American options, and some of the properties of an American option are frequently deduced from those of its European counterpart.10.1 TYPES OF OPTIONS
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Call Options
Consider the situation of an investor who buys a European call option with a strike
price of $100 to purchase 100 shares of a certain stock. Suppose that the current stock price is $98, the expiration date of the option is in 4 months, and the price of an option to purchase one share is $5. The initial investment is $500. Because the option is
European, the investor can exercise only on the expiration date. If the stock price on this date is less than $100, the investor will clearly choose not to exercise. (There is no point in buying for $100 a share that has a market value of less than $100.) In these
circumstances, the investor loses the whole of the initial investment of $500. If the stock price is above $100 on the expiration date, the option will be exercised. Suppose, for example, that the stock price is $115. By exercising the option, the investor is able to buy 100 shares for $100 per share. If the shares are sold immediately, the investor makes a gain of $15 per share, or $1,500, ignoring transaction costs. When the initial cost of the option is taken into account, the net profit to the investor is $1,000.
Figure 10.1 shows how the investorās net profit or loss on an option to purchase one
share varies with the final stock price in this example. For instance, when the final stock price is $120 the profit from an option to purchase one share is $15. It is important to realize that an investor sometimes exercises an option and makes a loss overall. Suppose that, in the example, the stock price is $102 at the expiration of the option. The investor would exercise for a gain of
$102-$100=$2 per option and realize a loss overall of $3
when the initial cost of the option is taken into account. It is tempting to argue that the investor should not exercise the option in these circumstances. However, not exercising would lead to a loss of $5, which is worse than the $3 loss when the investor exercises. In general, call options should always be exercised at the expiration date if the stock price is above the strike price.
Put Options
Whereas the purchaser of a call option is hoping that the stock price will increase, the purchaser of a put option is hoping that it will decrease. Consider an investor who Profit ($)
Terminal
Mechanics of Option Positions
- Call options should be exercised at expiration if the stock price exceeds the strike price, even if the net result is a loss, to minimize the initial capital deficit.
- Put options provide profit when the underlying stock price falls below the strike price, allowing the holder to sell shares at a premium over market value.
- American options differ from European options by allowing for early exercise, which can be optimal under specific market circumstances.
- Every option contract involves a long position (the buyer) and a short position (the writer), where the writer's profit or loss is the exact inverse of the buyer's.
- The four fundamental option positions are long call, long put, short call, and short put, each defined by its unique payoff structure relative to the final asset price.
The writer of an option receives cash up front, but has potential liabilities later.
when the initial cost of the option is taken into account. It is tempting to argue that the investor should not exercise the option in these circumstances. However, not exercising would lead to a loss of $5, which is worse than the $3 loss when the investor exercises. In general, call options should always be exercised at the expiration date if the stock price is above the strike price.
Put Options
Whereas the purchaser of a call option is hoping that the stock price will increase, the purchaser of a put option is hoping that it will decrease. Consider an investor who Profit ($)
Terminal
stock price ($)
130 120 110 100 90 80 70
250102030Figure 10.1 Profit from buying a European call option on one share of a stock. Option
price=$5; strike price=$100.
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Mechanics of Options Markets 229
buys a European put option with a strike price of $70 to sell 100 shares of a certain
stock. Suppose that the current stock price is $65, the expiration date of the option is in 3 months, and the price of an option to sell one share is $7. The initial investment is $700. Because the option is European, it will be exercised only if the stock price is below $70 on the expiration date. Suppose that the stock price is $55 on this date. The investor can buy 100 shares for $55 per share and, under the terms of the put option, sell the same shares for $70 to realize a gain of $15 per share, or $1,500. (Again,
transaction costs are ignored.) When the $700 initial cost of the option is taken into account, the investorās net profit is $800. There is no guarantee that the investor will make a gain. If the final stock price is above $70, the put option expires worthless, and the investor loses $700. Figure 10.2 shows the way in which the investorās profit or loss on an option to sell one share varies with the terminal stock price in this example.
Early Exercise
As mentioned earlier, exchange-traded stock options are usually American rather than European. This means that the investor in the foregoing examples would not have to wait until the expiration date before exercising the option. We will see later that there are some circumstances when it is optimal to exercise American options before the expiration date.Profit ($)
Terminal
stock price ($)
100 90 80 70 60 50 40
270102030Figure 10.2 Profit from buying a European put option on one share of a stock. Option
price=$7; strike price=$70.
There are two sides to every option contract. On one side is the investor who has taken
the long position (i.e., has bought the option). On the other side is the investor who has taken a short position (i.e., has sold or written the option). The writer of an option receives cash up front, but has potential liabilities later. The writerās profit or loss is the reverse of that for the purchaser of the option. Figures 10.3 and 10.4 show the variation of the profit or loss with the final stock price for writers of the options considered in Figures 10.1 and 10.2.10.2 OPTION POSITIONS
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There are four types of option positions:
1. A long position in a call option
2. A long position in a put option
3. A short position in a call option
4. A short position in a put option.
It is often useful to characterize a European option in terms of its payoff to the
purchaser of the option. The initial cost of the option is then not included in the
calculation. If K is the strike price and ST is the final price of the underlying asset, the Profit ($)
Terminal
stock price ($)130 120 110
100 90 80 70
21005
220
230Figure 10.3 Profit from writing a European call option on one share of a stock.
Option price=$5; strike price=$100.
Profit ($)
Terminal
stock price ($)
7060 50 40
100 90 80
21007
220
230Figure 10.4 Profit from writing a European put option on one share of a stock.
Option price=$7; strike price=$70.
Mechanics of European Option Payoffs
- European option payoffs are mathematically defined by the relationship between the strike price and the final asset price at maturity.
- A long call position yields a payoff only if the final stock price exceeds the strike price, while a long put pays off if the price falls below the strike.
- Standard exchange-traded stock option contracts typically represent the right to buy or sell 100 shares of the underlying asset.
- Beyond individual stocks, exchanges facilitate trading for options on exchange-traded products (ETPs), foreign currencies, and market indices.
- Short positions in options result in a payoff that is the exact negative of the corresponding long position, representing the writer's potential liability.
One contract gives the holder the right to buy or sell 100 shares at the specified strike price.
It is often useful to characterize a European option in terms of its payoff to the
purchaser of the option. The initial cost of the option is then not included in the
calculation. If K is the strike price and ST is the final price of the underlying asset, the Profit ($)
Terminal
stock price ($)130 120 110
100 90 80 70
21005
220
230Figure 10.3 Profit from writing a European call option on one share of a stock.
Option price=$5; strike price=$100.
Profit ($)
Terminal
stock price ($)
7060 50 40
100 90 80
21007
220
230Figure 10.4 Profit from writing a European put option on one share of a stock.
Option price=$7; strike price=$70.
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Mechanics of Options Markets 231
payoff from a long position in a European call option is
max1ST-K, 02
This reflects the fact that the option will be exercised if ST7K and will not be exercised
if STā¦K. The payoff to the holder of a short position in the European call option is
-max1ST-K, 02=min1K-ST, 02
The payoff to the holder of a long position in a European put option is
max1K-ST, 02
and the payoff from a short position in a European put option is
-max1K-ST, 02=min1ST-K, 02
Figure 10.5 illustrates these payoffs.Payoff
(a)ST
KPayoff
(b)ST
K
Payoff
(c)ST
KPayoff
(d)ST
KFigure 10.5 Payoffs from positions in European options: (a) long call; (b) short call;
(c) long put; (d) short put. Strike price=K; price of asset at maturity=ST.
This section provides a first look at how options on stocks, currencies, stock indices,
and futures are traded on exchanges.10.3 UNDERLYING ASSETS
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Stock Options
Most trading in stock options is on exchanges. In the United States, the exchanges
include the Chicago Board Options Exchange (www.cboe.com), NYSE Euronext (www.euronext.com), which acquired the American Stock Exchange in 2008, the Inter -
national Securities Exchange (www.ise.com), and the Boston Options Exchange (www.bostonoptions.com). Options trade on several thousand different stocks. One contract gives the holder the right to buy or sell 100 shares at the specified strike price. This contract size is convenient because the shares themselves are usually traded in lots of 100.
ETP Options
The CBOE trades options on many exchange-traded products (ETPs). ETPs are listed on an exchange and traded like a share of a companyās stock. They are designed to replicate the performance of a particular market, often by tracking an underlying benchmark index. ETPs are sometimes also referred to a exchange-traded vehicles (ETVs). The most common ETP is an exchange-traded fund (ETF). This is usually designed to track an equity index or a bond index. For example, the SPDR S&P 500 ETF trust is designed to provide investors with the return they would earn if they invested in the 500 stocks that constitute the S&P 500 index. Other ETPs are designed to track the performance of
commodities or currencies.
Foreign Currency Options
Most currency options trading is now in the over-the-counter market, but there is some exchange trading. Exchanges trading foreign currency options in the United States include NASDAQ OMX (www.nasdaqtrader.com), which acquired the Philadelphia Stock Exchange in 2008. This exchange offers European-style contracts on a variety of different currencies. One contract is to buy or sell 10,000 units of a foreign currency (1,000,000 units in the case of the Japanese yen) for U.S. dollars. Foreign currency options contracts are discussed further in Chapter 17.
Index Options
Currency Index and Futures Options
- Currency options are primarily traded over-the-counter, though the NASDAQ OMX offers European-style exchange-traded contracts for major currencies.
- Index options on major benchmarks like the S&P 500 and Dow Jones are typically European-style and settled exclusively in cash rather than physical assets.
- Futures options are usually American-style and expire shortly before the underlying futures contract, with gains determined by the price differential.
- Standard exchange-traded stock options in the United States represent 100 shares and follow specific rules set by the exchange regarding dividends and expiration.
- The OEX contract on the S&P 100 stands out as a rare American-style index option among a field of predominantly European-style contracts.
Settlement is always in cash, rather than by delivering the portfolio underlying the index.
Most currency options trading is now in the over-the-counter market, but there is some exchange trading. Exchanges trading foreign currency options in the United States include NASDAQ OMX (www.nasdaqtrader.com), which acquired the Philadelphia Stock Exchange in 2008. This exchange offers European-style contracts on a variety of different currencies. One contract is to buy or sell 10,000 units of a foreign currency (1,000,000 units in the case of the Japanese yen) for U.S. dollars. Foreign currency options contracts are discussed further in Chapter 17.
Index Options
Many different index options currently trade throughout the world in both the over-the-counter market and the exchange-traded market. The most popular exchange-traded contracts in the United States are those on the S&P 500 Index (SPX), the S&P 100 Index (OEX), the Nasdaq-100 Index (NDX), and the Dow Jones Industrial Index (DJX). All of these trade on the Chicago Board Options Exchange. Most of the contracts are
European. An exception is the OEX contract on the S&P 100, which is American. One contract is usually to buy or sell 100 times the index at the specified strike price.
Settlement is always in cash, rather than by delivering the portfolio underlying the index. Consider, for example, one call contract on an index with a strike price of 980. If it is exercised when the value of the index is 992, the writer of the contract pays the holder
1992-9802*100=$1,200. Index options are discussed further in Chapter 17.
Futures Options
When an exchange trades a particular futures contract, it often also trades American options on that contract. The life of a futures option normally ends a short period of time
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Mechanics of Options Markets 233
before the expiration of trading in the underlying futures contract. When a call option is
exercised, the holderās gain equals the excess of the futures price over the strike price. When a put option is exercised, the holderās gain equals the excess of the strike price over the futures price. Futures options contracts are discussed further in Chapter 18.
In the rest of this chapter, we will focus on stock options. As already mentioned, a
standard exchange-traded stock option in the United States is an American-style option contract to buy or sell 100 shares of the stock. Details of the contract (the expiration date, the strike price, what happens when dividends are declared, how large a position investors can hold, and so on) are specified by the exchange.
Expiration Dates
Stock Option Specifications
- Standard exchange-traded stock options in the United States typically represent contracts for 100 shares of the underlying stock.
- Expiration dates follow specific January, February, or March cycles, with trading generally occurring until the third Friday of the expiration month.
- Exchanges offer a variety of expiration windows, including short-term 'weeklies' and long-term LEAPS that can extend up to 39 months.
- Strike prices are systematically spaced at intervals of $2.50, $5, or $10 depending on the current trading price of the underlying stock.
- The gain on exercised options is determined by the difference between the strike price and the current market price of the asset.
Longer-term options, known as LEAPS (long-term equity anticipation securities), also trade on many stocks in the United States.
before the expiration of trading in the underlying futures contract. When a call option is
exercised, the holderās gain equals the excess of the futures price over the strike price. When a put option is exercised, the holderās gain equals the excess of the strike price over the futures price. Futures options contracts are discussed further in Chapter 18.
In the rest of this chapter, we will focus on stock options. As already mentioned, a
standard exchange-traded stock option in the United States is an American-style option contract to buy or sell 100 shares of the stock. Details of the contract (the expiration date, the strike price, what happens when dividends are declared, how large a position investors can hold, and so on) are specified by the exchange.
Expiration Dates
One of the items used to describe a stock option is the month in which the expiration date occurs. Thus, a January call trading on IBM is a call option on IBM with an expiration date in January. The precise expiration date is the third Friday of the
expiration month and trading takes place every business day (8:30 a.m. to 3:00 p.m., Chicago time) until the expiration date.
Stock options in the United States are on a January, February, or March cycle. The
January cycle consists of the months of January, April, July, and October. The
February cycle consists of the months of February, May, August, and November.
The March cycle consists of the months of March, June, September, and December. If the expiration date for the current month has not yet been reached, options trade with expiration dates in the current month, the following month, and the next two months in the cycle. If the expiration date of the current month has passed, options trade with expiration dates in the next month, the next-but-one month, and the next two months of the expiration cycle. Consider, for example, an option on a January cycle. At the
beginning of January, options are traded with expiration dates in January, February, April, and July; at the end of January, they are traded with expiration dates in February, March, April, and July; at the beginning of May, they are traded with expiration dates in May, June, July, and October; and so on. When one option reaches expiration, trading in another is started. When there is a great deal of interest in a company, options
expiring in other months may trade. Also, options expiring on Fridays other than the third Friday of a month sometimes trade. The latter are known as weeklyās.
Longer-term options, known as LEAPS (long-term equity anticipation securities),
also trade on many stocks in the United States. These have expiration dates up to 39 months into the future. The expiration dates for LEAPS on stocks are always the third Friday of a January.
Strike Prices
The exchange normally chooses the strike prices at which options can be written so that they are spaced $2.50, $5, or $10 apart. Typically the spacing is $2.50 when the stock price is between $5 and $25, $5 when the stock price is between $25 and $200, and 10.4 SPECIFICATION OF STOCK OPTIONS
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$10 for stock prices above $200. As will be explained shortly, stock splits and stock
dividends can lead to nonstandard strike prices.
Terminology
Mechanics of Stock Options
- Exchanges standardize strike price intervals based on the underlying stock price, typically ranging from $2.50 to $10 increments.
- Options are categorized into classes by type and series by specific expiration dates and strike prices.
- The moneyness of an optionāin, at, or out of the moneyādetermines its intrinsic value and whether exercise is economically rational.
- FLEX options allow traders to negotiate nonstandard terms, such as custom expiration dates or exercise styles, to compete with over-the-counter markets.
- The total value of an option is comprised of its intrinsic value plus its time value, which represents the potential for future price movement.
FLEX options are an attempt by option exchanges to regain business from the over-the-counter markets.
The exchange normally chooses the strike prices at which options can be written so that they are spaced $2.50, $5, or $10 apart. Typically the spacing is $2.50 when the stock price is between $5 and $25, $5 when the stock price is between $25 and $200, and 10.4 SPECIFICATION OF STOCK OPTIONS
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$10 for stock prices above $200. As will be explained shortly, stock splits and stock
dividends can lead to nonstandard strike prices.
Terminology
For any given asset at any given time, many different option contracts may be trading. Suppose there are four expiration dates and five strike prices for options on a particular stock. If call and put options trade with every expiration date and every strike price, there are a total of 40 different contracts. All options of the same type (calls or puts) on a stock are referred to as an option class. For example, IBM calls are one class, whereas IBM puts are another class. An option series consists of all the options of a given class with the same expiration date and strike price. In other words, it refers to a particular contract that is traded. For example, IBM 160 October 2021 calls would constitute an option series.
Options are referred to as in the money, at the money, or out of the money. If S is the
stock price and K is the strike price, a call option is in the money when
S7K, at the
money when S=K, and out of the money when S6K. A put option is in the money
when S6K, at the money when S=K, and out of the money when S7K. Clearly, an
option will be exercised only when it is in the money. In the absence of transaction
costs, an in-the-money option will always be exercised on the expiration date if it has not been exercised previously.
1
The intrinsic value of an option is defined as the value it would have if there were no
time to maturity, so that the exercise decision had to be made immediately. For a call option, the intrinsic value is therefore
max1S-K, 02. For a put option, it is
max1K-S, 02. An in-the-money American option must be worth at least as much as
its intrinsic value because the holder has the right to exercise it immediately. Often it is optimal for the holder of an in-the-money American option to wait rather than exercise immediately. The excess of an optionās value over its intrinsic value is the optionās time value. The total value of an option is therefore the sum of its intrinsic value and its time value.
FLEX Options
The Chicago Board Options Exchange offers FLEX (short for flexible) options on equities and equity indices. These are options where the traders agree to nonstandard terms. These nonstandard terms can involve a strike price or an expiration date that is different from what is usually offered by the exchange. They can also involve the option being European when it is normally American or vice versa. FLEX options are an attempt by option exchanges to regain business from the over-the-counter markets. The exchange specifies a minimum size (e.g., 100 contracts) for FLEX option trades.
Dividends and Stock Splits
The early over-the-counter options were dividend protected. If a company declared a cash dividend, the strike price for options on the companyās stock was reduced on the ex-dividend day by the amount of the dividend. Exchange-traded options are not
1 Section 20.4 provides alternative definitions, often used by traders, for in the money, out of the money, and
at the money.
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Mechanics of Options Markets 235
Option Adjustments and FLEX Terms
- FLEX options allow traders to customize nonstandard terms like strike prices, expiration dates, and exercise styles to compete with over-the-counter markets.
- Unlike early over-the-counter options, standard exchange-traded options are generally not adjusted for regular cash dividends.
- The Options Clearing Corporation may intervene to adjust strike prices only in the event of exceptionally large cash dividends exceeding 10% of the stock price.
- Stock splits and stock dividends trigger automatic adjustments to both the strike price and the number of shares to maintain the economic position of the contract.
- Because stock splits do not change a company's underlying assets, the adjustment mechanism ensures that neither the writer nor the purchaser is disadvantaged by the resulting price drop.
FLEX options are an attempt by option exchanges to regain business from the over-the-counter markets.
The Chicago Board Options Exchange offers FLEX (short for flexible) options on equities and equity indices. These are options where the traders agree to nonstandard terms. These nonstandard terms can involve a strike price or an expiration date that is different from what is usually offered by the exchange. They can also involve the option being European when it is normally American or vice versa. FLEX options are an attempt by option exchanges to regain business from the over-the-counter markets. The exchange specifies a minimum size (e.g., 100 contracts) for FLEX option trades.
Dividends and Stock Splits
The early over-the-counter options were dividend protected. If a company declared a cash dividend, the strike price for options on the companyās stock was reduced on the ex-dividend day by the amount of the dividend. Exchange-traded options are not
1 Section 20.4 provides alternative definitions, often used by traders, for in the money, out of the money, and
at the money.
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Mechanics of Options Markets 235
usually adjusted for cash dividends. In other words, when a cash dividend occurs, there
are no adjustments to the terms of the option contract. An exception is sometimes made for large cash dividends. When a dividend greater than 10% of the stock price is declared, a committee of the Options Clearing Corporation at the CBOE can decide to adjust the terms of call and put options on the stock. Typically the effect of the
adjustment is to reduce the strike price by the amount of the dividend.
Exchange-traded options are adjusted for stock splits. A stock split occurs when the
existing shares are āsplitā into more shares. For example, in a 3-for-1 stock split, three new shares are issued to replace each existing share. Because a stock split does not change the assets or the earning ability of a company, we should not expect it to have any effect on the wealth of the companyās shareholders. All else being equal, the 3-for-1 stock split should cause the stock price to go down to one-third of its previous value. In general, an n-for-m stock split should cause the stock price to go down to
m>n of its previous value.
The terms of option contracts are adjusted to reflect expected changes in a stock price arising from a stock split. After an n-for-m stock split, the strike price is reduced to
m>n
of its previous value, and the number of shares covered by one contract is increased to
n>m of its previous value. If the stock price declines in the way expected, the positions of
both the writer and the purchaser of a contract remain unchanged.
Example 10.1
Consider a call option to buy 100 shares of a company for $30 per share. Suppose
the company makes a 2-for-1 stock split. The terms of the option contract are then changed so that it gives the holder the right to purchase 200 shares for
$15 per share.
Stock options are adjusted for stock dividends. A stock dividend involves a company issuing more shares to its existing shareholders. For example, a 20% stock dividend means that investors receive one new share for each five already owned. A stock dividend, like a stock split, has no effect on either the assets or the earning power of a company. The stock price can be expected to go down as a result of a stock dividend. The 20% stock dividend referred to is essentially the same as a 6-for-5 stock split. All else being equal, it should cause the stock price to decline to 5>6 of its previous value. The terms of an option are adjusted to reflect the expected price decline arising from a stock dividend in the same way as they are for that arising from a stock split.
Example 10.2
Option Adjustments and Limits
- Option contracts are adjusted for stock splits and dividends to ensure the holder's economic position remains unchanged.
- A stock dividend is treated similarly to a stock split, resulting in an increase in the number of shares and a proportional decrease in the strike price.
- Exchanges impose position and exercise limits to prevent individual investors or groups from exerting undue influence on the market.
- The trading of options has transitioned from physical open-outcry pits to predominantly electronic systems, with most orders now handled digitally.
- Position limits vary based on the stock's capitalization, ranging from 25,000 to 250,000 contracts for the most frequently traded equities.
Position limits and exercise limits are designed to prevent the market from being unduly influenced by the activities of an individual investor or group of investors.
Consider a call option to buy 100 shares of a company for $30 per share. Suppose
the company makes a 2-for-1 stock split. The terms of the option contract are then changed so that it gives the holder the right to purchase 200 shares for
$15 per share.
Stock options are adjusted for stock dividends. A stock dividend involves a company issuing more shares to its existing shareholders. For example, a 20% stock dividend means that investors receive one new share for each five already owned. A stock dividend, like a stock split, has no effect on either the assets or the earning power of a company. The stock price can be expected to go down as a result of a stock dividend. The 20% stock dividend referred to is essentially the same as a 6-for-5 stock split. All else being equal, it should cause the stock price to decline to 5>6 of its previous value. The terms of an option are adjusted to reflect the expected price decline arising from a stock dividend in the same way as they are for that arising from a stock split.
Example 10.2
Consider a put option to sell 100 shares of a company for $15 per share. Suppose
the company declares a 25% stock dividend. This is equivalent to a 5-for-4 stock split. The terms of the option contract are changed so that it gives the holder the right to sell 125 shares for $12.
Adjustments are also made for rights issues. The basic procedure is to calculate the theoretical price of the rights and then to reduce the strike price by this amount.
Position Limits and Exercise Limits
The Chicago Board Options Exchange often specifies a position limit for option con-tracts. This defines the maximum number of option contracts that an investor can hold on one side of the market. For this purpose, long calls and short puts are considered to be on the same side of the market. Also considered to be on the same side are short calls and
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long puts. The exercise limit usually equals the position limit. It defines the maximum
number of contracts that can be exercised by any individual (or group of individuals acting together) in any period of five consecutive business days. Options on the largest and most frequently traded stocks have positions limits of 250,000 contracts. Smaller capitalization stocks have position limits of 200,000, 75,000, 50,000, or 25,000 contracts.
Position limits and exercise limits are designed to prevent the market from being
unduly influenced by the activities of an individual investor or group of investors.
However, whether the limits are really necessary is a controversial issue.
Traditionally, exchanges have had to provide a large open area for individuals to meet
and trade options. This has changed. Most derivatives exchanges are fully electronic, so traders do not have to physically meet. The International Securities Exchange (www.ise.com) launched the first all-electronic options market for equities in the United States in May 2000. Over 95% of the orders at the Chicago Board Options Exchange are handled electronically. The remainder are mostly large or complex
institutional orders that require the skills of traders.
Market Makers
Options Trading Mechanics
- Position and exercise limits are established to prevent individual investors or groups from exerting undue influence on the market.
- The transition from physical trading floors to electronic exchanges has revolutionized how options are traded, with most orders now handled digitally.
- Market makers provide essential liquidity by quoting bid and ask prices, profiting from the spread while being subject to exchange-mandated spread limits.
- Investors can close out their positions through offsetting orders, a process that directly impacts the total open interest of a specific contract.
- The bid-ask spread is regulated by the exchange, with maximum allowable widths determined by the current price of the option.
The existence of the market maker ensures that buy and sell orders can always be executed at some price without any delays.
long puts. The exercise limit usually equals the position limit. It defines the maximum
number of contracts that can be exercised by any individual (or group of individuals acting together) in any period of five consecutive business days. Options on the largest and most frequently traded stocks have positions limits of 250,000 contracts. Smaller capitalization stocks have position limits of 200,000, 75,000, 50,000, or 25,000 contracts.
Position limits and exercise limits are designed to prevent the market from being
unduly influenced by the activities of an individual investor or group of investors.
However, whether the limits are really necessary is a controversial issue.
Traditionally, exchanges have had to provide a large open area for individuals to meet
and trade options. This has changed. Most derivatives exchanges are fully electronic, so traders do not have to physically meet. The International Securities Exchange (www.ise.com) launched the first all-electronic options market for equities in the United States in May 2000. Over 95% of the orders at the Chicago Board Options Exchange are handled electronically. The remainder are mostly large or complex
institutional orders that require the skills of traders.
Market Makers
Most options exchanges use market makers to facilitate trading. A market maker for a certain option is an individual who, when asked to do so, will quote both a bid and an ask price on the option. The bid is the price at which the market maker is prepared to buy, and the ask (or offer) is the price at which the market maker is prepared to sell. At the time the bid and ask prices are quoted, the market maker does not know whether the trader who asked for the quotes wants to buy or sell the option. The ask is always higher than the bid, and the amount by which the ask exceeds the bid is referred to as the bidāask spread. The exchange sets upper limits for the bidāask spread. For example,
it might specify that the spread be no more than $0.25 for options priced at less than $0.50, $0.50 for options priced between $0.50 and $10, $0.75 for options priced between $10 and $20, and $1 for options priced over $20.
The existence of the market maker ensures that buy and sell orders can always be
executed at some price without any delays. Market makers therefore add liquidity to the market. The market makers themselves make their profits from the bidāask spread. They use methods such as those that will be discussed in Chapter 19 to hedge their risks.
Offsetting Orders
An investor who has purchased options can close out the position by issuing an offsetting order to sell the same number of options. Similarly, an investor who has written options can close out the position by issuing an offsetting order to buy the same number of options. (In this respect options markets are similar to futures markets.) If, when an option contract is traded, neither investor is closing an existing position, the open interest increases by one contract. If one investor is closing an existing position and the other is not, the open interest stays the same. If both investors are closing existing positions, the open interest goes down by one contract.10.5 TRADING
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Mechanics of Options Trading
- Investors can close out positions by issuing offsetting orders, which directly impacts the open interest of the market.
- Trading costs include explicit broker fees for execution and exercise, alongside the hidden cost of the market maker's bid-ask spread.
- Margin requirements are mandatory for option writers because they hold future obligations, whereas cash buyers typically have no margin requirements.
- Standard options with maturities under nine months cannot be purchased on margin due to the inherent leverage already present in the contracts.
Investors are not allowed to buy these options on margin because options already contain substantial leverage and buying on margin would raise this leverage to an unacceptable level.
An investor who has purchased options can close out the position by issuing an offsetting order to sell the same number of options. Similarly, an investor who has written options can close out the position by issuing an offsetting order to buy the same number of options. (In this respect options markets are similar to futures markets.) If, when an option contract is traded, neither investor is closing an existing position, the open interest increases by one contract. If one investor is closing an existing position and the other is not, the open interest stays the same. If both investors are closing existing positions, the open interest goes down by one contract.10.5 TRADING
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The types of orders that can be placed with a broker for options trading are similar to
those for futures trading (see Section 2.8). A market order is executed immediately, a limit order specifies the least favorable price at which the order can be executed, and so on.
When options are traded online, the broker will typically charge a fixed fee plus a per-
contract fee. For example, the base fee might be $2.50 and the per-contract fee $0.50. There is also typically a fee charged for exercising an option, and an assignment fee when a trader is short an option and is the subject of an exercise. Sometimes it is cheaper to sell an option than pay the fee for exercising it. (See www.stockbrokers.com/guides
/features-fees to compare the fees charged by 16 U.S. brokers.)
A hidden cost in option trading (and in many other financial transactions) is the
market makerās bidāask spread. Suppose that, in the example just considered, the bid price was $4.00 and the ask price was $4.50 at the time the option was purchased. We can reasonably assume that a āfairā price for the option is halfway between the bid and the ask price, or $4.25. The cost to the buyer and to the seller of the market maker system is the difference between the fair price and the price paid. This is $0.25 per option, or $25 per contract.10.6 TRADING COSTS
We discussed margin requirements for futures contracts in Chapter 2. The purpose of margin is to provide a guarantee that the entity providing margin will live up to its obligations. If a trader buys an asset such as a stock or an option for cash there is no margin requirement. This is because the trade does not give rise to future obligations. As discussed in Section 5.2, if the trader shorts a stock, margin is required because the trader then has the obligation to close out the position by buying the stock at some future time. Similarly, when the trader sells (i.e., writes) an option, margin is required because the trader has obligations in the event that the option is exercised.
Assets are not always purchased for cash. For example, when shares are purchased in
the United States, an investor can borrow up to 50% of the price from the broker. This is known as buying on margin. If the share price declines so that the loan is substantially more than 50% of the stockās current value, there is a āmargin callā , where the broker requests that cash be deposited by the investor. If the margin call is not met, the broker sells the stock.
When call and put options with maturities less than 9 months are purchased, the
option price must be paid in full. Investors are not allowed to buy these options on margin because options already contain substantial leverage and buying on margin would raise this leverage to an unacceptable level. For options with maturities greater than 9 months investors can buy on margin, borrowing up to 25% of the option value.
Writing Naked Options
Trading Costs and Margins
- The bid-ask spread represents a hidden transaction cost for traders, effectively charging them for the market maker's services.
- Margin requirements act as a financial guarantee to ensure traders fulfill future obligations, particularly when shorting stocks or writing options.
- Standard short-term options cannot be purchased on margin because their inherent leverage is already considered exceptionally high.
- Writing naked options requires specific margin calculations based on the underlying share price and the extent to which the option is in or out of the money.
- Margin rules for index options are generally less stringent than for individual stocks because indices typically exhibit lower volatility.
Investors are not allowed to buy these options on margin because options already contain substantial leverage and buying on margin would raise this leverage to an unacceptable level.
A hidden cost in option trading (and in many other financial transactions) is the
market makerās bidāask spread. Suppose that, in the example just considered, the bid price was $4.00 and the ask price was $4.50 at the time the option was purchased. We can reasonably assume that a āfairā price for the option is halfway between the bid and the ask price, or $4.25. The cost to the buyer and to the seller of the market maker system is the difference between the fair price and the price paid. This is $0.25 per option, or $25 per contract.10.6 TRADING COSTS
We discussed margin requirements for futures contracts in Chapter 2. The purpose of margin is to provide a guarantee that the entity providing margin will live up to its obligations. If a trader buys an asset such as a stock or an option for cash there is no margin requirement. This is because the trade does not give rise to future obligations. As discussed in Section 5.2, if the trader shorts a stock, margin is required because the trader then has the obligation to close out the position by buying the stock at some future time. Similarly, when the trader sells (i.e., writes) an option, margin is required because the trader has obligations in the event that the option is exercised.
Assets are not always purchased for cash. For example, when shares are purchased in
the United States, an investor can borrow up to 50% of the price from the broker. This is known as buying on margin. If the share price declines so that the loan is substantially more than 50% of the stockās current value, there is a āmargin callā , where the broker requests that cash be deposited by the investor. If the margin call is not met, the broker sells the stock.
When call and put options with maturities less than 9 months are purchased, the
option price must be paid in full. Investors are not allowed to buy these options on margin because options already contain substantial leverage and buying on margin would raise this leverage to an unacceptable level. For options with maturities greater than 9 months investors can buy on margin, borrowing up to 25% of the option value.
Writing Naked Options
As mentioned, a trader who writes options is required to maintain funds in a margin account. Both the traderās broker and the exchange want to be satisfied that the trader will not default if the option is exercised. The amount of margin required depends on the traderās position.10.7 MARGIN REQUIREMENTS
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A naked option is an option that is not combined with an offsetting position in the
underlying stock. The initial and maintenance margin required by the CBOE for a
written naked call option is the greater of the following two calculations:
1. A total of 100% of the proceeds of the sale plus 20% of the underlying share price less the amount, if any, by which the option is out of the money
2. A total of 100% of the option proceeds plus 10% of the underlying share price.
For a written naked put option, it is the greater of
1. A total of 100% of the proceeds of the sale plus 20% of the underlying share price less the amount, if any, by which the option is out of the money
2. A total of 100% of the option proceeds plus 10% of the exercise price.
The 20% in the preceding calculations is replaced by 15% for options on a broadly based stock index because a stock index is usually less volatile than the price of an individual stock.
Example 10.3
An investor writes four naked call option contracts on a stock. The option price is
$5, the strike price is $40, and the stock price is $38. Because the option is $2 out of the money, the first calculation gives
400*15+0.2*38-22=$4,240
The second calculation gives
400*15+0.1*382=$3,520
The initial margin requirement is therefore $4,240. Note that, if the option had been a put, it would be $2 in the money and the margin requirement would be
400*15+0.2*382=$5,040
Option Margin and Clearing
- Margin requirements for naked options are calculated using specific formulas that account for whether the contract is in or out of the money.
- Broadly based stock indices utilize a lower percentage multiplier in margin calculations compared to individual stocks due to their lower volatility.
- Covered call strategies require no margin on the written option because the underlying shares are already owned, significantly reducing risk.
- The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) acts as a guarantor for all trades, ensuring that writers fulfill their contractual obligations.
- Brokers must maintain margin accounts with OCC members, who in turn maintain accounts with the OCC to provide a multi-layered safety net.
Covered calls are far less risky than naked calls, because the worst that can happen is that the investor is required to sell shares already owned at below their market value.
The 20% in the preceding calculations is replaced by 15% for options on a broadly based stock index because a stock index is usually less volatile than the price of an individual stock.
Example 10.3
An investor writes four naked call option contracts on a stock. The option price is
$5, the strike price is $40, and the stock price is $38. Because the option is $2 out of the money, the first calculation gives
400*15+0.2*38-22=$4,240
The second calculation gives
400*15+0.1*382=$3,520
The initial margin requirement is therefore $4,240. Note that, if the option had been a put, it would be $2 in the money and the margin requirement would be
400*15+0.2*382=$5,040
In both cases, the proceeds of the sale can be used to form part of the margin account.
A calculation similar to the initial margin calculation (but with the current market price of the contract replacing the proceeds of sale) is repeated every day. Funds can be withdrawn from the margin account when the calculation indicates that the margin required is less than the current balance in the margin account. When the calculation indicates that a greater margin is required, a margin call will be made.
Other Rules
In Chapter 12, we will examine option trading strategies such as covered calls, protective puts, spreads, combinations, straddles, and strangles. The CBOE has special rules for determining the margin requirements when these trading strategies are used. These are described in the CBOE Margin Manual, which is available on the CBOE website
(www.cboe.com).
As an example of the rules, consider an investor who writes a covered call. This is a
written call option when the shares that might have to be delivered are already owned.
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Covered calls are far less risky than naked calls, because the worst that can happen is
that the investor is required to sell shares already owned at below their market value. No margin is required on the written option. However, the investor can borrow an amount equal to 0.5 min(S, K ), rather than the usual 0.5S, on the stock position.
2 The margin requirements described in the previous section are the minimum requirements specified by the
OCC. A broker may require a higher margin from its clients. However, it cannot require a lower margin.
Some brokers do not allow their retail clients to write uncovered options at all.The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) performs much the same function for options
markets as the clearing house does for futures markets (see Chapter 2). It guarantees that options writers will fulfill their obligations under the terms of options contracts and keeps a record of all long and short positions. The OCC has a number of members, and all option trades must be cleared through a member. If a broker is not itself a member of an exchangeās OCC, it must arrange to clear its trades with a member. Members are required to have a certain minimum amount of capital and to contribute to a special fund that can be used if any member defaults on an option obligation.
The funds used to purchase an option must be deposited with the OCC by the
morning of the business day following the trade. The writer of the option maintains a margin account with a broker, as described earlier.
2 The broker maintains a margin
account with the OCC member that clears its trades. The OCC member in turn
maintains a margin account with the OCC.
Exercising an Option
Option Clearing and Regulation
- The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) acts as a guarantor for options contracts, ensuring writers fulfill their obligations and maintaining records of all positions.
- Margin requirements for covered calls are significantly lower than for naked calls because the underlying shares are already owned by the investor.
- When an option is exercised, the OCC randomly selects a member with a short position to fulfill the contract, a process known as being assigned.
- The options market is overseen by federal bodies like the SEC and CFTC, as well as state authorities, maintaining a strong record of self-regulation and stability.
- At expiration, in-the-money options are typically exercised automatically by brokers or exchanges to protect the financial interests of the investors.
The OCC randomly selects a member with an outstanding short position in the same option.
Covered calls are far less risky than naked calls, because the worst that can happen is
that the investor is required to sell shares already owned at below their market value. No margin is required on the written option. However, the investor can borrow an amount equal to 0.5 min(S, K ), rather than the usual 0.5S, on the stock position.
2 The margin requirements described in the previous section are the minimum requirements specified by the
OCC. A broker may require a higher margin from its clients. However, it cannot require a lower margin.
Some brokers do not allow their retail clients to write uncovered options at all.The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) performs much the same function for options
markets as the clearing house does for futures markets (see Chapter 2). It guarantees that options writers will fulfill their obligations under the terms of options contracts and keeps a record of all long and short positions. The OCC has a number of members, and all option trades must be cleared through a member. If a broker is not itself a member of an exchangeās OCC, it must arrange to clear its trades with a member. Members are required to have a certain minimum amount of capital and to contribute to a special fund that can be used if any member defaults on an option obligation.
The funds used to purchase an option must be deposited with the OCC by the
morning of the business day following the trade. The writer of the option maintains a margin account with a broker, as described earlier.
2 The broker maintains a margin
account with the OCC member that clears its trades. The OCC member in turn
maintains a margin account with the OCC.
Exercising an Option
When an investor instructs a broker to exercise an option, the broker notifies the OCC member that clears its trades. This member then places an exercise order with the OCC. The OCC randomly selects a member with an outstanding short position in the same option. The member, using a procedure established in advance, selects a particular investor who has written the option. If the option is a call, this investor is required to sell stock at the strike price. If it is a put, the investor is required to buy stock at the strike price. The investor is said to be assigned. The buy/sell transaction takes place on the third business day following the exercise order. When an option is exercised, the open interest goes down by one.
At the expiration of the option, all in-the-money options should be exercised unless
the transaction costs are so high as to wipe out the payoff from the option. Some
brokers will automatically exercise options for a client at expiration when it is in their clientās interest to do so. Many exchanges also have rules for exercising options that are in the money at expiration.10.8 THE OPTIONS CLEARING CORPORATION
Exchange-traded options markets are regulated in a number of different ways. Both the exchange and Options Clearing Corporations have rules governing the behavior of 10.9 REGULATION
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traders. In addition, there are both federal and state regulatory authorities. In general,
options markets have demonstrated a willingness to regulate themselves. There have been no major scandals or defaults by OCC members. Investors can have a high level of confidence in the way the market is run.
The Securities and Exchange Commission is responsible for regulating options
markets in stocks, stock indices, currencies, and bonds at the federal level. The
Commodity Futures Trading Commission is responsible for regulating markets for options on futures. The major options markets are in the states of Illinois and
New York. These states actively enforce their own laws on unacceptable trading
Options Regulation and Taxation
- The options market is overseen by federal bodies like the SEC and CFTC, alongside state authorities in New York and Illinois, maintaining a high level of investor confidence.
- Taxation on stock options generally follows capital gains rules, where gains or losses are recognized upon expiration, closing out a position, or through exercise adjustments.
- The wash sale rule prevents investors from claiming tax losses if they repurchase the same security or an equivalent option within a 61-day window.
- The Tax Relief Act of 1997 introduced 'constructive sales' to prevent taxpayers from using short positions to indefinitely defer the recognition of gains on appreciated property.
- When an option is exercised, the cost basis of the underlying stock is adjusted by the premium paid or received, effectively rolling the option's value into the stock position.
Determining the tax implications of option trading strategies can be tricky, and an investor who is in doubt about this should consult a tax specialist.
traders. In addition, there are both federal and state regulatory authorities. In general,
options markets have demonstrated a willingness to regulate themselves. There have been no major scandals or defaults by OCC members. Investors can have a high level of confidence in the way the market is run.
The Securities and Exchange Commission is responsible for regulating options
markets in stocks, stock indices, currencies, and bonds at the federal level. The
Commodity Futures Trading Commission is responsible for regulating markets for options on futures. The major options markets are in the states of Illinois and
New York. These states actively enforce their own laws on unacceptable trading
practices.
Determining the tax implications of option trading strategies can be tricky, and an
investor who is in doubt about this should consult a tax specialist. In the United States, the general rule is that (unless the taxpayer is a professional trader) gains and losses from the trading of stock options are taxed as capital gains or losses. The way that
capital gains and losses are taxed in the United States was discussed in Section 2.10. For both the holder and the writer of a stock option, a gain or loss is recognized when (a) the option expires unexercised or (b) the option position is closed out. If the option is exercised, the gain or loss from the option is rolled into the position taken in the stock and recognized when the stock position is closed out. For example, when a call option is exercised, the party with a long position is deemed to have purchased the stock at the strike price plus the call price. This is then used as a basis for calculating this partyās gain or loss when the stock is eventually sold. Similarly, the party with the short call position is deemed to have sold the stock at the strike price plus the call price. When a put option is exercised, the seller of the option is deemed to have bought the stock for the strike price less the original put price and the purchaser of the option is deemed to have sold the stock for the strike price less the original put price.
Wash Sale Rule
One tax consideration in option trading in the United States is the wash sale rule. To understand this rule, imagine an investor who buys a stock when the price is $60 and plans to keep it for the long term. If the stock price drops to $40, the investor might be tempted to sell the stock and then immediately repurchase it, so that the $20 loss is realized for tax purposes. To prevent this practice, the tax authorities have ruled that when the repurchase is within 30 days of the sale (i.e., between 30 days before the sale and 30 days after the sale), any loss on the sale is not deductible. The disallowance also applies where, within the 61 -day period, the taxpayer enters into an option or similar contract to acquire the stock. Thus, selling a stock at a loss and buying a call option within a 30-day period will lead to the loss being disallowed.
Constructive Sales
Prior to 1997, if a United States taxpayer shorted a security while holding a long position in a substantially identical security, no gain or loss was recognized until the 10.10 TAXATION
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Mechanics of Options Markets 241
short position was closed out. This means that short positions could be used to defer
recognition of a gain for tax purposes. The situation was changed by the Tax Relief Act of 1997. An appreciated property is now treated as āconstructively soldā when the owner does one of the following:
1. Enters into a short sale of the same or substantially identical property
2. Enters into a futures or forward contract to deliver the same or substantially
identical property
3. Enters into one or more positions that eliminate substantially all of the loss and
Derivatives and Tax Strategy
- The Tax Relief Act of 1997 introduced 'constructive sales' to prevent investors from using short positions to indefinitely defer capital gains taxes.
- Transactions that eliminate substantially all risk of loss and opportunity for gain are now treated as immediate sales for tax purposes.
- Investors can still use certain strategies, such as buying in-the-money put options, to reduce risk without triggering a constructive sale.
- Multinational companies may use options to shift capital gains to low-tax jurisdictions while keeping capital losses in high-tax regions to offset other gains.
- Tax authorities are increasingly proposing legislation to combat the use of derivatives for tax avoidance, requiring careful exit planning for such structures.
If the security price rises sharply, the option will be exercised and the capital gain will be realized in Country B. If it falls sharply, the option will not be exercised and the capital loss will be realized in Country A.
short position was closed out. This means that short positions could be used to defer
recognition of a gain for tax purposes. The situation was changed by the Tax Relief Act of 1997. An appreciated property is now treated as āconstructively soldā when the owner does one of the following:
1. Enters into a short sale of the same or substantially identical property
2. Enters into a futures or forward contract to deliver the same or substantially
identical property
3. Enters into one or more positions that eliminate substantially all of the loss and
opportunity for gain.
It should be noted that transactions reducing only the risk of loss or only the opportun-ity for gain should not result in constructive sales. Therefore an investor holding a long position in a stock can buy in-the-money put options on the stock without triggering a constructive sale.
Tax practitioners sometimes use options to minimize tax costs or maximize tax
benefits (see Business Snapshot 10.1). Tax authorities in many jurisdictions have
proposed legislation designed to combat the use of derivatives for tax purposes. Before entering into any tax-motivated transaction, a corporate treasurer or private individual should explore in detail how the structure could be unwound in the event of legislative change and how costly this process could be.Business Snapshot 10.1 Tax Planning Using Options
As a simple example of a possible tax planning strategy using options, suppose that Country A has a tax regime where the tax is low on interest and dividends and high on capital gains, while Country B has a tax regime where tax is high on interest and dividends and low on capital gains. It is advantageous for a company to receive the income from a security in Country A and the capital gain, if there is one, in
Country B. The company would like to keep capital losses in Country A, where they can be used to offset capital gains on other items. All of this can be
accomplished by arranging for a subsidiary company in Country A to have legal ownership of the security and for a subsidiary company in Country B to buy a call option on the security from the company in Country A, with the strike price of the option equal to the current value of the security. During the life of the option, income from the security is earned in Country A. If the security price rises sharply, the option will be exercised and the capital gain will be realized in Country B. If it falls sharply, the option will not be exercised and the capital loss will be realized in Country A.
Warrants are options issued by a financial institution or nonfinancial corporation. For example, a financial institution might issue 1 million put warrants on gold, each
warrant giving the holder the right to sell 10 ounces of gold for $1,000 per ounce. It could then proceed to create a market for the warrants. To exercise the warrant, the 10.11 WARRANTS, EMPLOYEE STOCK OPTIONS, AND CONVERTIBLES
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Derivatives and Corporate Finance
- Companies can use options to strategically shift income and capital gains between different tax jurisdictions to minimize tax liability.
- Warrants and convertible bonds are often used by corporations to enhance the attractiveness of debt issues to potential investors.
- Employee stock options are designed to align the interests of staff with shareholders and must now be expensed at fair market value.
- Unlike exchange-traded options, the exercise of warrants or employee options requires the company to issue new shares, leading to dilution.
- Legislative changes regarding the tax treatment of derivatives pose a significant risk that requires careful planning for potential unwinding costs.
When these instruments are exercised, the company issues more shares of its own stock and sells them to the option holder for the strike price.
proposed legislation designed to combat the use of derivatives for tax purposes. Before entering into any tax-motivated transaction, a corporate treasurer or private individual should explore in detail how the structure could be unwound in the event of legislative change and how costly this process could be.Business Snapshot 10.1 Tax Planning Using Options
As a simple example of a possible tax planning strategy using options, suppose that Country A has a tax regime where the tax is low on interest and dividends and high on capital gains, while Country B has a tax regime where tax is high on interest and dividends and low on capital gains. It is advantageous for a company to receive the income from a security in Country A and the capital gain, if there is one, in
Country B. The company would like to keep capital losses in Country A, where they can be used to offset capital gains on other items. All of this can be
accomplished by arranging for a subsidiary company in Country A to have legal ownership of the security and for a subsidiary company in Country B to buy a call option on the security from the company in Country A, with the strike price of the option equal to the current value of the security. During the life of the option, income from the security is earned in Country A. If the security price rises sharply, the option will be exercised and the capital gain will be realized in Country B. If it falls sharply, the option will not be exercised and the capital loss will be realized in Country A.
Warrants are options issued by a financial institution or nonfinancial corporation. For example, a financial institution might issue 1 million put warrants on gold, each
warrant giving the holder the right to sell 10 ounces of gold for $1,000 per ounce. It could then proceed to create a market for the warrants. To exercise the warrant, the 10.11 WARRANTS, EMPLOYEE STOCK OPTIONS, AND CONVERTIBLES
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holder would contact the financial institution. A common use of warrants by a non-
financial corporation is at the time of a bond issue. The corporation issues call warrants
giving the holder the right to buy its own stock for a certain price at a certain future time and then attaches them to the bonds to make the bonds more attractive to
investors.
Employee stock options are call options issued to employees by their company to
motivate them to act in the best interests of the companyās shareholders (see Chap-ter 16). They are usually at the money at the time of issue. Accounting standards now require them to be expensed at fair market value on the income statement of the company.
Convertible bonds, often referred to as convertibles, are bonds issued by a company that
can be converted into equity at certain times using a predetermined exchange ratio. They are therefore bonds with an embedded call option on the companyās stock.
One feature of warrants, employee stock options, and convertibles is that a pre-
determined number of options are issued. By contrast, the number of options on a particular stock that trade on the CBOE or another exchange is not predetermined. (As people take positions in a particular option series, the number of options outstanding increases; as people close out positions, it declines.) Warrants issued by a company on its own stock, employee stock options, and convertibles are different from exchange-traded options in another important way. When these instruments are exercised, the company issues more shares of its own stock and sells them to the option holder for the strike price. The exercise of the instruments therefore leads to an increase in the number of shares of the companyās stock that are outstanding. By contrast, when an exchange-traded call option is exercised, the party with the short position buys in the market shares that have already been issued and sells them to the party with the long position for the strike price. The company whose stock underlies the option is not involved in any way.
Corporate and OTC Options
- Corporations issue warrants and convertible bonds to make debt more attractive by embedding call options on their own stock.
- Employee stock options are used as motivational tools and must now be recorded as expenses at fair market value on income statements.
- Unlike exchange-traded options, the exercise of warrants or employee options results in the issuance of new shares, diluting the total outstanding stock.
- The over-the-counter (OTC) market has surpassed exchange-traded markets in size, offering customized 'exotic' options tailored to specific client needs.
- OTC options carry higher credit risk than exchange-traded ones, often requiring collateral to protect against potential counterparty default.
When these instruments are exercised, the company issues more shares of its own stock and sells them to the option holder for the strike price.
holder would contact the financial institution. A common use of warrants by a non-
financial corporation is at the time of a bond issue. The corporation issues call warrants
giving the holder the right to buy its own stock for a certain price at a certain future time and then attaches them to the bonds to make the bonds more attractive to
investors.
Employee stock options are call options issued to employees by their company to
motivate them to act in the best interests of the companyās shareholders (see Chap-ter 16). They are usually at the money at the time of issue. Accounting standards now require them to be expensed at fair market value on the income statement of the company.
Convertible bonds, often referred to as convertibles, are bonds issued by a company that
can be converted into equity at certain times using a predetermined exchange ratio. They are therefore bonds with an embedded call option on the companyās stock.
One feature of warrants, employee stock options, and convertibles is that a pre-
determined number of options are issued. By contrast, the number of options on a particular stock that trade on the CBOE or another exchange is not predetermined. (As people take positions in a particular option series, the number of options outstanding increases; as people close out positions, it declines.) Warrants issued by a company on its own stock, employee stock options, and convertibles are different from exchange-traded options in another important way. When these instruments are exercised, the company issues more shares of its own stock and sells them to the option holder for the strike price. The exercise of the instruments therefore leads to an increase in the number of shares of the companyās stock that are outstanding. By contrast, when an exchange-traded call option is exercised, the party with the short position buys in the market shares that have already been issued and sells them to the party with the long position for the strike price. The company whose stock underlies the option is not involved in any way.
Most of this chapter has focused on exchange-traded options markets. The over-the-
counter market for options has become increasingly important since the early 1980s and is now larger than the exchange-traded market. As explained in Chapter 1, the main participants in over-the-counter markets are financial institutions, corporate
treasurers, and fund managers. There is a wide range of assets underlying the options. Over-the-counter options on foreign exchange and interest rates are particularly
popular. The chief potential disadvantage of the over-the-counter market is that the option writer may default. This means that the purchaser is subject to some credit risk. In an attempt to overcome this disadvantage, market participants (and regulators) often require counterparties to post collateral. This was discussed in Section 2.5.
The instruments traded in the over-the-counter market are often structured by
financial institutions to meet the precise needs of their clients. Sometimes this involves choosing exercise dates, strike prices, and contract sizes that are different from those offered by an exchange. In other cases the structure of the option is different from standard calls and puts. The option is then referred to as an exotic option. Chapter 26
describes a number of different types of exotic options.
10.12 OVER-THE-COUNTER OPTIONS MARKETS
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Mechanics of Options Markets 243
SUMMARY
There are two types of options: calls and puts. A call option gives the holder the right to
Mechanics of Options Markets
- Options are categorized into calls and puts, representing the right to buy or sell an underlying asset at a specific price.
- Exchange-traded options follow standardized terms regarding contract size, expiration dates, and strike price intervals.
- Contract terms are adjusted for stock splits and dividends to ensure the financial positions of both buyers and writers remain unchanged.
- Market makers provide liquidity by quoting bid-ask spreads, while the Options Clearing Corporation manages risk through margin accounts.
- Over-the-counter markets allow for exotic options that are specifically tailored to meet the unique needs of corporate clients.
An advantage of over-the-counter options is that they can be tailored by a financial institution to meet the particular needs of a corporate treasurer or fund manager.
financial institutions to meet the precise needs of their clients. Sometimes this involves choosing exercise dates, strike prices, and contract sizes that are different from those offered by an exchange. In other cases the structure of the option is different from standard calls and puts. The option is then referred to as an exotic option. Chapter 26
describes a number of different types of exotic options.
10.12 OVER-THE-COUNTER OPTIONS MARKETS
M10_HULL0654_11_GE_C10.indd 242 30/04/2021 16:50
Mechanics of Options Markets 243
SUMMARY
There are two types of options: calls and puts. A call option gives the holder the right to
buy the underlying asset for a certain price by a certain date. A put option gives the holder the right to sell the underlying asset by a certain date for a certain price. There are four possible positions in options markets: a long position in a call, a short position in a call, a long position in a put, and a short position in a put. Taking a short position in an option is known as writing it. Options are currently traded on stocks, stock
indices, foreign currencies, futures contracts, and other assets.
An exchange must specify the terms of the option contracts it trades. In particular, it
must specify the size of the contract, the precise expiration time, and the strike price. In the United States one stock option contract gives the holder the right to buy or sell 100 shares. The standard expiration of a stock option contract is the third Friday of the expiration month. Options with several different expiration months trade at any given time. Strike prices are at
$21
2, $5, or $10 intervals, depending on the stock price.
The terms of a stock option are not normally adjusted for cash dividends. However, they
are adjusted for stock dividends, stock splits, and rights issues. The aim of the adjustment is to keep the positions of both the writer and the buyer of a contract unchanged.
Most option exchanges use market makers. A market maker is an individual who is
prepared to quote both a bid price (at which he or she is prepared to buy) and an ask price (at which he or she is prepared to sell). Market makers improve the liquidity of the market and ensure that there is never any delay in executing market orders. They themselves make a profit from the difference between their bid and ask prices (known as their bidāask spread). The exchange has rules specifying upper limits for the bidāask spread.
Writers of options have potential liabilities and are required to maintain a margin
account with their brokers. If it is not a member of the Options Clearing Corporation, the broker will maintain a margin account with a firm that is a member. This firm will in turn maintain a margin account with the Options Clearing Corporation. The Options Clearing Corporation is responsible for keeping a record of all outstanding contracts, handling exercise orders, and so on.
Not all options are traded on exchanges. Many options are traded in the over-the-
counter (OTC) market. An advantage of over-the-counter options is that they can be tailored by a financial institution to meet the particular needs of a corporate treasurer or fund manager.
FURTHER READING
Chicago Board Options Exchange. Margin Manual. Available online at the CBOE website:
www.cboe.com.
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244 CHAPTER 10
Practice Questions
Option Market Mechanics
- Option terms are adjusted for stock splits and dividends to ensure the economic positions of both buyers and writers remain unchanged.
- Market makers facilitate liquidity by quoting bid and ask prices, profiting from the spread while adhering to exchange-mandated limits.
- The Options Clearing Corporation acts as a central intermediary, managing margin accounts and ensuring the fulfillment of exercise orders.
- Over-the-counter (OTC) options offer a flexible alternative to exchange-traded contracts by allowing financial institutions to tailor terms for specific corporate needs.
- Option writers are required to maintain margin accounts to cover potential liabilities arising from their contractual obligations.
An advantage of over-the-counter options is that they can be tailored by a financial institution to meet the particular needs of a corporate treasurer or fund manager.
2, $5, or $10 intervals, depending on the stock price.
The terms of a stock option are not normally adjusted for cash dividends. However, they
are adjusted for stock dividends, stock splits, and rights issues. The aim of the adjustment is to keep the positions of both the writer and the buyer of a contract unchanged.
Most option exchanges use market makers. A market maker is an individual who is
prepared to quote both a bid price (at which he or she is prepared to buy) and an ask price (at which he or she is prepared to sell). Market makers improve the liquidity of the market and ensure that there is never any delay in executing market orders. They themselves make a profit from the difference between their bid and ask prices (known as their bidāask spread). The exchange has rules specifying upper limits for the bidāask spread.
Writers of options have potential liabilities and are required to maintain a margin
account with their brokers. If it is not a member of the Options Clearing Corporation, the broker will maintain a margin account with a firm that is a member. This firm will in turn maintain a margin account with the Options Clearing Corporation. The Options Clearing Corporation is responsible for keeping a record of all outstanding contracts, handling exercise orders, and so on.
Not all options are traded on exchanges. Many options are traded in the over-the-
counter (OTC) market. An advantage of over-the-counter options is that they can be tailored by a financial institution to meet the particular needs of a corporate treasurer or fund manager.
FURTHER READING
Chicago Board Options Exchange. Margin Manual. Available online at the CBOE website:
www.cboe.com.
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244 CHAPTER 10
Practice Questions
10.1. An investor buys a European put on a share for $3. The stock price is $42 and the strike
price is $40. Under what circumstances does the investor make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram showing the variation of the investorās profit with the stock price at the maturity of the option.
10.2. An investor sells a European call on a share for $4. The stock price is $47 and the strike price is $50. Under what circumstances does the investor make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram showing the variation of the investorās profit with the stock price at the maturity of the option.
10.3. An investor sells a European call option with strike price of K and maturity T and buys a
put with the same strike price and maturity. Describe the investorās position.
10.4. A company declares a 2-for-1 stock split. Explain how the terms change for a call option with a strike price of $60.
10.5. āEmployee stock options issued by a company are different from regular exchange-traded call options on the companyās stock because they can affect the capital structure of the company. ā Explain this statement.
10.6. Suppose that a European call option to buy a share for $100.00 costs $5.00 and is held until maturity. Under what circumstances will the holder of the option make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a long position in the option depends on the stock price at maturity of the option.
10.7. Suppose that a European put option to sell a share for $60 costs $8 and is held until maturity. Under what circumstances will the seller of the option (the party with the short position) make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a short position in the option depends on the stock price at maturity of the option.
10.8. Consider the following portfolio: a newly entered-into long forward contract on an asset and a long position in a European put option on the asset with the same maturity as the forward contract and a strike price that is equal to the forward price of the asset at the time the portfolio is set up. Show that it has the same value as a European call option with the same strike price and maturity as the European put option. Deduce that a
European put option has the same value as a European call option with the same strike price and maturity when the strike price for both options is the forward price.
10.9. A trader buys a call option with a strike price of $45 and a put option with a strike price of $40. Both options have the same maturity. The call costs $3 and the put costs $4.
Draw a diagram showing the variation of the traderās profit with the asset price.
10.10. Explain why an American option is always worth at least as much as a European option on the same asset with the same strike price and exercise date.
10.11. Explain why an American option is always worth at least as much as its intrinsic value.
Mechanics of Options Markets
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating profit and exercise conditions for European call and put options.
- It explores the impact of corporate actions, such as a 2-for-1 stock split, on the strike price and terms of existing call options.
- A distinction is made between employee stock options and exchange-traded options regarding their potential to alter a company's capital structure.
- The problems demonstrate the relationship between forward contracts and options, specifically how a long forward combined with a put equals a call position.
- The text addresses the fundamental valuation principle that American options must be worth at least as much as their European counterparts or their own intrinsic value.
Employee stock options issued by a company are different from regular exchange-traded call options on the companyās stock because they can affect the capital structure of the company.
10.1. An investor buys a European put on a share for $3. The stock price is $42 and the strike
price is $40. Under what circumstances does the investor make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram showing the variation of the investorās profit with the stock price at the maturity of the option.
10.2. An investor sells a European call on a share for $4. The stock price is $47 and the strike price is $50. Under what circumstances does the investor make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram showing the variation of the investorās profit with the stock price at the maturity of the option.
10.3. An investor sells a European call option with strike price of K and maturity T and buys a
put with the same strike price and maturity. Describe the investorās position.
10.4. A company declares a 2-for-1 stock split. Explain how the terms change for a call option with a strike price of $60.
10.5. āEmployee stock options issued by a company are different from regular exchange-traded call options on the companyās stock because they can affect the capital structure of the company. ā Explain this statement.
10.6. Suppose that a European call option to buy a share for $100.00 costs $5.00 and is held until maturity. Under what circumstances will the holder of the option make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a long position in the option depends on the stock price at maturity of the option.
10.7. Suppose that a European put option to sell a share for $60 costs $8 and is held until maturity. Under what circumstances will the seller of the option (the party with the short position) make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a short position in the option depends on the stock price at maturity of the option.
10.8. Consider the following portfolio: a newly entered-into long forward contract on an asset and a long position in a European put option on the asset with the same maturity as the forward contract and a strike price that is equal to the forward price of the asset at the time the portfolio is set up. Show that it has the same value as a European call option with the same strike price and maturity as the European put option. Deduce that a
European put option has the same value as a European call option with the same strike price and maturity when the strike price for both options is the forward price.
10.9. A trader buys a call option with a strike price of $45 and a put option with a strike price of $40. Both options have the same maturity. The call costs $3 and the put costs $4.
Draw a diagram showing the variation of the traderās profit with the asset price.
10.10. Explain why an American option is always worth at least as much as a European option on the same asset with the same strike price and exercise date.
10.11. Explain why an American option is always worth at least as much as its intrinsic value.
M10_HULL0654_11_GE_C10.indd 244 30/04/2021 16:50
Mechanics of Options Markets 245
Mechanics of Options Markets
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems regarding the profit and exercise conditions for long and short positions in European call and put options.
- It explores how corporate actions, such as stock splits and cash dividends, necessitate adjustments to the strike prices and terms of existing option contracts.
- A distinction is made between exchange-traded options and employee stock options, noting that the latter can impact a company's capital structure.
- The problems address the financial logic behind option pricing, including why American options must be worth at least as much as their European counterparts or their own intrinsic value.
- Practical market mechanics are covered, including the calculation of margin requirements for naked option writing and the impact of bid-ask spreads on investor costs.
Employee stock options issued by a company are different from regular exchange-traded call options on the companyās stock because they can affect the capital structure of the company.
10.1. An investor buys a European put on a share for $3. The stock price is $42 and the strike
price is $40. Under what circumstances does the investor make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram showing the variation of the investorās profit with the stock price at the maturity of the option.
10.2. An investor sells a European call on a share for $4. The stock price is $47 and the strike price is $50. Under what circumstances does the investor make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram showing the variation of the investorās profit with the stock price at the maturity of the option.
10.3. An investor sells a European call option with strike price of K and maturity T and buys a
put with the same strike price and maturity. Describe the investorās position.
10.4. A company declares a 2-for-1 stock split. Explain how the terms change for a call option with a strike price of $60.
10.5. āEmployee stock options issued by a company are different from regular exchange-traded call options on the companyās stock because they can affect the capital structure of the company. ā Explain this statement.
10.6. Suppose that a European call option to buy a share for $100.00 costs $5.00 and is held until maturity. Under what circumstances will the holder of the option make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a long position in the option depends on the stock price at maturity of the option.
10.7. Suppose that a European put option to sell a share for $60 costs $8 and is held until maturity. Under what circumstances will the seller of the option (the party with the short position) make a profit? Under what circumstances will the option be exercised? Draw a diagram illustrating how the profit from a short position in the option depends on the stock price at maturity of the option.
10.8. Consider the following portfolio: a newly entered-into long forward contract on an asset and a long position in a European put option on the asset with the same maturity as the forward contract and a strike price that is equal to the forward price of the asset at the time the portfolio is set up. Show that it has the same value as a European call option with the same strike price and maturity as the European put option. Deduce that a
European put option has the same value as a European call option with the same strike price and maturity when the strike price for both options is the forward price.
10.9. A trader buys a call option with a strike price of $45 and a put option with a strike price of $40. Both options have the same maturity. The call costs $3 and the put costs $4.
Draw a diagram showing the variation of the traderās profit with the asset price.
10.10. Explain why an American option is always worth at least as much as a European option on the same asset with the same strike price and exercise date.
10.11. Explain why an American option is always worth at least as much as its intrinsic value.
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Mechanics of Options Markets 245
10.12. The treasurer of a corporation is trying to choose between options and forward contracts
to hedge the corporationās foreign exchange risk. Discuss the advantages and disadvan-tages of each.
10.13. Consider an exchange-traded call option contract to buy 500 shares with a strike price of $40 and maturity in 4 months. Explain how the terms of the option contract change
when there is: (a) a 10% stock dividend; (b) a 10% cash dividend; and (c) a 4-for-1 stock split.
10.14. āIf most of the call options on a stock are in the money, it is likely that the stock price has risen rapidly in the last few months. ā Discuss this statement.
10.15. What is the effect of an unexpected cash dividend on (a) a call option price and (b) a put option price?
10.16. Options on a stock are on a March, June, September, and December cycle. What options trade on (a) March 1, (b) June 30, and (c) August 5?
10.17. Explain why the market makerās bidāask spread represents a real cost to options
investors.
10.18. A U.S. investor writes five naked call option contracts. The option price is $3.50, the
strike price is $60.00, and the stock price is $57.00. What is the initial margin
requirement?
10.19. Calculate the intrinsic value and time value from the mid market (average of bid and
ask) prices for the September call options in Table 1. 2. Do the same for the September
put options in Table 1. 3. Assume in each case that the current mid market stock price is
$316.00.
10.20. A trader writes 5 naked put option contracts with each contract being on 100 shares. The
option price is $10, the time to maturity is 6 months, and the strike price is $64.
(a) What is the margin requirement if the stock price is $58?
(b) How would the answer to (a) change if the rules for index options applied?
(c) How would the answer to (a) change if the stock price were $70?
(d) How would the answer to (a) change if the trader is buying instead of selling the
options?
10.21. āIf a company does not do better than its competitors but the stock market goes up, executives do very well from their stock options. This makes no sense. ā Discuss this
viewpoint. Can you think of alternatives to the usual employee stock option plan that take the viewpoint into account.
10.22. On July 20, 2004, Microsoft surprised the market by announcing a $3 dividend. The ex- dividend date was November 17, 2004, and the payment date was December 2, 2004. Its stock price at the time was about $28. It also changed the terms of its employee stock options so that each exercise price was adjusted downward to
Mechanics and Properties of Options
- The text outlines various technical exercises regarding how corporate actions like stock splits and dividends necessitate adjustments to option contract terms.
- It introduces the concept of putācall parity as a fundamental relationship between European call and put prices and the underlying stock price.
- The material explores the financial implications of margin requirements for naked option writers and the impact of bid-ask spreads on investor costs.
- A critical distinction is made regarding exercise timing, noting that it is never optimal to exercise an American call on a non-dividend-paying stock early.
- The text questions the fairness of executive stock options in rising markets, suggesting that performance should perhaps be measured against competitors.
It shows that it is never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock prior to the optionās expiration, but that under some circumstances the early exercise of an American put option on such a stock is optimal.
10.12. The treasurer of a corporation is trying to choose between options and forward contracts
to hedge the corporationās foreign exchange risk. Discuss the advantages and disadvan-tages of each.
10.13. Consider an exchange-traded call option contract to buy 500 shares with a strike price of $40 and maturity in 4 months. Explain how the terms of the option contract change
when there is: (a) a 10% stock dividend; (b) a 10% cash dividend; and (c) a 4-for-1 stock split.
10.14. āIf most of the call options on a stock are in the money, it is likely that the stock price has risen rapidly in the last few months. ā Discuss this statement.
10.15. What is the effect of an unexpected cash dividend on (a) a call option price and (b) a put option price?
10.16. Options on a stock are on a March, June, September, and December cycle. What options trade on (a) March 1, (b) June 30, and (c) August 5?
10.17. Explain why the market makerās bidāask spread represents a real cost to options
investors.
10.18. A U.S. investor writes five naked call option contracts. The option price is $3.50, the
strike price is $60.00, and the stock price is $57.00. What is the initial margin
requirement?
10.19. Calculate the intrinsic value and time value from the mid market (average of bid and
ask) prices for the September call options in Table 1. 2. Do the same for the September
put options in Table 1. 3. Assume in each case that the current mid market stock price is
$316.00.
10.20. A trader writes 5 naked put option contracts with each contract being on 100 shares. The
option price is $10, the time to maturity is 6 months, and the strike price is $64.
(a) What is the margin requirement if the stock price is $58?
(b) How would the answer to (a) change if the rules for index options applied?
(c) How would the answer to (a) change if the stock price were $70?
(d) How would the answer to (a) change if the trader is buying instead of selling the
options?
10.21. āIf a company does not do better than its competitors but the stock market goes up, executives do very well from their stock options. This makes no sense. ā Discuss this
viewpoint. Can you think of alternatives to the usual employee stock option plan that take the viewpoint into account.
10.22. On July 20, 2004, Microsoft surprised the market by announcing a $3 dividend. The ex- dividend date was November 17, 2004, and the payment date was December 2, 2004. Its stock price at the time was about $28. It also changed the terms of its employee stock options so that each exercise price was adjusted downward to
Predividend exercise price*Closing price-$3.00
Closing price
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246 CHAPTER 10
The number of shares covered by each stock option outstanding was adjusted upward to
Number of shares predividend*Closing price
Closing price-$3.00
āClosing Priceā means the official NASDAQ closing price of a share of Microsoft common
stock on the last trading day before the ex-dividend date. Evaluate this adjustment.
M10_HULL0654_11_GE_C10.indd 246 30/04/2021 16:50
247
Properties of
Stock Options11 CHAPTER
In this chapter, we look at the factors affecting stock option prices. We use a number
of different arbitrage arguments to explore the relationships between European option prices, American option prices, and the underlying stock price. The most important of these relationships is putācall parity, which is a relationship between the price of a European call option, the price of a European put option, and the underlying stock price.
The chapter examines whether American options should be exercised early. It shows
that it is never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock prior to the optionās expiration, but that under some circumstances the early
exercise of an American put option on such a stock is optimal. When there are
dividends, it can be optimal to exercise either calls or puts early.
Dynamics of Stock Option Pricing
- The value of stock options is determined by six primary factors: current stock price, strike price, time to expiration, volatility, risk-free interest rates, and dividends.
- Put-call parity establishes a fundamental arbitrage-based relationship between European call and put options and their underlying stock prices.
- It is mathematically never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock before its expiration date.
- While longer expiration times generally increase an option's value, European options can lose value over time if a large dividend is expected to drop the stock price.
- Volatility and risk-free interest rates have divergent effects, where increased volatility benefits all option types while higher rates specifically favor call options.
It shows that it is never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock prior to the optionās expiration.
In this chapter, we look at the factors affecting stock option prices. We use a number
of different arbitrage arguments to explore the relationships between European option prices, American option prices, and the underlying stock price. The most important of these relationships is putācall parity, which is a relationship between the price of a European call option, the price of a European put option, and the underlying stock price.
The chapter examines whether American options should be exercised early. It shows
that it is never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock prior to the optionās expiration, but that under some circumstances the early
exercise of an American put option on such a stock is optimal. When there are
dividends, it can be optimal to exercise either calls or puts early.
11.1 FACTORS AFFECTING OPTION PRICES
There are six factors affecting the price of a stock option:
1. The current stock price, S0
2. The strike price, K
3. The time to expiration, T
4. The volatility of the stock price, s
5. The risk-free interest rate, r
6. The dividends that are expected to be paid.
In this section, we consider what happens to option prices when there is a change to one
of these factors, with all the other factors remaining fixed. The results are summarized in Table 11.1.
Figures 11.1 and 11.2 show how European call and put prices depend on the first
five factors in the situation where
S0=50, K=50, r=5, per annum, s=30, per
annum, T=1 year, and there are no dividends. In this case the call price is 7.116
and the put price is 4.677.
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248 CHAPTER 11
Variable European
callEuropean
putAmerican
callAmerican
put
Current stock price + - + -
Strike price - + - +
Time to expiration ? ? + +
Volatility + + + +
Risk-free rate + - + -
Amount of future dividends - + - +
+ indicates that an increase in the variable causes the option price to increase or stay the same;
- indicates that an increase in the variable causes the option price to decrease or stay the same;? indicates that the relationship is uncertain.Table 11.1 Summary of the effect on the price of a stock option of
increasing one variable while keeping all others fixed.
Stock Price and Strike Price
If a call option is exercised at some future time, the payoff will be the amount by which
the stock price exceeds the strike price. Call options therefore become more valuable as the stock price increases and less valuable as the strike price increases. For a put option, the payoff on exercise is the amount by which the strike price exceeds the stock price. Put options therefore behave in the opposite way from call options: they become less valuable as the stock price increases and more valuable as the strike price increases. Figure 11.1aād illustrate the way in which put and call prices depend on the stock price
and strike price.
Time to Expiration
Now consider the effect of the expiration date. Both put and call American options become more valuable (or at least do not decrease in value) as the time to expiration increases. Consider two American options that differ only as far as the expiration date is concerned. The owner of the long-life option has all the exercise opportunities open to
the owner of the short-life optionāand more. The long-life option must therefore always be worth at least as much as the short-life option.
Although European put and call options usually become more valuable as the time
to expiration increases (see Figure 11.1e, f), this is not always the case. Consider two European call options on a stock: one with an expiration date in 1 month, the other with an expiration date in 2 months. Suppose that a very large dividend is expected in 6 weeks. The dividend will cause the stock price to decline, so that the short-life option could be worth more than the long-life option.
1 As we explain later in the chapter, it
Variables Influencing Option Pricing
- American options generally increase in value with longer expiration dates because the holder retains all the rights of a short-life option plus additional time.
- European options do not always follow this rule, as large expected dividends can cause a short-term call to be more valuable than a long-term one.
- Increased volatility raises the value of both puts and calls because it increases the potential for large gains while the downside risk remains limited to the option's cost.
- Rising risk-free interest rates typically lead to an increase in call option values and a decrease in put option values.
- The impact of interest rates is complex because they simultaneously increase required stock returns and decrease the present value of future cash flows.
The owner of a call benefits from price increases but has limited downside risk in the event of price decreases because the most the owner can lose is the price of the option.
Now consider the effect of the expiration date. Both put and call American options become more valuable (or at least do not decrease in value) as the time to expiration increases. Consider two American options that differ only as far as the expiration date is concerned. The owner of the long-life option has all the exercise opportunities open to
the owner of the short-life optionāand more. The long-life option must therefore always be worth at least as much as the short-life option.
Although European put and call options usually become more valuable as the time
to expiration increases (see Figure 11.1e, f), this is not always the case. Consider two European call options on a stock: one with an expiration date in 1 month, the other with an expiration date in 2 months. Suppose that a very large dividend is expected in 6 weeks. The dividend will cause the stock price to decline, so that the short-life option could be worth more than the long-life option.
1 As we explain later in the chapter, it
can be optimal to exercise a deep-in-the-money American put option early. This means that there are some situations where a short-maturity European put option is more valuable than a similar long-maturity European put option.
1 We assume that, when the life of the option is changed, the dividends on the stock and their timing remain
unchanged.
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Properties of Stock Options 249
Volatility
The precise way in which volatility is defined is explained in Chapter 15. Roughly
speaking, the volatility of a stock price is a measure of how uncertain we are about
future stock price movements. As volatility increases, the chance that the stock will do very well or very poorly increases. For the owner of a stock, these two outcomes tend to offset each other. However, this is not so for the owner of a call or put. The owner of a
Figure 11.1 Effect of changes in stock price, strike price, and expiration date on
option prices when S0=50, K=50, r=5,, s=30,, and T=1.
Call option
price, c
001020304050
20 40 60
(a)80Stock
price, S0
100Put option
price, p
001020304050
20 40 60
(b)80Stock
price, S0
100
Call option
price, c
001020304050
20 40 60
(c)80Strike
price, K
100Put optionprice, p
001020304050
20 40 60
(d)80Strike
price, K
100
Call option
price, c
0.00246810
0.4 0.8 1.2
(e)1.6Time to
expiration, TPut option
price, p
0.00246810
0.4 0.8 1.2
(f)1.6Time to
expiration, T
M11_HULL0654_11_GE_C11.indd 249 12/05/2021 17:28
250 CHAPTER 11
call benefits from price increases but has limited downside risk in the event of price
decreases because the most the owner can lose is the price of the option. Similarly, the owner of a put benefits from price decreases, but has limited downside risk in the event of price increases. The values of both calls and puts therefore increase as volatility increases (see Figure 11.2a, b).
Risk-Free Interest Rate
The risk-free interest rate affects the price of an option in a less clear-cut way. As interest rates in the economy increase, the expected return required by investors from
the stock tends to increase. In addition, the present value of any future cash flow received by the holder of the option decreases. The combined impact of these two effects is to increase the value of call options and decrease the value of put options (see Figure 11.2c, d).
It is important to emphasize that we are assuming that interest rates change while all
other variables stay the same. In particular we are assuming in Table 11.1 that interest rates change while the stock price remains the same. In practice, when interest rates rise Figure 11.2 Effect of changes in volatility and risk-free interest rate on option prices
when S0=50, K=50, r=5,, s=30,, and T=1.
Call option
price, c
003691215
10 20 30
(a)40Volatility,
s (%)
50Put option
price, p
003691215
10 20 30
(b)40Volatility,
s (%)
50
Call option
price, c
00246810
246
Option Pricing and Market Assumptions
- The risk-free interest rate has a dual effect on options, generally increasing call values and decreasing put values when all other variables remain constant.
- In real-world scenarios, the inverse relationship between interest rates and stock prices can counteract the theoretical impact of rate changes on option pricing.
- Dividends negatively affect call options and positively affect put options because they reduce the stock price on the ex-dividend date.
- The analysis assumes a frictionless market where large participants can trade without transaction costs and exploit arbitrage opportunities until they disappear.
- Standardized notation is established for variables such as strike price, time to expiration, and the continuously compounded risk-free rate.
In practice, when interest rates rise (fall), stock prices tend to fall (rise).
The risk-free interest rate affects the price of an option in a less clear-cut way. As interest rates in the economy increase, the expected return required by investors from
the stock tends to increase. In addition, the present value of any future cash flow received by the holder of the option decreases. The combined impact of these two effects is to increase the value of call options and decrease the value of put options (see Figure 11.2c, d).
It is important to emphasize that we are assuming that interest rates change while all
other variables stay the same. In particular we are assuming in Table 11.1 that interest rates change while the stock price remains the same. In practice, when interest rates rise Figure 11.2 Effect of changes in volatility and risk-free interest rate on option prices
when S0=50, K=50, r=5,, s=30,, and T=1.
Call option
price, c
003691215
10 20 30
(a)40Volatility,
s (%)
50Put option
price, p
003691215
10 20 30
(b)40Volatility,
s (%)
50
Call option
price, c
00246810
246
(c) (d)8Risk-free
rate, r (%)Put option
price, p
00246810
246 8Risk-free
rate, r (%)
M11_HULL0654_11_GE_C11.indd 250 12/05/2021 17:28
Properties of Stock Options 251
(fall), stock prices tend to fall (rise). The combined effect of an interest rate increase and
the accompanying stock price decrease can be to decrease the value of a call option and increase the value of a put option. Similarly, the combined effect of an interest rate decrease and the accompanying stock price increase can be to increase the value of a call option and decrease the value of a put option.
Amount of Future Dividends
Dividends have the effect of reducing the stock price on the ex-dividend date. This is
bad news for the value of call options and good news for the value of put options. Consider a dividend whose ex-dividend date is during the life of an option. The value of
the option is negatively related to the size of the dividend if the option is a call and positively related to the size of the dividend if the option is a put.
11.2 ASSUMPTIONS AND NOTATION
In this chapter, we will make assumptions similar to those made when deriving forward and futures prices in Chapter 5. We assume that there are some market participants, such as large investment banks, for which the following statements are true:
1. There are no transaction costs.
2. All trading profits (net of trading losses) are subject to the same tax rate.
3. Borrowing and lending are possible at the risk-free interest rate.
We assume that these market participants are prepared to take advantage of arbitrage
opportunities as they arise. As discussed in Chapters 1 and 5, this means that any available arbitrage opportunities disappear very quickly. For the purposes of our
analysis, it is therefore reasonable to assume that there are no arbitrage opportunities.
We will use the following notation:
S0: Current stock price
K: Strike price of option
T : Time to expiration of option
ST : Stock price on the expiration date
r: Continuously compounded risk-free rate of interest for an investment maturing
in time T
C: Value of American call option to buy one share
P: Value of American put option to sell one share
c: Value of European call option to buy one share
p: Value of European put option to sell one share
It should be noted that r is the nominal risk-free rate of interest, not the real risk-free
rate of interest.2 The proxies used by the market for the risk-free rate of interest were
discussed in Chapter 4. A simple arbitrage argument suggests that r70 and this is the
2 The real rate of interest is the rate of interest earned after adjustment for the effects of inflation. For
example, if the nominal rate of interest is 3% and inflation is 2%, the real rate of interest is approximately 1%.
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252 CHAPTER 11
Option Price Bounds and Arbitrage
- The risk-free interest rate used in option pricing is typically nominal rather than real, though negative rates in certain currencies present unique challenges to standard assumptions.
- Upper bounds for option prices are established by the underlying asset; a call option can never be worth more than the stock itself.
- For put options, the upper bound is the strike price for American versions and the present value of the strike price for European versions.
- A lower bound for European call options on non-dividend-paying stocks is determined by the difference between the current stock price and the discounted strike price.
- If an option price falls outside these theoretical bounds, arbitrageurs can secure riskless profits by simultaneously trading the option and the underlying stock.
If an option price is above the upper bound or below the lower bound, then there are profitable opportunities for arbitrageurs.
It should be noted that r is the nominal risk-free rate of interest, not the real risk-free
rate of interest.2 The proxies used by the market for the risk-free rate of interest were
discussed in Chapter 4. A simple arbitrage argument suggests that r70 and this is the
2 The real rate of interest is the rate of interest earned after adjustment for the effects of inflation. For
example, if the nominal rate of interest is 3% and inflation is 2%, the real rate of interest is approximately 1%.
M11_HULL0654_11_GE_C11.indd 251 12/05/2021 17:28
252 CHAPTER 11
assumption we make in deriving results in this chapter.3 However, during some periods
the monetary policies of governments have led to interest rates being negative in some
currencies such as the euro, Swiss franc, and Japanese yen. Problem 11.21 considers the impact of negative interest rates on the results in this chapter.
3 If r is not greater than zero, there is no advantage to investing spare funds over keeping the funds as
(uninvested) cash. To put this another way, why would anyone buy a bond providing a zero or negative yield?11.3 UPPER AND LOWER BOUNDS FOR OPTION PRICES
In this section, we derive upper and lower bounds for option prices. These bounds do
not depend on any particular assumptions about the factors mentioned in Section 11.1 (except
r70). If an option price is above the upper bound or below the lower bound,
then there are profitable opportunities for arbitrageurs.
Upper Bounds
An American or European call option gives the holder the right to buy one share of a stock for a certain price. No matter what happens, the option can never be worth more than the stock. Hence, the stock price is an upper bound to the option price:
cā¦S0 and Cā¦S0 (11.1)
If these relationships were not true, an arbitrageur could easily make a riskless profit by
buying the stock and selling the call option.
An American put option gives the holder the right to sell one share of a stock for K .
No matter how low the stock price becomes, the option can never be worth more than K. Hence,
Pā¦K (11.2)
For European options, we know that at maturity the option cannot be worth more than K. It follows that it cannot be worth more than the present value of K today:
pā¦Ke-rT (11.3)
If this were not true, an arbitrageur could make a riskless profit by writing the option and investing the proceeds of the sale at the risk-free interest rate.
Lower Bound for Calls on Non-Dividend-Paying Stocks
A lower bound for the price of a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock is
S0-Ke-rT
We first look at a numerical example and then consider a more formal argument.
Suppose that S0=+20, K=+18, r=10, per annum, and T=1 year. In this case,
S0-Ke-rT=20-18e-0.1=3.71
or $3.71. Consider the situation where the European call price is $3.00, which is less than the theoretical minimum of $3.71. An arbitrageur can short the stock and buy the
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Properties of Stock Options 253
call to provide a cash inflow of +20.00-+3.00=+17.00. If invested for 1 year at 10%
per annum, the $17.00 grows to 17e0.1*1=+18.79. At the end of the year, the option
expires. If the stock price is greater than $18.00, the arbitrageur exercises the option
paying $18.00 for the stock and uses the stock to close out the short position. This leads to a profit of
+18.79-+18.00=+0.79
If the stock price is less than $18.00, the stock is bought in the market and the short position is closed out. The arbitrageur then makes an even greater profit. For example, if the stock price is $17.00, the arbitrageurās profit is
+18.79-+17.00=+1.79
For a more formal argument, we consider the following two portfolios:
Portfolio A: one European call option plus a zero-coupon bond that provides a payoff of K at time T
Portfolio B: one share of the stock.
In portfolio A, the zero-coupon bond will be worth K at time T. If
ST7K, the call
Lower Bounds for Option Prices
- The text establishes the theoretical minimum values for European call and put options on non-dividend-paying stocks.
- Arbitrageurs can exploit pricing discrepancies if an option's market price falls below its calculated lower bound.
- A call option's value must be at least the current stock price minus the present value of the strike price.
- A put option's value must be at least the present value of the strike price minus the current stock price.
- Formal proofs utilize portfolio comparisons to show that certain combinations of assets must maintain specific value relationships to prevent risk-free profit.
An arbitrageur can borrow $38.00 for 6 months to buy both the put and the stock.
If the stock price is less than $18.00, the stock is bought in the market and the short position is closed out. The arbitrageur then makes an even greater profit. For example, if the stock price is $17.00, the arbitrageurās profit is
+18.79-+17.00=+1.79
For a more formal argument, we consider the following two portfolios:
Portfolio A: one European call option plus a zero-coupon bond that provides a payoff of K at time T
Portfolio B: one share of the stock.
In portfolio A, the zero-coupon bond will be worth K at time T. If
ST7K, the call
option is exercised at maturity and portfolio A is worth ST. If ST6K, the call option
expires worthless and the portfolio is worth K. Hence, at time T, portfolio A is worth
max1ST, K2
Portfolio B is worth ST at time T. Hence, portfolio A is always worth as much as, and
can be worth more than, portfolio B at the optionās maturity. It follows that in the absence of arbitrage opportunities this must also be true today. The zero-coupon bond is worth
Ke-rT today. Hence,
c+Ke-rTĆS0
or
cĆS0-Ke-rT
Because the worst that can happen to a call option is that it expires worthless, its value cannot be negative. This means that
cĆ0, so that
cĆmax1S0-Ke-rT, 02 (11.4)
Example 11.1
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $51, the strike price is $50, the time to maturity is 6 months, and the risk-free
interest rate is 12% per annum. In this case,
S0=51, K=50, T=0.5, and r=0.12.
From equation (11.4), a lower bound for the option price is S0-Ke-rT, or
51-50e-0.12*0.5=+3.91
Lower Bound for European Puts on Non-Dividend-Paying Stocks
For a European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock, a lower bound for the price is
Ke-rT-S0
Again, we first consider a numerical example and then look at a more formal argument.
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254 CHAPTER 11
Suppose that S0=+37, K=+40, r=5, per annum, and T=0.5 years. In this case,
Ke-rT-S0=40e-0.05*0.5-37=+2.01
Consider the situation where the European put price is $1.00, which is less than the
theoretical minimum of $2.01. An arbitrageur can borrow $38.00 for 6 months to buy
both the put and the stock. At the end of the 6 months, the arbitrageur will be required to repay
38e0.05*0.5=+38.96. If the stock price is below $40.00, the arbitrageur exercises
the option to sell the stock for $40.00, repays the loan, and makes a profit of
+40.00-+38.96=+1.04
If the stock price is greater than $40.00, the arbitrageur discards the option, sells the stock, and repays the loan for an even greater profit. For example, if the stock price is $42.00, the arbitrageurās profit is
+42.00-+38.96=+3.04
For a more formal argument, we consider the following two portfolios:
Portfolio C : one European put option plus one share
Portfolio D : a zero-coupon bond paying off K at time T.
If ST6K, then the option in portfolio C is exercised at option maturity and the
portfolio becomes worth K. If ST7K, then the put option expires worthless and the
portfolio is worth ST at this time. Hence, portfolio C is worth
max1ST, K2
at time T. Portfolio D is worth K at time T . Hence, portfolio C is always worth as much
as, and can sometimes be worth more than, portfolio D at time T . It follows that in the
absence of arbitrage opportunities portfolio C must be worth at least as much as portfolio D today. Hence,
p+S0ĆKe-rT
or
pĆKe-rT-S0
Because the worst that can happen to a put option is that it expires worthless, its value
cannot be negative. This means that
pĆmax1Ke-rT-S0, 02 (11.5)
Example 11.2
Consider a European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock
price is $38, the strike price is $40, the time to maturity is 3 months, and the
risk-free rate of interest is 10% per annum. In this case S0 = 38, K = 40,
T = 0.25, and r=0.10. From equation (11.5), a lower bound for the option
price is Ke-rT-S0, or 40e-0.1*0.25-38=+1.01.
Understanding Put-Call Parity
- The value of a European put option is bounded by a minimum value to ensure it never expires with a negative worth.
- Put-call parity establishes a fundamental relationship between the prices of European call and put options with identical strike prices and maturities.
- Two distinct portfoliosāone combining a call and a bond, the other a put and a shareāare shown to yield identical payoffs regardless of the final stock price.
- If the parity relationship is violated, arbitrageurs can secure risk-free profits by buying the undervalued portfolio and shorting the overvalued one.
- The mathematical expression for this equilibrium is defined as the call price plus the present value of the strike price equaling the put price plus the current stock price.
Because the portfolios are guaranteed to cancel each other out at time T, this trading strategy would lock in an arbitrage profit equal to the difference in the values of the two portfolios.
Because the worst that can happen to a put option is that it expires worthless, its value
cannot be negative. This means that
pĆmax1Ke-rT-S0, 02 (11.5)
Example 11.2
Consider a European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock
price is $38, the strike price is $40, the time to maturity is 3 months, and the
risk-free rate of interest is 10% per annum. In this case S0 = 38, K = 40,
T = 0.25, and r=0.10. From equation (11.5), a lower bound for the option
price is Ke-rT-S0, or 40e-0.1*0.25-38=+1.01.
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Properties of Stock Options 255
We now derive an important relationship between the prices of European put and call
options that have the same strike price and time to maturity. Consider the following two portfolios that were used in the previous section:
Portfolio A: one European call option plus a zero-coupon bond that provides a payoff of K at time T
Portfolio C : one European put option plus one share of the stock.
We continue to assume that the stock pays no dividends. The call and put options have the same strike price K and the same time to maturity T.
As discussed in the previous section, the zero-coupon bond in portfolio A will be
worth K at time T . If the stock price
ST at time T proves to be above K, then the call
option in portfolio A will be exercised. This means that portfolio A is worth
1ST-K2+K=ST at time T in these circumstances. If ST proves to be less than K,
then the call option in portfolio A will expire worthless and the portfolio will be
worth K at time T.
In portfolio C, the share will be worth ST at time T. If ST proves to be below K, then
the put option in portfolio C will be exercised. This means that portfolio C is worth
1K-ST2+ST=K at time T in these circumstances. If ST proves to be greater than K ,
then the put option in portfolio C will expire worthless and the portfolio will be worth
ST at time T.
The situation is summarized in Table 11.2. If ST7K, both portfolios are worth ST at
time T; if ST6K, both portfolios are worth K at time T . In other words, both are worth
max1ST, K2
when the options expire at time T . Because they are European, the options cannot be
exercised prior to time T . Since the portfolios have identical values at time T , they must
have identical values today. If this were not the case, an arbitrageur could buy the less
expensive portfolio and sell the more expensive one. Because the portfolios are guaranteed to cancel each other out at time T , this trading strategy would lock in an
arbitrage profit equal to the difference in the values of the two portfolios.
The components of portfolio A are worth c and
Ke-rT today, and the components of
ST7K ST6K
Portfolio A Call option ST-K 0
Zero-coupon bond K K
Total ST K
Portfolio C Put Option 0 K-ST
Share ST ST
Total ST KTable 11.2 Portfolios illustrating putācall parity.11.4 PUTāCALL PARITY
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256 CHAPTER 11
portfolio C are worth p and S0 today. Hence,
c+Ke-rT=p+S0 (11.6)
This relationship is known as putācall parity. It shows that the value of a European call
with a certain exercise price and exercise date can be deduced from the value of a
European put with the same exercise price and exercise date, and vice versa.
To illustrate the arbitrage opportunities when equation (11.6) does not hold, suppose
that the stock price is $31, the exercise price is $30, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per
annum, the price of a three-month European call option is $3, and the price of a
3-month European put option is $2.25. In this case,
c+Ke-rT=3+30e-0.1*3>12=+32.26
p+S0=2.25+31=+33.25
Portfolio C is overpriced relative to portfolio A. An arbitrageur can buy the securities
in portfolio A and short the securities in portfolio C. The strategy involves buying the call and shorting both the put and the stock, generating a positive cash flow of
-3+2.25+31=+30.25
Arbitrage and Put-Call Parity
- The text demonstrates how deviations from put-call parity create risk-free arbitrage opportunities by comparing the costs of synthetic and actual portfolios.
- Arbitrageurs can exploit mispriced European options by simultaneously buying undervalued securities and shorting overvalued ones to lock in a guaranteed profit.
- While put-call parity is strictly for European options, specific upper and lower price bounds can be mathematically derived for American options on non-dividend-paying stocks.
- The examples show that regardless of whether the stock price ends above or below the strike price, the arbitrage strategy results in a positive net cash flow.
- Financial formulas are used to calculate the future value of initial investments at the risk-free interest rate to determine the exact magnitude of the arbitrage profit.
In either case, the arbitrageur ends up buying one share for $30. This share can be used to close out the short position.
that the stock price is $31, the exercise price is $30, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per
annum, the price of a three-month European call option is $3, and the price of a
3-month European put option is $2.25. In this case,
c+Ke-rT=3+30e-0.1*3>12=+32.26
p+S0=2.25+31=+33.25
Portfolio C is overpriced relative to portfolio A. An arbitrageur can buy the securities
in portfolio A and short the securities in portfolio C. The strategy involves buying the call and shorting both the put and the stock, generating a positive cash flow of
-3+2.25+31=+30.25
up front. When invested at the risk-free interest rate, this amount grows to
30.25e0.1*0.25=+31.02
in three months. If the stock price at expiration of the option is greater than $30, the call will be exercised. If it is less than $30, the put will be exercised. In either case, the arbitrageur ends up buying one share for $30. This share can be used to close out the short position. The net profit is therefore
+31.02-+30.00=+1.02
For an alternative situation, suppose that the call price is $3 and the put price is $1.
In this case,
c+Ke-rT=3+30e-0.1*3>12=+32.26
p+S0=1+31=+32.00
Portfolio A is overpriced relative to portfolio C. An arbitrageur can short the securities in portfolio A and buy the securities in portfolio C to lock in a profit. The strategy involves shorting the call and buying both the put and the stock with an initial investment of
+31++1-+3=+29
When the investment is financed at the risk-free interest rate, a repayment of
29e0.1*0.25=+29.73 is required at the end of the three months. As in the previous case,
either the call or the put will be exercised. The short call and long put option position therefore leads to the stock being sold for $30.00. The net profit is therefore
+30.00-+29.73=+0.27
These examples are illustrated in Table 11.3. Business Snapshot 11.1 shows how options and putācall parity can help us understand the positions of the debt holders and equity holders in a company.
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Properties of Stock Options 257
American Options
Putācall parity holds only for European options. However, it is possible to derive some
results for American option prices. It can be shown (see Problem 11.17) that, when there are no dividends,
S0-Kā¦C-Pā¦S0-Ke-rT (11.7)
Example 11.3
An American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock with strike price $20.00
and maturity in 5 months is worth $1.50. Suppose that the current stock price is $19.00 and the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum. From equation (11.7), we
have
19-20ā¦C-Pā¦19-20e-0.1*5>12
or
1ĆP-CĆ0.18
showing that P-C lies between $0.18 and $1.00. With C at $1.50, P must lie
between $1.68 and $2.50. In other words, upper and lower bounds for the price of an American put with the same strike price and expiration date as the American call are $2.50 and $1.68.Three-month put price = $2.25 Three-month put price = $1
Action now: Action now:
Buy call for $3 Borrow $29 for 3 months
Short put to realize $2.25 Short call to realize $3
Short the stock to realize $31 Buy put for $1
Invest $30.25 for 3 months Buy the stock for $31
Action in 3 months if ST730: Action in 3 months if ST730:
Receive $31.02 from investment Call exercised: sell stock for $30
Exercise call to buy stock for $30 Use $29.73 to repay loan
Net profit=+1.02 Net profit=+0.27
Action in 3 months if ST630: Action in 3 months if ST630:
Receive $31.02 from investment Exercise put to sell stock for $30
Put exercised: buy stock for $30 Use $29.73 to repay loan
Net profit=+1.02 Net profit=+0.27Table 11.3 Arbitrage opportunities when putācall parity does not hold.
Stock price=+31; interest rate=10,; call price=+3. Both put and call
have strike price of $30 and three months to maturity.
11.5 CALLS ON A NON-DIVIDEND-PAYING STOCK
Option Theory and Capital Structure
- The text demonstrates that it is never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock before its expiration date.
- Delaying exercise allows the investor to earn interest on the strike price for a longer period while maintaining protection against a potential drop in stock price.
- Financial pioneers Black, Scholes, and Merton used option pricing to characterize the capital structure of a company as a set of claims on its assets.
- Equity can be viewed as a European call option on the company's assets, where the strike price is the value of the debt to be repaid.
- Corporate debt is valued as the present value of the principal minus a put option, representing the risk of bankruptcy if asset values fall below the debt obligation.
In this case the investor will not exercise in one month and will be glad that the decision to exercise early was not taken!
Exercise call to buy stock for $30 Use $29.73 to repay loan
Net profit=+1.02 Net profit=+0.27
Action in 3 months if ST630: Action in 3 months if ST630:
Receive $31.02 from investment Exercise put to sell stock for $30
Put exercised: buy stock for $30 Use $29.73 to repay loan
Net profit=+1.02 Net profit=+0.27Table 11.3 Arbitrage opportunities when putācall parity does not hold.
Stock price=+31; interest rate=10,; call price=+3. Both put and call
have strike price of $30 and three months to maturity.
11.5 CALLS ON A NON-DIVIDEND-PAYING STOCK
In this section, we first show that it is never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock before the expiration date.
To illustrate the general nature of the argument, consider an American call option on
a non-dividend-paying stock with one month to expiration when the stock price is $70
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258 CHAPTER 11
and the strike price is $40. The option is deep in the money, and the investor who owns
the option might well be tempted to exercise it immediately. However, if the investor plans to hold the stock obtained by exercising the option for more than one month, this is not the best strategy. A better course of action is to keep the option and exercise it at
the end of the month. The $40 strike price is then paid out one month later than it
would be if the option were exercised immediately, so that interest is earned on the $40
for one month. Because the stock pays no dividends, no income from the stock is sacrificed. A further advantage of waiting rather than exercising immediately is that
there is some chance (however remote) that the stock price will fall below $40 in one month. In this case the investor will not exercise in one month and will be glad that the decision to exercise early was not taken!
This argument shows that there are no advantages to exercising early if the investor
plans to keep the stock for the remaining life of the option (one month, in this case). What if the investor thinks the stock is currently overpriced and is wondering whether Business Snapshot 11.1 PutāCall Parity and Capital Structure
Fischer Black, Myron Scholes, and Robert Merton were the pioneers of option pricing. In the early 1970s, they also showed that options can be used to characterize
the capital structure of a company. Today this analysis is widely used by financial institutions to assess a companyās credit risk.
To illustrate the analysis, consider a simple situation where a company has assets
that are financed with zero-coupon bonds and equity. The bonds mature in five years at which time a principal payment of K is required. The company pays no dividends. If the assets are worth more than K in five years, the equity holders choose to repay the bond holders. If the assets are worth less than K, the equity holders choose to declare bankruptcy and the bond holders end up owning the company.
The value of the equity in five years is therefore
max1AT-K, 02, where AT is the
value of the companyās assets at that time. This shows that the equity holders have a five-year European call option on the assets of the company with a strike price of K .
What about the bond holders? They get
min1AT, K2 in five years. This is the same as
K-max1K-AT, 02, so that today the bonds are worth the present value of K minus
the value of a five-year European put option on the assets with a strike price of K .
To summarize, if c and p are the values, respectively, of five-year call and put
options on the companyās assets with strike price K, then
Value of company>s equity=c
Value of company>s debt=PV1K2-p
Denote the value of the assets of the company today by A0. The value of the assets
must equal the total value of the instruments used to finance the assets. This means that it must equal the sum of the value of the equity and the value of the debt, so that
A0=c+3PV1K2-p4
Rearranging this equation, we have
Option Pricing and Early Exercise
- The value of a company's equity and debt can be modeled using put-call parity, where equity is a call option on the company's assets.
- It is mathematically demonstrated that it is never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock before its expiration date.
- Holding a call option provides insurance against stock price drops that is lost immediately upon exercise.
- The time value of money favors delaying the payment of the strike price for as long as possible, supporting the case for holding rather than exercising.
- Because early exercise is suboptimal for non-dividend stocks, American and European call options have identical values and share the same price bounds.
A call option, when held instead of the stock itself, in effect insures the holder against the stock price falling below the strike price.
K-max1K-AT, 02, so that today the bonds are worth the present value of K minus
the value of a five-year European put option on the assets with a strike price of K .
To summarize, if c and p are the values, respectively, of five-year call and put
options on the companyās assets with strike price K, then
Value of company>s equity=c
Value of company>s debt=PV1K2-p
Denote the value of the assets of the company today by A0. The value of the assets
must equal the total value of the instruments used to finance the assets. This means that it must equal the sum of the value of the equity and the value of the debt, so that
A0=c+3PV1K2-p4
Rearranging this equation, we have
c+PV1K2=p+A0
This is the putācall parity result in equation (11.6) for call and put options on the assets of the company.
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Properties of Stock Options 259
to exercise the option and sell the stock? In this case, the investor is better off selling the
option than exercising it.4 The option will be bought by another investor who does
want to hold the stock. Such investors must exist. Otherwise the current stock price
would not be $70. The price obtained for the option will be greater than its intrinsic value of $30, for the reasons mentioned earlier.
For a more formal argument, we can use equation (11.4):
cĆS0-Ke-rT
Because the owner of an American call has all the exercise opportunities open to the owner of the corresponding European call, we must have
CĆc. Hence,
CĆS0-Ke-rT
Given r 7 0, it follows that C 7 S0 - K when T 7 0. This means that C is always greater
than the optionās intrinsic value prior to maturity. If it were optimal to exercise at a particular time prior to maturity, C would equal the optionās intrinsic value at that
time. It follows that it can never be optimal to exercise early.
To summarize, there are two reasons an American call on a non-dividend-paying
stock should not be exercised early. One relates to the insurance that it provides. A call option, when held instead of the stock itself, in effect insures the holder against the stock price falling below the strike price. Once the option has been exercised and the strike price has been exchanged for the stock price, this insurance vanishes. The other reason concerns the time value of money. From the perspective of the option holder, the later the strike price is paid out the better.
Bounds
Because American call options are never exercised early when there are no dividends, they are equivalent to European call options, so that
C=c. From equations (11.1)
4 As an alternative strategy, the investor can keep the option and short the stock to lock in a better profit
than $30.Figure 11.3 Bounds for European and American call options when there are no
dividends.
S0
S0European or American call price
in this region
max(S0 ā KeārT, 0)Call price
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260 CHAPTER 11
and (11.4), it follows that lower and upper bounds for both c and C are given by
max1S0-Ke-rT, 02 and S0
respectively. These bounds are illustrated in Figure 11.3.
The general way in which the call price varies with the stock price, S0, is shown in
Figure 11.4. As r or T or the stock price volatility increases, the line relating the call
price to the stock price moves in the direction indicated by the arrows.Figure 11.4 Variation of price of an American or European call option on a non-
dividend-paying stock with the stock price. Curve moves in the direction of the arrows
when there is an increase in the interest rate, time to maturity, or stock price volatility.
Call option
price
Stock price, S0 KeārT
11.6 PUTS ON A NON-DIVIDEND-PAYING STOCK
Put Option Exercise Dynamics
- Call option prices generally increase alongside stock price, interest rates, time to maturity, and volatility.
- Unlike American call options on non-dividend stocks, it can be optimal to exercise American put options early if they are sufficiently deep in the money.
- The incentive to exercise a put early increases as the stock price decreases, interest rates rise, and volatility drops.
- European put options are bounded by the present value of the strike price, while American puts are bounded by the full strike price due to the possibility of immediate exercise.
- At extremely low stock prices, the immediate gain of the strike price is more valuable than waiting, because stock prices cannot fall below zero.
Suppose that the strike price is $10 and the stock price is virtually zero. By exercising immediately, an investor makes an immediate gain of $10.
respectively. These bounds are illustrated in Figure 11.3.
The general way in which the call price varies with the stock price, S0, is shown in
Figure 11.4. As r or T or the stock price volatility increases, the line relating the call
price to the stock price moves in the direction indicated by the arrows.Figure 11.4 Variation of price of an American or European call option on a non-
dividend-paying stock with the stock price. Curve moves in the direction of the arrows
when there is an increase in the interest rate, time to maturity, or stock price volatility.
Call option
price
Stock price, S0 KeārT
11.6 PUTS ON A NON-DIVIDEND-PAYING STOCK
It can be optimal to exercise an American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock early. Indeed, at any given time during its life, the put option should always be exercised early if it is sufficiently deep in the money.
To illustrate, consider an extreme situation. Suppose that the strike price is $10 and
the stock price is virtually zero. By exercising immediately, an investor makes an immediate gain of $10. If the investor waits, the gain from exercise might be less than
$10, but it cannot be more than $10, because negative stock prices are impossible. Furthermore, assuming the interest rate is positive, receiving $10 now is preferable to receiving $10 in the future. It follows that the option should be exercised immediately.
Like a call option, a put option can be viewed as providing insurance. A put option,
when held in conjunction with the stock, insures the holder against the stock price falling below a certain level. However, a put option is different from a call option in
that it may be optimal for an investor to forgo this insurance and exercise early in
order to realize the strike price immediately. In general, the early exercise of a put option becomes more attractive as
S0 decreases, as r increases, and as the volatility
decreases.
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Properties of Stock Options 261
Bounds
From equations (11.3) and (11.5), lower and upper bounds for a European put option
when there are no dividends are given by
max1Ke-rT-S0, 02ā¦pā¦Ke-rT
For an American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock, the condition
PĆmax1K-S0, 02
must apply because the option can be exercised at any time. This is a stronger condition than the one for a European put option in equation (11.5). Using the result
in equation (11.2), bounds for an American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock are
max1K-S0, 02ā¦Pā¦K
Figure 11.5 illustrates the bounds.
Figure 11.6 shows the general way in which the price of an American put option
varies with S0. As we argued earlier, provided that r70, it is always optimal to exercise
an American put immediately when the stock price is sufficiently low. When early exercise is optimal, the value of the option is
K-S0. The curve representing the value
American and European Put Bounds
- American put options are always worth more than their European counterparts because the right to exercise early adds significant value.
- When the stock price is sufficiently low, it becomes optimal to exercise an American put immediately, causing its price curve to merge with its intrinsic value.
- A European put option can actually be worth less than its intrinsic value because it cannot be exercised until the expiration date.
- The presence of dividends requires adjusting the lower bounds of both call and put options by accounting for the present value of the expected payouts.
- Option prices are sensitive to external factors, shifting upward when volatility or time to maturity increases, or when interest rates decrease.
Because an American put is sometimes worth its intrinsic value, it follows that a European put option must sometimes be worth less than its intrinsic value.
must apply because the option can be exercised at any time. This is a stronger condition than the one for a European put option in equation (11.5). Using the result
in equation (11.2), bounds for an American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock are
max1K-S0, 02ā¦Pā¦K
Figure 11.5 illustrates the bounds.
Figure 11.6 shows the general way in which the price of an American put option
varies with S0. As we argued earlier, provided that r70, it is always optimal to exercise
an American put immediately when the stock price is sufficiently low. When early exercise is optimal, the value of the option is
K-S0. The curve representing the value
of the put therefore merges into the putās intrinsic value, K-S0, for a sufficiently small
value of S0. In Figure 11.6, this value of S0 is shown as point A. The line relating the put
price to the stock price moves in the direction indicated by the arrows when r decreases,
when the volatility increases, and when T increases.
Because there are some circumstances when it is desirable to exercise an American
put option early, it follows that an American put option is always worth more than the
corresponding European put option. Furthermore, because an American put is some-times worth its intrinsic value (see Figure 11.6), it follows that a European put option
must sometimes be worth less than its intrinsic value. This means that the curve representing the relationship between the put price and the stock price for a European
option must be below the corresponding curve for an American option.
Figure 11.7 shows the variation of the European put price with the stock price. Note
that point B in Figure 11.7, at which the price of the option is equal to its intrinsic
Figure 11.5 Bounds for European and American put options when there are no
dividends.
max(Ke
ārT
ā S0, 0)max(K
ā S0, 0)KeārT
European put price
in this regionp
K
American put price
in this regionP
S0 S0
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262 CHAPTER 11
value, must represent a higher value of the stock price than point A in Figure 11.6
because the curve in Figure 11.7 is below that in Figure 11.6. Point E in Figure 11.7 is
where S0=0 and the European put price is Ke-rT.Figure 11.6 Variation of price of an American put option with stock price. Curve
moves in the direction of the arrows when the time to maturity or stock price volatility increases or when the interest rate decreases.
American
put price
Stock price, S0K A
11.7 EFFECT OF DIVIDENDS
The results produced so far in this chapter have assumed that we are dealing with options on a non-dividend-paying stock. In this section, we examine the impact of dividends. We assume that the dividends that will be paid during the life of the option
Figure 11.7 Variation of price of a European put option with the stock price.
European
put price
Stock price, S0 K BE
KeārT
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Properties of Stock Options 263
are known. In many situations, this assumption is often not too unreasonable. We will
use D to denote the present value of the dividends during the life of the option. In the
calculation of D, a dividend is assumed to occur at the time of its ex-dividend date.
Lower Bound for Calls and Puts
We can redefine portfolios A and B as follows:
Portfolio A: one European call option plus an amount of cash equal to D+Ke-rT
Portfolio B: one share
A similar argument to the one used to derive equation (11.4) shows that
cĆmax1S0-D-Ke-rT, 02 (11.8)
We can also redefine portfolios C and D as follows:
Portfolio C : one European put option plus one share
Portfolio D : an amount of cash equal to D+Ke-rT
A similar argument to the one used to derive equation (11.5) shows that
pĆmax1D+Ke-rT-S0, 02 (11.9)
Early Exercise
Option Pricing and Dividends
- The presence of dividends modifies the lower bounds for European call and put options by incorporating the present value of expected payouts.
- Put-call parity is adjusted for dividend-paying stocks to maintain the relationship between call prices, put prices, and the current stock price.
- Unlike non-dividend-paying stocks, it can be optimal to exercise an American call option early if it is done immediately prior to an ex-dividend date.
- Six primary factorsāstock price, strike price, time, volatility, interest rates, and dividendsācollectively determine the market value of an option.
- While exact pricing formulas require probabilistic assumptions, basic arbitrage arguments allow for the establishment of upper and lower price bounds.
Sometimes it is optimal to exercise an American call immediately prior to an ex-dividend date.
We can redefine portfolios A and B as follows:
Portfolio A: one European call option plus an amount of cash equal to D+Ke-rT
Portfolio B: one share
A similar argument to the one used to derive equation (11.4) shows that
cĆmax1S0-D-Ke-rT, 02 (11.8)
We can also redefine portfolios C and D as follows:
Portfolio C : one European put option plus one share
Portfolio D : an amount of cash equal to D+Ke-rT
A similar argument to the one used to derive equation (11.5) shows that
pĆmax1D+Ke-rT-S0, 02 (11.9)
Early Exercise
When dividends are expected, we can no longer assert that an American call option will
not be exercised early. Sometimes it is optimal to exercise an American call immediately prior to an ex-dividend date. It is never optimal to exercise a call at other times. This point is discussed further in Section 15.12.
PutāCall Parity
Comparing the value at option maturity of the redefined portfolios A and C shows that, with dividends, the putācall parity result in equation (11.6) becomes
c+D+Ke-rT=p+S0 (11.10)
Dividends cause equation (11.7) to be modified (see Problem 11.18) to
S0-D-Kā¦C-Pā¦S0-Ke-rT (11.11)
SUMMARY
There are six factors affecting the value of a stock option: the current stock price, the
strike price, the time to expiration, the stock price volatility, the risk-free interest rate, and the dividends expected during the life of the option. The value of a call usually increases as the current stock price, the time to expiration, the volatility, and the risk-free interest rate increase. The value of a call decreases as the strike price and expected dividends increase. The value of a put usually increases as the strike price, the time to
expiration, the volatility, and the expected dividends increase. The value of a put decreases as the current stock price and the risk-free interest rate increase.
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264 CHAPTER 11
It is possible to reach some conclusions about the value of stock options without
making any assumptions about the volatility of stock prices. For example, the price of a
call option on a stock must always be worth less than the price of the stock itself.
Similarly, the price of a put option on a stock must always be worth less than the
optionās strike price.
A European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock must be worth more than
max1S0-Ke-rT, 02
where S0 is the stock price, K is the strike price, r is the risk-free interest rate, and T is
the time to expiration. A European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock must be worth more than
max1Ke-rT-S0, 02
When dividends with present value D will be paid, the lower bound for a European call
option becomes
max1S0-D-Ke-rT, 02
and the lower bound for a European put option becomes
max1Ke-rT+D-S0, 02
Putācall parity is a relationship between the price, c, of a European call option on a stock and the price, p, of a European put option on a stock. For a non-dividend-paying stock, it is
c+Ke-rT=p+S0
For a dividend-paying stock, the putācall parity relationship is
c+D+Ke-rT=p+S0
Putācall parity does not hold for American options. However, it is possible to use arbitrage arguments to obtain upper and lower bounds for the difference between the
price of an American call and the price of an American put.
In Chapter 15, we will carry the analyses in this chapter further by making specific
assumptions about the probabilistic behavior of stock prices. The analysis will enable us to derive exact pricing formulas for European stock options. In Chapters 13 and 21, we will see how numerical procedures can be used to price American options.
FURTHER READING
Broadie, M., and J. Detemple. āAmerican Option Valuation: New Bounds, Approximations, and
American Option Pricing Bounds
- Standard put-call parity relationships do not hold for American options due to the possibility of early exercise.
- Arbitrage arguments can still be used to establish upper and lower bounds for the price difference between American calls and puts.
- Future chapters will introduce specific probabilistic assumptions to derive exact pricing formulas for European options.
- Numerical procedures are required to determine the precise value of American options where analytical formulas are unavailable.
- The text references foundational literature by Merton and Stoll regarding the historical development of option price relationships.
Putācall parity does not hold for American options.
Putācall parity does not hold for American options. However, it is possible to use arbitrage arguments to obtain upper and lower bounds for the difference between the
price of an American call and the price of an American put.
In Chapter 15, we will carry the analyses in this chapter further by making specific
assumptions about the probabilistic behavior of stock prices. The analysis will enable us to derive exact pricing formulas for European stock options. In Chapters 13 and 21, we will see how numerical procedures can be used to price American options.
FURTHER READING
Broadie, M., and J. Detemple. āAmerican Option Valuation: New Bounds, Approximations, and
a Comparison of Existing Methods,ā Review of Financial Studies, 9, 4 (1996): 1211ā50.
Merton, R. C. āOn the Pricing of Corporate Debt: The Risk Structure of Interest Rates,ā
Journal of Finance, 29, 2 (1974): 449ā70.
Merton, R. C. āThe Relationship between Put and Call Prices: Comment,ā Journal of Finance,
28 (March 1973): 183ā84.
Stoll, H. R. āThe Relationship between Put and Call Option Prices,ā Journal of Finance, 24
(December 1969): 801ā24.
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Properties of Stock Options 265
Practice Questions
Properties of Stock Options
- The text provides academic references to foundational financial theories regarding corporate debt pricing and put-call parity relationships.
- Practice questions explore the calculation of lower bounds for European call and put options based on stock price, strike price, and risk-free rates.
- The material examines the optimality of early exercise for American options, focusing on the influence of dividends and the time value of money.
- Arbitrage opportunities are analyzed through scenarios where option prices deviate from theoretical values established by put-call parity.
- The text highlights the trade-off between insurance value and interest income when deciding whether to exercise an American put option early.
āThe early exercise of an American put is a trade-off between the time value of money and the insurance value of a put.ā
a Comparison of Existing Methods,ā Review of Financial Studies, 9, 4 (1996): 1211ā50.
Merton, R. C. āOn the Pricing of Corporate Debt: The Risk Structure of Interest Rates,ā
Journal of Finance, 29, 2 (1974): 449ā70.
Merton, R. C. āThe Relationship between Put and Call Prices: Comment,ā Journal of Finance,
28 (March 1973): 183ā84.
Stoll, H. R. āThe Relationship between Put and Call Option Prices,ā Journal of Finance, 24
(December 1969): 801ā24.
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Properties of Stock Options 265
Practice Questions
11.1. What is a lower bound for the price of a 4-month call option on a non-dividend-paying
stock when the stock price is $28, the strike price is $25, and the risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum?
11.2. What is a lower bound for the price of a 1-month European put option on a non-
dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $12, the strike price is $15, and the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum?
11.3. Give two reasons why the early exercise of an American call option on a non- dividend-
paying stock is not optimal. The first reason should involve the time value of money. The second should apply even if interest rates are zero.
11.4. āThe early exercise of an American put is a trade-off between the time value of money and the insurance value of a put.ā Explain this statement.
11.5. Why is an American call option on a dividend-paying stock always worth at least as much as its intrinsic value. Is the same true of a European call option? Explain your answer.
11.6. The price of a non-dividend-paying stock is $19 and the price of a 3-month European call option on the stock with a strike price of $20 is $1. The risk-free rate is 4% per annum. What is the price of a 3-month European put option with a strike price of $20?
11.7 . Explain why the arguments leading to putācall parity for European options cannot be used to give a similar result for American options.
11.8. What is a lower bound for the price of a 6-month call option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $80, the strike price is $75, and the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum?
11.9. What is a lower bound for the price of a 2-month European put option on a non-
dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $58, the strike price is $65, and the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum?
11.10. A 4-month European call option on a dividend-paying stock is currently selling for $5.
The stock price is $64, the strike price is $60, and a dividend of $0.80 is expected in 1 month. The risk-free interest rate is 12% per annum for all maturities. What opportun-ities are there for an arbitrageur?
11.11. A 1-month European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock is currently selling
for $2.50. The stock price is $47, the strike price is $50, and the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum. What opportunities are there for an arbitrageur?
11.12. Give an intuitive explanation of why the early exercise of an American put becomes
more attractive as the risk-free rate increases and volatility decreases.
11.13. The price of a European call that expires in 6 months and has a strike price of $30 is $2.
The underlying stock price is $29, and a dividend of $0.50 is expected in 2 months and again in 5 months. Risk-free interest rates (all maturities) are 10%. What is the price of a European put option that expires in 6 months and has a strike price of $30?
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266 CHAPTER 11
Option Pricing and Arbitrage
- The text presents quantitative problems for calculating lower bounds on European call and put options using stock price, strike price, and risk-free rates.
- It explores the theoretical justifications for why early exercise of American call options on non-dividend-paying stocks is generally not optimal.
- The problems examine the relationship between American put options and the trade-off between the time value of money and insurance value.
- Several exercises focus on identifying arbitrage opportunities when market prices deviate from theoretical values established by put-call parity.
- The text distinguishes between the valuation constraints of European and American options, particularly regarding dividend payments and exercise flexibility.
The early exercise of an American put is a trade-off between the time value of money and the insurance value of a put.
11.1. What is a lower bound for the price of a 4-month call option on a non-dividend-paying
stock when the stock price is $28, the strike price is $25, and the risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum?
11.2. What is a lower bound for the price of a 1-month European put option on a non-
dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $12, the strike price is $15, and the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum?
11.3. Give two reasons why the early exercise of an American call option on a non- dividend-
paying stock is not optimal. The first reason should involve the time value of money. The second should apply even if interest rates are zero.
11.4. āThe early exercise of an American put is a trade-off between the time value of money and the insurance value of a put.ā Explain this statement.
11.5. Why is an American call option on a dividend-paying stock always worth at least as much as its intrinsic value. Is the same true of a European call option? Explain your answer.
11.6. The price of a non-dividend-paying stock is $19 and the price of a 3-month European call option on the stock with a strike price of $20 is $1. The risk-free rate is 4% per annum. What is the price of a 3-month European put option with a strike price of $20?
11.7 . Explain why the arguments leading to putācall parity for European options cannot be used to give a similar result for American options.
11.8. What is a lower bound for the price of a 6-month call option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $80, the strike price is $75, and the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum?
11.9. What is a lower bound for the price of a 2-month European put option on a non-
dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $58, the strike price is $65, and the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum?
11.10. A 4-month European call option on a dividend-paying stock is currently selling for $5.
The stock price is $64, the strike price is $60, and a dividend of $0.80 is expected in 1 month. The risk-free interest rate is 12% per annum for all maturities. What opportun-ities are there for an arbitrageur?
11.11. A 1-month European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock is currently selling
for $2.50. The stock price is $47, the strike price is $50, and the risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum. What opportunities are there for an arbitrageur?
11.12. Give an intuitive explanation of why the early exercise of an American put becomes
more attractive as the risk-free rate increases and volatility decreases.
11.13. The price of a European call that expires in 6 months and has a strike price of $30 is $2.
The underlying stock price is $29, and a dividend of $0.50 is expected in 2 months and again in 5 months. Risk-free interest rates (all maturities) are 10%. What is the price of a European put option that expires in 6 months and has a strike price of $30?
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266 CHAPTER 11
11.14. Explain the arbitrage opportunities in Problem 11.13 if the European put price is $3.
11.15. The price of an American call on a non-dividend-paying stock is $4. The stock price is
$31, the strike price is $30, and the expiration date is in 3 months. The risk-free interest rate is 8%. Derive upper and lower bounds for the price of an American put on the same stock with the same strike price and expiration date.
11.16. Explain carefully the arbitrage opportunities in Problem 11.15 if the American put price
is greater than the calculated upper bound.
11.17 . Prove the result in equation (11.7). (Hint: For the first part of the relationship, consider
(a) a portfolio consisting of a European call plus an amount of cash equal to K , and
(b) a portfolio consisting of an American put option plus one share.)
11.18. Prove the result in equation (11.11). (Hint: For the first part of the relationship,
consider (a) a portfolio consisting of a European call plus an amount of cash equal
to
Option Properties and Arbitrage
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on identifying arbitrage opportunities when option prices deviate from theoretical bounds.
- It explores the relationship between American and European options, specifically regarding early exercise decisions and price boundaries.
- The problems address the impact of market restrictions, such as the inability to sell employee stock options, on optimal exercise behavior.
- Theoretical scenarios like negative interest rates are analyzed to determine their effect on put-call parity and exercise strategies.
- Mathematical proofs are required to demonstrate the convexity of option prices in relation to their strike prices.
Unlike a regular exchange-traded call option, the employee stock option cannot be sold.
11.14. Explain the arbitrage opportunities in Problem 11.13 if the European put price is $3.
11.15. The price of an American call on a non-dividend-paying stock is $4. The stock price is
$31, the strike price is $30, and the expiration date is in 3 months. The risk-free interest rate is 8%. Derive upper and lower bounds for the price of an American put on the same stock with the same strike price and expiration date.
11.16. Explain carefully the arbitrage opportunities in Problem 11.15 if the American put price
is greater than the calculated upper bound.
11.17 . Prove the result in equation (11.7). (Hint: For the first part of the relationship, consider
(a) a portfolio consisting of a European call plus an amount of cash equal to K , and
(b) a portfolio consisting of an American put option plus one share.)
11.18. Prove the result in equation (11.11). (Hint: For the first part of the relationship,
consider (a) a portfolio consisting of a European call plus an amount of cash equal
to
D+K, and (b) a portfolio consisting of an American put option plus one share.)
11.19. Consider a 5-year call option on a non-dividend-paying stock granted to employees. The
option can be exercised at any time after the end of the first year. Unlike a regular
exchange-traded call option, the employee stock option cannot be sold. What is the likely impact of this restriction on the early-exercise decision?
11.20. Use the software DerivaGem to verify that Figures 11.1 and 11.2 are correct.
11.21. What is the impact (if any) of negative interest rates on:
(a) The putācall parity result for European options
(b) The result that American call options on non-dividend-paying stocks should never be
exercised early
(c) The result that American put options on non-dividend-paying stocks should some-times be exercised early.
Assume that holding cash earning zero interest is not possible.
11.22. Calls were traded on exchanges before puts. During the period of time when calls were
traded but puts were not traded, how would you create a European put option on a non-
dividend-paying stock synthetically.
11.23. The prices of European call and put options on a non-dividend-paying stock with an
expiration date in 12 months and a strike price of $120 are $20 and $5, respectively. The current stock price is $130. What is the implied risk-free rate?
11.24. A European call option and put option on a stock both have a strike price of $20 and an
expiration date in 3 months. Both sell for $3. The risk-free interest rate is 10% per
annum, the current stock price is $19, and a $1 dividend is expected in 1 month. Identify the arbitrage opportunity open to a trader.
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Properties of Stock Options 267
11.25. Suppose that c1, c2, and c3 are the prices of European call options with strike prices K 1,
K2, and K3, respectively, where K37K27K1 and K3-K2=K2-K1. All options have
the same maturity. Show that
c2ā¦0.51c1+c32
(Hint: Consider a portfolio that is long one option with strike price K1, long one option
with strike price K3, and short two options with strike price K2.)
11.26. What is the result corresponding to that in Problem 11.25 for European put options?
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268
Trading Strategies
Involving Options12CHAPTER
Trading Strategies and Principal Protection
- The text introduces complex option trading strategies involving combinations of options, zero-coupon bonds, and underlying assets.
- Traders select specific strategies based on their personal risk tolerance and their predictions regarding future market volatility and price direction.
- Principal-protected notes are highlighted as a conservative investment vehicle that guarantees the return of the initial investment while offering upside potential.
- The construction of these notes typically involves using the interest from a zero-coupon bond to fund the purchase of a call option on a risky asset.
- Advanced strategies like butterfly spreads, straddles, and strangles are categorized by their risk profiles and their utility in volatile or stable markets.
The answer is that the choices a trader makes depend on the traderās judgment about how prices will move and the traderās willingness to take risks.
11.25. Suppose that c1, c2, and c3 are the prices of European call options with strike prices K 1,
K2, and K3, respectively, where K37K27K1 and K3-K2=K2-K1. All options have
the same maturity. Show that
c2ā¦0.51c1+c32
(Hint: Consider a portfolio that is long one option with strike price K1, long one option
with strike price K3, and short two options with strike price K2.)
11.26. What is the result corresponding to that in Problem 11.25 for European put options?
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268
Trading Strategies
Involving Options12CHAPTER
We discussed the profit pattern from an investment in a single option in Chapter 10. In
this chapter we look at what can be achieved when an option is traded in conjunction with other assets. In particular, we examine the properties of portfolios consisting of (a) an option and a zero-coupon bond, (b) an option and the asset underlying the option, and (c) two or more options on the same asset.
A natural question is why a trader would want the profit patterns discussed here. The
answer is that the choices a trader makes depend on the traderās judgment about how prices will move and the traderās willingness to take risks. Principal-protected notes, discussed in Section 12.1 appeal to individuals who are risk-averse. They do not want to
risk losing their principal, but have an opinion about whether a particular asset will increase or decrease in value and are prepared to let the return they earn on this principal depend on whether they are right. If a trader is willing to take rather more risk
than this, he or she could choose a bull or bear spread, discussed in Section 12.3. Yet more risk would be taken with a straightforward long position in a call or put option.
Suppose that a trader feels there will be a big move in price of an asset, but does not
know whether this will be up or down. There are a number of alternative trading strategies. A risk-averse trader might choose a reverse butterfly spread, discussed in
Section 12.3, where there will be a small gain if the traderās hunch is correct and a small
loss if it is not. A more aggressive investor might choose a straddle or strangle,
discussed in Section 12.4, where potential gains and losses are larger.
Further trading strategies involving options are considered in later chapters. For
example, Chapter 17 shows how options on stock indices can be used to manage the risks in a stock portfolio and explains how range forward contracts can be used to hedge a foreign exchange exposure; Chapter 19 covers the way in which Greek letters are used to manage the risks when derivatives are traded; Chapter 26 covers exotic options and what is known as static options replication.
12.1 PRINCIPAL-PROTECTED NOTES
Options are often used to create what are termed principal-protected notes for the retail market. These are products that appeal to conservative investors. The return earned by the investor depends on the performance of a stock, a stock index, or other risky asset,
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 269
but the initial principal amount invested is not at risk. An example will illustrate how a
simple principal-protected note can be created.
Example 12.1
Suppose that the 3-year interest rate is 6% with continuous compounding. This
means that 1,000e-0.06*3=+835.27 will grow to $1,000 in 3 years. The difference
between $1,000 and $835.27 is $164.73. Suppose that a stock portfolio is worth $1,000 and provides a dividend yield of 1.5% per annum. Suppose further that a 3-year at-the-money European call option on the stock portfolio can be purchased for less than $164.73. (From DerivaGem, it can be verified that this will be the case if the volatility of the value of the portfolio is less than about 15%.) A bank can offer clients a $1,000 investment opportunity consisting of:
1. A 3-year zero-coupon bond with a principal of $1,000
Principal-Protected Notes Mechanics
- A principal-protected note combines a zero-coupon bond with an option to allow investors to participate in market gains without risking their initial capital.
- The financial viability of these notes for banks depends heavily on the relationship between prevailing interest rates and the volatility of the underlying asset.
- While these products offer a safety net, retail investors often pay for this security through built-in bank profits and the assumption of the bank's credit risk.
- The 2008 failure of Lehman Brothers serves as a historical warning that 'principal protection' is only as reliable as the institution issuing the note.
- Banks can sometimes add value for retail investors by accessing tighter bid-ask spreads and higher interest rates than an individual could obtain independently.
The worst that can happen is that the investor loses the chance to earn interest, or other income such as dividends, on the initial investment for the life of the note.
between $1,000 and $835.27 is $164.73. Suppose that a stock portfolio is worth $1,000 and provides a dividend yield of 1.5% per annum. Suppose further that a 3-year at-the-money European call option on the stock portfolio can be purchased for less than $164.73. (From DerivaGem, it can be verified that this will be the case if the volatility of the value of the portfolio is less than about 15%.) A bank can offer clients a $1,000 investment opportunity consisting of:
1. A 3-year zero-coupon bond with a principal of $1,000
2. A 3-year at-the-money European call option on the stock portfolio.
If the value of the porfolio increases the investor gets whatever $1,000 invested in the portfolio would have grown to. (This is because the zero-coupon bond pays
off $1,000 and this equals the strike price of the option.) If the value of the portfolio goes down, the option has no value, but payoff from the zero-coupon
bond ensures that the investor receives the original $1,000 principal invested.
The attraction of a principal-protected note is that an investor is able to take a risky position without risking any principal. The worst that can happen is that the investor loses the chance to earn interest, or other income such as dividends, on the initial investment for the life of the note.
There are many variations on the product in Example 12.1. An investor who thinks
that the price of an asset will decline can buy a principal-protected note consisting of a zero-coupon bond plus a put option. The investorās payoff in 3 years is then $1,000 plus the payoff (if any) from the put option.
Is a principal-protected note a good deal from the retail investorās perspective? A
bank will always build in a profit for itself when it creates a principal-protected note. This means that, in Example 12.1, the zero-coupon bond plus the call option will always cost the bank less than $1,000. In addition, investors are taking the risk that the bank will not be in a position to make the payoff on the principal-protected note at maturity. (Some retail investors lost money on principal-protected notes created by Lehman Brothers when it failed in 2008.) In some situations, therefore, an investor will be better off if he or she buys the underlying option in the usual way and invests the remaining principal in a risk-free investment. However, this is not always the case. The investor is likely to face wider bidāask spreads on the option than the bank and is likely to earn lower interest rates than the bank. It is therefore possible that the bank can add value for the investor while making a profit itself.
Now let us look at the principal-protected notes from the perspective of the bank. The
economic viability of the structure in Example 12.1 depends critically on the level of
interest rates and the volatility of the portfolio. If the interest rate is 3% instead of 6%, the bank has only
1,000-1,000e-0.03*3=+86.07 with which to buy the call option. If
interest rates are 6%, but the volatility is 25% instead of 15%, the price of the option would be about $221. In either of these circumstances, the product described in
Example 12.1 cannot be profitably created by the bank. However, there are a number
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270 CHAPTER 12
Principal-Protected Notes Mechanics
- Principal-protected notes combine zero-coupon bonds with options to allow investors to participate in market gains without risking their initial capital.
- The bank creating the note builds in a profit margin, meaning the combined cost of the bond and option is less than the investor's principal.
- Investors face credit risk, as the guarantee depends on the bank's ability to pay, evidenced by losses during the 2008 Lehman Brothers failure.
- The viability of these products depends on interest rates and volatility; lower rates or higher volatility make it harder for banks to fund the option component.
- Banks can adjust product terms, such as capping returns or extending the note's duration, to maintain profitability in unfavorable market conditions.
Some retail investors lost money on principal-protected notes created by Lehman Brothers when it failed in 2008.
If the value of the porfolio increases the investor gets whatever $1,000 invested in the portfolio would have grown to. (This is because the zero-coupon bond pays
off $1,000 and this equals the strike price of the option.) If the value of the portfolio goes down, the option has no value, but payoff from the zero-coupon
bond ensures that the investor receives the original $1,000 principal invested.
The attraction of a principal-protected note is that an investor is able to take a risky position without risking any principal. The worst that can happen is that the investor loses the chance to earn interest, or other income such as dividends, on the initial investment for the life of the note.
There are many variations on the product in Example 12.1. An investor who thinks
that the price of an asset will decline can buy a principal-protected note consisting of a zero-coupon bond plus a put option. The investorās payoff in 3 years is then $1,000 plus the payoff (if any) from the put option.
Is a principal-protected note a good deal from the retail investorās perspective? A
bank will always build in a profit for itself when it creates a principal-protected note. This means that, in Example 12.1, the zero-coupon bond plus the call option will always cost the bank less than $1,000. In addition, investors are taking the risk that the bank will not be in a position to make the payoff on the principal-protected note at maturity. (Some retail investors lost money on principal-protected notes created by Lehman Brothers when it failed in 2008.) In some situations, therefore, an investor will be better off if he or she buys the underlying option in the usual way and invests the remaining principal in a risk-free investment. However, this is not always the case. The investor is likely to face wider bidāask spreads on the option than the bank and is likely to earn lower interest rates than the bank. It is therefore possible that the bank can add value for the investor while making a profit itself.
Now let us look at the principal-protected notes from the perspective of the bank. The
economic viability of the structure in Example 12.1 depends critically on the level of
interest rates and the volatility of the portfolio. If the interest rate is 3% instead of 6%, the bank has only
1,000-1,000e-0.03*3=+86.07 with which to buy the call option. If
interest rates are 6%, but the volatility is 25% instead of 15%, the price of the option would be about $221. In either of these circumstances, the product described in
Example 12.1 cannot be profitably created by the bank. However, there are a number
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270 CHAPTER 12
of ways the bank can still create a viable 3-year product. For example, the strike price of
the option can be increased so that the value of the portfolio has to rise by, say, 15%
before the investor makes a gain; the investorās return could be capped; the return of the investor could depend on the average price of the asset instead of the final price; a knockout barrier could be specified. The derivatives involved in some of these alter-natives will be discussed later in the book. (Capping the option corresponds to the creation of a bull spread for the investor and will be discussed later in this chapter.)
One way in which a bank can sometimes create a profitable principal-protected note
when interest rates are low or volatilities are high is by increasing its life. Consider the situation in Example 12.1 when (a) the interest rate is 3% rather than 6% and (b) the
stock portfolio has a volatility of 15% and provides a dividend yield of 1.5%.
DerivaGem shows that a 3-year at-the-money European option costs about $119. This is more than the funds available to purchase it
11,000-1,000e-0.03*3=+86.072. A
10-year at-the-money option costs about $217. This is less than the funds available to purchase it
11,000-1,000e-0.03*10=+259.182, making the structure profitable. When
Option Strategies and Principal Protection
- Banks can maintain the viability of principal-protected notes by adjusting strike prices, capping returns, or using average price benchmarks.
- Increasing the duration of a financial product can make it profitable even in low-interest or high-volatility environments.
- The dividend yield of the underlying asset is a critical variable, as zero-yield assets may prevent principal-protected notes from being profitable regardless of duration.
- Basic trading strategies like covered calls and protective puts combine options with their underlying stocks to create specific profit profiles.
- Put-call parity explains why certain combinations of stocks and options mirror the profit patterns of standalone options.
If the dividend yield were zero, the principal-protected note in Example 12.1 cannot be profitable for the bank no matter how long it lasts.
of ways the bank can still create a viable 3-year product. For example, the strike price of
the option can be increased so that the value of the portfolio has to rise by, say, 15%
before the investor makes a gain; the investorās return could be capped; the return of the investor could depend on the average price of the asset instead of the final price; a knockout barrier could be specified. The derivatives involved in some of these alter-natives will be discussed later in the book. (Capping the option corresponds to the creation of a bull spread for the investor and will be discussed later in this chapter.)
One way in which a bank can sometimes create a profitable principal-protected note
when interest rates are low or volatilities are high is by increasing its life. Consider the situation in Example 12.1 when (a) the interest rate is 3% rather than 6% and (b) the
stock portfolio has a volatility of 15% and provides a dividend yield of 1.5%.
DerivaGem shows that a 3-year at-the-money European option costs about $119. This is more than the funds available to purchase it
11,000-1,000e-0.03*3=+86.072. A
10-year at-the-money option costs about $217. This is less than the funds available to purchase it
11,000-1,000e-0.03*10=+259.182, making the structure profitable. When
the life is increased to 20 years, the option cost is about $281, which is much less than the funds available to purchase it
11,000-1,000e-0.03*20=+451.192, so that the struc-
ture is even more profitable.
A critical variable for the bank in our example is the dividend yield. The higher it is,
the more profitable the product is for the bank. If the dividend yield were zero, the principal-protected note in Example 12.1 cannot be profitable for the bank no matter how long it lasts. (This follows from equation (11.4).)
12.2 TRADING AN OPTION AND THE UNDERLYING ASSET
For convenience, we will assume that the asset underlying the options considered in the rest of the chapter is a stock. (Similar trading strategies can be developed for other underlying assets.) We will also follow the usual practice of calculating the profit from a trading strategy as the final payoff minus the initial cost without any discounting.
There are a number of different trading strategies involving a single option on a stock
and the stock itself. The profits from these are illustrated in Figure 12.1. In this figure and in other figures throughout this chapter, the dashed line shows the relationship between profit and the stock price for the individual securities constituting the portfolio, whereas the solid line shows the relationship between profit and the stock
price for the whole portfolio.
In Figure 12.1a, the portfolio consists of a long position in a stock plus a short
position in a European call option. This is known as writing a covered call. The long
stock position ācoversā or protects the investor from the payoff on the short call that becomes necessary if there is a sharp rise in the stock price. In Figure 12.1b, a short position in a stock is combined with a long position in a call option. This is the reverse of writing a covered call. In Figure 12.1c, the investment strategy involves buying a European put option on a stock and the stock itself. This is referred to as a protective put strategy. In Figure 12.1d, a short position in a put option is combined with a short position in the stock. This is the reverse of a protective put.
The profit patterns in Figures 12.1a, b, c, and d have the same general shape as the
profit patterns discussed in Chapter 10 for short put, long put, long call, and short call,
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 271
respectively. Putācall parity provides a way of understanding why this is so. From
Chapter 11, the putācall parity relationship is
p+S0=c+Ke-rT+D (12.1)
Option Trading Strategies
- The text introduces fundamental trading strategies that combine a single stock with a single European option to alter risk profiles.
- A covered call involves holding a long stock position while selling a call, effectively using the stock to protect against sharp price increases.
- A protective put strategy combines a long stock position with a long put, creating a profit pattern similar to a long call position.
- Put-call parity explains why these synthetic combinations result in profit patterns identical to holding different individual options plus cash.
- Spreads are introduced as more complex strategies involving positions in two or more options of the same type.
The long stock position ācoversā or protects the investor from the payoff on the short call that becomes necessary if there is a sharp rise in the stock price.
For convenience, we will assume that the asset underlying the options considered in the rest of the chapter is a stock. (Similar trading strategies can be developed for other underlying assets.) We will also follow the usual practice of calculating the profit from a trading strategy as the final payoff minus the initial cost without any discounting.
There are a number of different trading strategies involving a single option on a stock
and the stock itself. The profits from these are illustrated in Figure 12.1. In this figure and in other figures throughout this chapter, the dashed line shows the relationship between profit and the stock price for the individual securities constituting the portfolio, whereas the solid line shows the relationship between profit and the stock
price for the whole portfolio.
In Figure 12.1a, the portfolio consists of a long position in a stock plus a short
position in a European call option. This is known as writing a covered call. The long
stock position ācoversā or protects the investor from the payoff on the short call that becomes necessary if there is a sharp rise in the stock price. In Figure 12.1b, a short position in a stock is combined with a long position in a call option. This is the reverse of writing a covered call. In Figure 12.1c, the investment strategy involves buying a European put option on a stock and the stock itself. This is referred to as a protective put strategy. In Figure 12.1d, a short position in a put option is combined with a short position in the stock. This is the reverse of a protective put.
The profit patterns in Figures 12.1a, b, c, and d have the same general shape as the
profit patterns discussed in Chapter 10 for short put, long put, long call, and short call,
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 271
respectively. Putācall parity provides a way of understanding why this is so. From
Chapter 11, the putācall parity relationship is
p+S0=c+Ke-rT+D (12.1)
where p is the price of a European put, S0 is the stock price, c is the price of a European
call, K is the strike price of both call and put, r is the risk-free interest rate, T is the time
to maturity of both call and put, and D is the present value of the dividends anticipated
during the life of the options.Figure 12.1 Profit patterns (a) long position in a stock combined with short position
in a call; (b) short position in a stock combined with long position in a call; (c) long position in a put combined with long position in a stock; (d) short position in a put combined with short position in a stock.
Profit
(a)STKProfit
(b)STK
Profit
(c)STKProfit
(d)STKLong
Stock
ShortCall
LongStock LongPutLongCall
ShortStock
ShortPutShortStock
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272 CHAPTER 12
Equation (12.1) shows that a long position in a European put combined with a long
position in the stock is equivalent to a long European call position plus a certain
amount 1= Ke-rT+D2 of cash. This explains why the profit pattern in Figure 12.1c is
similar to the profit pattern from a long call position. The position in Figure 12.1d is the
reverse of that in Figure 12.1c and therefore leads to a profit pattern similar to that from a short call position.
Equation (12.1) can be rearranged to become
S0-c=Ke-rT+D-p
This shows that a long position in a stock combined with a short position in a European call is equivalent to a short European put position plus a certain amount
1= Ke-rT+D2 of cash. This equality explains why the profit pattern in Figure 12.1a is
similar to the profit pattern from a short put position. The position in Figure 12.1b is the reverse of that in Figure 12.1a and therefore leads to a profit pattern similar to that from a long put position.
12.3 SPREADS
A spread trading strategy involves taking a position in two or more options of the same type (i.e., two or more calls or two or more puts).
Bull Spreads
Bull Spread Trading Strategies
- A bull spread is constructed by purchasing a European call option at a specific strike price and selling another call with a higher strike price on the same stock.
- The strategy requires an initial investment because call prices decrease as strike prices increase, meaning the purchased option is more expensive than the sold one.
- The payoff is capped at the difference between the two strike prices if the stock price exceeds the higher strike, while losses are limited to the initial cost if the stock price falls.
- Bull spreads vary in risk and aggressiveness based on whether the constituent options are initially in the money or out of the money.
- The strategy essentially involves an investor giving up unlimited upside potential in exchange for a lower net cost of entry.
The most aggressive bull spreads are those of type 1. They cost very little to set up and have a small probability of giving a relatively high payoff.
This shows that a long position in a stock combined with a short position in a European call is equivalent to a short European put position plus a certain amount
1= Ke-rT+D2 of cash. This equality explains why the profit pattern in Figure 12.1a is
similar to the profit pattern from a short put position. The position in Figure 12.1b is the reverse of that in Figure 12.1a and therefore leads to a profit pattern similar to that from a long put position.
12.3 SPREADS
A spread trading strategy involves taking a position in two or more options of the same type (i.e., two or more calls or two or more puts).
Bull Spreads
One of the most popular types of spreads is a bull spread. This can be created by buying a European call option on a stock with a certain strike price and selling a European call option on the same stock with a higher strike price. Both options have the same expiration date. The strategy is illustrated in Figure 12.2. The profits from the two
option positions taken separately are shown by the dashed lines. The profit from the whole strategy is the sum of the profits given by the dashed lines and is indicated by the solid line. Because a call price always decreases as the strike price increases, the value of the option sold is always less than the value of the option bought. A bull spread, when created from calls, therefore requires an initial investment.
Suppose that
K1 is the strike price of the call option bought, K2 is the strike price of
Figure 12.2 Profit from bull spread created using call options.
Profit
Short Call, Strike K2
Long Call, Strike K1 STK1 K2
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 273
the call option sold, and ST is the stock price on the expiration date of the options.
Table 12.1 shows the total payoff that will be realized from a bull spread in different
circumstances. If the stock price does well and is greater than the higher strike price, the
payoff is the difference between the two strike prices, or K2-K1. If the stock price on
the expiration date lies between the two strike prices, the payoff is ST-K1. If the stock
price on the expiration date is below the lower strike price, the payoff is zero. The profit in Figure 12.2 is calculated by subtracting the initial investment from the payoff.
A bull spread strategy limits the investorās upside as well as downside risk. The strategy
can be described by saying that the investor has a call option with a strike price equal to
K1 and has chosen to give up some upside potential by selling a call option with strike
price K2 1K27K12. In return for giving up the upside potential, the investor gets the
price of the option with strike price K2. Three types of bull spreads can be distinguished:
1. Both calls are initially out of the money.
2. One call is initially in the money; the other call is initially out of the money.
3. Both calls are initially in the money.
The most aggressive bull spreads are those of type 1. They cost very little to set up and have a small probability of giving a relatively high payoff
1= K2-K12. As we move
from type 1 to type 2 and from type 2 to type 3, the spreads become more conservative.
Example 12.2
An investor buys for $3 a 3-month European call with a strike price of $30 and
sells for $1 a 3-month European call with a strike price of $35. The payoff from this bull spread strategy is $5 if the stock price is above $35, and zero if it is below $30. If the stock price is between $30 and $35, the payoff is the amount by which the stock price exceeds $30. The cost of the strategy is
+3-+1=+2. So the
profit is:
Stock price range Profit
STā¦30 -2
306ST635 ST-32
STĆ35 3
Bull and Bear Spreads
- A bull spread is an option strategy designed for investors who expect a stock price to increase while wanting to limit their downside risk.
- Bull spreads can be constructed using either calls or puts, with the latter resulting in an initial cash inflow but requiring margin.
- Bear spreads are the inverse strategy, utilized by investors who anticipate a decline in the stock price but wish to cap potential losses.
- In a bear spread, the investor buys an option with a higher strike price and sells an option with a lower strike price to offset the cost.
- Both bull and bear spreads effectively trade away unlimited profit potential in exchange for a lower net cost of entry.
In essence, the investor has bought a put with a certain strike price and chosen to give up some of the profit potential by selling a put with a lower strike price.
from type 1 to type 2 and from type 2 to type 3, the spreads become more conservative.
Example 12.2
An investor buys for $3 a 3-month European call with a strike price of $30 and
sells for $1 a 3-month European call with a strike price of $35. The payoff from this bull spread strategy is $5 if the stock price is above $35, and zero if it is below $30. If the stock price is between $30 and $35, the payoff is the amount by which the stock price exceeds $30. The cost of the strategy is
+3-+1=+2. So the
profit is:
Stock price range Profit
STā¦30 -2
306ST635 ST-32
STĆ35 3
Bull spreads can also be created by buying a European put with a low strike price and selling a European put with a high strike price, as illustrated in Figure 12.3. Unlike bull
spreads created from calls, those created from puts involve a positive up-front cash flow to the investor, but have margin requirements and a payoff that is either negative or zero.Stock price
rangePayoff from
long call optionPayoff from
short call optionTotal
payoff
STā¦K1 0 0 0
K16ST6K2 ST-K1 0 ST-K1
STĆK2 ST-K1 -1ST-K22 K2-K1Table 12.1 Payoff from a bull spread created using calls.
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274 CHAPTER 12
Bear Spreads
An investor who enters into a bull spread is hoping that the stock price will increase. By
contrast, an investor who enters into a bear spread is hoping that the stock price will decline. Bear spreads can be created by buying a European put with one strike price and selling a European put with another strike price. The strike price of the option purchased is greater than the strike price of the option sold. (This is in contrast to a
bull spread, where the strike price of the option purchased is always less than the strike price of the option sold.) In Figure 12.4, the profit from the spread is shown by the solid line. A bear spread created from puts involves an initial cash outflow because the price of the put sold is less than the price of the put purchased. In essence, the investor has bought a put with a certain strike price and chosen to give up some of the profit potential by selling a put with a lower strike price. In return for the profit given up, the
investor gets the price of the option sold.
Assume that the strike prices are
K1 and K2, with K16K2. Table 12.2 shows the
payoff that will be realized from a bear spread in different circumstances. If the stock Figure 12.3 Profit from bull spread created using put options.
Profit
STK1 K2Short Put, Strike K2
Long Put, Strike K1
Figure 12.4 Profit from bear spread created using put options.
Profit
STK1 K2Short Put, Strike K1
Long Put, Strike K2
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 275
price is greater than K2, the payoff is zero. If the stock price is less than K1, the payoff is
K2-K1. If the stock price is between K1 and K2, the payoff is K2-ST. The profit is
calculated by subtracting the initial cost from the payoff.
Example 12.3
An investor buys for $3 a 3-month European put with a strike price of $35 and sells
for $1 a 3-month European put with a strike price of $30. The payoff from this bear spread strategy is zero if the stock price is above $35, and $5 if it is below $30. If the stock price is between $30 and $35, the payoff is
35-ST. The options cost
+3-+1=+2 up front. So the profit is:
Stock price range Profit
STā¦30 +3
306ST635 33-ST
STĆ35 -2
Like bull spreads, bear spreads limit both the upside profit potential and the downside risk. Bear spreads can be created using calls instead of puts. The investor buys a call with a high strike price and sells a call with a low strike price, as illustrated in Figure 12.5. Bear spreads created with calls involve an initial cash inflow, but have margin requirements and a payoff that is either negative or zero.Stock price
rangePayoff from
long put optionPayoff from
short put optionTotal
payoff
STā¦K1 K2-ST -1K1-ST2 K2-K1
Complex Option Spreads
- Bear spreads can be constructed using either puts or calls to limit both potential profit and downside risk.
- A box spread combines a bull call spread and a bear put spread to create a constant payoff equal to the difference between strike prices.
- The value of a box spread should theoretically equal the present value of its certain payoff, otherwise an arbitrage opportunity exists.
- Butterfly spreads utilize three different strike prices to create a position that profits from low volatility in the underlying stock price.
- Arbitrage strategies like the box spread are only reliable with European options, as American options introduce early exercise risks.
It is important to realize that a box-spread arbitrage only works with European options.
Like bull spreads, bear spreads limit both the upside profit potential and the downside risk. Bear spreads can be created using calls instead of puts. The investor buys a call with a high strike price and sells a call with a low strike price, as illustrated in Figure 12.5. Bear spreads created with calls involve an initial cash inflow, but have margin requirements and a payoff that is either negative or zero.Stock price
rangePayoff from
long put optionPayoff from
short put optionTotal
payoff
STā¦K1 K2-ST -1K1-ST2 K2-K1
K16ST6K2 K2-ST 0 K2-ST
STĆK2 0 0 0Table 12.2 Payoff from a bear spread created with put options.
Figure 12.5 Profit from bear spread created using call options.
Profit
STK1 K2Short Call, Strike K1
Long Call, Strike K2
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276 CHAPTER 12
Box Spreads
A box spread is a combination of a bull call spread with strike prices K1 and K2 and a
bear put spread with the same two strike prices. As shown in Table 12.3, the payoff
from a box spread is always K2-K1. The value of a box spread is therefore always the
present value of this payoff or 1K2-K12e-rT. If it has a different value there is an
arbitrage opportunity. If the market price of the box spread is too low, it is profitable to
buy the box. This involves buying a call with strike price K1, buying a put with strike
price K2, selling a call with strike price K2, and selling a put with strike price K1. If the
market price of the box spread is too high, it is profitable to sell the box. This involves buying a call with strike price
K2, buying a put with strike price K1, selling a call with
strike price K1, and selling a put with strike price K2.
It is important to realize that a box-spread arbitrage only works with European
options. Many of the options that trade on exchanges are American. As shown in Business Snapshot 12.1, inexperienced traders who treat American options as European
are liable to lose money.
Butterfly Spreads
A butterfly spread involves positions in options with three different strike prices. It can
be created by buying a European call option with a relatively low strike price K1, Stock price
rangePayoff from
bull call spreadPayoff from
bear put spreadTotal
payoff
STā¦K1 0 K2-K1 K2-K1
K16ST6K2 ST-K1 K2-ST K2-K1
STĆK2 K2-K1 0 K2-K1Table 12.3 Payoff from a box spread.
Figure 12.6 Profit from butterfly spread using call options.
Profit
STK1 K2 K3Short 2 Calls, Strike K2
Long Call, Strike K1 Long Call, Strike K3
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 277
Business Snapshot 12.1 Losing Money with Box Spreads
Suppose that a stock has a price of $50 and a volatility of 30%. No dividends are
expected and the risk-free rate is 8%. A trader offers you the chance to sell on the CBOE a 2-month box spread where the strike prices are $55 and $60 for $5.10. Should you do the trade?
The trade certainly sounds attractive. In this case
K1=55, K2=60, and the payoff
is certain to be $5 in 2 months. By selling the box spread for $5.10 and investing the funds for 2 months you would have more than enough funds to meet the $5 payoff in 2 months. The theoretical value of the box spread today is
5*e-0.08*2>12=+4.93.
Unfortunately there is a snag. CBOE stock options are American and the $5 payoff
from the box spread is calculated on the assumption that the options comprising the box are European. Option prices for this example (calculated using DerivaGem) are shown in the table below. A bull call spread where the strike prices are $55 and $60 costs
0.96-0.26=+0.70. (This is the same for both European and American options
Box and Butterfly Spreads
- The theoretical value of a box spread is the present value of its certain future payoff, but this calculation assumes European options.
- American options introduce a 'snag' in box spreads because the early exercise feature of American puts increases their market price.
- Selling an American box spread for a perceived premium can lead to immediate losses due to the high probability of early exercise by the counterparty.
- A butterfly spread is a neutral strategy involving three strike prices that profits when the stock price remains stable near the middle strike.
- The butterfly strategy requires a small initial investment and limits potential losses if the stock price moves significantly in either direction.
You would realize this almost immediately as the trade involves selling a $60 strike put and this would be exercised against you almost as soon as you sold it!
is certain to be $5 in 2 months. By selling the box spread for $5.10 and investing the funds for 2 months you would have more than enough funds to meet the $5 payoff in 2 months. The theoretical value of the box spread today is
5*e-0.08*2>12=+4.93.
Unfortunately there is a snag. CBOE stock options are American and the $5 payoff
from the box spread is calculated on the assumption that the options comprising the box are European. Option prices for this example (calculated using DerivaGem) are shown in the table below. A bull call spread where the strike prices are $55 and $60 costs
0.96-0.26=+0.70. (This is the same for both European and American options
because, as we saw in Chapter 11, the price of a European call is the same as the price of an American call when there are no dividends.) A bear put spread with the same strike prices costs 9.46 - 5.23 = $4.23 if the options are European and 10.00 - 5.44 = $4.56 if they are American. The combined value of both spreads if they are created with European options is
0.70+4.23=+4.93. This is the theoretical box spread price
calculated above. The combined value of buying both spreads if they are American is
0.70+4.56=+5.26. Selling a box spread created with American options for $5.10
would not be a good trade. You would realize this almost immediately as the trade involves selling a $60 strike put and this would be exercised against you almost as soon as you sold it!
Option
typeStrike
priceEuropean
option priceAmerican
option price
Call 60 0.26 0.26
Call 55 0.96 0.96
Put 60 9.46 10.00
Put 55 5.23 5.44
Stock price
rangePayoff from
first long callPayoff from
second long callPayoff from
short callsTotal
payoff*
STā¦K1 0 0 0 0
K16STā¦K2 ST-K1 0 0 ST-K1
K26ST6K3 ST-K1 0 -21ST-K22 K3-ST
STĆK3 ST-K1 ST-K3 -21ST-K22 0
*These payoffs are calculated using the relationship K2=0.51K1+K32.Table 12.4 Payoff from a butterfly spread.
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278 CHAPTER 12
buying a European call option with a relatively high strike price K3, and selling two
European call options with a strike price K2 that is halfway between K1 and K3.
Generally, K2 is close to the current stock price. The pattern of profits from the strategy
is shown in Figure 12.6. A butterfly spread leads to a profit if the stock price stays close
to K2, but gives rise to a small loss if there is a significant stock price move in either
direction. It is therefore an appropriate strategy for an investor who feels that large stock price moves are unlikely. The strategy requires a small investment initially. The payoff from a butterfly spread is shown in Table 12.4.
Suppose that a certain stock is currently worth $61. Consider an investor who feels
that a significant price move in the next 6 months is unlikely. Suppose that the market prices of 6-month European calls are as follows:
Strike price ($) Call price ($)
55 10
60 7
65 5
The Butterfly Spread Strategy
- A butterfly spread is constructed by buying two options at outer strike prices and selling two options at a middle strike price.
- The strategy is designed for investors who believe a stock's price will remain stable and close to the middle strike price.
- While the potential for profit is capped, the strategy also limits potential losses to a small initial investment if the stock price moves significantly.
- Butterfly spreads can be created using either call or put options, resulting in identical payoffs and initial costs due to put-call parity.
- Investors can 'short' a butterfly spread to profit from high volatility, reversing the typical structure to gain if the stock price moves sharply in either direction.
It is therefore an appropriate strategy for an investor who feels that large stock price moves are unlikely.
buying a European call option with a relatively high strike price K3, and selling two
European call options with a strike price K2 that is halfway between K1 and K3.
Generally, K2 is close to the current stock price. The pattern of profits from the strategy
is shown in Figure 12.6. A butterfly spread leads to a profit if the stock price stays close
to K2, but gives rise to a small loss if there is a significant stock price move in either
direction. It is therefore an appropriate strategy for an investor who feels that large stock price moves are unlikely. The strategy requires a small investment initially. The payoff from a butterfly spread is shown in Table 12.4.
Suppose that a certain stock is currently worth $61. Consider an investor who feels
that a significant price move in the next 6 months is unlikely. Suppose that the market prices of 6-month European calls are as follows:
Strike price ($) Call price ($)
55 10
60 7
65 5
The investor could create a butterfly spread by buying one call with a $55 strike price, buying one call with a $65 strike price, and selling two calls with a $60 strike price. It costs
+10++5-12*+72=+1 to create the spread. If the stock price in 6 months is
greater than $65 or less than $55, the total payoff is zero, and the investor incurs a net loss of $1. If the stock price is between $56 and $64, a profit is made. The maximum profit, $4, occurs when the stock price in 6 months is $60.
Butterfly spreads can be created using put options. The investor buys two European
puts, one with a low strike price and one with a high strike price, and sells two European puts with an intermediate strike price, as illustrated in Figure 12.7. The
butterfly spread in the example considered above would be created by buying one put
with a strike price of $55, another with a strike price of $65, and selling two puts with a strike price of $60. The use of put options results in exactly the same spread as the use of call options. Putācall parity can be used to show that the initial investment is the same in both cases.
Figure 12.7 Profit from butterfly spread using put options.
Profit
STK1 K2 K3Short 2 Puts, Strike K2
Long Put, Strike K1
Long Put, Strike K3
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A butterfly spread can be sold or shorted by following the reverse strategy. Options
are sold with strike prices of K1 and K3, and two options with the middle strike price K2
are purchased. This strategy produces a modest profit if there is a significant movement
in the stock price.
Calendar Spreads
Butterfly and Calendar Spreads
- A butterfly spread involves combining three different strike prices to create a strategy that profits from low stock price volatility.
- The strategy can be executed using either call or put options, with put-call parity ensuring the initial investment remains identical for both.
- Shorting a butterfly spread reverses the payoff, allowing an investor to earn a modest profit if the stock price moves significantly in either direction.
- Calendar spreads utilize options with the same strike price but different expiration dates, requiring an initial investment because longer-maturity options are more expensive.
- The profit pattern of a calendar spread mirrors that of a butterfly spread, peaking when the stock price is near the strike price at the time the short-term option expires.
Putācall parity can be used to show that the initial investment is the same in both cases.
The investor could create a butterfly spread by buying one call with a $55 strike price, buying one call with a $65 strike price, and selling two calls with a $60 strike price. It costs
+10++5-12*+72=+1 to create the spread. If the stock price in 6 months is
greater than $65 or less than $55, the total payoff is zero, and the investor incurs a net loss of $1. If the stock price is between $56 and $64, a profit is made. The maximum profit, $4, occurs when the stock price in 6 months is $60.
Butterfly spreads can be created using put options. The investor buys two European
puts, one with a low strike price and one with a high strike price, and sells two European puts with an intermediate strike price, as illustrated in Figure 12.7. The
butterfly spread in the example considered above would be created by buying one put
with a strike price of $55, another with a strike price of $65, and selling two puts with a strike price of $60. The use of put options results in exactly the same spread as the use of call options. Putācall parity can be used to show that the initial investment is the same in both cases.
Figure 12.7 Profit from butterfly spread using put options.
Profit
STK1 K2 K3Short 2 Puts, Strike K2
Long Put, Strike K1
Long Put, Strike K3
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 279
A butterfly spread can be sold or shorted by following the reverse strategy. Options
are sold with strike prices of K1 and K3, and two options with the middle strike price K2
are purchased. This strategy produces a modest profit if there is a significant movement
in the stock price.
Calendar Spreads
Up to now we have assumed that the options used to create a spread all expire at the same time. We now move on to consider calendar spreads in which the options have the same strike price and different expiration dates.
A calendar spread can be created by selling a European call option with a certain
strike price and buying a longer-maturity European call option with the same strike price. The longer the maturity of an option, the more expensive it usually is. A calendar spread therefore usually requires an initial investment. Profit diagrams for calendar spreads are usually produced so that they show the profit when the short-maturity option expires on the assumption that the long-maturity option is closed out at that time. The profit pattern for a calendar spread produced from call options is shown in Figure 12.8. The pattern is similar to the profit from the butterfly spread in Figure 12.6. The investor makes a profit if the stock price at the expiration of the short-maturity option is close to the strike price of the short-maturity option. However, a loss is incurred when the stock price is significantly above or significantly below this strike price.
To understand the profit pattern from a calendar spread, first consider what happens
if the stock price is very low when the short-maturity option expires. The short-maturity option is worthless and the value of the long-maturity option is close to zero. The investor therefore incurs a loss that is close to the cost of setting up the spread initially.
Consider next what happens if the stock price,
ST, is very high when the short-maturity
option expires. The short-maturity option costs the investor ST-K, and the long-
maturity option is worth close to ST-K, where K is the strike price of the options.
Again, the investor makes a net loss that is close to the cost of setting up the spread
Figure 12.8 Profit from calendar spread created using two call options, calculated at
the time when the short-maturity call option expires.
Profit
ST
KShort Call, Maturity T1
Long Call, Maturity T2
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280 CHAPTER 12
Calendar and Diagonal Spreads
- A calendar spread involves selling a short-maturity option and buying a long-maturity option with the same strike price.
- The strategy is most profitable when the stock price at the short-maturity expiration is close to the strike price, as the long-maturity option retains significant value.
- Reverse calendar spreads involve buying short-maturity and selling long-maturity options, resulting in losses if the stock price stays near the strike price.
- Diagonal spreads combine elements of both price and time spreads by using options with different strike prices and different expiration dates.
- Combinations like straddles and strangles involve taking positions in both calls and puts on the same underlying stock to create diverse profit patterns.
In a diagonal spread both the expiration date and the strike price of the calls are different. This increases the range of profit patterns that are possible.
option expires. The short-maturity option costs the investor ST-K, and the long-
maturity option is worth close to ST-K, where K is the strike price of the options.
Again, the investor makes a net loss that is close to the cost of setting up the spread
Figure 12.8 Profit from calendar spread created using two call options, calculated at
the time when the short-maturity call option expires.
Profit
ST
KShort Call, Maturity T1
Long Call, Maturity T2
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280 CHAPTER 12
initially. If ST is close to K, the short-maturity option costs the investor either a small
amount or nothing at all. However, the long-maturity option is still quite valuable. In
this case a net profit is made.
In a neutral calendar spread, a strike price close to the current stock price is chosen.
A bullish calendar spread involves a higher strike price, whereas a bearish calendar
spread involves a lower strike price.
Calendar spreads can be created with put options as well as call options. The investor
buys a long-maturity put option and sells a short-maturity put option. As shown in Figure 12.9, the profit pattern is similar to that obtained from using calls.
A reverse calendar spread is the opposite to that in Figures 12.8 and 12.9. The investor
buys a short-maturity option and sells a long-maturity option. A small profit arises if the stock price at the expiration of the short-maturity option is well above or well below the strike price of the short-maturity option. However, a loss results if it is close to the strike price.
Diagonal Spreads
Bull, bear, and calendar spreads can all be created from a long position in one call and a short position in another call. In the case of bull and bear spreads, the calls have different strike prices and the same expiration date. In the case of calendar spreads, the
calls have the same strike price and different expiration dates.
In a diagonal spread both the expiration date and the strike price of the calls are
different. This increases the range of profit patterns that are possible.Figure 12.9 Profit from calendar spread created using two put options, calculated at
the time when the short-maturity put option expires.
Profit
ST
KShort Put, Maturity T1
Long Put, Maturity T2
12.4 COMBINATIONS
A combination is an option trading strategy that involves taking a position in both
calls and puts on the same stock. We will consider straddles, strips, straps, and strangles.
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Straddle
Option Spreads and Straddles
- Spreads are categorized as bull, bear, calendar, or diagonal based on variations in strike prices and expiration dates between long and short positions.
- A straddle is a combination strategy involving the simultaneous purchase of a European call and put with identical strike prices and expiration dates.
- Investors utilize straddles when they anticipate significant stock price volatility but are uncertain about the direction of the movement.
- While buying a straddle limits loss to the initial premium, selling a straddleāknown as a top straddleāexposes the investor to unlimited potential loss.
- Diagonal spreads offer a wider range of profit patterns by varying both the strike price and the maturity date of the options involved.
A top straddle or straddle write is the reverse position. It is created by selling a call and a put with the same exercise price and expiration date. It is a highly risky strategy.
Bull, bear, and calendar spreads can all be created from a long position in one call and a short position in another call. In the case of bull and bear spreads, the calls have different strike prices and the same expiration date. In the case of calendar spreads, the
calls have the same strike price and different expiration dates.
In a diagonal spread both the expiration date and the strike price of the calls are
different. This increases the range of profit patterns that are possible.Figure 12.9 Profit from calendar spread created using two put options, calculated at
the time when the short-maturity put option expires.
Profit
ST
KShort Put, Maturity T1
Long Put, Maturity T2
12.4 COMBINATIONS
A combination is an option trading strategy that involves taking a position in both
calls and puts on the same stock. We will consider straddles, strips, straps, and strangles.
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Straddle
One popular combination is a straddle, which involves buying a European call and put
with the same strike price and expiration date. The profit pattern is shown in Figure 12.10.
The strike price is denoted by K . If the stock price is close to this strike price at expiration
of the options, the straddle leads to a loss. However, if there is a sufficiently large move in either direction, a significant profit will result. The payoff from a straddle is calculated in Table 12.5.
A straddle is appropriate when an investor is expecting a large move in a stock price
but does not know in which direction the move will be. Consider an investor who feels that the price of a certain stock, currently valued at $69 by the market, will move significantly in the next 3 months. The investor could create a straddle by buying both a
put and a call with a strike price of $70 and an expiration date in 3 months. Suppose that the call costs $4 and the put costs $3. If the stock price stays at $69, it is easy to see that the strategy costs the investor $6. (An up-front investment of $7 is required, the call expires worthless, and the put expires worth $1.) If the stock price moves to $70, a loss of $7 is experienced. (This is the worst that can happen.) However, if the stock price jumps up to $90, a profit of $13 is made; if the stock moves down to $55, a profit of $8 is made; and so on. As discussed in Business Snapshot 12.2 an investor should carefully consider whether the jump that he or she anticipates is already reflected in option prices before putting on a straddle trade.
The straddle in Figure 12.10 is sometimes referred to as a bottom straddle or straddle
purchase. A top straddle or straddle write is the reverse position. It is created by selling a call and a put with the same exercise price and expiration date. It is a highly risky strategy.
Range of
stock pricePayoff
from callPayoff
from putTotal
payoff
STā¦K 0 K-ST K-ST
ST7K ST-K 0 ST-KTable 12.5 Payoff from a straddle.Figure 12.10 Profit from a straddle.
Profit
STK
Long Call, Strike K
Long Put, Strike K
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282 CHAPTER 12
If the stock price on the expiration date is close to the strike price, a profit results.
However, the loss arising from a large move is unlimited.
Strips and Straps
Straddles, Strips, and Straps
- A straddle involves buying both a call and a put with the same strike price and expiration to profit from significant price volatility regardless of direction.
- The 'top straddle' or straddle write is a high-risk strategy where an investor sells both options, facing unlimited potential losses if the stock price moves sharply.
- Strips and straps are variations of the straddle that use weighted positions to express a directional bias while still betting on a large price movement.
- Successful straddle trading requires an investor's volatility expectations to differ from the market consensus already baked into option premiums.
- Market prices incorporate the collective beliefs of participants, meaning a jump must be larger than anticipated by the market for the strategy to be profitable.
To make money from any investment strategy, you must take a view that is different from most of the rest of the marketāand you must be right!
One popular combination is a straddle, which involves buying a European call and put
with the same strike price and expiration date. The profit pattern is shown in Figure 12.10.
The strike price is denoted by K . If the stock price is close to this strike price at expiration
of the options, the straddle leads to a loss. However, if there is a sufficiently large move in either direction, a significant profit will result. The payoff from a straddle is calculated in Table 12.5.
A straddle is appropriate when an investor is expecting a large move in a stock price
but does not know in which direction the move will be. Consider an investor who feels that the price of a certain stock, currently valued at $69 by the market, will move significantly in the next 3 months. The investor could create a straddle by buying both a
put and a call with a strike price of $70 and an expiration date in 3 months. Suppose that the call costs $4 and the put costs $3. If the stock price stays at $69, it is easy to see that the strategy costs the investor $6. (An up-front investment of $7 is required, the call expires worthless, and the put expires worth $1.) If the stock price moves to $70, a loss of $7 is experienced. (This is the worst that can happen.) However, if the stock price jumps up to $90, a profit of $13 is made; if the stock moves down to $55, a profit of $8 is made; and so on. As discussed in Business Snapshot 12.2 an investor should carefully consider whether the jump that he or she anticipates is already reflected in option prices before putting on a straddle trade.
The straddle in Figure 12.10 is sometimes referred to as a bottom straddle or straddle
purchase. A top straddle or straddle write is the reverse position. It is created by selling a call and a put with the same exercise price and expiration date. It is a highly risky strategy.
Range of
stock pricePayoff
from callPayoff
from putTotal
payoff
STā¦K 0 K-ST K-ST
ST7K ST-K 0 ST-KTable 12.5 Payoff from a straddle.Figure 12.10 Profit from a straddle.
Profit
STK
Long Call, Strike K
Long Put, Strike K
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282 CHAPTER 12
If the stock price on the expiration date is close to the strike price, a profit results.
However, the loss arising from a large move is unlimited.
Strips and Straps
A strip consists of a long position in one European call and two European puts with the
same strike price and expiration date. A strap consists of a long position in two European calls and one European put with the same strike price and expiration date.
The profit patterns from strips and straps are shown in Figure 12.11. In a strip the investor is betting that there will be a big stock price move and considers a decrease in
the stock price to be more likely than an increase. In a strap the investor is also betting that there will be a big stock price move. However, in this case, an increase in the stock price is considered to be more likely than a decrease.Business Snapshot 12.2 How to Make Money from Trading Straddles
Suppose that a big move is expected in a companyās stock price because there is a takeover bid for the company or the outcome of a major lawsuit involving the company is about to be announced. Should you trade a straddle?
A straddle seems a natural trading strategy in this case. However, if your view of the
companyās situation is much the same as that of other market participants, this view
will be reflected in the prices of options. Options on the stock will be significantly more expensive than options on a similar stock for which no jump is expected. The V-shaped profit pattern from the straddle in Figure 12.10 will have moved downward, so that a bigger move in the stock price is necessary for you to make a profit.
For a straddle to be an effective strategy, you must believe that there are likely to be
big movements in the stock price and these beliefs must be different from those of most other investors. Market prices incorporate the beliefs of market participants. To make money from any investment strategy, you must take a view that is different from most of the rest of the marketāand you must be right!
Figure 12.11 Profit from a strip and a strap.
Advanced Volatility Trading Strategies
- Strips and straps are directional volatility bets where an investor weights their position with extra puts or calls based on the expected direction of a price breakout.
- A straddle strategy is only profitable if the investor's expectation of volatility is significantly higher than the market's current consensus reflected in option premiums.
- Strangles involve buying options with different strike prices, offering lower upfront costs and reduced downside risk compared to straddles, but requiring larger price swings to reach profitability.
- Selling straddles or strangles is a high-risk strategy used when an investor believes price stability is likely, though it carries the potential for unlimited losses.
- Market efficiency ensures that anticipated events, such as lawsuits or takeovers, are priced into options, making it difficult to profit without a unique and correct perspective.
To make money from any investment strategy, you must take a view that is different from most of the rest of the marketāand you must be right!
A strip consists of a long position in one European call and two European puts with the
same strike price and expiration date. A strap consists of a long position in two European calls and one European put with the same strike price and expiration date.
The profit patterns from strips and straps are shown in Figure 12.11. In a strip the investor is betting that there will be a big stock price move and considers a decrease in
the stock price to be more likely than an increase. In a strap the investor is also betting that there will be a big stock price move. However, in this case, an increase in the stock price is considered to be more likely than a decrease.Business Snapshot 12.2 How to Make Money from Trading Straddles
Suppose that a big move is expected in a companyās stock price because there is a takeover bid for the company or the outcome of a major lawsuit involving the company is about to be announced. Should you trade a straddle?
A straddle seems a natural trading strategy in this case. However, if your view of the
companyās situation is much the same as that of other market participants, this view
will be reflected in the prices of options. Options on the stock will be significantly more expensive than options on a similar stock for which no jump is expected. The V-shaped profit pattern from the straddle in Figure 12.10 will have moved downward, so that a bigger move in the stock price is necessary for you to make a profit.
For a straddle to be an effective strategy, you must believe that there are likely to be
big movements in the stock price and these beliefs must be different from those of most other investors. Market prices incorporate the beliefs of market participants. To make money from any investment strategy, you must take a view that is different from most of the rest of the marketāand you must be right!
Figure 12.11 Profit from a strip and a strap.
Profit
Strip (one call 1 two puts) Strap (two calls 1 one put)STKProfit
STK
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 283
Strangles
In a strangle, sometimes called a bottom vertical combination, an investor buys a
European put and a European call with the same expiration date and different strike
prices. The profit pattern is shown in Figure 12.12. The call strike price, K2, is higher than
the put strike price, K1. The payoff function for a strangle is calculated in Table 12.6.
A strangle is a similar strategy to a straddle. The investor is betting that there will be a
large price move, but is uncertain whether it will be an increase or a decrease. Comparing Figures 12.12 and 12.10, we see that the stock price has to move farther
in a strangle than in a straddle for the investor to make a profit. However, the downside risk if the stock price ends up at a central value is less with a strangle.
The profit pattern obtained with a strangle depends on how close together the strike
prices are. The farther they are apart, the less the downside risk and the farther the stock price has to move for a profit to be realized.
The sale of a strangle is sometimes referred to as a top vertical combination. It can be
appropriate for an investor who feels that large stock price moves are unlikely. However, as with sale of a straddle, it is a risky strategy involving unlimited potential loss to the investor.
Range of
stock pricePayoff
from callPayoff
from putTotal
payoff
STā¦K1 0 K1-ST K1-ST
K16ST6K2 0 0 0
STĆK2 ST-K2 0 ST-K2Table 12.6 Payoff from a strangle.12.5 OTHER PAYOFFS
This chapter has demonstrated just a few of the ways in which options can be used to produce an interesting relationship between profit and stock price. If European options
Figure 12.12 Profit from a strangle.
Profit
STK1 K2
Long Call,
Strike K2 Long Put, Strike K
1
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284 CHAPTER 12
Strangles and Payoff Customization
- A strangle involves buying a European put and call with the same expiration but different strike prices to profit from high volatility.
- Compared to a straddle, a strangle requires a larger price movement to become profitable but offers lower downside risk if the stock price remains stable.
- Selling a strangle, or a top vertical combination, is a high-risk strategy with unlimited potential loss for those betting on low market movement.
- By combining butterfly spreads with various strike prices, an investor can theoretically approximate any desired payoff function at expiration.
Through the judicious combination of a large number of very small spikes, any payoff function can in theory be approximated as accurately as desired.
In a strangle, sometimes called a bottom vertical combination, an investor buys a
European put and a European call with the same expiration date and different strike
prices. The profit pattern is shown in Figure 12.12. The call strike price, K2, is higher than
the put strike price, K1. The payoff function for a strangle is calculated in Table 12.6.
A strangle is a similar strategy to a straddle. The investor is betting that there will be a
large price move, but is uncertain whether it will be an increase or a decrease. Comparing Figures 12.12 and 12.10, we see that the stock price has to move farther
in a strangle than in a straddle for the investor to make a profit. However, the downside risk if the stock price ends up at a central value is less with a strangle.
The profit pattern obtained with a strangle depends on how close together the strike
prices are. The farther they are apart, the less the downside risk and the farther the stock price has to move for a profit to be realized.
The sale of a strangle is sometimes referred to as a top vertical combination. It can be
appropriate for an investor who feels that large stock price moves are unlikely. However, as with sale of a straddle, it is a risky strategy involving unlimited potential loss to the investor.
Range of
stock pricePayoff
from callPayoff
from putTotal
payoff
STā¦K1 0 K1-ST K1-ST
K16ST6K2 0 0 0
STĆK2 ST-K2 0 ST-K2Table 12.6 Payoff from a strangle.12.5 OTHER PAYOFFS
This chapter has demonstrated just a few of the ways in which options can be used to produce an interesting relationship between profit and stock price. If European options
Figure 12.12 Profit from a strangle.
Profit
STK1 K2
Long Call,
Strike K2 Long Put, Strike K
1
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284 CHAPTER 12
expiring at time T were available with every single possible strike price, any payoff
function at time T could in theory be obtained. The easiest illustration of this involves
butterfly spreads. Recall that a butterfly spread is created by buying options with strike prices
K1 and K3 and selling two options with strike price K2, where K16K26K3 and
K3-K2=K2-K1. Figure 12.13 shows the payoff from a butterfly spread. The pattern
could be described as a spike. As K1 and K3 move closer together, the spike becomes
smaller. Through the judicious combination of a large number of very small spikes, any payoff function can in theory be approximated as accurately as desired.
SUMMARY
Option Trading Strategies
- Butterfly spreads can be used as theoretical building blocks to approximate any desired payoff function by combining multiple small 'spikes'.
- Principal-protected notes offer a safety net by combining zero-coupon bonds with European call options to guarantee the return of initial capital.
- Common trading strategies like bull, bear, and calendar spreads allow investors to take positions based on price direction or time to expiration.
- Combinations such as straddles, strips, and straps utilize both calls and puts to profit from different levels of market volatility and price movement.
- The versatility of options allows for complex diagonal spreads where both strike prices and expiration dates differ between long and short positions.
Through the judicious combination of a large number of very small spikes, any payoff function can in theory be approximated as accurately as desired.
expiring at time T were available with every single possible strike price, any payoff
function at time T could in theory be obtained. The easiest illustration of this involves
butterfly spreads. Recall that a butterfly spread is created by buying options with strike prices
K1 and K3 and selling two options with strike price K2, where K16K26K3 and
K3-K2=K2-K1. Figure 12.13 shows the payoff from a butterfly spread. The pattern
could be described as a spike. As K1 and K3 move closer together, the spike becomes
smaller. Through the judicious combination of a large number of very small spikes, any payoff function can in theory be approximated as accurately as desired.
SUMMARY
Principal-protected notes can be created from a zero-coupon bond and a European call
option. They are attractive to some investors because the issuer of the product guarantees that the purchaser will receive his or her principal back regardless of the
performance of the asset underlying the option.
A number of common trading strategies involve a single option and the underlying
stock. For example, writing a covered call involves buying the stock and selling a call option on the stock; a protective put involves buying a put option and buying the stock. The former is similar to selling a put option; the latter is similar to buying a call option.
Spreads involve either taking a position in two or more calls or taking a position in
two or more puts. A bull spread can be created by buying a call (put) with a low strike price and selling a call (put) with a high strike price. A bear spread can be created by buying a put (call) with a high strike price and selling a put (call) with a low strike price. A butterfly spread involves buying calls (puts) with a low and high strike price and selling two calls (puts) with some intermediate strike price. A calendar spread involves selling a call (put) with a short time to expiration and buying a call (put) with a longer time to expiration. A diagonal spread involves a long position in one option and a short position in another option such that both the strike price and the expiration date are different.
Combinations involve taking a position in both calls and puts on the same stock. A
straddle combination involves taking a long position in a call and a long position in a put with the same strike price and expiration date. A strip consists of a long position in one call and two puts with the same strike price and expiration date. A strap consists of a long position in two calls and one put with the same strike price and expiration date.
A strangle consists of a long position in a call and a put with different strike prices and
the same expiration date. There are many other ways in which options can be used to Figure 12.13 āSpike payoffā from a butterfly spread that can be used as a building
block to create other payoffs.
Payoff
STK1K2K3
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 285
produce interesting payoffs. It is not surprising that option trading has steadily
increased in popularity and continues to fascinate investors.
FURTHER READING
Bharadwaj, A. and J. B. Wiggins. āBox Spread and PutāCall Parity Tests for the S&P Index
LEAPS Markets,ā Journal of Derivatives, 8, 4 (Summer 2001): 62ā71.
Chaput, J. S., and L. H. Ederington, āOption Spread and Combination Trading,ā Journal of
Derivatives, 10, 4 (Summer 2003): 70ā88.
McMillan, L. G. Options as a Strategic Investment, 5th edn. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice
Hall, 2012.
Rendleman, R. J. āCovered Call Writing from an Expected Utility Perspective,ā Journal of
Derivatives, 8, 3 (Spring 2001): 63ā75.
Ronn, A. G. and E. I. Ronn. āThe BoxāSpread Arbitrage Conditions,ā Review of Financial
Studies, 2, 1 (1989): 91ā108.
Practice Questions
12.1. Call options on a stock are available with strike prices of +15, +171
2, and $20, and
expiration dates in 3 months. Their prices are $4, $2, and +1
Option Strategies and Arbitrage
- The text provides a bibliography of academic research focusing on box spreads, put-call parity, and the utility of covered call writing.
- Practice questions challenge students to construct butterfly spreads using specific strike prices and calculate resulting profit tables.
- The exercises explore the mechanics of strangles and straddles, specifically focusing on how volatility expectations influence strategy selection.
- Mathematical relationships are examined through put-call parity to prove cost equivalence between spreads created with calls versus puts.
- The material addresses investor psychology, such as choosing strategies when anticipating a large price jump but remaining uncertain of the direction.
An investor believes that there will be a big jump in a stock price, but is uncertain as to the direction.
Bharadwaj, A. and J. B. Wiggins. āBox Spread and PutāCall Parity Tests for the S&P Index
LEAPS Markets,ā Journal of Derivatives, 8, 4 (Summer 2001): 62ā71.
Chaput, J. S., and L. H. Ederington, āOption Spread and Combination Trading,ā Journal of
Derivatives, 10, 4 (Summer 2003): 70ā88.
McMillan, L. G. Options as a Strategic Investment, 5th edn. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice
Hall, 2012.
Rendleman, R. J. āCovered Call Writing from an Expected Utility Perspective,ā Journal of
Derivatives, 8, 3 (Spring 2001): 63ā75.
Ronn, A. G. and E. I. Ronn. āThe BoxāSpread Arbitrage Conditions,ā Review of Financial
Studies, 2, 1 (1989): 91ā108.
Practice Questions
12.1. Call options on a stock are available with strike prices of +15, +171
2, and $20, and
expiration dates in 3 months. Their prices are $4, $2, and +1
2, respectively. Explain how
the options can be used to create a butterfly spread. Construct a table showing how
profit varies with stock price for the butterfly spread.
12.2. A call option with a strike price of $50 costs $2. A put option with a strike price of $45 costs $3. Explain how a strangle can be created from these two options. What is the pattern of profits from the strangle?
12.3. Use putācall parity to relate the initial investment for a bull spread created using calls to
the initial investment for a bull spread created using puts.
12.4. Explain how an aggressive bear spread can be created using put options.
12.5. Suppose that put options on a stock with strike prices $30 and $35 cost $4 and $7, respectively. How can the options be used to create (a) a bull spread and (b) a bear
spread? Construct a table that shows the profit and payoff for both spreads.
12.6. Use putācall parity to show that the cost of a butterfly spread created from European puts is identical to the cost of a butterfly spread created from European calls.
12.7. A call with a strike price of $60 costs $6. A put with the same strike price and expiration date costs $4. Construct a table that shows the profit from a straddle. For what range of stock prices would the straddle lead to a loss?
12.8. Construct a table showing the payoff from a bull spread when puts with strike prices
K1
and K2, with K27K1, are used.
12.9. An investor believes that there will be a big jump in a stock price, but is uncertain as to the direction. Identify six different strategies the investor can follow and explain the differences among them.
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286 CHAPTER 12
Option Trading Strategies and Spreads
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on constructing complex trading positions like butterfly spreads, strangles, and straddles.
- It explores the application of put-call parity to demonstrate that the costs of spreads created with calls are identical to those created with puts.
- Specific scenarios examine how investors can profit from market volatility even when they are uncertain about the direction of a stock's price movement.
- The problems address the mechanics of principal-protected notes and the conditions under which these financial products become profitable for banks.
- Practical exercises require calculating initial investments and profit ranges for bull, bear, and diagonal spreads using specific strike prices and premiums.
An investor believes that there will be a big jump in a stock price, but is uncertain as to the direction.
the options can be used to create a butterfly spread. Construct a table showing how
profit varies with stock price for the butterfly spread.
12.2. A call option with a strike price of $50 costs $2. A put option with a strike price of $45 costs $3. Explain how a strangle can be created from these two options. What is the pattern of profits from the strangle?
12.3. Use putācall parity to relate the initial investment for a bull spread created using calls to
the initial investment for a bull spread created using puts.
12.4. Explain how an aggressive bear spread can be created using put options.
12.5. Suppose that put options on a stock with strike prices $30 and $35 cost $4 and $7, respectively. How can the options be used to create (a) a bull spread and (b) a bear
spread? Construct a table that shows the profit and payoff for both spreads.
12.6. Use putācall parity to show that the cost of a butterfly spread created from European puts is identical to the cost of a butterfly spread created from European calls.
12.7. A call with a strike price of $60 costs $6. A put with the same strike price and expiration date costs $4. Construct a table that shows the profit from a straddle. For what range of stock prices would the straddle lead to a loss?
12.8. Construct a table showing the payoff from a bull spread when puts with strike prices
K1
and K2, with K27K1, are used.
12.9. An investor believes that there will be a big jump in a stock price, but is uncertain as to the direction. Identify six different strategies the investor can follow and explain the differences among them.
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286 CHAPTER 12
12.10. How can a forward contract on a stock with a particular delivery price and delivery date
be created from options?
12.11. āA box spread comprises four options. Two can be combined to create a long forward
position and two to create a short forward position.ā Explain this statement.
12.12. What is the result if the strike price of the put is higher than the strike price of the call in
a strangle?
12.13. A foreign currency is currently worth $0.64. A 1-year butterfly spread is set up using
European call options with strike prices of $0.60, $0.65, and $0.70. The risk-free interest rates in the United States and the foreign country are 5% and 4% respectively, and the volatility of the exchange rate is 15%. Use the DerivaGem software to calculate the cost of setting up the butterfly spread position. Show that the cost is the same if European put options are used instead of European call options.
12.14. An index provides a dividend yield of 1% and has a volatility of 20%. The risk-free
interest rate is 4%. How long does a principal-protected note, created as in Example 12.1, have to last for it to be profitable for the bank issuing it? Use DerivaGem.
12.15. Explain the statement at the end of Section 12.1 that, when dividends are zero, the
principal-protected note cannot be profitable for the bank no matter how long it lasts.
12.16. A trader creates a bear spread by selling a 6-month put option with a $25 strike price for
$2.15 and buying a 6-month put option with a $29 strike price for $4.75. What is the
initial investment? What is the total payoff (excluding the initial investment) when the stock price in 6 months is (a) $23, (b) $28, and (c) $33.
12.17. A trader sells a strangle by selling a 6-month European call option with a strike price of
$50 for $3 and selling a 6-month European put option with a strike price of $40 for $4.
For what range of prices of the underlying asset in 6 months does the trader make a profit?
12.18. Three put options on a stock have the same expiration date and strike prices of $55, $60,
and $65. The market prices are $3, $5, and $8, respectively. Explain how a butterfly spread can be created. Construct a table showing the profit from the strategy. For what range of stock prices would the butterfly spread lead to a loss?
12.19. A diagonal spread is created by buying a call with strike price
Option Trading Strategy Exercises
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on constructing complex financial positions like butterfly spreads, box spreads, and strangles.
- It explores the relationship between options and forward contracts, specifically how combinations of calls and puts can replicate forward positions.
- Several exercises require the use of DerivaGem software to calculate the costs and profitability of principal-protected notes and currency spreads.
- The problems challenge students to analyze profit and loss scenarios for various portfolios, including diagonal spreads and combinations of shares with short call options.
- A specific focus is placed on the impact of dividends and interest rates on the viability of bank-issued principal-protected notes.
Explain the statement at the end of Section 12.1 that, when dividends are zero, the principal-protected note cannot be profitable for the bank no matter how long it lasts.
12.10. How can a forward contract on a stock with a particular delivery price and delivery date
be created from options?
12.11. āA box spread comprises four options. Two can be combined to create a long forward
position and two to create a short forward position.ā Explain this statement.
12.12. What is the result if the strike price of the put is higher than the strike price of the call in
a strangle?
12.13. A foreign currency is currently worth $0.64. A 1-year butterfly spread is set up using
European call options with strike prices of $0.60, $0.65, and $0.70. The risk-free interest rates in the United States and the foreign country are 5% and 4% respectively, and the volatility of the exchange rate is 15%. Use the DerivaGem software to calculate the cost of setting up the butterfly spread position. Show that the cost is the same if European put options are used instead of European call options.
12.14. An index provides a dividend yield of 1% and has a volatility of 20%. The risk-free
interest rate is 4%. How long does a principal-protected note, created as in Example 12.1, have to last for it to be profitable for the bank issuing it? Use DerivaGem.
12.15. Explain the statement at the end of Section 12.1 that, when dividends are zero, the
principal-protected note cannot be profitable for the bank no matter how long it lasts.
12.16. A trader creates a bear spread by selling a 6-month put option with a $25 strike price for
$2.15 and buying a 6-month put option with a $29 strike price for $4.75. What is the
initial investment? What is the total payoff (excluding the initial investment) when the stock price in 6 months is (a) $23, (b) $28, and (c) $33.
12.17. A trader sells a strangle by selling a 6-month European call option with a strike price of
$50 for $3 and selling a 6-month European put option with a strike price of $40 for $4.
For what range of prices of the underlying asset in 6 months does the trader make a profit?
12.18. Three put options on a stock have the same expiration date and strike prices of $55, $60,
and $65. The market prices are $3, $5, and $8, respectively. Explain how a butterfly spread can be created. Construct a table showing the profit from the strategy. For what range of stock prices would the butterfly spread lead to a loss?
12.19. A diagonal spread is created by buying a call with strike price
K2 and exercise date T2 and
selling a call with strike price K1 and exercise date T1, where T27T1. Draw a diagram
showing the profit from the spread at time T1 when (a) K27K1 and (b) K26K1.
12.20. Draw a diagram showing the variation of an investorās profit and loss with the terminal
stock price for a portfolio consisting of :
(a) One share and a short position in one call option
(b) Two shares and a short position in one call option
(c) One share and a short position in two call options
(d) One share and a short position in four call options.
In each case, assume that the call option has an exercise price equal to the current
stock price.
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 287
12.21. Suppose that the price of a non-dividend-paying stock is $32, its volatility is 30%, and
the risk-free rate for all maturities is 5% per annum. Use DerivaGem to calculate the cost of setting up the following positions:
(a) A bull spread using European call options with strike prices of $25 and $30 and a
maturity of 6 months
Binomial Trees and Option Pricing
- The binomial tree model represents potential stock price paths based on the assumption that prices follow a random walk.
- As the time steps in a binomial tree become smaller, the model converges to the BlackāScholesāMerton pricing formula.
- The model is essential for understanding no-arbitrage arguments and the principle of risk-neutral valuation in finance.
- Binomial trees provide a practical numerical procedure for valuing complex derivatives, such as American options, which can be exercised early.
In the limit, as the time step becomes smaller, this model is the same as the BlackāScholesāMerton model we will be discussing in Chapter 15.
(d) One share and a short position in four call options.
In each case, assume that the call option has an exercise price equal to the current
stock price.
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Trading Strategies Involving Options 287
12.21. Suppose that the price of a non-dividend-paying stock is $32, its volatility is 30%, and
the risk-free rate for all maturities is 5% per annum. Use DerivaGem to calculate the cost of setting up the following positions:
(a) A bull spread using European call options with strike prices of $25 and $30 and a
maturity of 6 months
(b) A bear spread using European put options with strike prices of $25 and $30 and a maturity of 6 months
(c) A butterfly spread using European call options with strike prices of $25, $30, and $35 and a maturity of 1 year
(d) A butterfly spread using European put options with strike prices of $25, $30, and $35 and a maturity of 1 year
(e) A straddle using options with a strike price of $30 and a 6-month maturity
(f) A strangle using options with strike prices of $25 and $35 and a 6-month maturity.
In each case provide a table showing the relationship between profit and final stock price. Ignore the impact of discounting.
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288
Binomial Trees13CHAPTER
A useful and very popular technique for pricing an option involves constructing a
binomial tree. This is a diagram representing different possible paths that might be
followed by the stock price over the life of an option. The underlying assumption is that
the stock price follows a random walk. In each time step, it has a certain probability of
moving up by a certain percentage amount and a certain probability of moving down by a certain percentage amount. In the limit, as the time step becomes smaller, this model is the same as the BlackāScholesāMerton model we will be discussing in Chapter 15. Indeed, in the appendix to this chapter, we show that the European option price given by the binomial tree converges to the BlackāScholesāMerton price as the time step becomes smaller.
The material in this chapter is important for a number of reasons. First, it explains
the nature of the no-arbitrage arguments that are used for valuing options. Second, it explains the binomial tree numerical procedure that is widely used for valuing American options and other derivatives. Third, it introduces a very important principle known as risk-neutral valuation.
The general approach to constructing trees in this chapter is the one used in an
important paper published by Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein in 1979. More details on numerical procedures using binomial trees are given in Chapter 21.
13.1 A ONE-STEP BINOMIAL MODEL AND A NO-ARBITRAGE
ARGUMENT
We start by considering a very simple situation. A stock price is currently $20, and it is
known that at the end of 3 months it will be either $22 or $18. We are interested in valuing a European call option to buy the stock for $21 in 3 months. This option will have one of two values at the end of the 3 months. If the stock price turns out to be $22, the value of the option will be $1; if the stock price turns out to be $18, the value of the option will be zero. The situation is illustrated in Figure 13.1.
It turns out that a relatively simple argument can be used to price the option in this
example. The only assumption needed is that arbitrage opportunities do not exist. We set up a portfolio of the stock and the option in such a way that there is no uncertainty
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Binomial Trees 289
The Binomial Option Pricing Model
- The text introduces a simple binomial model to value a European call option by assuming only two possible future stock prices.
- A riskless portfolio is constructed by combining a long position in a specific number of shares (delta) with a short position in one option.
- By equating the portfolio's value in both up and down scenarios, the delta is calculated to ensure the final outcome is certain regardless of market movement.
- In the absence of arbitrage, this riskless portfolio must earn the risk-free interest rate, allowing the current option price to be derived through present value discounting.
- The parameter delta represents the ratio of shares needed to hedge each option and is a fundamental concept in financial derivatives hedging.
The portfolio is riskless if the value of ā is chosen so that the final value of the portfolio is the same for both alternatives.
We start by considering a very simple situation. A stock price is currently $20, and it is
known that at the end of 3 months it will be either $22 or $18. We are interested in valuing a European call option to buy the stock for $21 in 3 months. This option will have one of two values at the end of the 3 months. If the stock price turns out to be $22, the value of the option will be $1; if the stock price turns out to be $18, the value of the option will be zero. The situation is illustrated in Figure 13.1.
It turns out that a relatively simple argument can be used to price the option in this
example. The only assumption needed is that arbitrage opportunities do not exist. We set up a portfolio of the stock and the option in such a way that there is no uncertainty
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Binomial Trees 289
about the value of the portfolio at the end of the 3 months. We then argue that, because
the portfolio has no risk, the return it earns must equal the risk-free interest rate. This enables us to work out the cost of setting up the portfolio and therefore the optionās price. Because there are two securities (the stock and the stock option) and only two possible outcomes, it is always possible to set up the riskless portfolio.
Consider a portfolio consisting of a long position in
ā shares of the stock and a short
position in one call option ( ā is the Greek capital letter ādeltaā). We calculate the value
of ā that makes the portfolio riskless. If the stock price moves up from $20 to $22, the
value of the shares is 22ā and the value of the option is 1, so that the total value of the
portfolio is 22ā-1. If the stock price moves down from $20 to $18, the value of the
shares is 18 ā and the value of the option is zero, so that the total value of the portfolio
is 18ā. The portfolio is riskless if the value of ā is chosen so that the final value of the
portfolio is the same for both alternatives. This means that
22ā-1=18ā
or
ā=0.25
A riskless portfolio is therefore
Long: 0.25 shares
Short: 1 option.
If the stock price moves up to $22, the value of the portfolio is
22*0.25-1=4.5
If the stock price moves down to $18, the value of the portfolio is
18*0.25=4.5
Regardless of whether the stock price moves up or down, the value of the portfolio is always 4.5 at the end of the life of the option.
Riskless portfolios must, in the absence of arbitrage opportunities, earn the risk-free
rate of interest. Suppose that, in this case, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum (con-tinuously compounded). It follows that the value of the portfolio today must be the present value of 4.5, or
4.5e-0.04*3>12=4.455Figure 13.1 Stock price movements for numerical example in Section 13.1.
Stock price 5 $22
Option payof f 5 $1
Stock price 5 $18
Option pa yoff 5 $0Stock price 5 $20
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290 CHAPTER 13
The value of the stock price today is known to be $20. Suppose the option price is
denoted by f. The value of the portfolio today is
20*0.25-f=5-f
It follows that
5-f=4.455
or
f=0.545
This shows that, in the absence of arbitrage opportunities, the current value of the option must be 0.545. If the value of the option were more than 0.545, the portfolio would cost less than 4.455 to set up and would earn more than the risk-free rate. If the value of the option were less than 0.545, shorting the portfolio would provide a way of borrowing money at less than the risk-free rate.
Trading 0.25 shares is, of course, not possible. However, the argument is the same if
we imagine selling 400 options and buying 100 shares. In general, it is necessary to buy
ā shares for each option sold to form a riskless portfolio. The parameter ā (delta) is
important in the hedging of options. It is discussed further later in this chapter and in Chapter 19.
A Generalization
The Binomial Option Pricing Model
- The value of an option is determined by creating a riskless portfolio consisting of a specific number of shares and a short position in the option.
- The parameter delta represents the ratio of the change in the option price to the change in the stock price and is essential for effective hedging.
- No-arbitrage arguments imply that a riskless portfolio must earn exactly the risk-free interest rate to prevent market imbalances.
- The generalized binomial formula allows for option pricing based on up and down movements without requiring the stock's expected return.
- The variable p represents a risk-neutral probability that simplifies the calculation of the option's present value.
If the value of the option were less than 0.545, shorting the portfolio would provide a way of borrowing money at less than the risk-free rate.
This shows that, in the absence of arbitrage opportunities, the current value of the option must be 0.545. If the value of the option were more than 0.545, the portfolio would cost less than 4.455 to set up and would earn more than the risk-free rate. If the value of the option were less than 0.545, shorting the portfolio would provide a way of borrowing money at less than the risk-free rate.
Trading 0.25 shares is, of course, not possible. However, the argument is the same if
we imagine selling 400 options and buying 100 shares. In general, it is necessary to buy
ā shares for each option sold to form a riskless portfolio. The parameter ā (delta) is
important in the hedging of options. It is discussed further later in this chapter and in Chapter 19.
A Generalization
We can generalize the no-arbitrage argument just presented by considering a stock whose price is
S0 and an option on the stock (or any derivative dependent on the stock)
whose current price is f . We suppose that the option lasts for time T and that during
the life of the option the stock price can either move up from S0 to a new level, S0u,
where u71, or down from S0 to a new level, S0d, where d61. The percentage increase
in the stock price when there is an up movement is u-1; the percentage decrease when
there is a down movement is 1-d. If the stock price moves up to S0u, we suppose that
the payoff from the option is fu; if the stock price moves down to S0d, we suppose the
payoff from the option is fd. The situation is illustrated in Figure 13.2.
As before, we imagine a portfolio consisting of a long position in ā shares and a
short position in one option. We calculate the value of ā that makes the portfolio
riskless. If there is an up movement in the stock price, the value of the portfolio at the
end of the life of the option is
S0uā-fu
Figure 13.2 Stock and option prices in a general one-step tree.
fS0
fdS0dfuS0u
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Binomial Trees 291
If there is a down movement in the stock price, the value becomes
S0dā-fd
The two are equal when
S0uā-fu=S0dā-fd
or
ā=fu-fd
S0u-S0d (13.1)
In this case, the portfolio is riskless and, for there to be no arbitrage opportunities, it
must earn the risk-free interest rate. Equation (13.1) shows that ā is the ratio of the
change in the option price to the change in the stock price as we move between the nodes at time T.
If we denote the risk-free interest rate by r, the present value of the portfolio is
1S0uā-fu2e-rT
The cost of setting up the portfolio is
S0ā-f
It follows that
S0ā-f=1S0uā-fu2e-rT
or
f=S0ā11-ue-rT2+fue-rT
Substituting from equation (13.1) for ā, we obtain
f=S0afu-fd
S0u-S0db11-ue-rT2+fue-rT
or
f=fu11-de-rT2+fd1ue-rT-12
u-d
or
f=e-rT3pfu+11-p2fd4 (13.2)
where
p=erT-d
u-d (13.3)
Equations (13.2) and (13.3) enable an option to be priced when stock price movements
are given by a one-step binomial tree. The only assumption needed for the equation is that there are no arbitrage opportunities in the market.
In the numerical example considered previously (see Figure 13.1), u = 1.1, d = 0.9,
r = 0.04, T = 0.25, f
u = 1, and fd=0. From equation (13.3), we have
p=e0.04*3>12-0.9
1.1-0.9=0.5503
and, from equation (13.2), we have
f=e-0.04*0.2510.5503*1+0.4497*02=0.545
The result agrees with the answer obtained earlier in this section.
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292 CHAPTER 13
Irrelevance of the Stockās Expected Return
Risk-Neutral Valuation Principles
- Option pricing formulas using binomial trees rely solely on the absence of arbitrage rather than the actual probabilities of stock price movements.
- The expected return of a stock is irrelevant to the option's value because future price probabilities are already embedded in the current stock price.
- Risk-neutral valuation allows analysts to assume investors do not require extra compensation for risk, simplifying complex derivative pricing.
- In a risk-neutral world, all investments earn the risk-free rate, and this rate is used to discount the expected future payoffs of options.
- The parameter 'p' in the binomial model represents the probability of an upward movement specifically within a risk-neutral framework.
Almost miraculously, it finesses the problem that we know hardly anything about the risk aversion of the buyers and sellers of options.
Equations (13.2) and (13.3) enable an option to be priced when stock price movements
are given by a one-step binomial tree. The only assumption needed for the equation is that there are no arbitrage opportunities in the market.
In the numerical example considered previously (see Figure 13.1), u = 1.1, d = 0.9,
r = 0.04, T = 0.25, f
u = 1, and fd=0. From equation (13.3), we have
p=e0.04*3>12-0.9
1.1-0.9=0.5503
and, from equation (13.2), we have
f=e-0.04*0.2510.5503*1+0.4497*02=0.545
The result agrees with the answer obtained earlier in this section.
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Irrelevance of the Stockās Expected Return
The option pricing formula in equation (13.2) does not involve the probabilities of the
stock price moving up or down. For example, we get the same option price when the probability of an upward movement is 0.5 as we do when it is 0.9. This is surprising and seems counterintuitive. It is natural to assume that, as the probability of an upward movement in the stock price increases, the value of a call option on the stock increases and the value of a put option on the stock decreases. This is not the case.
The key reason is that we are not valuing the option in absolute terms. We are
calculating its value in terms of the price of the underlying stock. The probabilities of
future up or down movements are already incorporated into the stock price: we do not need to take them into account again when valuing the option in terms of the stock price.
13.2 RISK-NEUTRAL VALUATION
We are now in a position to introduce a very important principle in the pricing of derivatives known as risk-neutral valuation. This states that, when valuing a derivative, we can make the assumption that investors are risk-neutral. This assumption means investors do not increase the expected return they require from an investment to compensate for increased risk. A world where investors are risk-neutral is referred to
as a risk-neutral world. The world we live in is, of course, not a risk-neutral world. The
higher the risks investors take, the higher the expected returns they require. However, it
turns out that assuming a risk-neutral world gives us the right option price for the world we live in, as well as for a risk-neutral world. Almost miraculously, it finesses the problem that we know hardly anything about the risk aversion of the buyers and sellers of options.
Risk-neutral valuation seems a surprising result when it is first encountered. Options
are risky investments. Should not a personās risk preferences affect how they are priced?
The answer is that, when we are pricing an option in terms of the price of the underlying stock, risk preferences are unimportant. As investors become more risk-
averse, stock prices decline, but the formulas relating option prices to stock prices remain the same.
A risk-neutral world has two features that simplify the pricing of derivatives:
1. The expected return on a stock (or any other investment) is the risk-free rate.
2. The discount rate used for the expected payoff on an option (or any other instrument) is the risk-free rate.
Returning to equation (13.2), the parameter p should be interpreted as the probability
of an up movement in a risk-neutral world, so that
1-p is the probability of a down
movement in this world. (We assume u7erT, so that 06p61.) The expression
pfu+11-p2fd
is the expected future payoff from the option in a risk-neutral world and equation (13.2) states that the value of the option today is its expected future payoff in a risk-neutral world discounted at the risk-free rate. This is an application of risk-neutral valuation.
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Binomial Trees 293
To prove the validity of our interpretation of p , we note that, when p is the
probability of an up movement, the expected stock price E1ST2 at time T is given by
E1ST2=pS0u+11-p2S0d
or
E1ST2=pS01u-d2+S0d
Principles of Risk-Neutral Valuation
- Risk-neutral valuation allows derivatives to be priced by assuming the world is risk-neutral, yielding a price that remains valid in all worlds.
- In a risk-neutral world, the expected return on a stock is the risk-free rate, which determines the probability of price movements.
- The value of an option today is its expected future payoff in a risk-neutral world, discounted at the risk-free interest rate.
- The mathematical results of risk-neutral valuation are shown to be identical to those obtained through no-arbitrage arguments.
- The probability of a stock price movement in a risk-neutral world is generally different from the actual probability in the real world.
It states that, when we assume the world is risk-neutral, we get the right price for a derivative in all worlds, not just in a risk-neutral one.
is the expected future payoff from the option in a risk-neutral world and equation (13.2) states that the value of the option today is its expected future payoff in a risk-neutral world discounted at the risk-free rate. This is an application of risk-neutral valuation.
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Binomial Trees 293
To prove the validity of our interpretation of p , we note that, when p is the
probability of an up movement, the expected stock price E1ST2 at time T is given by
E1ST2=pS0u+11-p2S0d
or
E1ST2=pS01u-d2+S0d
Substituting from equation (13.3) for p gives
E1ST2=S0erT (13.4)
This shows that the stock price grows, on average, at the risk-free rate when p is the
probability of an up movement. In other words, the stock price behaves exactly as we would expect it to behave in a risk-neutral world when p is the probability of an up movement.
Risk-neutral valuation is a very important general result in the pricing of derivatives.
It states that, when we assume the world is risk-neutral, we get the right price for a derivative in all worlds, not just in a risk-neutral one. We have shown that risk-neutral valuation is correct when a simple binomial model is assumed for how the price of the the stock evolves. We will prove it when the stock price follows a continuous-time stochastic process in Chapter 15. It is a result that is true regardless of the assumptions made about the evolution of the stock price.
To apply risk-neutral valuation to the pricing of a derivative, we first calculate what
the probabilities of different outcomes would be if the world were risk-neutral. We then calculate the expected payoff from the derivative and discount that expected payoff at the risk-free rate of interest.
The One-Step Binomial Example Revisited
We now return to the example in Figure 13.1 and illustrate that risk-neutral valuation gives the same answer as no-arbitrage arguments. In Figure 13.1, the stock price is currently $20 and will move either up to $22 or down to $18 at the end of 3 months.
The option considered is a European call option with a strike price of $21 and an expiration date in 3 months. The risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum.
We define p as the probability of an upward movement in the stock price in a risk-
neutral world. We can calculate p from equation (13.3). Alternatively, we can argue that
the expected return on the stock in a risk-neutral world must be the risk-free rate of 4%.
This means that p must satisfy
22p+1811-p2=20e0.04*3>12
or
4p=20e0.04*3>12-18
That is, p must be 0.5503.
At the end of the 3 months, the call option has a 0.5503 probability of being worth 1
and a 0.4497 probability of being worth zero. Its expected value is therefore
0.5503*1+0.4497*0=0.5503
In a risk-neutral world this should be discounted at the risk-free rate. The value of the option today is therefore
0.5503e-0.04*3>12
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294 CHAPTER 13
or $0.545. This is the same as the value obtained earlier, demonstrating that no-
arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation give the same answer.
Real World vs. Risk-Neutral World
It should be emphasized that p is the probability of an up movement in a risk-neutral
world. In general, this is not the same as the probability of an up movement in the real world. In our example
p=0.5503. When the probability of an up movement is 0.5503,
the expected return on both the stock and the option is the risk-free rate of 4%. Suppose that, in the real world, the expected return on the stock is 10% and
p* is the
probability of an up movement in this world. It follows that
22p*+1811-p*2=20e0.10*3>12
so that p*=0.6266.
The expected payoff from the option in the real world is then given by
p**1+11-p*2*0
Risk-Neutral Valuation and Binomial Trees
- Risk-neutral valuation simplifies option pricing by assuming all assets earn the risk-free rate, avoiding the need to estimate complex real-world discount rates.
- In the real world, a call option is riskier than its underlying stock, requiring a significantly higher discount rate that is difficult to measure directly.
- The binomial tree model can be extended to multiple steps by working backward from the final nodes to the initial node.
- At each node of a multi-step tree, the option price is calculated using the risk-neutral probability and the discounted expected payoff from the subsequent nodes.
- The example demonstrates that while a stock might have a 10% expected return, the corresponding call option could have a real-world discount rate as high as 55.96%.
A position in a call option is riskier than a position in the stock.
It should be emphasized that p is the probability of an up movement in a risk-neutral
world. In general, this is not the same as the probability of an up movement in the real world. In our example
p=0.5503. When the probability of an up movement is 0.5503,
the expected return on both the stock and the option is the risk-free rate of 4%. Suppose that, in the real world, the expected return on the stock is 10% and
p* is the
probability of an up movement in this world. It follows that
22p*+1811-p*2=20e0.10*3>12
so that p*=0.6266.
The expected payoff from the option in the real world is then given by
p**1+11-p*2*0
or 0.6266. Unfortunately, it is not easy to know the correct discount rate to apply to the
expected payoff in the real world. The return the market requires on the stock is 10% and this is the discount rate that would be used for the expected cash flows from an
investment in the stock. A position in a call option is riskier than a position in the stock. As a result the discount rate to be applied to the payoff from a call option is greater than 10%, but we do not have a direct measure of how much greater than 10% it should be.
1 Using risk-neutral valuation solves this problem because we know that in
a risk-neutral world the expected return on all assets (and therefore the discount rate to use for all expected payoffs) is the risk-free rate.
1 Since we know the correct value of the option is 0.545, we can deduce that the correct real-world discount
rate is 55.96%. This is because 0.545=0.6266e-0.5596*3>12.13.3 TWO-STEP BINOMIAL TREES
We can extend the analysis to a two-step binomial tree such as that shown in Figure 13.3.
Here the stock price starts at $20 and in each of two time steps may go up by 10% or down by 10%. Each time step is 3 months long and the risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum. We consider a 6-month option with a strike price of $21.
The objective of the analysis is to calculate the option price at the initial node of the
tree. This can be done by repeatedly applying the principles established earlier in the chapter. Figure 13.4 shows the same tree as Figure 13.3, but with both the stock price and the option price at each node. (The stock price is the upper number and the option price is the lower number.) The option prices at the final nodes of the tree are easily calculated. They are the payoffs from the option. At node D the stock price is 24.2 and the option price is
24.2-21=3.2; at nodes E and F the option is out of the money and
its value is zero.
At node C the option price is zero, because node C leads to either node E or node F
and at both of those nodes the option price is zero. We calculate the option price at node B by focusing our attention on the part of the tree shown in Figure 13.5. Using the
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Binomial Trees 295
notation introduced earlier in the chapter, u=1.1, d=0.9, r=0.04, and T=0.25, so
that p=0.5503, and equation (13.2) gives the value of the option at node B as
e-0.04*3>1210.5503*3.2+0.4497*02=1.7433
It remains for us to calculate the option price at the initial node A. We do so by focusing
on the first step of the tree. We know that the value of the option at node B is 1.7433 and Figure 13.3 Stock prices in a two-step tree.
20
16.21822
19.824.2
Figure 13.4 Stock and option prices in a two-step tree. The upper number at each
node is the stock price and the lower number is the option price.
20
0.9497
16.2
0.00.01822
1.7433
19.8
0.024.2
3.2D
E
FCB
A
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296 CHAPTER 13
that at node C it is zero. Equation (13.2) therefore gives the value at node A as
e-0.04*3>1210.5503*1.7433+0.4497*02=0.9497
Generalizing Binomial Option Pricing
- The text demonstrates how to calculate option prices at the initial node by working backward through a multi-step binomial tree.
- A generalized formula is introduced for a two-step tree, where the option price is the discounted expected payoff based on risk-neutral probabilities.
- The risk-neutral valuation principle remains consistent regardless of the number of steps added to the binomial model.
- The methodology is versatile enough to price both call and put options by adjusting the final node payoffs relative to the strike price.
- Calculations involve determining proportional up and down movements and the risk-free interest rate over specific time intervals.
The option price is always equal to its expected payoff in a risk-neutral world discounted at the risk-free interest rate.
It remains for us to calculate the option price at the initial node A. We do so by focusing
on the first step of the tree. We know that the value of the option at node B is 1.7433 and Figure 13.3 Stock prices in a two-step tree.
20
16.21822
19.824.2
Figure 13.4 Stock and option prices in a two-step tree. The upper number at each
node is the stock price and the lower number is the option price.
20
0.9497
16.2
0.00.01822
1.7433
19.8
0.024.2
3.2D
E
FCB
A
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296 CHAPTER 13
that at node C it is zero. Equation (13.2) therefore gives the value at node A as
e-0.04*3>1210.5503*1.7433+0.4497*02=0.9497
The value of the option is $0.9497.
Note that this example was constructed so that u and d (the proportional up and down
movements) were the same at each node of the tree and so that the time steps were of the
same length. As a result, the risk-neutral probability, p , as calculated by equation (13.3)
is the same at each node.
A Generalization
We can generalize the case of two time steps by considering the situation in Figure 13.6. The stock price is initially
S0. During each time step, it either moves up to u times its
value at the beginning of the time step or moves down to d times this value. The
notation for the value of the option is shown on the tree. (For example, after two up
movements the value of the option is fuu.) We suppose that the risk-free interest rate is r
and the length of the time step is āt years.
Because the length of a time step is now āt rather than T, equations (13.2) and (13.3)
become
f=e-rāt3pfu+11-p2fd4 (13.5)
p=erāt-d
u-d (13.6)
Repeated application of equation (13.5) gives
fu=e-rāt3pfuu+11-p2fud4 (13.7)
fd=e-rāt3pfud+11-p2fdd4 (13.8)
f=e-rāt3pfu+11-p2fd4 (13.9)
Substituting from equations (13.7) and (13.8) into (13.9), we get
f=e-2rāt3p2fuu+2p11-p2fud+11-p22fdd4 (13.10)
This is consistent with the principle of risk-neutral valuation mentioned earlier. The Figure 13.5 Evaluation of option price at node B of Figure 13.4.
22
1.7433
19.8
0.024.2
3.2
ED
B
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Binomial Trees 297
variables p2, 2p11-p2, and 11-p22 are the probabilities that the upper, middle, and
lower final nodes will be reached. The option price is equal to its expected payoff in a
risk-neutral world discounted at the risk-free interest rate.
As we add more steps to the binomial tree, the risk-neutral valuation principle
continues to hold. The option price is always equal to its expected payoff in a risk-
neutral world discounted at the risk-free interest rate.Figure 13.6 Stock and option prices in general two-step tree.
fdS0dfuS0u
fudS0ud
fddS0d2fuuS0u2
fS0
13.4 A PUT EXAMPLE
The procedures described in this chapter can be used to price puts as well as calls. Consider a 2-year European put with a strike price of $52 on a stock whose current
price is $50. We suppose that there are two time steps of 1 year, and in each time step the stock price either moves up by 20% or moves down by 20%. We also suppose that the risk-free interest rate is 5%.
The tree is shown in Figure 13.7. In this case
u=1.2, d=0.8, āt=1, and r=0.05.
From equation (13.6) the value of the risk-neutral probability, p, is given by
p=e0.05*1-0.8
1.2-0.8=0.6282
The possible final stock prices are: $72, $48, and $32. In this case, fuu=0, fud=4,
and fdd=20. From equation (13.10),
f=e-2*0.05*110.62822*0+2*0.6282*0.3718*4+0.37182*202=4.1923
The value of the put is $4.1923. This result can also be obtained using equation (13.5)
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298 CHAPTER 13
and working back through the tree one step at a time. Figure 13.7 shows the inter-
mediate option prices that are calculated.Figure 13.7 Using a two-step tree to value a European put option. At each node, the
upper number is the stock price and the lower number is the option price.
50
4.1923
32
209.46364060
1.4147
48
472
0
Valuing American Options and Delta
- American options are valued by working backward through a binomial tree and testing for optimal early exercise at each node.
- The value of an American option at any node is the greater of its discounted future value or the immediate payoff from early exercise.
- Delta represents the ratio of the change in an option's price to the change in the underlying stock's price.
- Delta hedging involves holding a specific number of stock units for each option shorted to create a riskless portfolio.
- The delta of a call option is always positive, while the delta of a put option is always negative.
The procedure is to work back through the tree from the end to the beginning, testing at each node to see whether early exercise is optimal.
f=e-2*0.05*110.62822*0+2*0.6282*0.3718*4+0.37182*202=4.1923
The value of the put is $4.1923. This result can also be obtained using equation (13.5)
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298 CHAPTER 13
and working back through the tree one step at a time. Figure 13.7 shows the inter-
mediate option prices that are calculated.Figure 13.7 Using a two-step tree to value a European put option. At each node, the
upper number is the stock price and the lower number is the option price.
50
4.1923
32
209.46364060
1.4147
48
472
0
13.5 AMERICAN OPTIONS
Up to now all the options we have considered have been European. We now move on to consider how American options can be valued using a binomial tree such as that in Figure 13.4 or 13.7. The procedure is to work back through the tree from the end to the
beginning, testing at each node to see whether early exercise is optimal. The value of the option at the final nodes is the same as for the European option. At earlier nodes the value of the option is the greater of
1. The value given by equation (13.5)
2. The payoff from early exercise.
Figure 13.8 shows how Figure 13.7 is affected if the option under consideration is
American rather than European. The stock prices and their probabilities are
unchanged. The values for the option at the final nodes are also unchanged. At node B, equation (13.5) gives the value of the option as 1.4147, whereas the payoff from early exercise is negative
1= -82. Clearly early exercise is not optimal at node B,
and the value of the option at this node is 1.4147. At node C, equation (13.5) gives the value of the option as 9.4636, whereas the payoff from early exercise is 12. In this case, early exercise is optimal and the value of the option at the node is 12. At the initial node A, the value given by equation (13.5) is
e-0.05*110.6282*1.4147+0.3718*12.02=5.0894
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Binomial Trees 299
and the payoff from early exercise is 2. In this case early exercise is not optimal. The
value of the option is therefore $5.0894.Figure 13.8 Using a two-step tree to value an American put option. At each node, the
upper number is the stock price and the lower number is the option price.
50
5.0894AB
C
32
2012.04060
1.4147
48
472
0
13.6 DELTA
At this stage, it is appropriate to introduce delta, an important parameter (sometimes
referred to as a āGreek letterā or simply a āGreekā) in the pricing and hedging of options.
The delta
1ā2 of a stock option is the ratio of the change in the price of the stock
option to the change in the price of the underlying stock. It is the number of units of the stock we should hold for each option shorted in order to create a riskless portfolio. It is
the same as the
ā introduced earlier in this chapter. The construction of a riskless
portfolio is sometimes referred to as delta hedging. The delta of a call option is positive,
whereas the delta of a put option is negative.
From Figure 13.1, we can calculate the value of the delta of the call option being
considered as
1-0
22-18=0.25
This is because when the stock price changes from $18 to $22, the option price changes from $0 to $1. (This is also the value of
ā calculated in Section 13.1.)
In Figure 13.4 the delta corresponding to stock price movements over the first time
step is
1.7433-0
22-18=0.4358
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300 CHAPTER 13
The delta for stock price movements over the second time step is
3.2-0
24.2-19.8=0.7273
if there is an upward movement over the first time step, and
0-0
19.8-16.2=0
if there is a downward movement over the first time step.
From Figure 13.7, delta is
1.4147-9.4636
60-40=-0.4024
at the end of the first time step, and either
0-4
72-48=-0.1667 or 4-20
48-32=-1.0000
Binomial Trees and Volatility Matching
- Calculations of delta across multiple time steps demonstrate that the ratio of stock to options required for a hedge is dynamic rather than static.
- To maintain a riskless position, investors must periodically adjust their stock holdings as the underlying price moves through the binomial tree.
- The parameters for upward and downward movements, u and d, are mathematically derived to match the asset's volatility over a specific time interval.
- A significant theoretical finding is that volatility remains constant regardless of whether one is operating in a risk-neutral or real-world environment.
- Girsanovās theorem supports the conclusion that while expected returns change between worlds, the underlying variance of the asset does not.
When we move from the risk-neutral world to the real world, the expected return from the stock price changes, but its volatility remains the same.
In Figure 13.4 the delta corresponding to stock price movements over the first time
step is
1.7433-0
22-18=0.4358
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300 CHAPTER 13
The delta for stock price movements over the second time step is
3.2-0
24.2-19.8=0.7273
if there is an upward movement over the first time step, and
0-0
19.8-16.2=0
if there is a downward movement over the first time step.
From Figure 13.7, delta is
1.4147-9.4636
60-40=-0.4024
at the end of the first time step, and either
0-4
72-48=-0.1667 or 4-20
48-32=-1.0000
at the end of the second time step.
The two-step examples show that delta changes over time. (In Figure 13.4, delta
changes from 0.4358 to either 0.7273 or 0; and, in Figure 13.7, it changes from -0.4024 to
either -0.1667 or -1.0000.) Thus, in order to maintain a riskless hedge using an option
and the underlying stock, we need to adjust our holdings in the stock periodically. We
will return to this feature of options in Chapter 19.
13.7 MATCHING VOLATILITY WITH u AND d
The three parameters necessary to construct a binomial tree with time step āt are u, d,
and p. Once u and d have been specified, p must be chosen so that the expected return is
the risk-free rate r. We have already shown that
p=erāt-d
u-d (13.11)
The parameters u and d should be chosen to match volatility. The volatility of a stock
(or any other asset), s, is defined so that the standard deviation of its return in a short
period of time āt is s2āt (see Chapter 15 for a further discussion of this). Equivalently
the variance of the return in time āt is s2āt. The variance of a variable X is defined as
E1X22-3E1X242, where E denotes expected value. During a time step of length āt,
there is a probability p that the stock will provide a return of u-1 and a probability
1-p that it will provide a return of d-1. It follows that volatility is matched if
p1u-122+11-p21d-122-3p1u-12+11-p21d-1242=s2āt (13.12)
Substituting for p from equation (13.11), this simplifies to
erāt1u+d2-ud-e2rāt=s2āt (13.13)
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Binomial Trees 301
When terms in āt2 and higher powers of āt are ignored, a solution to equation (13.13) is2
u=es2āt and d=e-s2āt
These are the values of u and d used by Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein (1979).
In the analysis just given we chose u and d to match volatility in the risk-neutral
world. What happens if instead we match volatility in the real world? As we will now
show, the formulas for u and d are the same.
Suppose that p* is the probability of an up-movement in the real world while p is
as before the probability of an up-movement in a risk-neutral world. This is illustrated in Figure 13.9. Define
m as the expected return in the real world. We must have
p*u+11-p*2d=emāt
or
p*=emāt-d
u-d (13.14)
Suppose that s is the volatility in the real world. The equation matching the variance is
the same as equation (13.12) except that p is replaced by p*. When this equation is
combined with equation (13.14), we obtain
emāt1u+d2-ud-e2māt=s2āt
This is the same as equation (13.13) except the r is replaced by m. When terms in āt2
and higher powers of āt are ignored, it has the same solution as equation (13.13):
u=es2āt and d=e-s2āt
Girsanovās Theorem
The results we have just produced are closely related to an important result known as
Girsanovās theorem. When we move from the risk-neutral world to the real world, the expected return from the stock price changes, but its volatility remains the same. More Figure 13.9 Change in stock price in time āt in (a) the real world and (b) the risk-
neutral world.
S Sp*
1āp*p
1āp
(b) (a)0
S d0 S d0S u0 S u0
0
2 We are here using the series expansion
ex=1+x+x2
2!+x3
3!+g
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302 CHAPTER 13
Girsanovās Theorem and Binomial Trees
- Girsanovās theorem establishes that moving between risk-neutral and real-world measures changes expected returns while leaving volatility constant.
- The transition from the real-world P-measure to the risk-neutral Q-measure is formally described as changing the measure.
- Standard binomial tree formulas for up and down movements are derived by matching volatility to the square root of the time step.
- As the number of time steps in a binomial tree increases, the model converges to the continuous-time BlackāScholesāMerton model.
- Practical application of binomial trees typically requires 30 or more steps to account for billions of potential stock price paths.
When we move from the risk-neutral world to the real world, the expected return from the stock price changes, but its volatility remains the same.
The results we have just produced are closely related to an important result known as
Girsanovās theorem. When we move from the risk-neutral world to the real world, the expected return from the stock price changes, but its volatility remains the same. More Figure 13.9 Change in stock price in time āt in (a) the real world and (b) the risk-
neutral world.
S Sp*
1āp*p
1āp
(b) (a)0
S d0 S d0S u0 S u0
0
2 We are here using the series expansion
ex=1+x+x2
2!+x3
3!+g
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302 CHAPTER 13
generally, when we move from a world with one set of risk preferences to a world with
another set of risk preferences, the expected growth rates in variables change, but their
volatilities remain the same. We will examine the impact of risk preferences on the behavior of market variables in more detail in Chapter 28. Moving from one set of risk preferences to another is sometimes referred to as changing the measure. The real-world measure is sometimes referred to as the P-measure, while the risk-neutral world measure is referred to as the Q-measure.
3
3 With the notation we have been using, p is the probability under the Q-measure, while p* is the probability
under the P-measure.13.8 THE BINOMIAL TREE FORMULAS
The analysis in the previous section shows that, when the length of the time step on a binomial tree is
āt, we should match volatility by setting
u=es2āt (13.15)
and
d=e-s2āt (13.16)
Also, from equation (13.6),
p=a-d
u-d (13.17)
where
a=erāt (13.18)
Equations (13.15) to (13.18) define the tree.
Consider again the American put option in Figure 13.8, where the stock price is $50,
the strike price is $52, the risk-free rate is 5%, the life of the option is 2 years, and there
are two time steps. In this case, āt=1. Suppose that the volatility s is 30%. Then,
from equations (13.15) to (13.18), we have
u=e0.3*1=1.3499, d=1
1.3499=0.7408, a=e0.05*1=1.0513
and
p=1.0513-0.7408
1.3499-0.7408=0.5097
The tree is shown in Figure 13.10. The value of the put option is 7.43. (This is different from the value obtained in Figure 13.8 by assuming
u=1.2 and d=0.8.)
Note that the option is exercised at the end of the first time step if the lower node is
reached.
13.9 INCREASING THE NUMBER OF STEPS
The binomial model presented above is unrealistically simple. Clearly, an analyst can expect to obtain only a very rough approximation to an option price by assuming that
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Binomial Trees 303
stock price movements during the life of the option consist of one or two binomial
steps.
When binomial trees are used in practice, the life of the option is typically divided
into 30 or more time steps. In each time step there is a binomial stock price movement. With 30 time steps there are 31 terminal stock prices and
230, or about 1 billion, possible
stock price paths are implicitly considered.
The equations defining the tree are equations (13.15) to (13.18), regardless of the
number of time steps. Suppose, for example, that there are five steps instead of two in
the example we considered in Figure 13.10. The parameters would be āt=2>5=0.4,
r=0.05, and s=0.3. These values give u=e0.3*20.4=1.2089, d=1>1.2089=0.8272,
a=e0.05*0.4=1.0202, and p=11.0202-0.82722>11.2089-0.82722=0.5056.
As the number of time steps is increased (so that āt becomes smaller), the binomial
tree model makes the same assumptions about stock price behavior as the Blackā ScholesāMerton model, which will be presented in Chapter 15. When the binomial tree is used to price a European option, the price converges to the BlackāScholesā Merton
price, as expected, as the number of time steps is increased. This is proved in the appendix to this chapter.Figure 13.10 Two-step tree to value a 2-year American put option when the stock
price is 50, strike price is 52, risk-free rate is 5%, and volatility is 30%.
50
7.43
27.4414.9637.0467.49
0.93
50
291.11
0
24.56
Binomial Trees and Asset Options
- The binomial tree model converges to the BlackāScholesāMerton price for European options as the number of time steps increases.
- Software tools like DerivaGem allow for the visualization of American option exercise nodes and the calculation of prices using up to 500 steps.
- Binomial trees can be adapted for various underlying assets, including indices, currencies, and futures, by modifying the probability equation.
- For stocks paying a continuous dividend yield, the growth parameter is adjusted by subtracting the dividend rate from the risk-free rate.
The red numbers in the software indicate the nodes where the option is exercised.
a=e0.05*0.4=1.0202, and p=11.0202-0.82722>11.2089-0.82722=0.5056.
As the number of time steps is increased (so that āt becomes smaller), the binomial
tree model makes the same assumptions about stock price behavior as the Blackā ScholesāMerton model, which will be presented in Chapter 15. When the binomial tree is used to price a European option, the price converges to the BlackāScholesā Merton
price, as expected, as the number of time steps is increased. This is proved in the appendix to this chapter.Figure 13.10 Two-step tree to value a 2-year American put option when the stock
price is 50, strike price is 52, risk-free rate is 5%, and volatility is 30%.
50
7.43
27.4414.9637.0467.49
0.93
50
291.11
0
24.56
13.10 USING DerivaG em
The software accompanying this book, DerivaGem, is a useful tool for becoming
comfortable with binomial trees. After loading the software in the way described at
the end of this book, go to the Equity_FX_Indx_Fut_Opts_Calc worksheet. Choose Equity as the Underlying Type and select Binomial American as the Option Type.
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304 CHAPTER 13
Enter the stock price, volatility, risk-free rate, time to expiration, exercise price, and tree
steps, as 50, 30%, 5%, 2, 52, and 2, respectively. Click on the Put button and then on Calculate. The price of the option is shown as 7.428 in the box labeled Price. Now click on Display Tree and you will see the equivalent of Figure 13.10. (The red numbers in
the software indicate the nodes where the option is exercised.)
Return to the Equity_FX_Indx_Fut_Opts_Calc worksheet and change the number
of time steps to 5. Hit Enter and click on Calculate. You will find that the value of the option changes to 7.671. By clicking on Display Tree the five-step tree is displayed, together with the values of u, d, a, and p calculated above.
DerivaGem can display trees that have up to 10 steps, but the calculations can be
done for up to 500 steps. In our example, 500 steps gives the option price (to two decimal places) as 7.47. This is an accurate answer. By changing the Option Type to Binomial European, we can use the tree to value a European option. Using 500 time steps, the value of a European option with the same parameters as the American option is 6.76. (By changing the Option Type to BlackāScholes European, we can display the value of the option using the BlackāScholesāMerton formula that will be presented in Chapter 15. This is also 6.76.)
By changing the Underlying Type, we can consider options on assets other than
stocks. These will now be discussed.
13.11 OPTIONS ON OTHER ASSETS
We introduced options on indices, currencies, and futures contracts in Chapter 10 and will cover them in more detail in Chapters 17 and 18. It turns out that we can construct
and use binomial trees for these options in exactly the same way as for options on
stocks except that the equation for p changes. As in the case of options on stocks, equation (13.2) applies so that the value at a node (before the possibility of early exercise is considered) is p times the value if there is an up movement plus
1-p times
the value if there is a down movement, discounted at the risk-free rate.
Options on Stocks Paying a Continuous Dividend Yield
Consider a stock paying a known dividend yield at rate q. The total return from
dividends and capital gains in a risk-neutral world is r. The dividends provide a return
of q. Capital gains must therefore provide a return of r-q. If the stock starts at S0, its
expected value after one time step of length āt must be S0e1r-q2āt. This means that
pS0u+11-p2S0d=S0e1r-q2āt
so that
p=e1r-q2āt-d
u-d
As in the case of options on non-dividend-paying stocks, we match volatility by setting
u=es2āt and d=1>u. This means that we can use equations (13.15) to (13.18), except
that we set a=e1r-q2āt instead of a=erāt.
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Binomial Trees 305
Binomial Trees for Yielding Assets
- The binomial tree model is adapted for dividend-paying stocks by adjusting the growth factor to account for the dividend yield rate.
- Stock index options are valued by treating the index as an asset providing a continuous dividend yield equivalent to the average yield of its components.
- Foreign currencies are modeled as assets providing a yield equal to the foreign risk-free interest rate, allowing for consistent valuation across different asset classes.
- The risk-neutral probability of an upward move is recalculated using the difference between the domestic risk-free rate and the asset's yield.
- Practical examples demonstrate how multi-step trees can determine the fair value of both European and American options on indices and currencies.
A foreign currency can be regarded as an asset providing a yield at the foreign risk-free rate of interest, rf.
Consider a stock paying a known dividend yield at rate q. The total return from
dividends and capital gains in a risk-neutral world is r. The dividends provide a return
of q. Capital gains must therefore provide a return of r-q. If the stock starts at S0, its
expected value after one time step of length āt must be S0e1r-q2āt. This means that
pS0u+11-p2S0d=S0e1r-q2āt
so that
p=e1r-q2āt-d
u-d
As in the case of options on non-dividend-paying stocks, we match volatility by setting
u=es2āt and d=1>u. This means that we can use equations (13.15) to (13.18), except
that we set a=e1r-q2āt instead of a=erāt.
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Binomial Trees 305
Options on Stock Indices
When calculating a futures price for a stock index in Chapter 5 we assumed that the
stocks underlying the index provided a dividend yield at rate q. We make a similar assumption here. The valuation of an option on a stock index is therefore very similar to the valuation of an option on a stock paying a known dividend yield.
Example 13.1
A stock index is currently 810 and has a volatility of 20% and a dividend yield of
2%. The risk-free rate is 5%. Figure 13.11 shows the output from DerivaGem for valuing a European 6-month call option with a strike price of 800 using a two-step tree. In this case,
āt=0.25, u=e0.20*20.25=1.1052,
d=1>u=0.9048, a=e10.05-0.022*0.25=1.0075
p=11.0075-0.90482>11.1052-0.90482=0.5126
The value of the option is 53.39.
Figure 13.11 Two-step tree to value a European 6-month call option on an
index when the index level is 810, strike price is 800, risk-free rate is 5%, volatility is 20%, and dividend yield is 2% (DerivaGem output).
At each node:
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 800
Discount factor per step 5 0.987 6
Time step, dt 5 0.2500 years, 91.25 days
Growth factor per step, a 5 1.0075
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.5126
Up step size, u 5 1.1052
Down step size, d 5 0.9048
989.34
189.34
895.1 9
100.66
810.00 810.00
53.39 10.00
732.92
5.06
663.1 7
0.00
Node Time:
0.0000 0.2500 0.5000
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306 CHAPTER 13
Options on Currencies
As pointed out in Section 5.10, a foreign currency can be regarded as an asset providing
a yield at the foreign risk-free rate of interest, rf. By analogy with the stock index case
we can construct a tree for options on a currency by using equations (13.15) to (13.18) and setting
a=e1r-rf2āt.
Example 13.2
A foreign currency is currently worth 0.6100 U.S. dollars and this exchange rate has
a volatility of 12%. The foreign risk-free rate is 7% and the U.S. risk-free rate
is 5%. Figure 13.12 shows the output from DerivaGem for valuing a 3-month
American call option with a strike price of 0.6000 using a three-step tree. In this
case,
āt=0.08333, u=e0.12*20.08333=1.0352
d=1>u=0.9660, a=e10.05-0.072*0.08333=0.9983
p=10.9983-0.96602>11.0352-0.96602=0.4673
The value of the option is 0.019.
Figure 13.12 Three-step tree to value an American 3-month call option on a
currency when the value of the currency is 0.6100, strike price is 0.6000, risk-free rate is 5%, volatility is 12%, and foreign risk-free rate is 7% (DerivaGem output).
At each node:
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 0.6
Discount factor per step 5 0.9958
Time step, dt 5 0.0833 years, 30.42 days
Growth factor per step, a 5 0.9983
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.4673
Up step size, u 5 1.0352
Down step size, d 5 0.9660
0.677
0.077
0.654
0.054
0.632 0.632
0.033 0.032
0.610 0.610
0.019 0.015
0.589 0.589
0.007 0.000
0.569
0.000
0.550
0.000
Node Time:
0.0000 0.0833 0.1667 0.2500
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Binomial Trees 307
Options on Futures
Binomial Trees and Futures Options
- In a risk-neutral world, the expected growth rate of a futures price is zero because entering a futures contract requires no initial cost.
- The probability of an upward movement in a futures price is calculated using the formula p = (1 - d) / (u - d), where the growth factor 'a' is set to one.
- Multistep binomial trees allow for option valuation by working backward from the end of the option's life to the present using no-arbitrage arguments.
- Risk-neutral valuation and no-arbitrage arguments are fundamentally equivalent, consistently yielding the same option prices regardless of real-world probabilities.
- The delta of an option represents the ratio of the change in the option price to the change in the underlying asset price, used to create riskless positions.
It is interesting to note that no assumptions are required about the actual (real-world) probabilities of up and down movements in the stock price.
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 0.6
Discount factor per step 5 0.9958
Time step, dt 5 0.0833 years, 30.42 days
Growth factor per step, a 5 0.9983
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.4673
Up step size, u 5 1.0352
Down step size, d 5 0.9660
0.677
0.077
0.654
0.054
0.632 0.632
0.033 0.032
0.610 0.610
0.019 0.015
0.589 0.589
0.007 0.000
0.569
0.000
0.550
0.000
Node Time:
0.0000 0.0833 0.1667 0.2500
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Binomial Trees 307
Options on Futures
It costs nothing to take a long or a short position in a futures contract. It follows that in
a risk-neutral world a futures price should have an expected growth rate of zero. (We
discuss this point in more detail in Section 18.6.) As above, we define p as the
probability of an up movement in the futures price, u as the percentage up movement,
and d as the percentage down movement. If F0 is the initial futures price, the expected
futures price at the end of one time step of length āt should also be F0. This means that
pF0u+11-p2F0d=F0
so that
p=1-d
u-d
and we can use equations (13.15) to (13.18) with a=1.
Example 13.3
A futures price is currently 31 and has a volatility of 30%. The risk-free rate is 5%. Figure 13.13 shows the output from DerivaGem for valuing a 9-month American
Figure 13.13 Three-step tree to value an American 9-month put option on a
futures contract when the futures price is 31, strike price is 30, risk-free rate is 5%, and volatility is 30% (DerivaGem output).
At each node:
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es where option is exercised
Strike price 5 30
Discount factor per step 5 0.987 6
Time step, dt 5 0.2500 years, 91.25 days
Growth factor per step, a 5 1.000
Probability of up move, p 5 0.4626
Up step size, u 5 1.1618
Down step size, d 5 0.8607
48.62
0.00
41.85
0.00
36.02 36.02
0.93 0.00
31.00 31.00
2.84 1.76
26.68 26.68
4.54 3.32
22.97
7.03
19.77
10.23
Node Time:
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308 CHAPTER 13
put option with a strike price of 30 using a three-step tree. In this case,
āt=0.25, u=e0.320.25=1.1618
d=1>u=1>1.1618=0.8607, a=1,
p=11-0.86072>11.1618-0.86072=0.4626
The value of the option is 2.84.
SUMMARY
This chapter has provided a first look at the valuation of options on stocks and other
assets using trees. In the simple situation where movements in the price of a stock
during the life of an option are governed by a one-step binomial tree, it is possible to set up a riskless portfolio consisting of a position in the stock option and a position in the stock. In a world with no arbitrage opportunities, riskless portfolios must earn the risk-
free interest. This enables the stock option to be priced in terms of the stock. It is
interesting to note that no assumptions are required about the actual (real-world)
probabilities of up and down movements in the stock price.
When stock price movements are governed by a multistep binomial tree, we can treat
each binomial step separately and work back from the end of the life of the option to
the beginning to obtain the current value of the option. Again only no-arbitrage
arguments are used, and no assumptions are required about the actual (real-world)
probabilities of up and down movements in the stock price.
A very important principle states that we can assume the world is risk-neutral when
valuing an option. This chapter has shown, through both numerical examples and algebra, that no-arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation are equivalent and lead
to the same option prices.
The delta of a stock option,
ā, considers the effect of a small change in the underlying
stock price on the change in the option price. It is the ratio of the change in the option price to the change in the stock price. For a riskless position, an investor should buy
ā
Binomial Trees and Risk-Neutral Valuation
- The risk-neutral valuation principle allows for the assumption of a risk-neutral world when determining the fair price of an option.
- No-arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation are mathematically equivalent and consistently yield the same option prices.
- The delta of an option represents the ratio of the change in the option price to the change in the underlying stock price.
- Because delta changes over the life of an option, investors must periodically adjust their holdings in the underlying stock to maintain a riskless hedge.
- Binomial tree models are versatile tools that can be adapted to value options on stock indices, currencies, and futures contracts.
This means that to hedge a particular option position, we must change our holding in the underlying stock periodically.
probabilities of up and down movements in the stock price.
A very important principle states that we can assume the world is risk-neutral when
valuing an option. This chapter has shown, through both numerical examples and algebra, that no-arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation are equivalent and lead
to the same option prices.
The delta of a stock option,
ā, considers the effect of a small change in the underlying
stock price on the change in the option price. It is the ratio of the change in the option price to the change in the stock price. For a riskless position, an investor should buy
ā
shares for each option sold. An inspection of a typical binomial tree shows that delta
changes during the life of an option. This means that to hedge a particular option position, we must change our holding in the underlying stock periodically.
Constructing binomial trees for valuing options on stock indices, currencies, and
futures contracts is very similar to doing so for valuing options on stocks. In Chapter 21,
we will return to binomial trees and provide more details on how they are used in practice.
FURTHER READING
Coval, J. D. and T. Shumway. āExpected Option Returns, ā Journal of Finance, 56, 3 (2001):
983ā1009.
Cox, J. C., S. A. Ross, and M. Rubinstein. āOption Pricing: A Simplified Approach, ā Journal of
Financial Economics 7 (October 1979): 229ā64.
Rendleman, R., and B. Bartter. āTwo State Option Pricing, ā Journal of Finance 34 (1979):
1092ā1110.
Shreve, S. E. Stochastic Calculus for Finance I: The Binomial Asset Pricing Model. New York:
Springer, 2005.
M13_HULL0654_11_GE_C13.indd 308 12/05/2021 17:33
Binomial Trees 309
Practice Questions
13.1. A stock price is currently $100. Over each of the next two 6-month periods it is expected
to go up by 10% or down by 10%. The risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum with continuous compounding. What is the value of a 1-year European call option with a
strike price of $100?
13.2. For the situation considered in Problem 13.1, what is the value of a 1-year European
put option with a strike price of $100? Verify that the European call and European put prices satisfy putācall parity.
13.3. Consider a situation where stock price movements during the life of a European option are governed by a two-step binomial tree. Explain why it is not possible to set up a position in the stock and the option that remains riskless for the whole of the life of the option.
13.4. A stock price is currently $50. It is known that at the end of 2 months it will be either $53
or $48. The risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum with continuous compounding. What is the value of a 2-month European call option with a strike price of $49? Use no-
arbitrage arguments.
13.5. A stock price is currently $80. It is known that at the end of 4 months it will be either $75
or $85. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum with continuous compounding. What
is the value of a 4-month European put option with a strike price of $80? Use no-
arbitrage arguments.
13.6. A stock price is currently $40. It is known that at the end of 3 months it will be either $45
or $35. The risk-free rate of interest with quarterly compounding is 8% per annum. Calculate the value of a 3-month European put option on the stock with an exercise
price of $40. Verify that no-arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation arguments
Binomial Option Pricing Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on valuing European call and put options using binomial trees.
- It emphasizes the application of no-arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation to ensure consistent pricing results.
- Several exercises require the verification of put-call parity, a fundamental relationship between the prices of European options.
- The problems explore the limitations of riskless hedging, noting that a single position cannot remain riskless over the entire life of an option in a multi-step tree.
- Advanced scenarios include valuing derivatives with non-linear payoffs and constructing trees for foreign currency options using volatility and interest rate differentials.
Explain why it is not possible to set up a position in the stock and the option that remains riskless for the whole of the life of the option.
13.1. A stock price is currently $100. Over each of the next two 6-month periods it is expected
to go up by 10% or down by 10%. The risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum with continuous compounding. What is the value of a 1-year European call option with a
strike price of $100?
13.2. For the situation considered in Problem 13.1, what is the value of a 1-year European
put option with a strike price of $100? Verify that the European call and European put prices satisfy putācall parity.
13.3. Consider a situation where stock price movements during the life of a European option are governed by a two-step binomial tree. Explain why it is not possible to set up a position in the stock and the option that remains riskless for the whole of the life of the option.
13.4. A stock price is currently $50. It is known that at the end of 2 months it will be either $53
or $48. The risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum with continuous compounding. What is the value of a 2-month European call option with a strike price of $49? Use no-
arbitrage arguments.
13.5. A stock price is currently $80. It is known that at the end of 4 months it will be either $75
or $85. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum with continuous compounding. What
is the value of a 4-month European put option with a strike price of $80? Use no-
arbitrage arguments.
13.6. A stock price is currently $40. It is known that at the end of 3 months it will be either $45
or $35. The risk-free rate of interest with quarterly compounding is 8% per annum. Calculate the value of a 3-month European put option on the stock with an exercise
price of $40. Verify that no-arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation arguments
give the same answers.
13.7. A stock price is currently $50. Over each of the next two 3-month periods it is expected to go up by 6% or down by 5%. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum with continuous compounding. What is the value of a 6-month European call option with a
strike price of $51?
13.8. For the situation considered in Problem 13.7, what is the value of a 6-month European put option with a strike price of $51? Verify that the European call and European put prices satisfy putācall parity. If the put option were American, would it ever be optimal to exercise it early at any of the nodes on the tree?
13.9. A stock price is currently $25. It is known that at the end of 2 months it will be either $23
or $27. The risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum with continuous compounding. Suppose
ST is the stock price at the end of 2 months. What is the value of a derivative
that pays off S2
T at this time?
13.10. Calculate u, d, and p when a binomial tree is constructed to value an option on a foreign
currency. The tree step size is 1 month, the domestic interest rate is 5% per annum, the
foreign interest rate is 8% per annum, and the volatility is 12% per annum.
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310 CHAPTER 13
Binomial Tree Option Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on valuing financial derivatives using binomial tree models.
- Exercises require calculating the parameters u, d, and p to represent price movements and risk-neutral probabilities.
- Specific scenarios cover a variety of assets including non-dividend-paying stocks, foreign currencies, stock indices, and commodities.
- The problems address the valuation of both European and American options, highlighting differences in early exercise potential.
- Calculations involve verifying financial principles such as put-call parity and determining necessary hedging positions for traders.
If the put option were American, would it ever be optimal to exercise it early at any of the nodes on the tree?
give the same answers.
13.7. A stock price is currently $50. Over each of the next two 3-month periods it is expected to go up by 6% or down by 5%. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum with continuous compounding. What is the value of a 6-month European call option with a
strike price of $51?
13.8. For the situation considered in Problem 13.7, what is the value of a 6-month European put option with a strike price of $51? Verify that the European call and European put prices satisfy putācall parity. If the put option were American, would it ever be optimal to exercise it early at any of the nodes on the tree?
13.9. A stock price is currently $25. It is known that at the end of 2 months it will be either $23
or $27. The risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum with continuous compounding. Suppose
ST is the stock price at the end of 2 months. What is the value of a derivative
that pays off S2
T at this time?
13.10. Calculate u, d, and p when a binomial tree is constructed to value an option on a foreign
currency. The tree step size is 1 month, the domestic interest rate is 5% per annum, the
foreign interest rate is 8% per annum, and the volatility is 12% per annum.
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310 CHAPTER 13
13.11. The volatility of a non-dividend-paying stock whose price is $78, is 30%. The risk-free
rate is 3% per annum (continuously compounded) for all maturities. Calculate values for
u, d, and p when a 2-month time step is used. What is the value a 4-month European call
option with a strike price of $80 given by a two-step binomial tree. Suppose a trader sells 1,000 options (10 contracts). What position in the stock is necessary to hedge the traderās position at the time of the trade?
13.12. A stock index is currently 1,500. Its volatility is 18%. The risk-free rate is 4% per annum
(continuously compounded) for all maturities and the dividend yield on the index is 2.5%. Calculate values for u , d, and p when a 6-month time step is used. What is the
value a 12-month American put option with a strike price of 1,480 given by a two-step binomial tree.
13.13. The futures price of a commodity is $90. Use a three-step tree to value (a) a 9-month
American call option with strike price $93 and (b) a 9-month American put option with strike price $93. The volatility is 28% and the risk-free rate (all maturities) is 3% with continuous compounding.
13.14. The current price of a non-dividend-paying biotech stock is $140 with a volatility of 25%.
The risk-free rate is 4%. For a 3-month time step:
Binomial Tree Option Pricing
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on valuing financial derivatives using binomial tree models.
- Calculations involve determining up and down movement factors (u and d) and risk-neutral probabilities (p) based on volatility and interest rates.
- Exercises cover various asset classes including non-dividend-paying stocks, stock indices with dividend yields, and commodity futures.
- The problems distinguish between European and American options, highlighting the impact of early exercise features on valuation.
- Hedging strategies are explored through the calculation of stock positions required to offset the risk of sold option contracts.
Verify that no-arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation arguments give the same answers.
13.11. The volatility of a non-dividend-paying stock whose price is $78, is 30%. The risk-free
rate is 3% per annum (continuously compounded) for all maturities. Calculate values for
u, d, and p when a 2-month time step is used. What is the value a 4-month European call
option with a strike price of $80 given by a two-step binomial tree. Suppose a trader sells 1,000 options (10 contracts). What position in the stock is necessary to hedge the traderās position at the time of the trade?
13.12. A stock index is currently 1,500. Its volatility is 18%. The risk-free rate is 4% per annum
(continuously compounded) for all maturities and the dividend yield on the index is 2.5%. Calculate values for u , d, and p when a 6-month time step is used. What is the
value a 12-month American put option with a strike price of 1,480 given by a two-step binomial tree.
13.13. The futures price of a commodity is $90. Use a three-step tree to value (a) a 9-month
American call option with strike price $93 and (b) a 9-month American put option with strike price $93. The volatility is 28% and the risk-free rate (all maturities) is 3% with continuous compounding.
13.14. The current price of a non-dividend-paying biotech stock is $140 with a volatility of 25%.
The risk-free rate is 4%. For a 3-month time step:
(a) What is the percentage up movement?
(b) What is the percentage down movement?
(c) What is the probability of an up movement in a risk-neutral world?
(d) What is the probability of a down movement in a risk-neutral world?
Use a two-step tree to value a 6-month European call option and a 6-month European put
option. In both cases the strike price is $150.
13.15. In Problem 13.14, suppose a trader sells 10,000 European call options and the two-step
tree describes the behavior of the stock. How many shares of the stock are needed to
hedge the 6-month European call for the first and second 3-month period? For the second time period, consider both the case where the stock price moves up during the
first period and the case where it moves down during the first period.
13.16. A stock price is currently $50. It is known that at the end of 6 months it will be either $60
or $42. The risk-free rate of interest with continuous compounding is 12% per annum. Calculate the value of a 6-month European call option on the stock with an exercise price of $48. Verify that no-arbitrage arguments and risk-neutral valuation arguments give the same answers.
13.17. A stock price is currently $40. Over each of the next two 3-month periods it is expected
to go up by 10% or down by 10%. The risk-free interest rate is 12% per annum with continuous compounding. (a) What is the value of a 6-month European put option with
a strike price of $42? (b) What is the value of a 6-month American put option with a strike price of $42?
13.18. Using a ātrial-and-errorā approach, estimate how high the strike price has to be in
Problem 13.17 for it to be optimal to exercise the option immediately.
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Binomial Trees 311
13.19. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is
$40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is 6 months.
(a) Calculate u, d, and p for a two-step tree.
(b) Value the option using a two-step tree.
(c) Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer.
(d) Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.
13.20. Repeat Problem 13.19 for an American put option on a futures contract. The strike price
and the futures price are $50, the risk-free rate is 10%, the time to maturity is 6 months, and the volatility is 40% per annum.
13.21. Footnote 1 of this chapter shows that the correct discount rate to use for the real-world
expected payoff in the case of the call option considered in Figure 13.1 is 55.96%. Show that if the option is a put rather than a call the discount rate is
Deriving Black-Scholes-Merton from Binomial Trees
- The text provides quantitative exercises for valuing European and American options using multi-step binomial trees and specialized software.
- A formal mathematical appendix demonstrates how the Black-Scholes-Merton formula is derived by letting the number of binomial time steps approach infinity.
- The derivation utilizes risk-neutral valuation, where the expected payoff is discounted at the risk-free rate to determine the current option price.
- As the number of steps increases, the binomial distribution of stock price movements converges toward a normal distribution.
- The final pricing formula is expressed through cumulative probability distribution functions, specifically relating the initial stock price and strike price to volatility and time.
One way of deriving the famous BlackāScholesāMerton result for valuing a European option on a non-dividend-paying stock is by allowing the number of time steps in a binomial tree to approach infinity.
13.19. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is
$40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is 6 months.
(a) Calculate u, d, and p for a two-step tree.
(b) Value the option using a two-step tree.
(c) Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer.
(d) Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.
13.20. Repeat Problem 13.19 for an American put option on a futures contract. The strike price
and the futures price are $50, the risk-free rate is 10%, the time to maturity is 6 months, and the volatility is 40% per annum.
13.21. Footnote 1 of this chapter shows that the correct discount rate to use for the real-world
expected payoff in the case of the call option considered in Figure 13.1 is 55.96%. Show that if the option is a put rather than a call the discount rate is
-70.4,. Explain why the
two real-world discount rates are so different.
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312 CHAPTER 13
APPENDIX
DERIVATION OF THE BLACKāSCHOLESāMERTON
OPTION-PRICING FORMULA FROM A BINOMIAL TREE
One way of deriving the famous BlackāScholesāMerton result for valuing a European
option on a non-dividend-paying stock is by allowing the number of time steps in a binomial tree to approach infinity.
Suppose that a tree with n time steps is used to value a European call option with
strike price K and life T . Each step is of length
T>n. If there have been j upward
movements and n-j downward movements on the tree, the final stock price is
S0ujdn-j, where u is the proportional up movement, d is the proportional down
movement, and S0 is the initial stock price. The payoff from a European call option
is then
max1S0ujdn-j-K, 02
From the properties of the binomial distribution, the probability of exactly j upward and
n-j downward movements is given by
n!
1n-j2! j!pj11-p2n-j
It follows that the expected payoff from the call option is
an
j=0n!
1n-j2! j! pj11-p2n-j max1S0ujdn-j-K, 02
As the tree represents movements in a risk-neutral world, we can discount this at the risk-free rate r to obtain the option price:
c=e-rTan
j=0n!
1n-j2! j! pj 11-p2n-j max1S0ujdn-j-K, 02 (13A.1)
The terms in equation (13A.1) are nonzero when the final stock price is greater than the
strike price, that is, when
S0ujdn-j7K
or
ln1S0>K27- j ln1u2-1n-j2 ln1d2
Since u=es2T>n and d=e-s2T>n, this condition becomes
ln1S0>K27ns2T>n-2js2T>n
or
j7n
2-ln1S0>K2
2s2T>n
Equation (13A.1) can therefore be written
c=e-rTa
j7an!
1n-j2! j! pj11-p2n-j1S0ujdn-j-K2
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Binomial Trees 313
where
a=n
2-ln1S0>K2
2s2T>n
For convenience, we define
U1=a
j7an!
1n-j2! j! pj11-p2n-jujdn-j (13A.2)
and
U2=a
j7an!
1n-j2! j! pj11-p2n-j (13A.3)
so that
c=e-rT1S0U1-KU22 (13A.4)
Consider first U2. As is well known, the binomial distribution approaches a normal
distribution as the number of trials approaches infinity. Specifically, when there are n
trials and p is the probability of success, the probability distribution of the number of successes is approximately normal with mean n p and standard deviation
2n p11-p2.
The variable U2 in equation (13A.3) is the probability of the number of successes being
more than a. From the properties of the normal distribution, it follows that, for large n,
U2=Nan p-a
2n p11-p2b (13A.5)
where N is the cumulative probability distribution function for a standard normal
variable. Substituting for a, we obtain
U2=Naln1S0>K2
2s2T2p11-p2+2n 1p-1
22
2p11-p2b (13A.6)
From equations (13.15) to (13.18), we have
p=erT>n-e-s2T>n
es2T>n-e-s2T>n
By expanding the exponential functions in a series, we see that, as n tends to infinity,
p11-p2 tends to 1
4 and 2n1p-1
22 tends to
1r-s2>222T
2s
so that in the limit, as n tends to infinity, equation (13A.6) becomes
U2=Naln1S0>K2+1r-s2>22T
s2Tb (13A.7)
Deriving Black-Scholes-Merton
- The text demonstrates the mathematical transition from a discrete binomial distribution to a continuous normal distribution as the number of time steps tends to infinity.
- A risk-neutral valuation framework is applied to define the probability of up movements in a way that aligns with the risk-free rate of return.
- The derivation culminates in the formal Black-Scholes-Merton formula for pricing European call options using cumulative probability distribution functions.
- The author introduces stochastic processes, distinguishing between discrete-time and continuous-time models for asset price movements.
- While acknowledging that real-world stock prices are discrete, the text argues that continuous-variable models serve as a vital theoretical foundation for derivative pricing.
Many people feel that continuous-time stochastic processes are so complicated that they should be left to the mathematicians.
2n p11-p2b (13A.5)
where N is the cumulative probability distribution function for a standard normal
variable. Substituting for a, we obtain
U2=Naln1S0>K2
2s2T2p11-p2+2n 1p-1
22
2p11-p2b (13A.6)
From equations (13.15) to (13.18), we have
p=erT>n-e-s2T>n
es2T>n-e-s2T>n
By expanding the exponential functions in a series, we see that, as n tends to infinity,
p11-p2 tends to 1
4 and 2n1p-1
22 tends to
1r-s2>222T
2s
so that in the limit, as n tends to infinity, equation (13A.6) becomes
U2=Naln1S0>K2+1r-s2>22T
s2Tb (13A.7)
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314 CHAPTER 13
We now move on to evaluate U1. From equation (13A.2), we have
U1=a
j7an!
1n-j2! j! 1pu2j311-p2d4n-j (13A.8)
Define
p*=pu
pu+11-p2d (13A.9)
It then follows that
1-p*=11-p2d
pu+11-p2d
and we can write equation (13A.8) as
U1=3pu+11-p2d4n a
j7an!
1n-j2! j! 1p*2j11-p*2n-j
Since the expected rate of return in the risk-neutral world is the risk-free rate r, it
follows that pu+11-p2d=erT>n and
U1=erTa
j7an!
1n-j2! j! 1p*2j11-p*2n-j
This shows that U1 involves a binomial distribution where the probability of an up
movement is p* rather than p. Approximating the binomial distribution with a normal
distribution, we obtain, similarly to equation (13A.5),
U1=erT Nan p*-a
2n p*11-p*2b
and substituting for a gives, as with equation (13A.6),
U1=erT Naln1S0>K2
2s2T2p*11-p*2+2n1p*-1
22
2p*11-p*2b
Substituting for u and d in equation (13A.9) gives
p*=aerT>n-e-s2T>n
es2T>n-e-s2T>nbaes2T>n
erT>nb
By expanding the exponential functions in a series we see that, as n tends to infinity,
p*11-p*2 tends to 1
4 and 2n1p*-1
22 tends to
1r+s2>222T
2s
with the result that
U1=erT Naln1S0>K2+1r+s2>22T
s2Tb (13A.10)
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Binomial Trees 315
From equations (13A.4), (13A.7), and (13A.10), we have
c=S0N1d12-Ke-rT N1d22
where
d1=ln1S0>K2+1r+s2>22T
s2T
and
d2=ln1S0>K2+1r-s2>22T
s2T=d1-s2T
This is the BlackāScholesāMerton formula for the valuation of a European call option.
It will be discussed in Chapter 15. An alternative derivation is given in the appendix to that chapter.
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316
Wiener Processes
and ItĆ“ās Lemma
Any variable whose value changes over time in an uncertain way is said to follow a
stochastic process. Stochastic processes can be classified as discrete time or continuous time. A discrete-time stochastic process is one where the value of the variable can change only at certain fixed points in time, whereas a continuous-time stochastic process is one where changes can take place at any time. Stochastic processes can also be classified as continuous variable or discrete variable. In a continuous-variable process, the underlying variable can take any value within a certain range, whereas in a discrete-variable process, only certain discrete values are possible.
This chapter develops a continuous-variable, continuous-time stochastic process for
stock prices. A similar process is often assumed for the prices of other assets. Learning about this process is the first step to understanding the pricing of options and other more complicated derivatives. It should be noted that, in practice, we do not observe stock prices following continuous-variable, continuous-time processes. Stock prices are restricted to discrete values (e.g., multiples of a cent) and changes can be observed only when the exchange is open for trading. Nevertheless, the continuous-variable, continuous-time process proves to be a useful model for many purposes.
Many people feel that continuous-time stochastic processes are so complicated that
Markov Processes and Market Efficiency
- Continuous-time stochastic processes serve as the foundational mathematical models for pricing options and complex derivatives.
- A Markov process is defined by the property that only the current value of a variable is relevant for predicting its future state.
- The Markov property aligns with the weak form of market efficiency, suggesting that current prices already reflect all historical price data.
- Market competition naturally enforces the Markov property, as investors quickly trade away any predictable patterns found in historical charts.
- While stock prices are technically discrete and trade only during exchange hours, continuous models remain the most useful tools for financial analysis.
Suppose that it was discovered that a particular pattern in a stock price always gave a 65% chance of subsequent steep price rises.
stock prices. A similar process is often assumed for the prices of other assets. Learning about this process is the first step to understanding the pricing of options and other more complicated derivatives. It should be noted that, in practice, we do not observe stock prices following continuous-variable, continuous-time processes. Stock prices are restricted to discrete values (e.g., multiples of a cent) and changes can be observed only when the exchange is open for trading. Nevertheless, the continuous-variable, continuous-time process proves to be a useful model for many purposes.
Many people feel that continuous-time stochastic processes are so complicated that
they should be left entirely to ārocket scientists.ā This is not so. The biggest hurdle to understanding these processes is the notation. Here we present a step-by-step approach aimed at getting the reader over this hurdle. We also explain an important result known as ItĆ“ās lemma that is central to the pricing of derivatives.14 CHAPTER
A Markov process is a particular type of stochastic process where only the current value
of a variable is relevant for predicting the future. The past history of the variable and the way that the present has emerged from the past are irrelevant.
Stock prices are usually assumed to follow a Markov process. Suppose that the
price of a stock is $100 now. If the stock price follows a Markov process, our predictions for the future should be unaffected by the price one week ago, one month 14.1 THE MARKOV PROPERTY
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 317
ago, or one year ago. The only relevant piece of information is that the price is now
$100.1 Predictions for the future are uncertain and must be expressed in terms of
probability distributions. The Markov property implies that the probability distribu-tion of the price at any particular future time is not dependent on the particular path followed by the price in the past.
The Markov property of stock prices is consistent with the weak form of market
efficiency. This states that the present price of a stock impounds all the information contained in a record of past prices. If the weak form of market efficiency were not true, technical analysts could make above-average returns by interpreting charts of the past history of stock prices. There is very little evidence that they are in fact able to do this.
It is competition in the marketplace that tends to ensure that weak-form market
efficiency and the Markov property hold. There are many investors watching the stock market closely. This leads to a situation where a stock price, at any given time, reflects the information in past prices. Suppose that it was discovered that a particular pattern in a stock price always gave a 65% chance of subsequent steep price rises. Investors would attempt to buy a stock as soon as the pattern was observed, and demand for the stock would immediately rise. This would lead to an immediate rise in its price and the observed effect would be eliminated, as would any profitable trading opportunities.
1 Statistical properties of the stock price history may be useful in determining the characteristics of the
stochastic process followed by the stock price (e.g., its volatility). The point being made here is that the
particular path followed by the stock in the past is irrelevant.
2 Variance is the square of standard deviation. The standard deviation of a 1-year change in the value of the
variable we are considering is therefore 1.0.Consider a variable that follows a Markov stochastic process. Suppose that its current
value is 10 and that the change in its value during a year is f (0, 1), where f (m, v),
denotes a probability distribution that is normally distributed with mean m and
Markov Property and Market Efficiency
- The Markov property suggests that future stock price movements depend only on the current price, rendering the specific historical path irrelevant.
- Weak-form market efficiency posits that current prices already incorporate all information from past price records, leaving no room for technical analysis to yield excess returns.
- Market competition acts as a corrective force, where investors identifying profitable patterns immediately trade on them, thereby eliminating the opportunity.
- In a Markov stochastic process, the variance of price changes is additive over time, meaning the variance over a period T is proportional to the length of that period.
- The probability distribution of price changes over very short intervals can be mathematically expressed as a normal distribution with a variance equal to the time increment.
Suppose that it was discovered that a particular pattern in a stock price always gave a 65% chance of subsequent steep price rises; investors would attempt to buy a stock as soon as the pattern was observed, and demand for the stock would immediately rise.
ago, or one year ago. The only relevant piece of information is that the price is now
$100.1 Predictions for the future are uncertain and must be expressed in terms of
probability distributions. The Markov property implies that the probability distribu-tion of the price at any particular future time is not dependent on the particular path followed by the price in the past.
The Markov property of stock prices is consistent with the weak form of market
efficiency. This states that the present price of a stock impounds all the information contained in a record of past prices. If the weak form of market efficiency were not true, technical analysts could make above-average returns by interpreting charts of the past history of stock prices. There is very little evidence that they are in fact able to do this.
It is competition in the marketplace that tends to ensure that weak-form market
efficiency and the Markov property hold. There are many investors watching the stock market closely. This leads to a situation where a stock price, at any given time, reflects the information in past prices. Suppose that it was discovered that a particular pattern in a stock price always gave a 65% chance of subsequent steep price rises. Investors would attempt to buy a stock as soon as the pattern was observed, and demand for the stock would immediately rise. This would lead to an immediate rise in its price and the observed effect would be eliminated, as would any profitable trading opportunities.
1 Statistical properties of the stock price history may be useful in determining the characteristics of the
stochastic process followed by the stock price (e.g., its volatility). The point being made here is that the
particular path followed by the stock in the past is irrelevant.
2 Variance is the square of standard deviation. The standard deviation of a 1-year change in the value of the
variable we are considering is therefore 1.0.Consider a variable that follows a Markov stochastic process. Suppose that its current
value is 10 and that the change in its value during a year is f (0, 1), where f (m, v),
denotes a probability distribution that is normally distributed with mean m and
variance v.2 What is the probability distribution of the change in the value of the
variable during 2 years?
The change in 2 years is the sum of two normal distributions, each of which has a
mean of zero and variance of 1.0. Because the variable is Markov, the two probability distributions are independent. When we add two independent normal distributions, the result is a normal distribution where the mean is the sum of the means and the variance is the sum of the variances. The mean of the change during 2 years in the variable we are considering is, therefore, zero and the variance of this change is 2.0. Hence, the change in the variable over 2 years has the distribution f (0, 2). The standard deviation
of the change is
22.
Consider next the change in the variable during 6 months. The variance of the
change in the value of the variable during 1 year equals the variance of the change during the first 6 months plus the variance of the change during the second 6 months. We assume these are the same. It follows that the variance of the change during a 6-month period must be 0.5. Equivalently, the standard deviation of the change is
10.5.
The probability distribution for the change in the value of the variable during 6 months is f(0, 0.5).14.2 CONTINUOUS-TIME STOCHASTIC PROCESSES
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318 CHAPTER 14
A similar argument shows that the probability distribution for the change in the
value of the variable during 3 months is f (0, 0.25). More generally, the change during
any time period of length T is f (0, T). In particular, the change during a very short time
period of length āt is f(0, Ā¢t).
Note that, when Markov processes are considered, the variances of the changes in
The Wiener Process Mechanics
- A Wiener process is a specific Markov stochastic process characterized by a mean change of zero and a variance rate of 1.0 per year.
- In these processes, variances are additive over successive time periods, whereas standard deviations are not.
- The uncertainty of a variable, measured by its standard deviation, increases in proportion to the square root of time.
- The model assumes that changes in the variable over any two different short intervals of time are independent of one another.
- The distribution of a change over any time period T is normal, with a mean of zero and a standard deviation equal to the square root of T.
Our uncertainty about the value of the variable at a certain time in the future, as measured by its standard deviation, increases as the square root of how far we are looking ahead.
22.
Consider next the change in the variable during 6 months. The variance of the
change in the value of the variable during 1 year equals the variance of the change during the first 6 months plus the variance of the change during the second 6 months. We assume these are the same. It follows that the variance of the change during a 6-month period must be 0.5. Equivalently, the standard deviation of the change is
10.5.
The probability distribution for the change in the value of the variable during 6 months is f(0, 0.5).14.2 CONTINUOUS-TIME STOCHASTIC PROCESSES
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318 CHAPTER 14
A similar argument shows that the probability distribution for the change in the
value of the variable during 3 months is f (0, 0.25). More generally, the change during
any time period of length T is f (0, T). In particular, the change during a very short time
period of length āt is f(0, Ā¢t).
Note that, when Markov processes are considered, the variances of the changes in
successive time periods are additive. The standard deviations of the changes in
successive time periods are not additive. The variance of the change in the variable in our example is 1.0 per year, so that the variance of the change in 2 years is 2.0 and the variance of the change in 3 years is 3.0. The standard deviations of the changes in 2 and 3 years are
22 and 23, respectively. Uncertainty is often measured by standard
deviation. These results therefore explain why uncertainty is sometimes referred to as being proportional to the square root of time.
Wiener Process
The process followed by the variable we have been considering is known as a Wiener process. It is a particular type of Markov stochastic process with a mean change of zero and a variance rate of 1.0 per year. It has been used in physics to describe the motion of a particle that is subject to a large number of small molecular shocks and is sometimes referred to as Brownian motion.
Expressed formally, a variable z follows a Wiener process if it has the following two
properties:
Property 1. The change
āz during a small period of time āt is
āz=P2āt (14.1)
where P has a standard normal distribution f10, 12.
Property 2. The values of āz for any two different short intervals of time, āt, are
independent.
It follows from the first property that āz itself has a normal distribution with
mean of āz=0
standard deviation of āz=2āt
variance of āz=āt
The second property implies that z follows a Markov process.
Consider the change in the value of z during a relatively long period of time, T. This
can be denoted by z1T2-z102. It can be regarded as the sum of the changes in z in
N small time intervals of length āt, where
N=T
āt
Thus,
z1T2-z102=aN
i=1Pi2āt (14.2)
where the Pi 1i=1, 2,c, N2 are distributed f10, 12. We know from the second
property of Wiener processes that the Pi are independent of each other. It follows
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 319
from equation (14.2) that z1T2-z102 is normally distributed, with
mean of 3z1T2-z1024=0
variance of 3z1T2-z1024=N āt=T
standard deviation of 3z1T2-z1024=2T
This is consistent with the discussion earlier in this section.
Example 14.1
Suppose that the value, z, of a variable that follows a Wiener process is initially 25
and that time is measured in years. At the end of 1 year, the value of the variable
is normally distributed with a mean of 25 and a standard deviation of 1.0. At the
end of 5 years, it is normally distributed with a mean of 25 and a standard deviation of
25, or 2.236. Our uncertainty about the value of the variable at a
certain time in the future, as measured by its standard deviation, increases as the square root of how far we are looking ahead.
In ordinary calculus, it is usual to proceed from small changes to the limit as the small changes become closer to zero. Thus,
dx=a dt is the notation used to indicate that
Wiener Processes and Stochastic Calculus
- A Wiener process describes a variable whose uncertainty, measured by standard deviation, increases as the square root of time.
- The path of a Wiener process is inherently jagged because the standard deviation of movement over small intervals is significantly larger than the time interval itself.
- Wiener processes possess counterintuitive properties, such as having an infinite expected path length and hitting any specific value an infinite number of times within any interval.
- A generalized Wiener process incorporates a drift rate for expected trends and a variance rate to account for added noise or variability.
- In a generalized process, the change in a variable over time follows a normal distribution where the mean is determined by the drift and the variance scales linearly with time.
The expected length of the path followed by z in any time interval is infinite.
Suppose that the value, z, of a variable that follows a Wiener process is initially 25
and that time is measured in years. At the end of 1 year, the value of the variable
is normally distributed with a mean of 25 and a standard deviation of 1.0. At the
end of 5 years, it is normally distributed with a mean of 25 and a standard deviation of
25, or 2.236. Our uncertainty about the value of the variable at a
certain time in the future, as measured by its standard deviation, increases as the square root of how far we are looking ahead.
In ordinary calculus, it is usual to proceed from small changes to the limit as the small changes become closer to zero. Thus,
dx=a dt is the notation used to indicate that
āx=a āt in the limit as ātS0. We use similar notational conventions in stochastic
calculus. So, when we refer to dz as a Wiener process, we mean that it has the properties for
āz given above in the limit as ātS0.
Figure 14.1 illustrates what happens to the path followed by z as the limit ātS0 is
approached. Note that the path is quite ājagged.ā This is because the standard deviation of the movement in z in time
āt equals 2āt and, when āt is small, 2āt is
much bigger than āt. Two intriguing properties of Wiener processes, related to this
2āt property, are as follows:
1. The expected length of the path followed by z in any time interval is infinite.
2. The expected number of times z equals any particular value in any time interval is
infinite.3
Generalized Wiener Process
The mean change per unit time for a stochastic process is known as the drift rate and
the variance per unit time is known as the variance rate. The basic Wiener process, dz, that has been developed so far has a drift rate of zero and a variance rate of 1.0. The drift rate of zero means that the expected value of z at any future time is equal to its
current value. The variance rate of 1.0 means that the variance of the change in z in a time interval of length T equals T. A generalized Wiener process for a variable x can be defined in terms of dz as
dx=a dt+b dz (14.3)
where a and b are constants.
To understand equation (14.3), it is useful to consider the two components on the
right-hand side separately. The a dt term implies that x has an expected drift rate of
a per unit of time. Without the b dz term, the equation is dx=a dt, which implies that
3 This is because z has some nonzero probability of equaling any value v in the time interval. If it equals v in
time t, the expected number of times it equals v in the immediate vicinity of t is infinite.
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320 CHAPTER 14
Figure 14.1 How a Wiener process is obtained when ātS0 in equation (14. 1).
z
z
zt
t
tRelat ively la rge value of Dt
Smaller v alue of Dt
The true process obtained as Dt 0
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 321
dx>dt=a. Integrating with respect to time, we get
x=x0+at
where x0 is the value of x at time 0. In a period of time of length T, the variable x
increases by an amount aT. The b dz term on the right-hand side of equation (14.3) can
be regarded as adding noise or variability to the path followed by x. The amount of this
noise or variability is b times a Wiener process. A Wiener process has a variance rate per unit time of 1.0. It follows that b times a Wiener process has a variance rate per unit time of
b2. In a small time interval āt, the change āx in the value of x is given by
equations (14.1) and (14.3) as
āx=a āt+bP2āt
where, as before, P has a standard normal distribution f10, 12. Thus āx has a normal
distribution with
mean of āx=a āt
standard deviation of āx=b2āt
variance of āx=b2āt
Similar arguments to those given for a Wiener process show that the change in the value of x in any time interval T is normally distributed with
mean of change in x=aT
standard deviation of change in x=b2T
variance of change in x=b2T
Generalized Wiener and ItƓ Processes
- A generalized Wiener process incorporates a constant drift rate and a variance rate to model the path of a variable over time.
- The change in the variable over any time interval is normally distributed, with uncertainty increasing as the square root of time.
- The ItƓ process extends this concept by allowing the drift and variance parameters to be functions of both the current variable value and time.
- Practical applications include modeling a company's cash position, where negative values represent borrowing rather than simple depletion.
- In an ItƓ process, the expected drift and variance rates are dynamic and liable to change as the underlying variable evolves.
Our uncertainty about the cash position at some time in the future, as measured by its standard deviation, increases as the square root of how far ahead we are looking.
where x0 is the value of x at time 0. In a period of time of length T, the variable x
increases by an amount aT. The b dz term on the right-hand side of equation (14.3) can
be regarded as adding noise or variability to the path followed by x. The amount of this
noise or variability is b times a Wiener process. A Wiener process has a variance rate per unit time of 1.0. It follows that b times a Wiener process has a variance rate per unit time of
b2. In a small time interval āt, the change āx in the value of x is given by
equations (14.1) and (14.3) as
āx=a āt+bP2āt
where, as before, P has a standard normal distribution f10, 12. Thus āx has a normal
distribution with
mean of āx=a āt
standard deviation of āx=b2āt
variance of āx=b2āt
Similar arguments to those given for a Wiener process show that the change in the value of x in any time interval T is normally distributed with
mean of change in x=aT
standard deviation of change in x=b2T
variance of change in x=b2T
To summarize, the generalized Wiener process given in equation (14.3) has an expected drift rate (i.e., average drift per unit of time) of a and a variance rate (i.e., variance per unit of time) of
b2. It is illustrated in Figure 14.2.
Figure 14.2 Generalized Wiener process with a=0.3 and b=1.5.
Value of
variable, x General ized
Wiener process
dx 5 adt 1 bdz
dx 5 adt
Wiener process, dz
Time
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322 CHAPTER 14
Example 14.2
Consider the situation where the cash position of a company, measured in thou-
sands of dollars, follows a generalized Wiener process with a drift of 20 per year and a variance rate of 900 per year. Initially, the cash position is 50. At the end of 1 year the cash position will have a normal distribution with a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of
2900, or 30. At the end of 6 months it will have a normal
distribution with a mean of 60 and a standard deviation of 3020.5=21.21. Our
uncertainty about the cash position at some time in the future, as measured by its standard deviation, increases as the square root of how far ahead we are looking. (Note that the cash position can become negative. We can interpret this as a situation where the company is borrowing funds.)
ItƓ Process
A further type of stochastic process, known as an ItƓ process, can be defined. This is a generalized Wiener process in which the parameters a and b are functions of the value of the underlying variable x and time t. An ItƓ process can therefore be written as
dx=a1x, t2dt+b1x, t2 dz (14.4)
Both the expected drift rate and variance rate of an ItƓ process are liable to change over
time. They are functions of the current value of x and the current time, t. In a small time interval between t and
t+āt, the variable changes from x to x+āx, where
āx=a1x, t2āt+b1x, t2P2āt
Modeling Stock Price Behavior
- The ItƓ process is a generalized Wiener process where drift and variance parameters are functions of both the underlying variable and time.
- Stock prices are modeled as Markov processes, meaning future price changes depend only on the current price rather than historical trends.
- A constant drift rate is rejected in favor of a constant expected percentage return, acknowledging that investors require the same rate of return regardless of the absolute stock price.
- Geometric Brownian motion is established as the standard model for stock behavior, incorporating both an expected rate of return and price volatility.
- In a risk-neutral world, the expected rate of return in this model is assumed to be equal to the risk-free interest rate.
If investors require a 14% per annum expected return when the stock price is $10, then, ceteris paribus, they will also require a 14% per annum expected return when it is $50.
A further type of stochastic process, known as an ItƓ process, can be defined. This is a generalized Wiener process in which the parameters a and b are functions of the value of the underlying variable x and time t. An ItƓ process can therefore be written as
dx=a1x, t2dt+b1x, t2 dz (14.4)
Both the expected drift rate and variance rate of an ItƓ process are liable to change over
time. They are functions of the current value of x and the current time, t. In a small time interval between t and
t+āt, the variable changes from x to x+āx, where
āx=a1x, t2āt+b1x, t2P2āt
This equation involves a small approximation. It assumes that the drift and variance rate of x remain constant, equal to their values at time t , in the time interval between t and
t+āt.
Note that the process in equation (14.4) is Markov because the change in x at time t
depends only on the value of x at time t, not on its history. A non-Markov process could be defined by letting a and b in equation (14.4) depend on values of x prior to time t.
In this section we discuss the stochastic process usually assumed for the price of a non-
dividend-paying stock.
It is tempting to suggest that a stock price follows a generalized Wiener process; that is,
that it has a constant expected drift rate and a constant variance rate. However, this model fails to capture a key aspect of stock prices. This is that the expected percentage return required by investors from a stock is independent of the stockās price. If investors require a 14% per annum expected return when the stock price is $10, then, ceteris paribus, they will also require a 14% per annum expected return when it is $50.
Clearly, the assumption of constant expected drift rate is inappropriate and needs to
be replaced by the assumption that the expected return (i.e., expected drift divided by the stock price) is constant. If S is the stock price at time t, then the expected drift rate in S should be assumed to be
mS for some constant parameter m. This means that in a
short interval of time, āt, the expected increase in S is mS āt. The parameter m is the
expected rate of return on the stock.14.3 THE PROCESS FOR A STOCK PRICE
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 323
If the coefficient of dz is zero, so that there is no uncertainty, then this model implies
that
āS=mS āt
in the limit, as ātS0, so that:
dS=mS dt
or
dS
S=m dt
Integrating between time 0 and time T, we get
ST=S0emT (14.5)
where S0 and ST are the stock price at time 0 and time T. Equation (14.5) shows that,
when there is no uncertainty, the stock price grows at a continuously compounded rate
of m per unit of time.
In practice, of course, there is uncertainty. A reasonable assumption is that the
variability of the return in a short period of time, āt, is the same regardless of the
stock price. In other words, an investor is just as uncertain about the return when the stock price is $50 as when it is $10. This suggests that the standard deviation of the change in a short period of time
āt should be proportional to the stock price and leads
to the model
dS=mS dt+sS dz
or
dS
S=m dt+s dz (14.6)
Equation (14.6) is the most widely used model of stock price behavior. The variable m is
the stockās expected rate of return. The variable s is the volatility of the stock price. The
variable s2 is referred to as its variance rate. The model in equation (14.6) represents
the stock price process in the real world. In a risk-neutral world, m equals the risk-free
rate r.
Discrete-Time Model
The model of stock price behavior we have developed is known as geometric Brownian
motion. The discrete-time version of the model is
āS
S=m āt+sP2āt (14.7)
or
āS=mS āt+sSP2āt (14.8)
Modeling Stock Price Behavior
- Geometric Brownian motion is the primary mathematical model used to describe the continuous and discrete-time behavior of stock prices.
- The model decomposes stock price changes into a deterministic expected return component and a stochastic component driven by volatility.
- In a risk-neutral world, the expected rate of return is assumed to be equal to the risk-free rate, simplifying the valuation of derivatives.
- Monte Carlo simulations allow for the sampling of random outcomes to visualize potential future price paths based on standard normal distributions.
- The discrete-time approximation assumes that the percentage change in stock price over a small interval is approximately normally distributed.
A Monte Carlo simulation of a stochastic process is a procedure for sampling random outcomes for the process.
Equation (14.6) is the most widely used model of stock price behavior. The variable m is
the stockās expected rate of return. The variable s is the volatility of the stock price. The
variable s2 is referred to as its variance rate. The model in equation (14.6) represents
the stock price process in the real world. In a risk-neutral world, m equals the risk-free
rate r.
Discrete-Time Model
The model of stock price behavior we have developed is known as geometric Brownian
motion. The discrete-time version of the model is
āS
S=m āt+sP2āt (14.7)
or
āS=mS āt+sSP2āt (14.8)
The variable āS is the change in the stock price S in a small time interval āt, and as
before P has a standard normal distribution (i.e., a normal distribution with a mean of
zero and standard deviation of 1.0). The parameter m is the expected rate of return per
unit of time from the stock. The parameter s is the stock price volatility. In this chapter
we will assume these parameters are constant.
The left-hand side of equation (14.7) is the discrete approximation to the return
provided by the stock in a short period of time, āt. The term m āt is the expected value
of this return, and the term sP2āt is the stochastic component of the return. The
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324 CHAPTER 14
variance of the stochastic component (and, therefore, of the whole return) is s2āt. This
is consistent with the definition of the volatility s given in Section 13.7; that is, s is such
that s2āt is the standard deviation of the return in a short time period āt.
Equation (14.7) shows that āS>S is approximately normally distributed with mean
m āt and standard deviation s2āt. In other words,
āS
S/similar.altf1m āt, s2 āt2 (14.9)
Example 14.3
Consider a stock that pays no dividends, has a volatility of 30% per annum, and
provides an expected return of 15% per annum with continuous compounding. In this case,
m=0.15 and s=0.30. The process for the stock price is
dS
S=0.15 dt+0.30 dz
If S is the stock price at a particular time and āS is the increase in the stock price
in the next small interval of time, the discrete approximation to the process is
āS
S=0.15āt+0.30P2āt
where P has a standard normal distribution. Consider a time interval of 1 week,
or 0.0192 year, so that āt=0.0192. Then the approximation gives
āS
S=0.15*0.0192+0.30*20.0192P
or
āS=0.00288S+0.0416SP
Monte Carlo Simulation
A Monte Carlo simulation of a stochastic process is a procedure for sampling random outcomes for the process. We will use it as a way of developing some understanding of the nature of the stock price process in equation (14.6).
Consider the situation in Example 14.3 where the expected return from a stock is
15% per annum and the volatility is 30% per annum. The stock price change over 1 week was shown to be approximately
āS=0.00288S+0.0416SP (14.10)
A path for the stock price over 10 weeks can be simulated by sampling repeatedly for P
from f10, 12 and substituting into equation (14.10). The expression = RAND() in Excel
produces a random sample between 0 and 1. The inverse cumulative normal distribution
is NORMSINV. The instruction to produce a random sample from a standard normal distribution in Excel is therefore = NORMSINV(RAND()). Table 14.1 shows one path
for a stock price that was sampled in this way. The initial stock price is assumed to be $100. For the first period,
P is sampled as 0.52. From equation (14.10), the change during
the first time period is
āS=0.00288*100+0.0416*100*0.52=2.45
Therefore, at the beginning of the second time period, the stock price is $102.45. The
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 325
value of P sampled for the next period is 1.44. From equation (14.10), the change during
the second time period is
āS=0.00288*102.45+0.0416*102.45*1.44=6.43
Simulating Stock Price Paths
- Stock price movements can be simulated over discrete time intervals by sampling from a standard normal distribution and applying it to a stochastic equation.
- The simulation relies on the Markov property, meaning each random sample for the price change must be independent of previous samples.
- By repeating these simulations many times, a complete probability distribution of the future stock price can be constructed, a method known as Monte Carlo simulation.
- The expected return parameter is influenced by both the risk-free interest rate and the level of non-diversifiable risk inherent in the stock.
- While simulating the price directly is possible, it is often more computationally efficient to sample the natural logarithm of the stock price instead.
In the limit as ātS0, a perfect description of the stochastic process is obtained.
A path for the stock price over 10 weeks can be simulated by sampling repeatedly for P
from f10, 12 and substituting into equation (14.10). The expression = RAND() in Excel
produces a random sample between 0 and 1. The inverse cumulative normal distribution
is NORMSINV. The instruction to produce a random sample from a standard normal distribution in Excel is therefore = NORMSINV(RAND()). Table 14.1 shows one path
for a stock price that was sampled in this way. The initial stock price is assumed to be $100. For the first period,
P is sampled as 0.52. From equation (14.10), the change during
the first time period is
āS=0.00288*100+0.0416*100*0.52=2.45
Therefore, at the beginning of the second time period, the stock price is $102.45. The
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 325
value of P sampled for the next period is 1.44. From equation (14.10), the change during
the second time period is
āS=0.00288*102.45+0.0416*102.45*1.44=6.43
So, at the beginning of the next period, the stock price is $108.88, and so on.4 Note
that, because the process we are simulating is Markov, the samples for P should be
independent of each other.
Table 14.1 assumes that stock prices are measured to the nearest cent. It is important
to realize that the table shows only one possible pattern of stock price movements. Different random samples would lead to different price movements. Any small time interval
āt can be used in the simulation. In the limit as ātS0, a perfect description
of the stochastic process is obtained. The final stock price of 111.54 in Table 14.1 can be regarded as a random sample from the distribution of stock prices at the end of 10 weeks. By repeatedly simulating movements in the stock price, a complete prob-ability distribution of the stock price at the end of this time is obtained. Monte Carlo simulation is discussed in more detail in Chapter 21.Stock price
at start of periodRandom sample
for PChange in stock price
during period
100.00 0.52 2.45
102.45 1.44 6.43
108.88 -0.86 -3.58
105.30 1.46 6.70
112.00 -0.69 -2.89
109.11 -0.74 -3.04
106.06 0.21 1.23
107.30 -1.10 -4.60
102.69 0.73 3.41
106.11 1.16 5.43
111.54 2.56 12.20Table 14.1 Simulation of stock price when m=0.15 and
s=0.30 during 1 -week periods.
4 In practice, it is more efficient to sample ln S rather than S, as will be discussed in Section 21.6.The process for a stock price developed in this chapter involves two parameters, m and s.
The parameter m is the expected return (annualized) earned by an investor in a short
period of time. Most investors require higher expected returns to induce them to take higher risks. It follows that the value of
m should depend on the risk of the return from
the stock.5 It should also depend on the level of interest rates in the economy. The higher
the level of interest rates, the higher the expected return required on any given stock.14.4 THE PARAMETERS
5 More precisely, m depends on that part of the risk that cannot be diversified away by the investor.
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326 CHAPTER 14
Parameters and Correlated Processes
- The expected return parameter, m, is influenced by risk levels and prevailing interest rates but is generally irrelevant for derivative valuation.
- Stock price volatility, s, is a critical parameter for pricing derivatives and represents the standard deviation of the stock's continuously compounded return over one year.
- Stochastic processes for multiple variables can be modeled using Wiener processes that account for correlation between the variables.
- Correlated random variables can be simulated by transforming independent standard normal samples using a specific algebraic relationship involving the correlation coefficient.
- The drift and variance parameters of these processes can be dynamic functions of time and the current values of all variables involved.
Fortunately, we do not have to concern ourselves with the determinants of m in any detail because the value of a derivative dependent on a stock is, in general, independent of m.
s=0.30 during 1 -week periods.
4 In practice, it is more efficient to sample ln S rather than S, as will be discussed in Section 21.6.The process for a stock price developed in this chapter involves two parameters, m and s.
The parameter m is the expected return (annualized) earned by an investor in a short
period of time. Most investors require higher expected returns to induce them to take higher risks. It follows that the value of
m should depend on the risk of the return from
the stock.5 It should also depend on the level of interest rates in the economy. The higher
the level of interest rates, the higher the expected return required on any given stock.14.4 THE PARAMETERS
5 More precisely, m depends on that part of the risk that cannot be diversified away by the investor.
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326 CHAPTER 14
Fortunately, we do not have to concern ourselves with the determinants of m in any
detail because the value of a derivative dependent on a stock is, in general, independent
of m. The parameter s, the stock price volatility, is, by contrast, critically important to
the determination of the value of many derivatives. We will discuss procedures for estimating
s in Chapter 15. Typical values of s for a stock are in the range 0.15 to 0.60
(i.e., 15% to 60%).
The standard deviation of the proportional change in the stock price in a small
interval of time āt is s2āt. As a rough approximation, the standard deviation of the
proportional change in the stock price over a relatively long period of time T is s2T.
This means that, as an approximation, volatility can be interpreted as the standard deviation of the change in the stock price in 1 year. In Chapter 15, we will show that the volatility of a stock price is exactly equal to the standard deviation of the continuously compounded return provided by the stock in 1 year.
So far we have considered how the stochastic process for a single variable can be
represented. We now extend the analysis to the situation where there are two or more variables following correlated stochastic processes. Suppose that the processes followed by two variables
x1 and x2 are
dx1=a1 dt+b1 dz1 and dx2=a2 dt+b2 dz2
where dz1 and dz2 are Wiener processes.
As has been explained, the discrete-time approximations for these processes are
āx1=a1 āt+b1 P12āt and āx2=a2 āt+b2 P22āt
where P1 and P2 are samples from a standard normal distribution f10, 12.
The variables x1 and x2 can be simulated in the way described in Section 14.3. If they
are uncorrelated with each other, the random samples P1 and P2 that are used to obtain
movements in a particular period of time āt should be independent of each other.
If x1 and x2 have a nonzero correlation r, then the P1 and P2 that are used to obtain
movements in a particular period of time should be sampled from a bivariate normal distribution. Each variable in the bivariate normal distribution has a standard normal distribution and the correlation between the variables is
r. In this situation, we would
refer to the Wiener processes dz1 and dz2 as having a correlation r.
Obtaining samples for uncorrelated standard normal variables in cells in Excel
involves putting the instruction ā=NORMSINV(RAND())ā in each of the cells. To sample standard normal variables
P1 and P2 with correlation r, we can set
P1=u and P2=ru+21-r2v
where u and v are sampled as uncorrelated variables with standard normal distributions.
Note that, in the processes we have assumed for x1 and x2, the parameters a1, a2, b1,
and b2 can be functions of x1, x2, and t. In particular, a1 and b1 can be functions of x2
as well as x1 and t; and a2 and b2 can be functions of x1 as well as x2 and t.14.5 CORRELATED PROCESSES
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 327
Correlated Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma
- Correlated stochastic processes can be modeled by sampling variables from multivariate normal distributions using specific linear combinations of uncorrelated variables.
- ItĆ“ās lemma provides a mathematical framework for determining the stochastic process followed by a function of one or more underlying variables.
- The lemma reveals that if a variable follows an ItƓ process, any function of that variable and time also follows an ItƓ process with a modified drift and variance.
- A critical insight for derivative pricing is that both the underlying asset and its derivative are driven by the same source of uncertainty, represented by the Wiener process.
- Applying ItĆ“ās lemma to forward contracts demonstrates how the forward price evolves over time relative to the spot price and the risk-free interest rate.
Note that both S and G are affected by the same underlying source of uncertainty, dz.
P1 and P2 with correlation r, we can set
P1=u and P2=ru+21-r2v
where u and v are sampled as uncorrelated variables with standard normal distributions.
Note that, in the processes we have assumed for x1 and x2, the parameters a1, a2, b1,
and b2 can be functions of x1, x2, and t. In particular, a1 and b1 can be functions of x2
as well as x1 and t; and a2 and b2 can be functions of x1 as well as x2 and t.14.5 CORRELATED PROCESSES
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 327
The results here can be generalized. When there are three different variables following
correlated stochastic processes, we have to sample three different P>s. These have a
trivariate normal distribution. When there are n correlated variables, we have n different
P>s and these must be sampled from an appropriate multivariate normal distribution.
The way this is done is explained in Chapter 21.
The price of a stock option is a function of the underlying stockās price and time. More
generally, we can say that the price of any derivative is a function of the stochastic variables underlying the derivative and time. A serious student of derivatives must, therefore, acquire some understanding of the behavior of functions of stochastic variables. An important result in this area was discovered by the mathematician K. ItƓ in 1951,
6 and is known as ItĆ“ās lemma.
Suppose that the value of a variable x follows the ItƓ process
dx=a1x, t2 dt+b1x, t2 dz (14.11)
where dz is a Wiener process and a and b are functions of x and t. The variable x has a
drift rate of a and a variance rate of b2. ItĆ“ās lemma shows that a function G of x and t
follows the process
dG=a0G
0x a+0G
0t+1
2 02G
0x2 b2bdt+0G
0x b dz (14.12)
where the dz is the same Wiener process as in equation (14.11). Thus, G also follows an
ItƓ process, with a drift rate of
0G
0xa+0G
0t+1
2 02G
0x2 b2
and a variance rate of
a0G
0xb2
b2
A completely rigorous proof of ItĆ“ās lemma is beyond the scope of this book. In the
appendix to this chapter, we show that the lemma can be viewed as an extension of well-known results in differential calculus.
Earlier, we argued that
dS=mS dt+sS dz (14.13)
with m and s constant, is a reasonable model of stock price movements. From ItĆ“ās
lemma, it follows that the process followed by a function G of S and t is
dG=a0G
0SmS+0G
0t+1
2 02G
0S2s2S2b dt+0G
0SsS dz (14.14)
Note that both S and G are affected by the same underlying source of uncertainty, dz.
This proves to be very important in the derivation of the BlackāScholesāMerton results.14.6 IT ĆāS LEMMA
6 See K. ItĆ“, āOn Stochastic Differential Equations,ā Memoirs of the American Mathematical Society,
4 (1951): 1ā51.
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328 CHAPTER 14
Application to Forward Contracts
To illustrate ItĆ“ās lemma, consider a forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock.
Assume that the risk-free rate of interest is constant and equal to r for all maturities. From equation (5.1),
F0=S0erT
where F0 is the forward price at time zero, S0 is the spot price at time zero, and T is the
time to maturity of the forward contract.
We are interested in what happens to the forward price as time passes. We define F as
the forward price at a general time t, and S as the stock price at time t, with t6T. The
relationship between F and S is given by
F=Ser1T-t2 (14.15)
Assuming that the process for S is given by equation (14.13), we can use ItĆ“ās lemma to
determine the process for F. From equation (14.15),
0F
0S=er1T-t2, 02F
0S2=0, 0F
0t=-rSer1T-t2
From equation (14.14), the process for F is given by
dF=3er1T-t2mS-rSer1T-t24dt+er1T-t2sS dz
Substituting F for Ser1T-t2 gives
dF=1m-r2F dt+sF dz (14.16)
Forward Prices and Lognormal Properties
- The forward price of a stock follows geometric Brownian motion with the same volatility as the spot price but a different expected growth rate.
- Applying ItĆ“ās lemma to the natural logarithm of the stock price reveals that the log-price follows a generalized Wiener process.
- The model implies that stock prices are lognormally distributed, meaning the change in the logarithm of the price is normally distributed over time.
- Fractional Brownian motion is introduced as a non-Markovian generalization of standard Brownian motion, characterized by the Hurst exponent.
- The standard deviation of the logarithm of a stock price is shown to be proportional to the square root of the time horizon being considered.
Fractional Brownian motion (also known as fractal Brownian motion) provides a generalization of Brownian motion and the models involving Wiener processes that we have discussed so far in this chapter.
where F0 is the forward price at time zero, S0 is the spot price at time zero, and T is the
time to maturity of the forward contract.
We are interested in what happens to the forward price as time passes. We define F as
the forward price at a general time t, and S as the stock price at time t, with t6T. The
relationship between F and S is given by
F=Ser1T-t2 (14.15)
Assuming that the process for S is given by equation (14.13), we can use ItĆ“ās lemma to
determine the process for F. From equation (14.15),
0F
0S=er1T-t2, 02F
0S2=0, 0F
0t=-rSer1T-t2
From equation (14.14), the process for F is given by
dF=3er1T-t2mS-rSer1T-t24dt+er1T-t2sS dz
Substituting F for Ser1T-t2 gives
dF=1m-r2F dt+sF dz (14.16)
Like S, the forward price F follows geometric Brownian motion. It has the same
volatility as S and an expected growth rate of m-r rather than m.
We now use ItĆ“ās lemma to derive the process followed by ln S when S follows the process
in equation (14.13). We define
G=ln S
Since
0G
0S=1
S, 02G
0S2=-1
S2, 0G
0t=0
it follows from equation (14.14) that the process followed by G is
dG=am-s2
2b dt+s dz (14.17)
Since m and s are constant, this equation indicates that G=ln S follows a generalized
Wiener process. It has constant drift rate m-s2>2 and constant variance rate s2. The 14.7 THE LOGNORMAL PROPERTY
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 329
change in ln S between time 0 and some future time T is therefore normally distributed,
with mean 1m-s2>22T and variance s2T. This means that
ln ST-ln S0/similar.altfcam-s2
2bT, s2Td (14.18)
or
ln ST/similar.altfcln S0+am-s2
2bT, s2Td (14.19)
where ST is the stock price at time T, S0 is the stock price at time 0, and as before f1m, v2
denotes a normal distribution with mean m and variance v.
Equation (14.19) shows that ln ST is normally distributed. A variable has a lognormal
distribution if the natural logarithm of the variable is normally distributed. The model
of stock price behavior we have developed in this chapter therefore implies that a stockās price at time T, given its price today, is lognormally distributed. The standard deviation
of the logarithm of the stock price is
s2T. It is proportional to the square root of how
far ahead we are looking.
Fractional Brownian motion (also known as fractal Brownian motion) provides a
generalization of Brownian motion and the models involving Wiener processes that we have discussed so far in this chapter. It is used in rough volatility models for valuing derivatives, which are discussed later in the book.
First, let us quickly review the properties of Wiener processes. Suppose dz is a Wiener
process,
s is a constant, and
X=s dz
with X102=0. Then, for t7s70,
E3X1t2-X1s24=0 and E31X1t2-X1s2224=s21t-s2
In particular, E31X1t2224=s2t and E31X1s2224=s2s. The variance of the change in X
between times s and t is
E31X1t2-X1s2224-1E3X1t2-X1s2422=s21t-s2
The variance per unit time is therefore constant and equal to s2. Because a Wiener
process is Markov, X1t2-X1s2 is uncorrelated with X1s2. Hence,
E3X1s2X1t24=E3X1s21X 1s2+X1t2-X1s224
=E31X1s2224+E3X1s21X 1t2-X1s224
=E31X1s2224=s2s
In fractional Brownian motion we assume
E31X1t2-X1s2224=s21t-s22H
where H is referred to as the Hurst exponent. Continuing with the assumption that 14.8 FRACTIONAL BROWNIAN MOTION
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330 CHAPTER 14
X102=0, E31X1t224=s2t2H, and E31X1s224=s2s2H. When H = 0.5, fractional Brownian
motion becomes regular Brownian motion.
Since
E31X1t2-X1s2224=E31X1t2224+E31X1s2224-2E3X1t2X1s24
it follows that
E3X1t2X1s24=0.55E31X1t2224+E31X1s2224-E31X1t2-X1s22246
=0.5s23t2H+s2H-1t-s22H4
When H=0.5, this reduces to our earlier result for Wiener processes: E3X1s2X1t24 = s2s.
The correlation between X1t2 and X1s2 is
0.53t2H+s2H-1t-s22H4
sHtH (14.20)
Fractional Brownian motion is non-Markov. If t7s7u, then
Fractional Brownian Motion Dynamics
- Fractional Brownian motion generalizes regular Brownian motion by introducing the Hurst exponent (H) to control correlation.
- Unlike standard Wiener processes, fractional Brownian motion is non-Markov, meaning its future path depends on its historical trajectory.
- When the Hurst exponent is greater than 0.5, the process exhibits positive correlation between successive time periods, while values below 0.5 indicate negative correlation.
- Simulating these processes requires complex methods like Cholesky decomposition to ensure each new time step maintains the correct correlation with all previous steps.
- As the Hurst exponent decreases toward 0.1, the simulated path becomes significantly more noisy and volatile.
As H decreases, the process becomes more noisy.
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330 CHAPTER 14
X102=0, E31X1t224=s2t2H, and E31X1s224=s2s2H. When H = 0.5, fractional Brownian
motion becomes regular Brownian motion.
Since
E31X1t2-X1s2224=E31X1t2224+E31X1s2224-2E3X1t2X1s24
it follows that
E3X1t2X1s24=0.55E31X1t2224+E31X1s2224-E31X1t2-X1s22246
=0.5s23t2H+s2H-1t-s22H4
When H=0.5, this reduces to our earlier result for Wiener processes: E3X1s2X1t24 = s2s.
The correlation between X1t2 and X1s2 is
0.53t2H+s2H-1t-s22H4
sHtH (14.20)
Fractional Brownian motion is non-Markov. If t7s7u, then
E31X1t2-X1s221X 1s2-X1u224=E3X1t2X1s24-E31X1s2224
-E3X1t2X1u24+E3X1s2X1u24 =0.5s231t-u22H-1t-s22H-1s-u22H4
This is zero (as we expect) when H=0.5. When H70.5, it is positive (so that the
correlation between changes in X in successive periods of time is positive). When
H60.5, it is negative (so that the correlation between changes in X in successive
periods of time is negative).
Simulating fractional Brownian motion involves dividing the time period being
considered into a number of small time steps of length āt. A sample from a standard
normal distribution, P, determines the change over one time step using equation (14.8).
In regular Brownian motion the P>s used for different time steps are uncorrelated. In
fractional Brownian motion we must build in the correlations so that equation (14.20) is
satisfied. The P for the first step is chosen randomly; the P for the second step must be
chosen so that X12āt2 has the right correlation with X1āt2; the P for the third time step
must be chosen so that X13āt2 has the right correlation with both x12āt2 and the
X1āt2; and so on. The Cholesky decomposition procedure explained in Chapter 21, can
be used to accomplish this.
Figure 14.3 shows the simulation of fractional Brownian motion over one year for
values of H equal to 0.9, 0.5, and 0.1 when the time step is 0.01 years. As H decreases, the process becomes more noisy. This would become even more marked if we decreased the length of the time step further.
SUMMARY
Stochastic processes describe the probabilistic evolution of the value of a variable through time. A Markov process is one where only the present value of the variable is relevant for predicting the future. The past history of the variable and the way in which the present has emerged from the past is irrelevant.
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 331
Figure 14.3 Simulation of fractional Brownian motion for different values of the Hurst
exponent.
20.10.00.10.20.30.40.50.60.7
1 0.8 0.6 0.4 0.2 0H 5 0.9
H 5 0.5
H 5 0.120.2
20.40.00.20.40.60.81.01.2
1 0.8 0.6 0.4 0.2 0
21.020.50.00.51.01.52.0
1 0.8 0.6 0.4 0.2 0
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332 CHAPTER 14
A Wiener process dz is a Markov process describing the evolution of a normally
distributed variable. The drift of the process is zero and the variance rate is 1.0 per unit
time. This means that, if the value of the variable is x0 at time 0, then at time T it is
normally distributed with mean x0 and standard deviation 2T.
A generalized Wiener process describes the evolution of a normally distributed
Stochastic Processes and ItƓ's Lemma
- A Wiener process is a specific Markov process with zero drift and a variance rate of 1.0, serving as the foundation for modeling normally distributed variables.
- Generalized Wiener processes and ItƓ processes allow for drift and variance to be constants or functions of time and the variable itself.
- ItĆ“ās lemma provides the mathematical framework to derive the stochastic process of a function based on the underlying variable's process.
- Geometric Brownian motion is the standard model for stock prices, assuming normally distributed returns and resulting in a lognormal distribution of future prices.
- Monte Carlo simulation offers an intuitive method for understanding these processes by sampling random paths over small time steps.
A key point is that the Wiener process dz underlying the stochastic process for the variable is exactly the same as the Wiener process underlying the stochastic process for the function of the variable.
21.020.50.00.51.01.52.0
1 0.8 0.6 0.4 0.2 0
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332 CHAPTER 14
A Wiener process dz is a Markov process describing the evolution of a normally
distributed variable. The drift of the process is zero and the variance rate is 1.0 per unit
time. This means that, if the value of the variable is x0 at time 0, then at time T it is
normally distributed with mean x0 and standard deviation 2T.
A generalized Wiener process describes the evolution of a normally distributed
variable with a drift of a per unit time and a variance rate of b2 per unit time, where
a and b are constants. This means that if, as before, the value of the variable is x0 at
time 0, it is normally distributed with a mean of x0+aT and a standard deviation of
b2T at time T.
An ItƓ process is a process where the drift and variance rate of x can be a function of
both x itself and time. The change in x in a very short period of time is, to a good
approximation, normally distributed, but its change over longer periods of time is liable to be nonnormal.
One way of gaining an intuitive understanding of a stochastic process for a variable is
to use Monte Carlo simulation. This involves dividing a time interval into many small time steps and randomly sampling possible paths for the variable. The future prob-ability distribution for the variable can then be calculated. Monte Carlo simulation is discussed further in Chapter 21.
ItĆ“ās lemma is a way of calculating the stochastic process followed by a function of a
variable from the stochastic process followed by the variable itself. As we shall see in
Chapter 15, ItĆ“ās lemma plays a very important part in the pricing of derivatives.
A key point is that the Wiener process dz underlying the stochastic process for the variable is exactly the same as the Wiener process underlying the stochastic process for
the function of the variable. Both are subject to the same underlying source of
uncertainty.
The stochastic process usually assumed for a stock price is geometric Brownian
motion. Under this process the return to the holder of the stock in a small period of
time is normally distributed and the returns in two nonoverlapping periods are
independent. The value of the stock price at a future time has a lognormal distribution. The BlackāScholesāMerton model, which we cover in the next chapter, is based on the geometric Brownian motion assumption.
FURTHER READING
On Efficient Markets and the Markov Property of Stock Prices
Brealey, R. A. An Introduction to Risk and Return from Common Stock, 2nd edn. Cambridge,
MA: MIT Press, 1986.
Cootner, P . H. (ed.) The Random Character of Stock Market Prices. Cambridge, MA: MIT Press,
1964.
On Stochastic ProcessesCox, D. R., and H. D. Miller. The Theory of Stochastic Processes. London: Chapman & Hall, 1977. Feller, W. Introduction to Probability Theory and Its Applications. New York: Wiley, 1968.Karlin, S., and H. M. Taylor. A First Course in Stochastic Processes, 2nd edn. New York:
Academic Press, 1975.
Mandelbrot, B. āFractional Brownian Motions, Fractional Noises, and Applications, ā SIAM
Review , 10, 4 (1968): 422ā437.
Shreve, S. E. Stochastic Calculus for Finance II: Continuous-Time Models. New York: Springer,
2008.
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 333
Practice Questions
14.1. Can a trading rule based on the past history of a stockās price ever produce returns that
are consistently above average? Discuss.
14.2. A companyās cash position, measured in millions of dollars, follows a generalized Wiener process with a drift rate of 0.5 per quarter and a variance rate of 4.0 per quarter. How high does the companyās initial cash position have to be for the company to have a less than 5% chance of a negative cash position by the end of 1 year?
14.3. Variables
X1 and X2 follow generalized Wiener processes, with drift rates m1 and m 2 and
variances s2
1 and s2
Stochastic Processes and Stock Dynamics
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on the application of Wiener processes and geometric Brownian motion to financial modeling.
- It explores the mathematical relationships between stock price volatility, expected returns, and the resulting probability distributions over specific time horizons.
- Several exercises challenge the reader to derive the processes followed by complex variables, such as portfolios of uncorrelated stocks or functions of stock prices.
- The material covers practical risk management scenarios, including calculating the probability of a company maintaining a positive cash position under drift and variance constraints.
- It introduces mean-reverting stochastic processes for interest rates and bond yields, requiring an understanding of how these variables influence bond pricing.
By hitting F9, observe how the path changes as the random samples change.
14.1. Can a trading rule based on the past history of a stockās price ever produce returns that
are consistently above average? Discuss.
14.2. A companyās cash position, measured in millions of dollars, follows a generalized Wiener process with a drift rate of 0.5 per quarter and a variance rate of 4.0 per quarter. How high does the companyās initial cash position have to be for the company to have a less than 5% chance of a negative cash position by the end of 1 year?
14.3. Variables
X1 and X2 follow generalized Wiener processes, with drift rates m1 and m 2 and
variances s2
1 and s2
2. What process does X1+X2 follow if:
(a) The changes in X1 and X2 in any short interval of time are uncorrelated?
(b) There is a correlation r between the changes in X1 and X2 in any short time interval?
14.4. Consider a variable S that follows the process
dS=m dt+s dz
For the first three years, m=2 and s=3; for the next three years, m=3 and s=4. If
the initial value of the variable is 5, what is the probability distribution of the value of the variable at the end of year 6?
14.5. Suppose that G is a function of a stock price S and time. Suppose that
sS and sG are the
volatilities of S and G. Show that, when the expected return of S increases by lsS, the
growth rate of G increases by lsG, where l is a constant.
14.6. Stock A and stock B both follow geometric Brownian motion. Changes in any short interval of time are uncorrelated with each other. Does the value of a portfolio consisting of one of stock A and one of stock B follow geometric Brownian motion? Explain your answer.
14.7. The process for the stock price in equation (14.8) is
āS=mS āt+sSP2āt
where m and s are constant. Explain carefully the difference between this model and each
of the following:
āS=māt+sP2āt
āS=mSāt+sP2āt
āS=māt+sSP2āt
Why is the model in equation (14.8) a more appropriate model of stock price behavior than any of these three alternatives?
M14_HULL0654_11_GE_C14.indd 333 30/04/2021 17:30
334 CHAPTER 14
14.8. It has been suggested that the short-term interest rate r follows the stochastic process
dr=a1b-r2 dt+rc dz
where a, b, c are positive constants and dz is a Wiener process. Describe the nature of
this process.
14.9. Suppose that a stock price S follows geometric Brownian motion with expected return m
and volatility s:
dS=mS dt+sS dz
What is the process followed by the variable Sn? Show that Sn also follows geometric
Brownian motion.
14.10. Suppose that x is the yield to maturity with continuous compounding on a zero-coupon
bond that pays off $1 at time T. Assume that x follows the process
dx=a1x0-x2 dt+sx dz
where a, x0, and s are positive constants and dz is a Wiener process. What is the process
followed by the bond price?
14.11. A stock whose price is $30 has an expected return of 9% and a volatility of 20%. In
Excel, simulate the stock price path over 5 years using monthly time steps and random samples from a normal distribution. Chart the simulated stock price path. By hitting F9, observe how the path changes as the random samples change.
14.12. Suppose that a stock price has an expected return of 16% per annum and a volatility of
30% per annum. When the stock price at the end of a certain day is $50, calculate the following:
(a) The expected stock price at the end of the next day
(b) The standard deviation of the stock price at the end of the next day
(c) The 95% confidence limits for the stock price at the end of the next day.
14.13. Suppose that x is the yield on a perpetual government bond that pays interest at the rate
of $1 per annum. Assume that x is expressed with continuous compounding, that interest
is paid continuously on the bond, and that x follows the process
dx=a1x0-x2 dt+sx dz
Stochastic Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma
- The text provides practical exercises for simulating stock price paths in Excel using monthly and daily time steps based on expected returns and volatility.
- Mathematical problems explore the behavior of bond prices and yields when modeled as Wiener processes and ItƓ processes.
- The appendix introduces a nonrigorous derivation of ItĆ“ās lemma by extending the Taylor series expansion from ordinary calculus to stochastic variables.
- The derivation highlights how small changes in a function of a stochastic variable depend on both the drift and the variance of the underlying process.
- Market efficiency is questioned in the context of stock prices or volatilities that follow fractional Brownian motion.
In other words, āG is approximately equal to the rate of change of G with respect to x multiplied by āx.
where a, x0, and s are positive constants and dz is a Wiener process. What is the process
followed by the bond price?
14.11. A stock whose price is $30 has an expected return of 9% and a volatility of 20%. In
Excel, simulate the stock price path over 5 years using monthly time steps and random samples from a normal distribution. Chart the simulated stock price path. By hitting F9, observe how the path changes as the random samples change.
14.12. Suppose that a stock price has an expected return of 16% per annum and a volatility of
30% per annum. When the stock price at the end of a certain day is $50, calculate the following:
(a) The expected stock price at the end of the next day
(b) The standard deviation of the stock price at the end of the next day
(c) The 95% confidence limits for the stock price at the end of the next day.
14.13. Suppose that x is the yield on a perpetual government bond that pays interest at the rate
of $1 per annum. Assume that x is expressed with continuous compounding, that interest
is paid continuously on the bond, and that x follows the process
dx=a1x0-x2 dt+sx dz
where a, x0, and s are positive constants, and dz is a Wiener process. What is the process
followed by the bond price? What is the expected instantaneous return (including interest and capital gains) to the holder of the bond?
14.14. Stock A, whose price is $30, has an expected return of 11% and a volatility of 25%.
Stock B, whose price is $40, has an expected return of 15% and a volatility of 30%. The
M14_HULL0654_11_GE_C14.indd 334 30/04/2021 17:30
Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 335
processes driving the returns are correlated with correlation parameter r. In Excel,
simulate the two stock price paths over 3 months using daily time steps and random
samples from normal distributions. Chart the results and by hitting F9 observe how the paths change as the random samples change. Consider values for
r equal to 0.25, 0.75,
and 0.95.
14.15. Consider whether markets are efficient in each of the following two cases: (a) a stock
price follows fractional Brownian motion and (b) a stock price volatility follows fractional Brownian motion.
M14_HULL0654_11_GE_C14.indd 335 30/04/2021 17:30
336 CHAPTER 14
APPENDIX
A NONRIGOROUS DERIVATION OF IT ĆāS LEMMA
In this appendix, we show how ItĆ“ās lemma can be regarded as a natural extension of
other, simpler results. Consider a continuous and differentiable function G of a
variable x. If āx is a small change in x and āG is the resulting small change in G, a
well-known result from ordinary calculus is
āGādG
dxāx (14A.1)
In other words, āG is approximately equal to the rate of change of G with respect to x
multiplied by āx. The error involves terms of order āx2. If more precision is required, a
Taylor series expansion of āG can be used:
āG=dG
dxāx+1
2 d2G
dx2āx2+1
6 d3G
dx3āx3+g
For a continuous and differentiable function G of two variables x and y, the result
analogous to equation (14A. 1) is
āGā0G
0xāx+0G
0yāy (14A.2)
and the Taylor series expansion of āG is
āG=0G
0xāx+0G
0yāy+1
2 02G
0x2āx2+02G
0x0yāxāy+1
2 02G
0y2āy2+g (14A.3)
In the limit, as āx and āy tend to zero, equation (14A. 3) becomes
dG=0G
0x dx+0G
0y dy (14A.4)
We now extend equation (14A. 4) to cover functions of variables following ItƓ processes.
Suppose that a variable x follows the ItƓ process
dx=a1x, t2 dt+b1x, t2 dz (14A.5)
and that G is some function of x and of time t. By analogy with equation (14A. 3), we
can write
āG=0G
0xāx+0G
0tāt+1
2 02G
0x2āx2+02G
0x 0tāxāt+1
2 02G
0t2āt2+g (14A.6)
Equation (14A.5) can be discretized to
āx=a1x, t2āt+b1x, t2P2āt
or, if arguments are dropped,
āx=aāt+bP2āt (14A.7)
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 337
ItĆ“ās Lemma and Option Pricing
- The text derives ItĆ“ās lemma by extending calculus to variables following stochastic ItĆ“ processes.
- A critical distinction is made where second-order terms in stochastic calculus cannot be ignored because the square of the change in x contains a component of order dt.
- The derivation shows that as the time interval tends to zero, the squared change in the variable becomes nonstochastic and equal to its expected value.
- The resulting lemma provides the mathematical foundation for the Black-Scholes-Merton model, which revolutionized the pricing and hedging of derivatives.
- The historical significance of this breakthrough was recognized with the 1997 Nobel Prize in Economics awarded to Myron Scholes and Robert Merton.
This shows that the term involving āx2 in equation (14A. 6) has a component that is of order āt and cannot be ignored.
We now extend equation (14A. 4) to cover functions of variables following ItƓ processes.
Suppose that a variable x follows the ItƓ process
dx=a1x, t2 dt+b1x, t2 dz (14A.5)
and that G is some function of x and of time t. By analogy with equation (14A. 3), we
can write
āG=0G
0xāx+0G
0tāt+1
2 02G
0x2āx2+02G
0x 0tāxāt+1
2 02G
0t2āt2+g (14A.6)
Equation (14A.5) can be discretized to
āx=a1x, t2āt+b1x, t2P2āt
or, if arguments are dropped,
āx=aāt+bP2āt (14A.7)
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Wiener Processes and ItĆ“ās Lemma 337
This equation reveals an important difference between the situation in equation (14A. 6)
and the situation in equation (14A. 3). When limiting arguments were used to move
from equation (14A. 3) to equation (14A. 4), terms in āx2 were ignored because they
were second-order terms. From equation (14A. 7), we have
āx2=b2P2āt+terms of higher order in āt (14A.8)
This shows that the term involving āx2 in equation (14A. 6) has a component that is of
order āt and cannot be ignored.
The variance of a standard normal distribution is 1.0. This means that
E1P22-3E1P242=1
where E denotes expected value. Since E1P2=0, it follows that E1P22=1. The expected
value of P2āt, therefore, is āt. The variance of P2āt is, from the properties of the
standard normal distribution, 2āt2. We know that the variance of the change in a
stochastic variable in time āt is proportional to āt, not āt2. The variance of P2āt is
therefore too small for it to have a stochastic component. As a result, we can treat P2āt
as nonstochastic and equal to its expected value, āt, as āt tends to zero. It follows from
equation (14A. 8) that āx2 becomes nonstochastic and equal to b2dt as āt tends to zero.
Taking limits as āx and āt tend to zero in equation (14A. 6), and using this last result,
we obtain
dG=0G
0xdx+0G
0tdt+1
2 02G
0x2b2dt (14A.9)
This is ItĆ“ās lemma. If we substitute for dx from equation (14A. 5), equation (14A. 9)
becomes
dG=a0G
0xa+0G
0t+1
2 02G
0x2b2b dt+0G
0xb dz.
Technical Note 29 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes provides
proofs of extensions to ItĆ“ās lemma. When G is a function of variables x1, x2,c, xn
and
dxi=ai dt+bi dzi
we have
dG=aan
i=1 0G
0x1ai+0G
0t+1
2an
i=1an
j=1 02G
0xi 0xjbibjrijb dt+an
i=1 0G
0xibi dzi (14A.10)
Also, when G is a function of a variable x with several sources of uncertainty so that
dx=a dt+am
i=1bi dzi
we have
dG=a0G
0xa+0G
0t+1
2 02G
0x2am
i=1am
j=1bibjrijb dt+0G
0xam
i=1bi dzi (14A.11)
In these equations, rij is the correlation between dzi and dzj (see Section 14. 5).
M14_HULL0654_11_GE_C14.indd 337 30/04/2021 17:30
338
In the early 1970s, Fischer Black, Myron Scholes, and Robert Merton achieved a major
breakthrough in the pricing of European stock options.1 This was the development of
what has become known as the BlackāScholesāMerton (or BlackāScholes) model. The model has had a huge influence on the way that traders price and hedge derivatives. In 1997, the importance of the model was recognized when Robert Merton and Myron Scholes were awarded the Nobel prize for economics. Sadly, Fischer Black died in 1995; otherwise he too would undoubtedly have been one of the recipients of this prize.
How did Black, Scholes, and Merton make their breakthrough? Previous researchers
The BlackāScholesāMerton Model
- Fischer Black, Myron Scholes, and Robert Merton developed a revolutionary mathematical model in the early 1970s for pricing European stock options.
- While Black and Scholes initially utilized the capital asset pricing model, Mertonās breakthrough involved creating a riskless portfolio that earns the risk-free rate.
- The model assumes that stock price changes over short periods are normally distributed, leading to the conclusion that future stock prices follow a lognormal distribution.
- The significance of this work was recognized with a Nobel Prize in 1997, though Fischer Black was ineligible for the award posthumously.
- The model allows traders to estimate volatility from historical data or derive implied volatility directly from current market option prices.
Mertonās approach was different from that of Black and Scholes. It involved setting up a riskless portfolio consisting of the option and the underlying stock and arguing that the return on the portfolio over a short period of time must be the risk-free return.
In the early 1970s, Fischer Black, Myron Scholes, and Robert Merton achieved a major
breakthrough in the pricing of European stock options.1 This was the development of
what has become known as the BlackāScholesāMerton (or BlackāScholes) model. The model has had a huge influence on the way that traders price and hedge derivatives. In 1997, the importance of the model was recognized when Robert Merton and Myron Scholes were awarded the Nobel prize for economics. Sadly, Fischer Black died in 1995; otherwise he too would undoubtedly have been one of the recipients of this prize.
How did Black, Scholes, and Merton make their breakthrough? Previous researchers
had made similar assumptions and had correctly calculated the expected payoff from a European option. However, as explained in Section 13.2, it is difficult to know the
correct discount rate to use for this payoff. Black and Scholes used the capital asset pricing model (see the appendix to Chapter 3) to determine a relationship between the marketās required return on the option and the required return on the stock. This was not easy because the relationship depends on both the stock price and time. Mertonās approach was different from that of Black and Scholes. It involved setting up a riskless portfolio consisting of the option and the underlying stock and arguing that the return on the portfolio over a short period of time must be the risk-free return. This is similar to what we did in Section 13.1 ābut more complicated because the portfolio changes continuously through time. Mertonās approach was more general than that of Black and Scholes because it did not rely on the assumptions of the capital asset pricing model.
This chapter covers Mertonās approach to deriving the BlackāScholesāMerton
model. It explains how volatility can be either estimated from historical data or implied from option prices using the model. It shows how the risk-neutral valuation argument introduced in Chapter 13 can be used. It also shows how the BlackāScholesāMerton model can be extended to deal with European call and put options on dividend-paying stocks and presents some results on the pricing of American call options on dividend-
paying stocks.The Blackā
ScholesāMerton
Model 15 CHAPTER
1 See F. Black and M. Scholes, āThe Pricing of Options and Corporate Liabilities, ā Journal of Political
Economy, 81 (May/June 1973): 637ā59; R.C. Merton, āTheory of Rational Option Pricing, ā Bell Journal of
Economics and Management Science, 4 (Spring 1973): 141 ā83.
M15_HULL0654_11_GE_C15.indd 338 12/05/2021 17:40
The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 339
The model of stock price behavior used by Black, Scholes, and Merton is the model we
developed in Chapter 14. It assumes that percentage changes in the stock price in a very short period of time are normally distributed. Define
m: Expected return in a short period of time (annualized)
s: Volatility of the stock price.
The mean and standard deviation of the return in time āt are approximately m āt and
s2āt, so that
āS
S/similar.altf1māt, s2āt2 (15. 1)
where āS is the change in the stock price S in time āt, and f1m, v2 denotes a normal
distribution with mean m and variance v. (This is equation (14.9).)
As shown in Section 14.7, the model implies that
ln ST-ln S0/similar.altfcam-s2
2bT, s2Td
so that
ln ST
S0/similar.altfcam-s2
2bT, s2Td (15. 2)
and
ln ST/similar.altfcln S0+am-s2
2bT, s2Td (15. 3)
where ST is the stock price at a future time T and S0 is the stock price at time 0. There is
no approximation here. The variable ln ST is normally distributed, so that ST has a
lognormal distribution. The mean of ln ST is ln S0+1m-s2>22T and the standard
deviation of ln ST is s2T.
Example 15.1
Consider a stock with an initial price of $40, an expected return of 16% per
annum, and a volatility of 20% per annum. From equation (15.3), the probability distribution of the stock price
ST in 6 monthsā time is given by
Lognormal Property of Stock Prices
- Stock prices are modeled using a lognormal distribution, meaning the natural logarithm of the price follows a normal distribution.
- Unlike the normal distribution, the lognormal distribution is skewed and ensures that stock prices can only take values between zero and infinity.
- The expected value and variance of a future stock price can be calculated using the initial price, expected return, and volatility over a specific time horizon.
- The continuously compounded rate of return is normally distributed, with a standard deviation that decreases as the time period increases.
- Statistical confidence intervals can be used to predict the range in which a stock price or its rate of return will likely fall within a given timeframe.
We are more certain about the average return per year over 20 years than we are about the return in any one year.
where ST is the stock price at a future time T and S0 is the stock price at time 0. There is
no approximation here. The variable ln ST is normally distributed, so that ST has a
lognormal distribution. The mean of ln ST is ln S0+1m-s2>22T and the standard
deviation of ln ST is s2T.
Example 15.1
Consider a stock with an initial price of $40, an expected return of 16% per
annum, and a volatility of 20% per annum. From equation (15.3), the probability distribution of the stock price
ST in 6 monthsā time is given by
ln ST/similar.altf3ln 40+10.16-0.22>22*0.5, 0.22*0.54
ln ST/similar.altf13.759, 0.022
There is a 95% probability that a normally distributed variable has a value within 1.96 standard deviations of its mean. In this case, the standard deviation is
20.02=0.141. Hence, with 95% confidence,
3.759-1.96*0.1416ln ST63.759+1.96*0.141
This can be written
e3.759-1.96*0.1416ST6e3.759+1.96*0.141
or
32.556ST656.56
Thus, there is a 95% probability that the stock price in 6 months will lie between 32.55 and 56.56.15.1 LOGNORMAL PROPERTY OF STOCK PRICES
M15_HULL0654_11_GE_C15.indd 339 12/05/2021 17:40
340 CHAPTER 15
A variable that has a lognormal distribution can take any value between zero and
infinity. Figure 15.1 illustrates the shape of a lognormal distribution. Unlike the normal
distribution, it is skewed so that the mean, median, and mode are all different. From equation (15.3) and the properties of the lognormal distribution, it can be shown that the expected value
E1ST2 of ST is given by
E1ST2=S0emT (15. 4)
The variance var1ST2 of ST, can be shown to be given by2
var1ST2=S02e2mT1es2T-12 (15. 5)
Example 15.2
Consider a stock where the current price is $20, the expected return is 20% per annum, and the volatility is 40% per annum. The expected stock price,
E1ST2, and
the variance of the stock price, var1ST2, in 1 year are given by
E1ST2=20e0.2*1=24.43 and var1ST2=400e2*0.2*11e0.42*1-12=103.54
The standard deviation of the stock price in 1 year is 2103.54, or 10.18.0Figure 15.1 Lognormal distribution.
2 See Technical Note 2 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a proof of the results in
equations (15.4) and (15.5). For a more extensive discussion of the properties of the lognormal distribution,
see J. Aitchison and J. A. C. Brown, The Lognormal Distribution. Cambridge University Press, 1966.The lognormal property of stock prices can be used to provide information on the
probability distribution of the continuously compounded rate of return earned on a stock between times 0 and T. If we define the continuously compounded rate of return per annum realized between times 0 and T as x, then
ST=S0exT15.2 THE DISTRIBUTION OF THE RATE OF RETURN
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 341
so that
x=1
TlnST
S0 (15. 6)
From equation (15.2), it follows that
x/similar.altfam-s2
2, s2
Tb (15. 7)
Thus, the continuously compounded rate of return per annum is normally distributed
with mean m-s2>2 and standard deviation s>1T. As T increases, the standard
deviation of x declines. To understand the reason for this, consider two cases: T=1
and T=20. We are more certain about the average return per year over 20 years than
we are about the return in any one year.
Example 15.3
Consider a stock with an expected return of 17% per annum and a volatility of
20% per annum. The probability distribution for the average rate of return (con-tinuously compounded) realized over 3 years is normal, with mean
0.17-0.22
2=0.15
or 15% per annum, and standard deviation
B0.22
3=0.1155
or 11.55% per annum. Because there is a 95% chance that a normally distributed variable will lie within 1.96 standard deviations of its mean, we can be 95%
confident that the average continuously compounded return realized over 3 years will be between 15 - 1.96 * 11.55 = -7.6% and 15 + 1.96 * 11.55 = +37.6% per
annum.
The expected return,
The Expected Return Ambiguity
- The expected return of a stock is influenced by its inherent riskiness and the prevailing interest rates in the economy.
- A critical distinction exists between the arithmetic mean return and the expected continuously compounded return, which is lower due to volatility.
- The value of a stock option is notably independent of the expected return of the underlying stock when expressed in terms of that stock's value.
- Mathematical nonlinearity in logarithmic functions explains why the expected value of a log return is less than the log of the expected price.
- Volatility is defined as the standard deviation of the continuously compounded return over a one-year period, typically ranging from 15% to 60%.
It turns out that the value of a stock option, when expressed in terms of the value of the underlying stock, does not depend on m at all.
Consider a stock with an expected return of 17% per annum and a volatility of
20% per annum. The probability distribution for the average rate of return (con-tinuously compounded) realized over 3 years is normal, with mean
0.17-0.22
2=0.15
or 15% per annum, and standard deviation
B0.22
3=0.1155
or 11.55% per annum. Because there is a 95% chance that a normally distributed variable will lie within 1.96 standard deviations of its mean, we can be 95%
confident that the average continuously compounded return realized over 3 years will be between 15 - 1.96 * 11.55 = -7.6% and 15 + 1.96 * 11.55 = +37.6% per
annum.
The expected return,
m, required by investors from a stock depends on the riskiness of
the stock. The higher the risk, the higher the expected return. It also depends on the level of interest rates in the economy. The higher the level of interest rates, the higher the expected return required on any given stock. Fortunately, we do not have to concern ourselves with the determinants of
m in any detail. It turns out that the value of a stock
option, when expressed in terms of the value of the underlying stock, does not depend on
m at all. Nevertheless, there is one aspect of the expected return from a stock that
frequently causes confusion and needs to be explained.
Our model of stock price behavior implies that, in a very short period of time āt, the
mean return is m āt. It is natural to assume from this that m is the expected
continuously compounded return on the stock. However, this is not the case. The
continuously compounded return, x, actually realized over a period of time of length T 15.3 THE EXPECTED RETURN
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342 CHAPTER 15
is given by equation (15.6) as
x=1
TlnST
S0
and, as indicated in equation (15.7), the expected value E1x2 of x is m-s2>2.
The reason why the expected continuously compounded return is different from m is
subtle, but important. Suppose we consider a very large number of very short periods of
time of length āt. Define Si as the stock price at the end of the i th interval and āSi as
Si+1-Si. Under the assumptions we are making for stock price behavior, the arithmetic
average of the returns on the stock in each interval is close to m. In other words, m āt is
close to the arithmetic mean of the āSi>Si. However, the expected return over the whole
period covered by the data, expressed with a compounding interval of āt, is a geometric
average and is close to m-s2>2, not m.3 Business Snapshot 15. 1 provides a numerical
example concerning the mutual fund industry to illustrate why this is so.
For another explanation of what is going on, we start with equation (15.4):
E1ST2=S0emT
Taking logarithms, we get
ln3E1ST24=ln1S02+mT
It is now tempting to set ln3E1ST24=E3ln1ST24, so that E3ln1ST24-ln1S02=mT, or
E3ln1ST>S024=mT, which leads to E1x2=m. However, we cannot do this because ln
is a nonlinear function. In fact, ln3E1ST247E3ln1ST24, so that E3ln1ST>S0246mT, which
leads to E1x26m. (As shown above, E1x2=m-s2>2.)
3 The arguments in this section show that the term āexpected returnā is ambiguous. It can refer either to m or
to m-s2>2. Unless otherwise stated, it will be used to refer to m throughout this book.The volatility, s, of a stock is a measure of our uncertainty about the returns provided
by the stock. Stocks typically have a volatility between 15% and 60%.
From equation (15.7), the volatility of a stock price can be defined as the standard
deviation of the return provided by the stock in 1 year when the return is expressed using continuous compounding.
When
Volatility and Expected Returns
- The term 'expected return' is mathematically ambiguous and can refer to either the arithmetic mean or a lower value adjusted for volatility.
- Stock volatility is defined as the standard deviation of the continuously compounded return over a one-year period.
- Uncertainty regarding future stock prices increases in proportion to the square root of the time horizon being considered.
- Mutual fund managers often report arithmetic mean returns, which can be misleading because they are consistently higher than the actual geometric returns realized by investors.
- Historical volatility can be estimated empirically by calculating the standard deviation of the natural logarithms of price ratios over fixed time intervals.
The geometric mean of a set of numbers is always less than the arithmetic mean.
3 The arguments in this section show that the term āexpected returnā is ambiguous. It can refer either to m or
to m-s2>2. Unless otherwise stated, it will be used to refer to m throughout this book.The volatility, s, of a stock is a measure of our uncertainty about the returns provided
by the stock. Stocks typically have a volatility between 15% and 60%.
From equation (15.7), the volatility of a stock price can be defined as the standard
deviation of the return provided by the stock in 1 year when the return is expressed using continuous compounding.
When
āt is small, equation (15.1) shows that s2āt is approximately equal to the
variance of the percentage change in the stock price in time āt. This means that s2āt is
approximately equal to the standard deviation of the percentage change in the stock price in time
āt. Suppose that s=0.3, or 30%, per annum and the current stock price
is $50. The standard deviation of the percentage change in the stock price in 1 week is approximately
30*A1
52=4.16,
A 1 -standard-deviation move in the stock price in 1 week is therefore 50*0.0416=2.08.
Uncertainty about a future stock price, as measured by its standard deviation,
increasesāat least approximatelyāwith the square root of how far ahead we are
looking. For example, the standard deviation of the stock price in 4 weeks is approxi-mately twice the standard deviation in 1 week.15.4 VOLATILITY
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 343
Business Snapshot 15.1 Mutual Fund Returns Can Be Misleading
The difference between m and m-s2>2 is closely related to an issue in the reporting of
mutual fund returns. Suppose that the following is a sequence of returns per annum
reported by a mutual fund manager over the last five years (measured using annual compounding):
15,, 20,, 30,, -20,, 25,.
The arithmetic mean of the returns, calculated by taking the sum of the returns
and dividing by 5, is 14%. However, an investor would actually earn less than 14% per annum by leaving the money invested in the fund for 5 years. The dollar value of $100 at the end of the 5 years would be
100*1.15*1.20*1.30*0.80*1.25=+179.40
By contrast, a 14% return with annual compounding would give
100*1.145=+192.54
The return that gives $179.40 at the end of five years is 12.4%. This is because
100*11.12425=179.40
What average return should the fund manager report? It is tempting for the manager to make a statement such as: āThe average of the returns per year that we have realized in the last 5 years is 14%. ā Although true, this is misleading. It is much less misleading to say: āThe average return realized by someone who invested with us for the last 5 years is 12.4% per year. ā In some jurisdictions, regulations require fund managers to report returns the second way.
This phenomenon is an example of a result that is well known in mathematics. The
geometric mean of a set of numbers is always less than the arithmetic mean. In our example, the return multipliers each year are 1.15, 1.20, 1.30, 0.80, and 1.25. The arithmetic mean of these numbers is 1.140, but the geometric mean is only 1.124 and it is the geometric mean that equals 1 plus the return realized over the 5 years.
Estimating Volatility from Historical Data
To estimate the volatility of a stock price empirically, the stock price is usually observed at fixed intervals of time (e.g., every day, week, or month). Define:
n+1: Number of observations
Si : Stock price at end of ith interval, with i=0, 1,c, n
t : Length of time interval in years
and let
ui=lnaSi
Si-1b for i=1, 2,c, n
The usual estimate, s, of the standard deviation of the ui is given by
s=A1
n-1an
i=1 1ui-u22
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344 CHAPTER 15
or
s=B1
n-1an
i=1 u2
i-1
n1n-12aan
i=1 uib2
where u is the mean of the ui.4
Estimating Historical Volatility
- Volatility is empirically estimated by observing stock prices at fixed intervals and calculating the standard deviation of log returns.
- While traders prefer implied volatilities from option prices, risk managers rely heavily on historical data for their assessments.
- A significant challenge in estimation is that volatility changes over time, creating a conflict between using more data for accuracy and using recent data for relevance.
- Standard practice suggests using 90 to 180 days of historical data or matching the look-back period to the future time horizon being forecasted.
- The calculation of returns must be adjusted for dividends, though discarding data from ex-dividend intervals is often preferred due to tax-related price distortions.
If volatilities were constant, the accuracy of an estimate would increase as n increased. However, data that is too old may not be relevant to current market conditions.
To estimate the volatility of a stock price empirically, the stock price is usually observed at fixed intervals of time (e.g., every day, week, or month). Define:
n+1: Number of observations
Si : Stock price at end of ith interval, with i=0, 1,c, n
t : Length of time interval in years
and let
ui=lnaSi
Si-1b for i=1, 2,c, n
The usual estimate, s, of the standard deviation of the ui is given by
s=A1
n-1an
i=1 1ui-u22
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344 CHAPTER 15
or
s=B1
n-1an
i=1 u2
i-1
n1n-12aan
i=1 uib2
where u is the mean of the ui.4
From equation (15.2), the standard deviation of the ui is s1t. The variable s is
therefore an estimate of s1t. It follows that s itself can be estimated as sn, where
sn=s
1t
The standard error of this estimate can be shown to be approximately sn>22n.
The prices of actively traded options are not usually calculated from volatilities based
on historical data. As we shall see later in this chapter, implied volatilities are used by
traders. However, estimates of volatility based on historical data are used extensively in risk management. Usually risk managers set
t equal to one day.5 A problem that risk
managers have to deal with is that volatilities tend to change through time. There are periods of high volatility and periods of low volatility. This affects the amount of data used to estimate volatility (i.e., the choice of n ). If volatilities were constant, the
accuracy of an estimate would increase as n increased. However, data that is too old
may not be relevant to current market conditions. A compromise that seems to work reasonably well is to use 90 to 180 days of data. An alternative rule of thumb is to set n equal to the number of days to which the volatility is to be applied. If the estimate is to be applied over a two-year future period, two years of historical data would then be used. It is natural to look for a way of giving more weight to recent daily price
movements (i.e., values of
ui for recent time periods). An approach known as GARCH,
which will be discussed in Chapter 23 does this.
Example 15.4
Table 15.1 shows a possible sequence of stock prices during 21 consecutive trading
days. In this case, n=20, so that
an
i=1 ui=0.09531 and ani=1 u2
i=0.00326
and the estimate of the standard deviation of the daily return is
B0.00326
19-0.095312
20*19=0.01216
or 1.216%. Assuming that there are 252 trading days per year, t=1>252 and the
data give an estimate for the volatility per annum of 0.012161252=0.193, or
19.3%. The standard error of this estimate is
0.193
22*20=0.031
or 3.1% per annum.
5 Interestingly, estimates of volatility tend to increase as the time period t is made shorter. For example, a
value of t equal to one hour usually leads to a higher volatility estimate than a value of t equal to one day.4 The mean u is often assumed to be zero when estimates of historical volatilities are made.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 345
The foregoing analysis assumes that the stock pays no dividends, but it can be adapted to
accommodate dividend-paying stocks. The return, ui, during a time interval that includes
an ex-dividend day is given by
ui=ln Si+D
Si-1
where D is the amount of the dividend. The return in other time intervals is still
ui=ln Si
Si-1
However, as tax factors play a part in determining returns around an ex-dividend date, it is probably best to discard altogether data for intervals that include an ex-dividend date.
Trading Days vs. Calendar Days
Estimating Volatility and Trading Days
- Stock return calculations can be adjusted for dividends by adding the dividend amount to the stock price, though discarding ex-dividend data is often preferred due to tax complications.
- Empirical research indicates that stock price volatility is significantly higher during active trading hours than when the exchange is closed.
- Practitioners typically measure the life of an option and annual volatility using trading days rather than calendar days, usually assuming 252 days per year.
- The common assumption that volatility is primarily driven by new information reaching the market is challenged by research comparing weekend and weekday variances.
As a result, practitioners tend to ignore days when the exchange is closed when estimating volatility from historical data and when calculating the life of an option.
The foregoing analysis assumes that the stock pays no dividends, but it can be adapted to
accommodate dividend-paying stocks. The return, ui, during a time interval that includes
an ex-dividend day is given by
ui=ln Si+D
Si-1
where D is the amount of the dividend. The return in other time intervals is still
ui=ln Si
Si-1
However, as tax factors play a part in determining returns around an ex-dividend date, it is probably best to discard altogether data for intervals that include an ex-dividend date.
Trading Days vs. Calendar Days
An important issue is whether time should be measured in calendar days or trading days when volatility parameters are being estimated and used. As shown in Business Snapshot 15.2, research shows that volatility is much higher when the exchange is open
for trading than when it is closed. As a result, practitioners tend to ignore days when the exchange is closed when estimating volatility from historical data and when calculating the life of an option. The volatility per annum is calculated from the volatility per Table 15.1 Computation of volatility.
Day
iClosing stock price
(dollars), SiPrice relative
Si>Si-1Daily return
ui=ln1Si>Si-12
0 20.00
1 20.10 1.00500 0.00499
2 19.90 0.99005 -0.01000
3 20.00 1.00503 0.00501
4 20.50 1.02500 0.02469
5 20.25 0.98780 -0.01227
6 20.90 1.03210 0.03159
7 20.90 1.00000 0.00000
8 20.90 1.00000 0.00000
9 20.75 0.99282 -0.00720
10 20.75 1.00000 0.00000
11 21.00 1.01205 0.01198
12 21.10 1.00476 0.00475
13 20.90 0.99052 -0.00952
14 20.90 1.00000 0.00000
15 21.25 1.01675 0.01661
16 21.40 1.00706 0.00703
17 21.40 1.00000 0.00000
18 21.25 0.99299 -0.00703
19 21.75 1.02353 0.02326
20 22.00 1.01149 0.01143
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346 CHAPTER 15
trading day using the formula
Volatility
per annum=Volatility
per trading day*BNumber of trading days
per annum
This is what we did in Example 15. 4 when calculating volatility from the data in
Table 15.1. The number of trading days in a year is usually assumed to be 252 for stocks.
The life of an option is also usually measured using trading days rather than calendar
days. It is calculated as T years, where
T=Number of trading days until option maturity
252Business Snapshot 15.2 What Causes Volatility?
It is natural to assume that the volatility of a stock is caused by new information
reaching the market. This new information causes people to revise their opinions about the value of the stock. The price of the stock changes and volatility results. This view of what causes volatility is not supported by research. With several years of daily stock price data, researchers can calculate:
1. The variance of stock price returns between the close of trading on one day and the close of trading on the next day when there are no intervening
nontrading days
2. The variance of the stock price returns between the close of trading on Friday and the close of trading on Monday
The True Causes of Volatility
- Empirical research challenges the assumption that stock market volatility is primarily driven by new information reaching the market.
- Studies comparing weekend variances to daily variances show that volatility does not accumulate linearly when markets are closed.
- Analysis of orange juice futures suggests that even when news is constant, volatility remains significantly higher during active trading hours.
- The findings lead to the conclusion that the act of trading itself is a primary driver of market volatility.
- The Black-Scholes-Merton model utilizes these price movements to create riskless portfolios through delta hedging and no-arbitrage arguments.
The only reasonable conclusion from all this is that volatility is to a large extent caused by trading itself.
252Business Snapshot 15.2 What Causes Volatility?
It is natural to assume that the volatility of a stock is caused by new information
reaching the market. This new information causes people to revise their opinions about the value of the stock. The price of the stock changes and volatility results. This view of what causes volatility is not supported by research. With several years of daily stock price data, researchers can calculate:
1. The variance of stock price returns between the close of trading on one day and the close of trading on the next day when there are no intervening
nontrading days
2. The variance of the stock price returns between the close of trading on Friday and the close of trading on Monday
The second of these is the variance of returns over a 3-day period. The first is a variance over a 1 -day period. We might reasonably expect the second variance to be three times as great as the first variance. Fama (1965), French (1980), and French and Roll (1986) show that this is not the case. These three research studies estimate the second variance to be, respectively, 22%, 19%, and 10.7% higher than the first variance.
At this stage one might be tempted to argue that these results are explained by more
news reaching the market when the market is open for trading. But research by Roll (1984) does not support this explanation. Roll looked at the prices of orange juice futures. By far the most important news for orange juice futures prices is news about the weather and this is equally likely to arrive at any time. When Roll did a similar analysis to that just described for stocks, he found that the second (Friday-to-Monday) variance for orange juice futures is only 1.54 times the first variance.
The only reasonable conclusion from all this is that volatility is to a large extent
caused by trading itself. (Traders usually have no difficulty accepting this conclusion!)
The BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation is an equation that must be satisfied by the price of any derivative dependent on a non-dividend-paying stock. The equation is derived in the next section. Here we consider the nature of the arguments we will use.15.5 THE IDEA UNDERLYING THE BLACKāSCHOLESāMERTON
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 347
These are similar to the no-arbitrage arguments we used to value stock options in
Chapter 13 for the situation where stock price movements were assumed to be binomial.
They involve setting up a riskless portfolio consisting of a position in the derivative and a position in the stock. In the absence of arbitrage opportunities, the return from the portfolio must be the risk-free interest rate, r . This leads to the Black-Scholes-Merton
differential equation.
The reason a riskless portfolio can be set up is that the stock price and the derivative
price are both affected by the same underlying source of uncertainty: stock price
movements. In any short period of time, the price of the derivative is perfectly
correlated with the price of the underlying stock. When an appropriate portfolio of the stock and the derivative is established, the gain or loss from the stock position always offsets the gain or loss from the derivative position so that the overall value of the portfolio at the end of the short period of time is known with certainty.
Suppose, for example, that at a particular point in time the relationship between a
small change
āS in the stock price and the resultant small change āc in the price of a
European call option is given by
āc=0.4 āS
This means that the slope of the line representing the relationship between c and S
is 0.4, as indicated in Figure 15. 2. A riskless portfolio would consist of:
1. A long position in 40 shares
2. A short position in 100 call options.
Suppose, for example, that the stock price increases by 10 cents. The option price will increase by 4 cents and the
Black-Scholes-Merton Pricing Logic
- The Black-Scholes-Merton model relies on no-arbitrage arguments to value derivatives by creating a riskless portfolio of stocks and options.
- Because the stock and derivative are driven by the same underlying uncertainty, their price movements are perfectly correlated over short periods.
- A riskless position is maintained by balancing long and short positions so that gains in one asset exactly offset losses in the other.
- Unlike binomial models, this riskless state is instantaneous and requires frequent rebalancing as the relationship between price changes evolves.
- The model operates under idealized assumptions including continuous trading, no transaction costs, and constant risk-free interest rates.
Theoretically, it remains riskless only for an instantaneously short period of time.
These are similar to the no-arbitrage arguments we used to value stock options in
Chapter 13 for the situation where stock price movements were assumed to be binomial.
They involve setting up a riskless portfolio consisting of a position in the derivative and a position in the stock. In the absence of arbitrage opportunities, the return from the portfolio must be the risk-free interest rate, r . This leads to the Black-Scholes-Merton
differential equation.
The reason a riskless portfolio can be set up is that the stock price and the derivative
price are both affected by the same underlying source of uncertainty: stock price
movements. In any short period of time, the price of the derivative is perfectly
correlated with the price of the underlying stock. When an appropriate portfolio of the stock and the derivative is established, the gain or loss from the stock position always offsets the gain or loss from the derivative position so that the overall value of the portfolio at the end of the short period of time is known with certainty.
Suppose, for example, that at a particular point in time the relationship between a
small change
āS in the stock price and the resultant small change āc in the price of a
European call option is given by
āc=0.4 āS
This means that the slope of the line representing the relationship between c and S
is 0.4, as indicated in Figure 15. 2. A riskless portfolio would consist of:
1. A long position in 40 shares
2. A short position in 100 call options.
Suppose, for example, that the stock price increases by 10 cents. The option price will increase by 4 cents and the
40*0.1=+4 gain on the shares is equal to the 100*0.04 =
+4 loss on the short option position.
There is one important difference between the BlackāScholesāMerton analysis and
our analysis using a binomial model in Chapter 13. In BlackāScholesāMerton, the
position in the stock and the derivative is riskless for only a very short period of time. (Theoretically, it remains riskless only for an instantaneously short period of time.) To remain riskless, it must be adjusted, or rebalanced, frequently.
6 For example, the Stock priceSlope 5 0.4Call
price
S0Figure 15.2 Relationship between call price and stock price. Current stock price is S0.
6 We discuss the rebalancing of portfolios in more detail in Chapter 19.
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348 CHAPTER 15
relationship between āc and āS in our example might change from āc=0.4 āS today
to āc=0.5 āS tomorrow. This would mean that, in order to maintain the riskless
position, an extra 10 shares would have to be purchased for each 100 call options sold.
It is nevertheless true that the return from the riskless portfolio in any very short period of time must be the risk-free interest rate. This is the key element in the BlackāScholesā Merton analysis and leads to their pricing formulas.
Assumptions
The assumptions we use to derive the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation are as follows:
1. The stock price follows the process developed in Chapter 14 with
m and s constant.
2. The short selling of securities with full use of proceeds is permitted.
3. There are no transaction costs or taxes. All securities are perfectly divisible.
4. There are no dividends during the life of the derivative.
5. There are no riskless arbitrage opportunities.
6. Security trading is continuous.
7. The risk-free rate of interest, r, is constant and the same for all maturities.
Deriving the BlackāScholesāMerton Equation
- The model relies on seven core assumptions, including continuous trading, no transaction costs, and the absence of riskless arbitrage opportunities.
- By applying ItĆ“ās lemma to the stock price process, the change in a derivative's value can be mathematically linked to the change in the underlying stock price.
- A riskless portfolio is constructed by combining a short position in a derivative with a specific long position in the underlying shares to eliminate the Wiener process.
- Because the portfolio is riskless over a small time interval, it must earn the risk-free rate of interest to prevent arbitrage opportunities.
- The resulting BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation provides a universal framework for pricing various derivatives based on specific boundary conditions.
It follows that a portfolio of the stock and the derivative can be constructed so that the Wiener process is eliminated.
The assumptions we use to derive the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation are as follows:
1. The stock price follows the process developed in Chapter 14 with
m and s constant.
2. The short selling of securities with full use of proceeds is permitted.
3. There are no transaction costs or taxes. All securities are perfectly divisible.
4. There are no dividends during the life of the derivative.
5. There are no riskless arbitrage opportunities.
6. Security trading is continuous.
7. The risk-free rate of interest, r, is constant and the same for all maturities.
As we discuss in later chapters, some of these assumptions can be relaxed. For example,
s and r can be known functions of t. We can even allow interest rates to be stochastic
provided that the stock price distribution at maturity of the option is still lognormal.
In this section, the notation is different from elsewhere in the book. We consider a
derivativeās price at a general time t (not at time zero). If T is the maturity date, the time to maturity is
T-t.
The stock price process we are assuming is the one we developed in Section 14.3:
dS=mS dt+sS dz (15. 8)
Suppose that f is the price of a call option or other derivative contingent on S. The variable f must be some function of S and t. Hence, from equation (14.14),
d f=
a0f
0S mS+0f
0t+1
2 02f
0S2 s2S2b dt+0f
0S sS dz (15. 9)
The discrete versions of equations (15.8) and (15.9) are
āS=mS āt+sS āz (15. 10)
and
āf=a0f
0S mS+0f
0t+1
2 02f
0S2 s2S2b āt+0f
0S sS āz (15. 11)
where āf and āS are the changes in f and S in a small time interval āt. Recall from 15.6 DERIVATION OF THE BLACKāSCHOLESāMERTON
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 349
the discussion of ItĆ“ās lemma in Section 14.6 that the Wiener processes underlying f
and S are the same. In other words, the āz1= P2āt2 in equations (15.10) and (15.11)
are the same. It follows that a portfolio of the stock and the derivative can be
constructed so that the Wiener process is eliminated. The portfolio is
-1: derivative
+0f>0S: shares.
The holder of this portfolio is short one derivative and long an amount 0f>0S of
shares. Define Ī as the value of the portfolio. By definition
Ī =-f+0f
0SS (15. 12)
The change āĪ in the value of the portfolio in the time interval āt is given by7
āĪ =-āf+0f
0SāS (15. 13)
Substituting equations (15.10) and (15.11) into equation (15.13) yields
āĪ =a-0f
0t-1
2 02f
0S2s2S2bāt (15. 14)
Because this equation does not involve āz, the portfolio must be riskless during time āt.
The assumptions listed in the preceding section imply that the portfolio must instant-
aneously earn the same rate of return as other short-term risk-free securities. If it earned more than this return, arbitrageurs could make a riskless profit by borrowing money to buy the portfolio; if it earned less, they could make a riskless profit by shorting the
portfolio and buying risk-free securities. It follows that
āĪ =rĪ āt (15. 15)
where r is the risk-free interest rate. Substituting from equations (15.12) and (15.14) into
(15.15), we obtain
a0f
0t+1
2 02f
0S2s2S2bāt=raf-0f
0S Sbāt
so that
0f
0t+rS0f
0S+1
2s2S202f
0S2=rf (15. 16)
Equation (15.16) is the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation. It has many
solutions, corresponding to all the different derivatives that can be defined with S as
the underlying variable. The particular derivative that is obtained when the equation is
solved depends on the boundary conditions that are used. These specify the values of the
derivative at the boundaries of possible values of S and t . In the case of a European call
option, the key boundary condition is
f=max1S-K, 02 when t=T
The BlackāScholesāMerton Differential Equation
- The BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation serves as the fundamental framework for pricing various financial derivatives based on an underlying asset.
- Specific derivative values, such as European calls and puts, are determined by applying unique boundary conditions to the general differential equation.
- Perpetual derivatives, which have no expiration date, simplify the equation by removing time-dependent variables, turning it into an ordinary differential equation.
- Any mathematical function that fails to satisfy the BlackāScholesāMerton equation cannot represent a tradeable security without creating arbitrage opportunities.
- The text demonstrates that forward contracts on non-dividend-paying stocks mathematically satisfy the equation, validating their theoretical pricing model.
Conversely, if a function f(S, t) does not satisfy the differential equation (15.16), it cannot be the price of a derivative without creating arbitrage opportunities for traders.
0S2=rf (15. 16)
Equation (15.16) is the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation. It has many
solutions, corresponding to all the different derivatives that can be defined with S as
the underlying variable. The particular derivative that is obtained when the equation is
solved depends on the boundary conditions that are used. These specify the values of the
derivative at the boundaries of possible values of S and t . In the case of a European call
option, the key boundary condition is
f=max1S-K, 02 when t=T
7 This derivation of equation (15.16) is not completely rigorous. We need to justify ignoring changes in 0f>0S
in time āt in equation (15.13). A more rigorous derivation involves setting up a self-financing portfolio (i.e., a
portfolio that requires no infusion or withdrawal of money).
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350 CHAPTER 15
In the case of a European put option, it is
f=max1K-S, 02 when t=T
Example 15.5
A forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock is a derivative dependent on
the stock. As such, it should satisfy equation (15.16). From equation (5.5), we know that the value of the forward contract, f, at a general time t is given in terms of the stock price S at this time by
f=S-Ke-r1T-t2
where K is the delivery price. This means that
0f
0t=-rKe-r1T-t2, 0f
0S=1, 02f
0S2=0
When these are substituted into the left-hand side of equation (15.16), we obtain
-rKe-r1T-t2+rS
This equals r f, showing that equation (15.16) is indeed satisfied.
A Perpetual Derivative
Consider a perpetual derivative that pays off a fixed amount Q when the stock price
equals H for the first time. In this case, the value of the derivative for a particular S
has no dependence on t, so the 0f>0t term vanishes and the partial differential
equation (15.16) becomes an ordinary differential equation.
Suppose first that S6H. The boundary conditions for the derivative are f=0 when
S=0 and f=Q when S=H. The simple solution f=QS>H satisfies both the
boundary conditions and the differential equation. It must therefore be the value of
the derivative.
Suppose next that S7H. The boundary conditions are now f=0 as S tends to
infinity and f=Q when S=H. The derivative price
f=QaS
Hb-a
where a is positive, satisfies the boundary conditions. It also satisfies the differential
equation when
-ra+1
2s2a1a+12-r=0
or a=2r>s2. The value of the derivative is therefore
f=QaS
Hb-2r>s2
(15. 17)
Problem 15.21 shows how equation (15.17) can be used to price a perpetual American put option. Section 26.2 extends the analysis to show how perpetual American call and put options can be priced when the underlying asset provides a yield at rate q.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 351
The Prices of Tradeable Derivatives
Any function f1S, t2 that is a solution of the differential equation (15.16) is the
theoretical price of a derivative that could be traded. If a derivative with that price
existed, it would not create any arbitrage opportunities. Conversely, if a function f1S, t2
does not satisfy the differential equation (15.16), it cannot be the price of a derivative without creating arbitrage opportunities for traders.
To illustrate this point, consider first the function
eS. This does not satisfy the
differential equation (15.16). It is therefore not a candidate for being the price of a derivative dependent on the stock price. If an instrument whose price was always
eS
existed, there would be an arbitrage opportunity. As a second example, consider the function
e1s2-2r21T-t2>S. This does satisfy the differential equation, and so is, in theory, the
price of a tradeable security. (It is the price of a derivative that pays off 1>ST at time T .)
For other examples of tradeable derivatives, see Problems 15.9, 15.10, and 15.21.
We introduced risk-neutral valuation in connection with the binomial model in
The Power of Risk-Neutral Valuation
- The BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation is uniquely powerful because it does not involve variables affected by investor risk preferences.
- Because the expected return of a stock drops out of the derivation, any set of risk preferences can be assumed to solve for the derivative's price.
- Risk-neutral valuation allows analysts to assume the expected return on all assets is the risk-free rate, greatly simplifying complex financial calculations.
- The assumption of a risk-neutral world is an artificial device, yet the resulting solutions remain valid in the real, risk-averse world.
- In a risk-averse world, changes in expected payoffs and discount rates offset each other exactly, maintaining the integrity of the risk-neutral result.
It is important to appreciate that risk-neutral valuation (or the assumption that all investors are risk neutral) is merely an artificial device for obtaining solutions to the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation.
differential equation (15.16). It is therefore not a candidate for being the price of a derivative dependent on the stock price. If an instrument whose price was always
eS
existed, there would be an arbitrage opportunity. As a second example, consider the function
e1s2-2r21T-t2>S. This does satisfy the differential equation, and so is, in theory, the
price of a tradeable security. (It is the price of a derivative that pays off 1>ST at time T .)
For other examples of tradeable derivatives, see Problems 15.9, 15.10, and 15.21.
We introduced risk-neutral valuation in connection with the binomial model in
Chapter 13. It is without doubt the single most important tool for the analysis of derivatives. It arises from one key property of the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation (15.16). This property is that the equation does not involve any variables that are affected by the risk preferences of investors. The variables that do appear in the equation are the current stock price, time, stock price volatility, and the risk-free rate of interest. All are independent of risk preferences.
The BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation would not be independent of risk
preferences if it involved the expected return,
m, on the stock. This is because the value
of m does depend on risk preferences. The higher the level of risk aversion by investors,
the higher m will be for any given stock. It is fortunate that m happens to drop out in
the derivation of the differential equation.
Because the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation is independent of risk
preferences, an ingenious argument can be used. If risk preferences do not enter the equation, they cannot affect its solution. Any set of risk preferences can, therefore, be used when evaluating f. In particular, the very simple assumption that all investors are risk neutral can be made.
In a world where investors are risk neutral, the expected return on all investment
assets is the risk-free rate of interest, r. The reason is that risk-neutral investors do not require a premium to induce them to take risks. It is also true that the present value of any cash flow in a risk-neutral world can be obtained by discounting its expected value at the risk-free rate. The assumption that the world is risk neutral does, therefore,
considerably simplify the analysis of derivatives.
Consider a derivative that provides a payoff at one particular time. It can be valued
using risk-neutral valuation by using the following procedure:
1. Assume that the expected return from the underlying asset is the risk-free interest rate, r (i.e., assume
m=r).
2. Calculate the expected payoff from the derivative.
3. Discount the expected payoff at the risk-free interest rate.15.7 RISK-NEUTRAL VALUATION
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352 CHAPTER 15
It is important to appreciate that risk-neutral valuation (or the assumption that all
investors are risk neutral) is merely an artificial device for obtaining solutions to the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation. The solutions that are obtained are valid in all worlds, not just those where investors are risk neutral. When we move from a risk-
neutral world to a risk-averse world, two things happen. The expected payoff from the derivative changes and the discount rate that must be used for this payoff changes. It happens that these two changes always offset each other exactly.
Application to Forward Contracts on a Stock
We valued forward contracts on a non-dividend-paying stock in Section 5.7. In Example 15.5, we verified that the pricing formula satisfies the BlackāScholesāMerton
differential equation. In this section we derive the pricing formula from risk-neutral valuation. We make the assumption that interest rates are constant and equal to r. This
is somewhat more restrictive than the assumption in Chapter 5.
Consider a long forward contract that matures at time T with delivery price, K. As
BlackāScholesāMerton Pricing Formulas
- The text demonstrates how to value forward contracts on non-dividend-paying stocks using the principle of risk-neutral valuation.
- Under risk-neutrality, the expected return on a stock is assumed to be the risk-free interest rate, simplifying the discounting of future payoffs.
- The BlackāScholesāMerton formulas for European call and put options are presented as the most famous solutions to the model's differential equation.
- Option pricing is determined by variables including current stock price, strike price, risk-free rate, time to maturity, and stock price volatility.
- The cumulative probability distribution function for a standard normal distribution, N(x), is a critical component in calculating these option prices.
The expected return m on the stock becomes r in a risk-neutral world.
Application to Forward Contracts on a Stock
We valued forward contracts on a non-dividend-paying stock in Section 5.7. In Example 15.5, we verified that the pricing formula satisfies the BlackāScholesāMerton
differential equation. In this section we derive the pricing formula from risk-neutral valuation. We make the assumption that interest rates are constant and equal to r. This
is somewhat more restrictive than the assumption in Chapter 5.
Consider a long forward contract that matures at time T with delivery price, K. As
indicated in Figure 1.2, the value of the contract at maturity is
ST-K
where ST is the stock price at time T. From the risk-neutral valuation argument, the
value of the forward contract at time 0 is its expected value at time T in a risk-neutral world discounted at the risk-free rate of interest. Denoting the value of the forward contract at time zero by f, this means that
f=e-rT En1ST-K2
where En denotes the expected value in a risk-neutral world. Since K is a constant, this
equation becomes
f=e-rT En1ST2-Ke-rT (15. 18)
The expected return m on the stock becomes r in a risk-neutral world. Hence, from
equation (15.4), we have
En1ST2=S0erT (15. 19)
Substituting equation (15.19) into equation (15.18) gives
f=S0-Ke-rT
This is in agreement with equation (5.5).
The most famous solutions to the differential equation (15.16) are the BlackāScholesā
Merton formulas for the prices of European call and put options. These formulas are:
c=S0N1d12-Ke-rT N1d22 (15. 20)
and
p=Ke-rT N1-d22-S0N1-d12 (15. 21)15.8 BLACKāSCHOLESāMERTON PRICING FORMULAS
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 353
where
d1=ln 1S0>K2+1r+s2>22T
s2T
d2=ln 1S0>K2+1r-s2>22T
s2T=d1-s2T
The function N1x2 is the cumulative probability distribution function for a variable with
a standard normal distribution. In other words, it is the probability that a variable with
a standard normal distribution will be less than x. It is illustrated in Figure 15. 3. The
remaining variables should be familiar. The variables c and p are the European call and
European put price, S0 is the stock price at time zero, K is the strike price, r is the
continuously compounded risk-free rate, s is the stock price volatility, and T is the time
to maturity of the option.
One way of deriving the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas is by solving the differ -
ential equation (15.16) subject to the boundary condition mentioned in Section 15. 6.8
(See Problem 15.15 to prove that the call price in equation (15.20) satisfies the
differential equation.) Another approach is to use risk-neutral valuation. Consider a
European call option. The expected value of the option at maturity in a risk-neutral world is
En3max1ST-K, 024
where, as before, En denotes the expected value in a risk-neutral world. From the risk-
neutral valuation argument, the European call option price c is this expected value
discounted at the risk-free rate of interest, that is,
c=e-rT En3max1ST-K, 024 (15. 22)x 0Figure 15.3 Shaded area represents N1x2.
8 The differential equation gives the call and put prices at a general time t. For example, the call price that
satisfies the differential equation is c=SN1d12-Ke-r1T-t2N1d22, where
d1=ln1S>K2+1r+s2>221T-t2
s2T-t
and d2=d1-s2T-t.
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354 CHAPTER 15
Black-Scholes-Merton Option Valuation
- The European call option price is derived from the expected value of its payoff in a risk-neutral world, discounted at the risk-free interest rate.
- While American call options on non-dividend-paying stocks share the same value as European calls, American puts lack an exact analytic formula and require numerical procedures.
- The variable N(d2) represents the probability that a call option will be exercised, while N(d1) relates to the expected stock price at maturity given that the price exceeds the strike.
- The model demonstrates consistency at extreme values, such as when a very high stock price causes a call option to behave like a forward contract.
- Practical application of the formula requires setting the interest rate to the zero-coupon risk-free rate and measuring time based on trading days remaining in the year.
Unfortunately, no exact analytic formula for the value of an American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock has been produced.
where, as before, En denotes the expected value in a risk-neutral world. From the risk-
neutral valuation argument, the European call option price c is this expected value
discounted at the risk-free rate of interest, that is,
c=e-rT En3max1ST-K, 024 (15. 22)x 0Figure 15.3 Shaded area represents N1x2.
8 The differential equation gives the call and put prices at a general time t. For example, the call price that
satisfies the differential equation is c=SN1d12-Ke-r1T-t2N1d22, where
d1=ln1S>K2+1r+s2>221T-t2
s2T-t
and d2=d1-s2T-t.
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354 CHAPTER 15
The appendix at the end of this chapter shows that this equation leads to the result in
equation (15.20).
Since it is never optimal to exercise early an American call option on a non-dividend-
paying stock (see Section 11.5), equation (15.20) is the value of an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock. Unfortunately, no exact analytic formula for the value of an American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock has been produced.
Numerical procedures for calculating American put values are discussed in Chapter 21.
When the BlackāScholesāMerton formula is used in practice the interest rate r is set
equal to the zero-coupon risk-free interest rate for a maturity T. As we show in later chapters, this is theoretically correct when r is a known function of time. It is also
theoretically correct when the interest rate is stochastic provided that the stock price at time T is lognormal and the volatility parameter is chosen appropriately. As mentioned
earlier, time is normally measured as the number of trading days left in the life of the option divided by the number of trading days in 1 year.
Understanding N(d1) and N (d2)
The term N1d22 in equation (15.20) has a fairly simple interpretation. It is the prob-
ability that a call option will be exercised in a risk-neutral world. The N1d12 term is not
quite so easy to interpret. The expression S0N1d12erT is the expected stock price at
time T in a risk-neutral world when stock prices less than the strike price are counted as
zero. The strike price is only paid if the stock price is greater than K and as just
mentioned this has a probability of N1d22. The expected payoff in a risk-neutral world is
therefore
S0N1d12erT-KN1d22
Present-valuing this from time T to time zero gives the BlackāScholesāMerton equation
for a European call option:
c=S0N1d12-Ke-rT N1d22
For another way of looking at the BlackāScholesāMerton equation for the value of a European call option, note that it can be written as
c=e-rT N1d223S0erT N1d12>N1d22-K4
The terms here have the following interpretation:
e-rT: Present value factor
N1d22: Probability of exercise
S0erT N1d12>N1d22: Expected stock price in a risk-neutral world if option is exercised
K: Strike price paid if option is exercised.
Properties of the BlackāScholesāMerton Formulas
We now show that the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas have the right general proper -
ties by considering what happens when some of the parameters take extreme values.
When the stock price, S0, becomes very large, a call option is almost certain to be
exercised. It then becomes very similar to a forward contract with delivery price K.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 355
From equation (5.5), we expect the call price to be
S0-Ke-rT
This is, in fact, the call price given by equation (15.20) because, when S0 becomes very
large, both d1 and d2 become very large, and N1d12 and N1d22 become close to 1.0.
When the stock price becomes very large, the price of a European put option, p ,
approaches zero. This is consistent with equation (15.21) because N1-d12 and N1-d22
are both close to zero in this case.
Consider next what happens when the volatility s approaches zero. Because the stock
is virtually riskless, its price will grow at rate r to S0erT at time T and the payoff from a
call option is
Option Pricing and Dilution Effects
- The Black-Scholes-Merton model shows that as stock prices become very large, European call prices approach the stock price minus the discounted strike price, while put prices approach zero.
- When volatility approaches zero, the stock becomes virtually riskless, and option values simplify to their intrinsic values discounted to the present.
- Practical implementation of option pricing requires evaluating the cumulative normal distribution function, which can be done via tables or software like Excel.
- While warrants and employee stock options cause share dilution upon exercise, efficient markets ensure that the current stock price already reflects this potential impact.
- The valuation of new warrant issues requires accounting for the total company value and the ratio of existing shares to the number of new options being contemplated.
The answer is that it should not! Assuming markets are efficient the stock price will reflect potential dilution from all outstanding warrants and employee stock options.
This is, in fact, the call price given by equation (15.20) because, when S0 becomes very
large, both d1 and d2 become very large, and N1d12 and N1d22 become close to 1.0.
When the stock price becomes very large, the price of a European put option, p ,
approaches zero. This is consistent with equation (15.21) because N1-d12 and N1-d22
are both close to zero in this case.
Consider next what happens when the volatility s approaches zero. Because the stock
is virtually riskless, its price will grow at rate r to S0erT at time T and the payoff from a
call option is
max1S0erT-K, 02
Discounting at rate r, the value of the call today is
e-rT max1S0erT-K, 02=max1S0-Ke-rT, 02
To show that this is consistent with equation (15.20), consider first the case where
S07Ke-rT. This implies that ln 1S0>K2+rT70. As s tends to zero, d1 and d2 tend to
+ q, so that N1d12 and N1d22 tend to 1.0 and equation (15.20) becomes
c=S0-Ke-rT
When S06Ke-rT, it follows that ln1S0>K2+rT60. As s tends to zero, d1 and d2
tend to - q, so that N1d12 and N1d22 tend to zero and equation (15.20) gives a call
price of zero. The call price is therefore always max 1S0-Ke-rT, 02 as s tends to zero.
Similarly, it can be shown that the put price is always max1Ke-rT-S0, 02 as s tends
to zero.
When implementing equations (15.20) and (15.21), it is necessary to evaluate the
cumulative normal distribution function N1x2. Tables for N1x2 are provided at the
end of this book. The NORMSDIST function in Excel also provides a convenient
way of calculating N1x2.
Example 15.6
The stock price 6 months from the expiration of an option is $42, the exercise price of the option is $40, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, and the volatility is 20% per annum. This means that
S0=42, K=40, r=0.1, s=0.2, T=0.5,
d1=ln142>402+10.1+0.22>22*0.5
0.220.5=0.7693
d2=ln142>402+10.1-0.22>22*0.5
0.220.5=0.6278
and
Ke-rT=40e-0.05=38.04915.9 CUMULATIVE NORMAL DISTRIBUTION FUNCTION
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356 CHAPTER 15
Hence, if the option is a European call, its value c is given by
c=42N10.76932-38.049N10.62782
If the option is a European put, its value p is given by
p=38.049N1-0.62782-42N1-0.76932
Using the NORMSDIST function in Excel gives
N10.76932=0.7791, N1-0.76932=0.2209
N10.62782=0.7349, N1-0.62782=0.2651
so that
c=4.76, p=0.81
Ignoring the time value of money, the stock price has to rise by $2.76 for the
purchaser of the call to break even. Similarly, the stock price has to fall by $2.81 for the purchaser of the put to break even.
The exercise of a regular call option on a company has no effect on the number of the companyās shares outstanding. If the writer of the option does not own the companyās shares, he or she must buy them in the market in the usual way and then sell them to the option holder for the strike price. As explained in Chapter 10, warrants and employee stock options are different from regular call options in that exercise leads to the
company issuing more shares and then selling them to the option holder for the strike price. As the strike price is less than the market price, this dilutes the interest of the existing shareholders.
How should potential dilution affect the way we value outstanding warrants and
employee stock options? The answer is that it should not! Assuming markets are
efficient the stock price will reflect potential dilution from all outstanding warrants
and employee stock options. This is explained in Business Snapshot 15. 3.
9
Consider next the situation a company is in when it is contemplating a new issue of
warrants (or employee stock options). We suppose that the company is interested in calculating the cost of the issue assuming that there are no compensating benefits. We assume that the company has N shares worth
S0 each and the number of new options
contemplated is M, with each option giving the holder the right to buy one share for K. The value of the company today is
Warrants and Dilution Costs
- The cost of issuing warrants or employee stock options is calculated by assuming no compensating benefits to the company.
- A mathematical model shows that the value of a warrant is equivalent to a fraction of a regular call option based on the ratio of existing shares to total shares after exercise.
- In an efficient market, the total value of a company's equity declines by the cost of the options as soon as the issuance becomes public knowledge.
- The dilution effect is reflected in the stock price immediately upon announcement and does not need to be recalculated at the time of exercise.
- A common misconception is that further dilution occurs at exercise, but this is flawed because the market already anticipates the event.
The exercise of the options is anticipated by the market and already reflected in the share price.
and employee stock options. This is explained in Business Snapshot 15. 3.
9
Consider next the situation a company is in when it is contemplating a new issue of
warrants (or employee stock options). We suppose that the company is interested in calculating the cost of the issue assuming that there are no compensating benefits. We assume that the company has N shares worth
S0 each and the number of new options
contemplated is M, with each option giving the holder the right to buy one share for K. The value of the company today is
NS0. This value does not change as a result of the
warrant issue. Suppose that without the warrant issue the share price will be ST at the
warrantās maturity. This means that (with or without the warrant issue) the total value of the equity and the warrants at time T will
NST. If the warrants are exercised, there is a
cash inflow from the strike price increasing this to NST+MK. This value is distributed 15.10 WARRANTS AND EMPLOYEE STOCK OPTIONS
9 Analysts sometimes assume that the sum of the values of the warrants and the equity (rather than just the
value of the equity) is lognormal. The result is a BlackāScholes type of equation for the value of the warrant in
terms of the value of the warrant. See Technical Note 3 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for an explanation of this model.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 357
among N+M shares, so that the share price immediately after exercise becomes
NST+MK
N+M
Therefore the payoff to an option holder if the option is exercised is
NST+MK
N+M-K
or
N
N+M 1ST-K2
This shows that the value of each option is the value of
N
N+M
regular call options on the companyās stock. Therefore the total cost of the options is
M times this. Since we are assuming that there are no benefits to the company from the warrant issue, the total value of the companyās equity will decline by the total cost of the options as soon as the decision to issue the warrants becomes generally known. This means that the reduction in the stock price is
M
N+M
times the value of a regular call option with strike price K and maturity T.Business Snapshot 15.3 Warrants, Employee Stock Options, and Dilution
Consider a company with 100,000 shares each worth $50. It surprises the market with an announcement that it is granting 100,000 stock options to its employees with a strike price of $50. If the market sees little benefit to the shareholders from the employee stock options in the form of reduced salaries and more highly motivated managers, the stock price will decline immediately after the announcement of the employee stock options. If the stock price declines to $45, the dilution cost to the current shareholders is $5 per share or $500,000 in total.
Suppose that the company does well so that by the end of three years the share
price is $100. Suppose further that all the options are exercised at this point. The payoff to the employees is $50 per option. It is tempting to argue that there will be further dilution in that 100,000 shares worth $100 per share are now merged with 100,000 shares for which only $50 is paid, so that (a) the share price reduces to $75 and (b) the payoff to the option holders is only $25 per option. However, this
argument is flawed. The exercise of the options is anticipated by the market and already reflected in the share price. The payoff from each option exercised is $50.
This example illustrates the general point that when markets are efficient the
impact of dilution from executive stock options or warrants is reflected in the stock price as soon as they are announced and does not need to be taken into account again when the options are valued.
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358 CHAPTER 15
Example 15.7
Warrants and Market Dilution
- The announcement of employee stock options can cause an immediate decline in stock price if the market perceives no offsetting benefits like reduced salaries.
- Market efficiency ensures that the cost of dilution is reflected in the share price at the time of announcement rather than at the time of exercise.
- The value of a warrant is mathematically related to the value of a regular call option but adjusted by the ratio of existing shares to total potential shares.
- Implied volatility represents the stock price volatility derived from observed market prices of options rather than historical data.
- Calculating the total cost of a warrant issue involves multiplying the number of warrants by their adjusted option value to determine the expected impact on equity.
The exercise of the options is anticipated by the market and already reflected in the share price.
times the value of a regular call option with strike price K and maturity T.Business Snapshot 15.3 Warrants, Employee Stock Options, and Dilution
Consider a company with 100,000 shares each worth $50. It surprises the market with an announcement that it is granting 100,000 stock options to its employees with a strike price of $50. If the market sees little benefit to the shareholders from the employee stock options in the form of reduced salaries and more highly motivated managers, the stock price will decline immediately after the announcement of the employee stock options. If the stock price declines to $45, the dilution cost to the current shareholders is $5 per share or $500,000 in total.
Suppose that the company does well so that by the end of three years the share
price is $100. Suppose further that all the options are exercised at this point. The payoff to the employees is $50 per option. It is tempting to argue that there will be further dilution in that 100,000 shares worth $100 per share are now merged with 100,000 shares for which only $50 is paid, so that (a) the share price reduces to $75 and (b) the payoff to the option holders is only $25 per option. However, this
argument is flawed. The exercise of the options is anticipated by the market and already reflected in the share price. The payoff from each option exercised is $50.
This example illustrates the general point that when markets are efficient the
impact of dilution from executive stock options or warrants is reflected in the stock price as soon as they are announced and does not need to be taken into account again when the options are valued.
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358 CHAPTER 15
Example 15.7
A company with 1 million shares worth $40 each is considering issuing 200,000
warrants each giving the holder the right to buy one share with a strike price of $60 in 5 years. It wants to know the cost of this. The interest rate is 3% per annum, and the volatility is 30% per annum. The company pays no dividends. From equation (15.20), the value of a 5-year European call option on the stock is $7.04. In this case,
N=1,000,000 and M=200,000, so that the value of each
warrant is
1,000,000
1,000,000+200,000*7.04=5.87
or $5.87. The total cost of the warrant issue is 200,000*5.87=+1.17 million.
Assuming the market perceives no benefits from the warrant issue, we expect the stock price to decline by $1.17 to $38.83.
10 Implied volatilities for European and American options can be calculated using DerivaGem.
11 This method is presented for illustration. Other more powerful methods, such as the NewtonāRaphson
method, are often used in practice (see footnote 3 of Chapter 4).The one parameter in the BlackāScholesāMerton pricing formulas that cannot be directly observed is the volatility of the stock price. In Section 15. 4, we discussed
how this can be estimated from a history of the stock price. In practice, traders usually work with what are known as implied volatilities. These are the volatilities implied by option prices observed in the market.
10
To illustrate how implied volatilities are calculated, suppose that the market price of a
European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock is 1.875 when S0=21, K=20,
Understanding Implied Volatilities
- Implied volatility is the only parameter in the BlackāScholesāMerton formula that cannot be directly observed and must be derived from market prices.
- Because the pricing formula cannot be inverted algebraically, traders use iterative search procedures like the NewtonāRaphson method to find the volatility value.
- Unlike historical volatility which is backward-looking, implied volatility is forward-looking and reflects the market's current opinion on future asset price fluctuations.
- Traders often quote implied volatility instead of price because it is less variable and provides a benchmark for pricing less liquid options.
- The VIX Index, often called the 'fear factor,' tracks the implied volatility of 30-day options on the S&P 500 to gauge market sentiment.
Whereas historical volatilities are backward looking, implied volatilities are forward looking.
or $5.87. The total cost of the warrant issue is 200,000*5.87=+1.17 million.
Assuming the market perceives no benefits from the warrant issue, we expect the stock price to decline by $1.17 to $38.83.
10 Implied volatilities for European and American options can be calculated using DerivaGem.
11 This method is presented for illustration. Other more powerful methods, such as the NewtonāRaphson
method, are often used in practice (see footnote 3 of Chapter 4).The one parameter in the BlackāScholesāMerton pricing formulas that cannot be directly observed is the volatility of the stock price. In Section 15. 4, we discussed
how this can be estimated from a history of the stock price. In practice, traders usually work with what are known as implied volatilities. These are the volatilities implied by option prices observed in the market.
10
To illustrate how implied volatilities are calculated, suppose that the market price of a
European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock is 1.875 when S0=21, K=20,
r=0.1, and T=0.25. The implied volatility is the value of s that, when substituted
into equation (15.20), gives c=1.875. Unfortunately, it is not possible to invert equa-
tion (15.20) so that s is expressed as a function of S0, K, r, T, and c . However, an
iterative search procedure can be used to find the implied s. For example, we can start
by trying s=0.20. This gives a value of c equal to 1.76, which is too low. Because c is
an increasing function of s, a higher value of s is required. We can next try a value of
0.30 for s. This gives a value of c equal to 2.10, which is too high and means that s
must lie between 0.20 and 0.30. Next, a value of 0.25 can be tried for s. This also proves
to be too high, showing that s lies between 0.20 and 0.25. Proceeding in this way, we
can halve the range for s at each iteration and the correct value of s can be calculated
to any required accuracy.11 In this example, the implied volatility is 0.235, or 23.5%, per
annum. A similar procedure can be used in conjunction with binomial trees to find implied volatilities for American options.
Implied volatilities are used to monitor the marketās opinion about the volatility of a
particular stock. Whereas historical volatilities (see Section 15. 4) are backward looking,
implied volatilities are forward looking. Traders often quote the implied volatility of an option rather than its price. This is convenient because the implied volatility tends to be less variable than the option price. The implied volatilities of actively traded options on an asset are often used by traders to estimate appropriate implied volatilities for other options on the asset.15.11 IMPLIED VOLATILITIES
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 359
The VIX Index
The CBOE publishes indices of implied volatility. The most popular index, the SPX
VIX, is an index of the implied volatility of 30-day options on the S&P 500 calculated from a wide range of calls and puts. It is sometimes referred to as the āfear factor. ā An index value of 15 indicates that the implied volatility of 30-day options on the S&P 500 is estimated as 15%. Information on the way the index is calculated is in Section 26.16. Trading in futures on the VIX started in 2004 and trading in options on the VIX started in 2006. One contract is on 1,000 times the index.
Example 15.8
VIX and Dividend Adjustments
- The VIX index, often called the 'fear factor,' measures the 30-day implied volatility of the S&P 500 based on option prices.
- Unlike standard equity options, VIX futures and options allow traders to bet specifically on market volatility rather than price direction.
- Historical data shows the VIX typically stays between 10 and 20 but can spike dramatically during crises, reaching a record 80 after the Lehman bankruptcy.
- When valuing options on dividend-paying stocks, the Black-Scholes-Merton model must be adjusted to account for the stock price drop on the ex-dividend date.
It reached 30 during the second half of 2007 and a record 80 in October and November 2008 after Lehmanās bankruptcy.
The CBOE publishes indices of implied volatility. The most popular index, the SPX
VIX, is an index of the implied volatility of 30-day options on the S&P 500 calculated from a wide range of calls and puts. It is sometimes referred to as the āfear factor. ā An index value of 15 indicates that the implied volatility of 30-day options on the S&P 500 is estimated as 15%. Information on the way the index is calculated is in Section 26.16. Trading in futures on the VIX started in 2004 and trading in options on the VIX started in 2006. One contract is on 1,000 times the index.
Example 15.8
Suppose that a trader buys an April futures contract on the VIX when the futures
price is 18.5 (corresponding to a 30-day S&P 500 volatility of 18.5%) and closes out the contract when the futures price is 19.3 (corresponding to an S&P 500
volatility of 19.3%). The trader makes a gain of $800.
A trade involving options on the S&P 500 is a bet on the future level of the S&P 500, which depends on the volatility of the S&P 500. By contrast, a futures or options contract on the VIX is a bet only on volatility. Figure 15. 4 shows the VIX index between January
2004 and June 2020. Between 2004 and mid-2007 it tended to stay between 10 and 20. It reached 30 during the second half of 2007 and a record 80 in October and November 2008 after Lehmanās bankruptcy. By early 2010, it had declined to more normal levels. It has spiked several times since 2010 because of stresses and uncertainties in financial markets. In 2020, there was another big increase because of the COVID-19 pandemic.
VIX monitors the volatility of the S&P 500. The CBOE publishes a range of other
volatility indices. These are on other stock indices, commodity indices, interest rates, currencies, and some individual stocks (for example, Amazon and Goldman Sachs). There is even a volatility index of the VIX index (VVIX).
020406080100
2020 2018 2016 2014 2012 2010 2008 2006 2004Figure 15.4 The VIX index, January 2004 to June 2020.
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360 CHAPTER 15
12 For tax reasons the stock price may go down by somewhat less than the cash amount of the dividend. To
take account of this phenomenon, we need to interpret the word ādividendā in the context of option pricing as
the reduction in the stock price on the ex-dividend date caused by the dividend. Thus, if a dividend of $1 per share is anticipated and the share price normally goes down by 80% of the dividend on the ex-dividend date, the dividend should be assumed to be $0.80 for the purpose of the analysis.
13 This is not quite the same as the volatility of the whole stock price. (In theory, they cannot both follow
geometric Brownian motion.) At time zero, the volatility of the risky component is approximately equal to the volatility of the whole stock price multiplied by
S0>1S0-D2, where D is the present value of the
dividends.Up to now, we have assumed that the stock on which the option is written pays no
dividends. In this section, we modify the BlackāScholesāMerton model to take account of dividends. We assume that the amount and timing of the dividends during the life of an option can be predicted with certainty. When options last for relatively short periods of time, this assumption is not too unreasonable. (For long-life options it is usual to assume that the dividend yield rather the dollar dividend payments are known. Options can then be valued as will be described in the Chapter 17.) The date on which the
dividend is paid should be assumed to be the ex-dividend date. On this date the stock price declines by the amount of the dividend.
12
European Options
Adjusting Black-Scholes for Dividends
- The BlackāScholesāMerton model is modified to account for dividends by assuming their timing and amount are predictable over the option's life.
- Stock prices are conceptualized as having two parts: a riskless component representing the present value of future dividends and a risky component.
- To value a European option, the current stock price must be reduced by the present value of all dividends whose ex-dividend dates occur before the option expires.
- On the ex-dividend date, the model assumes the stock price declines by exactly the amount of the dividend payment.
- The volatility parameter in the formula should technically be applied to the process followed by the risky component of the stock price rather than the total price.
The riskless component, at any given time, is the present value of all the dividends during the life of the option discounted from the ex-dividend dates to the present at the risk-free rate.
dividends.Up to now, we have assumed that the stock on which the option is written pays no
dividends. In this section, we modify the BlackāScholesāMerton model to take account of dividends. We assume that the amount and timing of the dividends during the life of an option can be predicted with certainty. When options last for relatively short periods of time, this assumption is not too unreasonable. (For long-life options it is usual to assume that the dividend yield rather the dollar dividend payments are known. Options can then be valued as will be described in the Chapter 17.) The date on which the
dividend is paid should be assumed to be the ex-dividend date. On this date the stock price declines by the amount of the dividend.
12
European Options
European options can be analyzed by assuming that the stock price is the sum of two components: a riskless component that corresponds to the known dividends during the life of the option and a risky component. The riskless component, at any given time, is the present value of all the dividends during the life of the option discounted from the ex-dividend dates to the present at the risk-free rate. By the time the option matures, the dividends will have been paid and the riskless component will no longer exist. The BlackāScholesāMerton formula is therefore correct if
S0 is equal to the
risky component of the stock price and s is the volatility of the process followed by
the risky component.13
Operationally, this means that the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas can be used
provided that the stock price is reduced by the present value of all the dividends during the life of the option, the discounting being done from the ex-dividend dates at the risk-
free rate. As already mentioned, a dividend is counted as being during the life of the option only if its ex-dividend date occurs during the life of the option.
Example 15.9
Consider a European call option on a stock when there are ex-dividend dates in
two months and five months. The dividend on each ex-dividend date is expected to be $0.50. The current share price is $40, the exercise price is $40, the stock price volatility is 30% per annum, the risk-free rate of interest is 9% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months. The present value of the dividends is
0.5e-0.09*2>12+0.5e-0.09*5>12=0.9742
The option price can therefore be calculated from the BlackāScholesāMerton 15.12 DIVIDENDS
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 361
formula, with S0=40-0.9742=39.0258, K=40, r=0.09, s=0.3, and
T=0.5:
d1=ln139.0258>402+10.09+0.32>22*0.5
0.320.5=0.2020
d2=ln139.0258>402+10.09-0.32>22*0.5
0.320.5=-0.0102
Using the NORMSDIST function in Excel gives
N1d12=0.5800, N1d22=0.4959
and, from equation (15.20), the call price is
39.0258*0.5800-40e-0.09*0.5*0.4959=3.67
or $3.67.
Some researchers have criticized the approach just described for calculating the value
Dividends and Option Pricing
- The BlackāScholesāMerton model can be adjusted for European options by subtracting the present value of expected dividends from the current stock price.
- While some researchers argue volatility should apply to the full stock price, practitioners often use implied volatilities to ensure model consistency and accuracy.
- Valuing options based on the forward price of the underlying asset is a common industry practice that avoids explicit income estimation.
- For American call options, early exercise is only potentially optimal immediately prior to an ex-dividend date when the dividend exceeds a specific threshold related to the strike price and time to maturity.
An extension to the argument shows that, when there are dividends, it can only be optimal to exercise at a time immediately before the stock goes ex-dividend.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 361
formula, with S0=40-0.9742=39.0258, K=40, r=0.09, s=0.3, and
T=0.5:
d1=ln139.0258>402+10.09+0.32>22*0.5
0.320.5=0.2020
d2=ln139.0258>402+10.09-0.32>22*0.5
0.320.5=-0.0102
Using the NORMSDIST function in Excel gives
N1d12=0.5800, N1d22=0.4959
and, from equation (15.20), the call price is
39.0258*0.5800-40e-0.09*0.5*0.4959=3.67
or $3.67.
Some researchers have criticized the approach just described for calculating the value
of a European option on a dividend-paying stock. They argue that volatility should be
applied to the stock price, not to the stock price less the present value of dividends.
A number of different numerical procedures have been suggested for doing this.14 When
volatility is calculated from historical data, it might make sense to use one of these procedures. However, in practice the volatility used to price an option is nearly always implied from the prices of other options using procedures we will outline in Chapter 20. If an analyst uses the same model for both implying and applying volatilities, the
resulting prices should be accurate and not highly model dependent. Another important point is that in practice, as will be explained in Chapter 18, practitioners usually value a European option in terms of the forward price of the underlying asset. This avoids the need to estimate explicitly the income that is expected from the asset. The volatility of the forward stock price is the same as the volatility of a variable equal to the stock price minus the present value of dividends.
The model we have proposed where the stock price is divided into two components is
internally consistent and widely used in practice. We will use the same model when valuing American options in Chapter 21.
American Call Options
Consider next American call options. Chapter 11 showed that in the absence of
dividends American options should never be exercised early. An extension to the argument shows that, when there are dividends, it can only be optimal to exercise at a time immediately before the stock goes ex-dividend. We assume that n ex-dividend
dates are anticipated and that they are at times
t1, t2,c, tn, with t16t26c6tn.
The dividends corresponding to these times will be denoted by D1, D 2,c, D n,
respectively.
We start by considering the possibility of early exercise just prior to the final
ex-dividend date (i.e., at time tn). If the option is exercised at time tn, the investor
receives
S1tn2-K
14 See, for example, N. Areal and A. Rodrigues, āFast Trees for Options with Discrete Dividends, ā Journal
of Derivatives, 21, 1 (Fall 2013), 49ā63.
M15_HULL0654_11_GE_C15.indd 361 12/05/2021 17:40
362 CHAPTER 15
where S1t2 denotes the stock price at time t. If the option is not exercised, the stock
price drops to S1tn2-Dn. As shown by equation (11.4), the value of the option is then
greater than
S1tn2-Dn-Ke-r1T-tn2
It follows that, if
S1tn2-Dn-Ke-r1T-tn2ĆS1tn2-K
that is,
Dnā¦K31-e-r1T-tn24 (15. 23)
it cannot be optimal to exercise at time tn. On the other hand, if
Dn7K31-e-r1T-tn24 (15. 24)
for any reasonable assumption about the stochastic process followed by the stock price,
it can be shown that it is always optimal to exercise at time tn for a sufficiently high
value of S1tn2. The inequality in (15.24) will tend to be satisfied when the final ex-
dividend date is fairly close to the maturity of the option (i.e., T-tn is small) and the
dividend is large.
Consider next time tn-1, the penultimate ex-dividend date. If the option is exercised
immediately prior to time tn-1, the investor receives S1tn-12-K. If the option is not
exercised at time tn-1, the stock price drops to S1tn-12-Dn-1 and the earliest
subsequent time at which exercise could take place is tn. Hence, from equation (11.4),
a lower bound to the option price if it is not exercised at time tn-1 is
S1tn-12-Dn-1-Ke-r1tn-tn-12
It follows that if
Early Exercise and Black's Approximation
- Early exercise of an American call option is most likely to be optimal immediately prior to the final ex-dividend date.
- If specific inequalities regarding dividend size and interest rates are met, an American call can be treated as a European option because early exercise is never optimal.
- Blackās Approximation suggests valuing an American call by taking the maximum price between two European options: one maturing at the stock's expiration and one at the final ex-dividend date.
- The Black-Scholes-Merton model relies on the assumption that stock prices follow a lognormal distribution, where volatility is proportional to the square root of time.
- Riskless portfolios are constructed by combining derivatives and stocks, requiring the portfolio return to equal the risk-free rate to prevent arbitrage.
This is an approximation because it in effect assumes the option holder has to decide at time zero whether the option will be exercised at time T or tn.
for any reasonable assumption about the stochastic process followed by the stock price,
it can be shown that it is always optimal to exercise at time tn for a sufficiently high
value of S1tn2. The inequality in (15.24) will tend to be satisfied when the final ex-
dividend date is fairly close to the maturity of the option (i.e., T-tn is small) and the
dividend is large.
Consider next time tn-1, the penultimate ex-dividend date. If the option is exercised
immediately prior to time tn-1, the investor receives S1tn-12-K. If the option is not
exercised at time tn-1, the stock price drops to S1tn-12-Dn-1 and the earliest
subsequent time at which exercise could take place is tn. Hence, from equation (11.4),
a lower bound to the option price if it is not exercised at time tn-1 is
S1tn-12-Dn-1-Ke-r1tn-tn-12
It follows that if
S1tn-12-Dn-1-Ke-r1tn-tn-12ĆS1tn-12-K
or
Dn-1ā¦K31-e-r1tn-tn-124
it is not optimal to exercise immediately prior to time tn-1. Similarly, for any i6n, if
Diā¦K31-e-r1ti+1-ti24 (15. 25)
it is not optimal to exercise immediately prior to time ti.
The inequality in (15.25) is approximately equivalent to
Diā¦Kr1ti+1-ti2
Assuming that K is fairly close to the current stock price, this inequality is satisfied
when the dividend yield on the stock is less than the risk-free rate of interest. This is often not true in low interest environments.
We can conclude from this analysis that, in many circumstances, the most likely
time for the early exercise of an American call is immediately before the final ex- dividend date,
tn. Furthermore, if inequality (15.25) holds for i=1, 2,c, n-1 and
inequality (15.23) holds, we can be certain that early exercise is never optimal, and the American option can be treated as a European option.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 363
Blackās Approximation
Black suggests an approximate procedure for taking account of early exercise in call
options.15 This involves calculating, as described earlier in this section, the prices of
European options that mature at times T and tn, and then setting the American price equal
to the greater of the two.16 This is an approximation because it in effect assumes the option
holder has to decide at time zero whether the option will be exercised at time T or tn.
SUMMARY
We started this chapter by examining the properties of the process for stock prices introduced in Chapter 14. The process implies that the price of a stock at some future time, given its price today, is lognormal. It also implies that the continuously com-pounded return from the stock in a period of time is normally distributed. Our
uncertainty about future stock prices increases as we look further ahead. The standard deviation of the logarithm of the stock price is proportional to the square root of how far ahead we are looking.
To estimate the volatility
s of a stock price empirically, the stock price is observed at
fixed intervals of time (e.g., every day, every week, or every month). For each time period, the natural logarithm of the ratio of the stock price at the end of the time period to the stock price at the beginning of the time period is calculated. The volatility is
estimated as the standard deviation of these numbers divided by the square root of the length of the time period in years. Usually, days when the exchanges are closed are ignored in measuring time for the purposes of volatility calculations.
The differential equation for the price of any derivative dependent on a stock can be
obtained by creating a riskless portfolio of the derivative and the stock. Because the derivativeās price and the stock price both depend on the same underlying source of uncertainty, this can always be done. The portfolio that is created remains riskless for only a very short period of time. However, the return on a riskless porfolio must always be the risk-free interest rate if there are to be no arbitrage opportunities.
BlackāScholesāMerton and Risk-Neutral Valuation
- Volatility is estimated as the standard deviation of the natural logarithm of stock price ratios over fixed intervals, typically ignoring days when exchanges are closed.
- A riskless portfolio can be constructed by combining a derivative and its underlying stock, which must earn the risk-free interest rate to prevent arbitrage.
- The expected return on a stock is notably absent from the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation, enabling the concept of risk-neutral valuation.
- Risk-neutral valuation allows traders to assume the expected return of a stock is the risk-free rate and discount payoffs accordingly when pricing derivatives.
- Implied volatility represents the volatility value that aligns the BlackāScholesāMerton formula with the current market price of an option.
- American call options on dividend-paying stocks may be exercised early, often just before the final ex-dividend date to capture value.
The expected return on the stock does not enter into the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation.
fixed intervals of time (e.g., every day, every week, or every month). For each time period, the natural logarithm of the ratio of the stock price at the end of the time period to the stock price at the beginning of the time period is calculated. The volatility is
estimated as the standard deviation of these numbers divided by the square root of the length of the time period in years. Usually, days when the exchanges are closed are ignored in measuring time for the purposes of volatility calculations.
The differential equation for the price of any derivative dependent on a stock can be
obtained by creating a riskless portfolio of the derivative and the stock. Because the derivativeās price and the stock price both depend on the same underlying source of uncertainty, this can always be done. The portfolio that is created remains riskless for only a very short period of time. However, the return on a riskless porfolio must always be the risk-free interest rate if there are to be no arbitrage opportunities.
The expected return on the stock does not enter into the BlackāScholesāMerton
differential equation. This leads to an extremely useful result known as risk-neutral valuation. This result states that when valuing a derivative dependent on a stock price, we can assume that the world is risk neutral. This means that we can assume that the expected return from the stock is the risk-free interest rate, and then discount expected payoffs at the risk-free interest rate. The BlackāScholesāMerton equations for Eur -
opean call and put options can be derived by either solving their differential equation or by using risk-neutral valuation.
An implied volatility is the volatility that, when used in conjunction with the Blackā
ScholesāMerton option pricing formula, gives the market price of the option. Traders
15 See F. Black, āFact and Fantasy in the Use of Options, ā Financial Analysts Journal, 31 (July/August
1975): 36ā41, 61 ā72.
16 For an exact formula, suggested by Roll, Geske, and Whaley, for valuing American calls when there is
only one ex-dividend date, see Technical Note 4 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes. This
involves the cumulative bivariate normal distribution function. A procedure for calculating this function is given in Technical Note 5 and a worksheet for calculating the cumulative bivariate normal distribution can be found on the authorās website.
M15_HULL0654_11_GE_C15.indd 363 12/05/2021 17:40
364 CHAPTER 15
monitor implied volatilities. They often quote the implied volatility of an option rather
than its price. They have developed procedures for using the volatilities implied by the prices of actively traded options to estimate volatilities for other options on the same asset.
The BlackāScholesāMerton results can be extended to cover European call and put
options on dividend-paying stocks. The procedure is to use the BlackāScholesāMerton formula with the stock price reduced by the present value of the dividends anticipated during the life of the option, and the volatility equal to the volatility of the stock price net of the present value of these dividends.
It can be optimal to exercise American call options immediately before any ex-
dividend date, but in practice early exercise is most likely on the final ex-dividend date. Fischer Black has suggested an approximation. This involves setting the American call option price equal to the greater of two European call option prices. The first European call option expires at the same time as the American call option; the second expires immediately prior to the final ex-dividend date.
FURTHER READING
On the Distribution of Stock Price Changes
Pricing Options with Dividends
- The BlackāScholesāMerton formula can be adjusted for dividend-paying stocks by reducing the stock price by the present value of anticipated dividends.
- Volatility calculations for these options must be based on the stock price net of the present value of expected dividends.
- Early exercise of American call options is most likely to occur immediately before the final ex-dividend date.
- Fischer Black proposed an approximation for American calls by taking the maximum value of two distinct European call options.
- The text provides an extensive bibliography of foundational research on stock price distributions, risk-neutral valuation, and the causes of market volatility.
This involves setting the American call option price equal to the greater of two European call option prices.
options on dividend-paying stocks. The procedure is to use the BlackāScholesāMerton formula with the stock price reduced by the present value of the dividends anticipated during the life of the option, and the volatility equal to the volatility of the stock price net of the present value of these dividends.
It can be optimal to exercise American call options immediately before any ex-
dividend date, but in practice early exercise is most likely on the final ex-dividend date. Fischer Black has suggested an approximation. This involves setting the American call option price equal to the greater of two European call option prices. The first European call option expires at the same time as the American call option; the second expires immediately prior to the final ex-dividend date.
FURTHER READING
On the Distribution of Stock Price Changes
Blattberg, R., and N. Gonedes, ā A Comparison of the Stable and Student Distributions as
Statistical Models for Stock Prices, ā Journal of Business, 47 (April 1974): 244ā80.
Fama, E. F., āThe Behavior of Stock Market Prices, ā Journal of Business, 38 (January 1965):
34ā105.
Kon, S. J., āModels of Stock ReturnsāA Comparison, ā Journal of Finance, 39 (March 1984):
147ā65.
Richardson, M., and T. Smith, ā A Test for Multivariate Normality in Stock Returns, ā Journal of
Business, 66 (1993): 295ā321.
On the BlackāScholesāMerton Analysis
Black, F. āFact and Fantasy in the Use of Options and Corporate Liabilities, ā Financial Analysts
Journal, 31 (July/August 1975): 36ā41, 61 ā72.
Black, F. āHow We Came Up with the Option Pricing Formula, ā Journal of Portfolio
Management, 15, 2 (1989): 4ā8.
Black, F., and M. Scholes, āThe Pricing of Options and Corporate Liabilities, ā Journal of
Political Economy, 81 (May/June 1973): 637ā59.
Merton, R. C., āTheory of Rational Option Pricing, ā Bell Journal of Economics and Management
Science, 4 (Spring 1973): 141 ā83.
On Risk-Neutral Valuation
Cox, J. C., and S. A. Ross, āThe Valuation of Options for Alternative Stochastic Processes, ā
Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (1976): 145ā66.
Smith, C. W., āOption Pricing: A Review, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (1976): 3ā54.
On the Causes of Volatility
Fama, E. F. āThe Behavior of Stock Market Prices. ā Journal of Business, 38 (January 1965): 34ā105.French, K. R. āStock Returns and the Weekend Effect. ā Journal of Financial Economics, 8
(March 1980): 55ā69.
French, K. R., and R. Roll āStock Return Variances: The Arrival of Information and the
Reaction of Traders. ā Journal of Financial Economics, 17 (September 1986): 5ā26.
Roll R. āOrange Juice and Weather, ā American Economic Review, 74, 5 (December 1984): 861 ā80.
M15_HULL0654_11_GE_C15.indd 364 12/05/2021 17:40
The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 365
Practice Questions
15.1. What does the BlackāScholesāMerton stock option pricing model assume about the
BlackāScholesāMerton Practice Problems
- The text provides a series of quantitative practice questions focused on the application of the BlackāScholesāMerton stock option pricing model.
- Key concepts explored include the probability distribution of stock prices, the impact of volatility on daily price changes, and the effects of dividends on option pricing.
- Advanced problems require the use of risk-neutral valuation and the BlackāScholesāMerton partial differential equation to price innovative financial securities.
- The material highlights the distinction between expected returns and realized average returns, questioning the potential for misleading financial reporting.
- Mathematical proofs are requested for confidence intervals of future stock prices under the assumption of geometric Brownian motion.
A portfolio manager announces that the average of the returns realized in each year of the last 10 years is 20% per annum. In what respect is this statement misleading?
Fama, E. F. āThe Behavior of Stock Market Prices. ā Journal of Business, 38 (January 1965): 34ā105.French, K. R. āStock Returns and the Weekend Effect. ā Journal of Financial Economics, 8
(March 1980): 55ā69.
French, K. R., and R. Roll āStock Return Variances: The Arrival of Information and the
Reaction of Traders. ā Journal of Financial Economics, 17 (September 1986): 5ā26.
Roll R. āOrange Juice and Weather, ā American Economic Review, 74, 5 (December 1984): 861 ā80.
M15_HULL0654_11_GE_C15.indd 364 12/05/2021 17:40
The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 365
Practice Questions
15.1. What does the BlackāScholesāMerton stock option pricing model assume about the
probability distribution of the stock price in one year? What does it assume about the probability distribution of the continuously compounded rate of return on the stock during the year?
15.2. The volatility of a stock price is 30% per annum. What is the standard deviation of the percentage price change in one trading day?
15.3. Calculate the price of a 3-month European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock with a strike price of $50 when the current stock price is $50, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, and the volatility is 30% per annum.
15.4. What difference does it make to your calculations in Problem 15.3 if a dividend of $1.50 is expected in 2 months?
15.5. A stock price is currently $40. Assume that the expected return from the stock is 15% and that its volatility is 25%. What is the probability distribution for the rate of return (with continuous compounding) earned over a 2-year period?
15.6. A stock price follows geometric Brownian motion with an expected return of 16% and a volatility of 35%. The current price is $38.
(a) What is the probability that a European call option on the stock with an exercise
price of $40 and a maturity date in 6 months will be exercised?
(b) What is the probability that a European put option on the stock with the same
exercise price and maturity will be exercised?
15.7. Using the notation in this chapter, prove that a 95% confidence interval for
ST is
between S0e1m-s2>22T-1.96s2T and S0e1m-s2>22T+1.96s2T.
15.8. A portfolio manager announces that the average of the returns realized in each year of the last 10 years is 20% per annum. In what respect is this statement misleading?
15.9. Assume that a non-dividend-paying stock has an expected return of
m and a volatility
of s. An innovative financial institution has just announced that it will trade a security
that pays off a dollar amount equal to ln ST at time T, where ST denotes the value of the
stock price at time T.
(a) Use risk-neutral valuation to calculate the price of the security at time t in terms of
the stock price, S, at time t. The risk-free rate is r.
(b) Confirm that your price satisfies the differential equation (15.16).
15.10. Consider a derivative that pays off Sn
T at time T, where ST is the stock price at that time.
When the stock pays no dividends and its price follows geometric Brownian motion, it
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366 CHAPTER 15
can be shown that its price at time t 1tā¦T2 has the form h1t, T2Sn, where S is the stock
price at time t and h is a function only of t and T.
(a) By substituting into the BlackāScholesāMerton partial differential equation, derive
BlackāScholesāMerton Model Applications
- The text presents mathematical exercises for valuing innovative financial securities, such as those with payoffs based on the natural logarithm of a stock price.
- It explores the derivation of ordinary differential equations from the BlackāScholesāMerton partial differential equation for power-based derivatives.
- Practical application problems require calculating the prices of European call and put options using specific market variables like volatility and risk-free rates.
- The material covers the analysis of American call options and the conditions under which early exercise on dividend dates is suboptimal.
- Advanced proofs are required to demonstrate that the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas satisfy fundamental financial principles like putācall parity and specific boundary conditions.
An innovative financial institution has just announced that it will trade a security that pays off a dollar amount equal to ln ST at time T.
of s. An innovative financial institution has just announced that it will trade a security
that pays off a dollar amount equal to ln ST at time T, where ST denotes the value of the
stock price at time T.
(a) Use risk-neutral valuation to calculate the price of the security at time t in terms of
the stock price, S, at time t. The risk-free rate is r.
(b) Confirm that your price satisfies the differential equation (15.16).
15.10. Consider a derivative that pays off Sn
T at time T, where ST is the stock price at that time.
When the stock pays no dividends and its price follows geometric Brownian motion, it
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366 CHAPTER 15
can be shown that its price at time t 1tā¦T2 has the form h1t, T2Sn, where S is the stock
price at time t and h is a function only of t and T.
(a) By substituting into the BlackāScholesāMerton partial differential equation, derive
an ordinary differential equation satisfied by h1t, T2.
(b) What is the boundary condition for the differential equation for h1t, T2?
(c) Show that h1t, T2=e30.5s2 n1n-12+r1n-1241T-t2, where r is the risk-free interest rate and s
is the stock price volatility.
15.11. What is the price of a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the
stock price is $52, the strike price is $50, the risk-free interest rate is 12% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is 3 months?
15.12. What is the price of a European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the
stock price is $69, the strike price is $70, the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum, the volatility is 35% per annum, and the time to maturity is 6 months?
15.13. Consider an American call option on a stock. The stock price is $70, the time to maturity
is 8 months, the risk-free rate of interest is 10% per annum, the exercise price is $65, and
the volatility is 32%. A dividend of $1 is expected after 3 months and again after
6 months. Show that it can never be optimal to exercise the option on either of the two dividend dates. Use DerivaGem to calculate the price of the option.
15.14. A call option on a non-dividend-paying stock has a market price of
+21
2. The stock price
is $15, the exercise price is $13, the time to maturity is 3 months, and the risk-free
interest rate is 5% per annum. What is the implied volatility?
15.15. With the notation used in this chapter:
(a) What is N/uni20321x2?
(b) Show that SN/uni20321d 12=Ke-r1T-t2N/uni20321d 22, where S is the stock price at time t and
d1=ln1S>K2+1r+s2>221T -t2
s2T-t, d2=ln1S>K2+1r-s2>221T -t2
s2T-t
(c) Calculate 0d1>0S and 0d2>0S.
(d) Show that when c=SN1d12-Ke-r1T-t2N1d22, it follows that
0c
0t=-rKe-r1T-t2 N1d22-SN/uni20321d12s
22T-t
where c is the price of a call option on a non-dividend-paying stock.
(e) Show that 0c>0S=N1d12.
(f) Show that c satisfies the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation.
(g) Show that c satisfies the boundary condition for a European call option, i.e., that
c=max1S-K, 02 as tST.
15.16. Show that the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas for call and put options satisfy putācall
parity.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 367
15.17. A stock price is currently $50 and the risk-free interest rate is 5%. Use the DerivaGem
software to translate the following table of European call options on the stock into a table of implied volatilities, assuming no dividends. Are the option prices consistent with the assumptions underlying BlackāScholesāMerton?
Maturity (months)
Strike price ($) 3 6 12
45 7.0 8.3 10.5
50 3.7 5.2 7.5
55 1.6 2.9 5.1
BlackāScholesāMerton Model Exercises
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems designed to test the mathematical foundations of the BlackāScholesāMerton model, including partial differential equations and boundary conditions.
- Practical applications are explored through the calculation of implied volatilities and the assessment of whether market prices align with theoretical assumptions.
- Complex scenarios involving American call options on dividend-paying stocks are analyzed to determine optimal exercise timing and potential valuation errors.
- The exercises extend to corporate finance topics, such as the valuation of executive stock options and the impact of share dilution on company costs.
- Statistical methods are applied to estimate stock price volatility from historical data and to predict future price distributions using confidence intervals.
Explain carefully why Blackās approach to evaluating an American call option on a dividend-paying stock may give an approximate answer even when only one dividend is anticipated.
where c is the price of a call option on a non-dividend-paying stock.
(e) Show that 0c>0S=N1d12.
(f) Show that c satisfies the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation.
(g) Show that c satisfies the boundary condition for a European call option, i.e., that
c=max1S-K, 02 as tST.
15.16. Show that the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas for call and put options satisfy putācall
parity.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 367
15.17. A stock price is currently $50 and the risk-free interest rate is 5%. Use the DerivaGem
software to translate the following table of European call options on the stock into a table of implied volatilities, assuming no dividends. Are the option prices consistent with the assumptions underlying BlackāScholesāMerton?
Maturity (months)
Strike price ($) 3 6 12
45 7.0 8.3 10.5
50 3.7 5.2 7.5
55 1.6 2.9 5.1
15.18. Explain carefully why Blackās approach to evaluating an American call option on a
dividend-paying stock may give an approximate answer even when only one dividend is
anticipated. Does the answer given by Blackās approach understate or overstate the true option value? Explain your answer.
15.19. Consider an American call option on a stock. The stock price is $50, the time to maturity
is 15 months, the risk-free rate of interest is 8% per annum, the exercise price is $55, and the volatility is 25%. Dividends of $1.50 are expected in 4 months and 10 months. Show that it can never be optimal to exercise the option on either of the two dividend dates. Calculate the price of the option.
15.20. Show that the probability that a European call option will be exercised in a risk-neutral
world is, with the notation introduced in this chapter,
N1d22. What is an expression for the
value of a derivative that pays off $100 if the price of a stock at time T is greater than K ?
15.21. Use the result in equation (15.17) to determine the value of a perpetual American put
option on a non-dividend-paying stock with strike price K if it is exercised when the
stock price equals H where H6K. Assume that the current stock price S is greater than
H. What is the value of H that maximizes the option value? Deduce the value of a
perpetual American put with strike price K .
15.22. A company has an issue of executive stock options outstanding. Should dilution be
taken into account when the options are valued? Explain your answer.
15.23. A companyās stock price is $50 and 10 million shares are outstanding. The company is
considering giving its employees 3 million at-the-money 5-year call options. Option
exercises will be handled by issuing more shares. The stock price volatility is 25%, the 5-year risk-free rate is 5%, and the company does not pay dividends. Estimate the cost to the company of the employee stock option issue.
15.24. If the volatility of a stock is 18% per annum, estimate the standard deviation of the
percentage price change in (a) 1 day, (b) 1 week, and (c) 1 month.
15.25. A stock price is currently $50. Assume that the expected return from the stock is 18%
and its volatility is 30%. What is the probability distribution for the stock price in
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368 CHAPTER 15
2 years? Calculate the mean and standard deviation of the distribution. Determine the
95% confidence interval.
15.26. Suppose that observations on a stock price (in dollars) at the end of each of 15 consecutive
weeks are as follows:
30.2, 32.0, 31.1, 30.1, 30.2, 30.3, 30.6, 33.0, 32.9, 33.0, 33.5, 33.5, 33.7, 33.5, 33.2
Estimate the stock price volatility. What is the standard error of your estimate?
15.27. The appendix derives the key result
E3max1V-K, 024=E1V2N1d12-KN1d22
Show that
E3max1K-V, 024=KN1-d22-E1V2N1-d12
and use this to derive the BlackāScholesāMerton formula for the price of a European
put option on a non-dividend-paying stock.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 369
Proving BlackāScholesāMerton
- The text provides a formal mathematical proof of the BlackāScholesāMerton formula using risk-neutral valuation and lognormal distribution properties.
- A key result is derived for the expected value of a lognormally distributed variable exceeding a strike price, which serves as the foundation for pricing call options.
- The proof utilizes a transformation of variables to convert complex integrals into standard normal distribution functions represented by N(d1) and N(d2).
- The final derivation shows that the call price is the difference between the current stock price and the discounted strike price, each weighted by probability factors.
- The section concludes by introducing employee stock options as a practical application where employees gain a stake in their company's financial success.
This variable is normally distributed with a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 1.0.
weeks are as follows:
30.2, 32.0, 31.1, 30.1, 30.2, 30.3, 30.6, 33.0, 32.9, 33.0, 33.5, 33.5, 33.7, 33.5, 33.2
Estimate the stock price volatility. What is the standard error of your estimate?
15.27. The appendix derives the key result
E3max1V-K, 024=E1V2N1d12-KN1d22
Show that
E3max1K-V, 024=KN1-d22-E1V2N1-d12
and use this to derive the BlackāScholesāMerton formula for the price of a European
put option on a non-dividend-paying stock.
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The BlackāScholesāMerton Model 369
APPENDIX
PROOF OF THE BLACKāSCHOLESāMERTON FORMULA USING
RISK-NEUTRAL VALUATION
We will prove the BlackāScholes result by first proving another key result that will also
be useful in future chapters.
Key Result
If V is lognormally distributed and the standard deviation of ln V is w, then
E3max1V-K, 024=E1V2N1d12-KN1d22 (15A.1)
where
d1=ln3E1V2>K4+w2>2
w
d2=ln3E1V2>K4-w2>2
w
and E denotes the expected value. (See Problem 15.27 for a similar result for puts.)
Proof of Key Result
Define g(V) as the probability density function of V. It follows that
E3max1V-K, 024=
Lā
K1V-K2g1V2 dV (15A.2)
The variable ln V is normally distributed with standard deviation w. From the proper -
ties of the lognormal distribution, the mean of ln V is m, where17
m=ln3E1V24-w2>2 (15A.3)
Define a new variable
Q=ln V-m
w (15A.4)
This variable is normally distributed with a mean of zero and a standard deviation
of 1.0. Denote the density function for Q by h1Q2 so that
h1Q2=1
22p e-Q2>2
Using equation (15A.4) to convert the expression on the right-hand side of equa-
tion (15A.2) from an integral over V to an integral over Q, we get
E3max1V-K, 024=
Lā
1ln K-m2>w1eQw+m-K2h1Q2dQ
or
E3max1V-K, 024=
Lā
1ln K-m2>weQw+mh1Q2dQ-K
Lā
1ln K-m2>w h1Q2dQ (15A.5)
17 For a proof of this, see Technical Note 2 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
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370 CHAPTER 15
Now
eQw+mh1Q2=1
22p e1-Q2+2Qw+2m2>2=1
22p e3-1Q-w22+2m+w24>2
=em+w2>2
22p e3-1Q-w224>2=em+w2>2h1Q-w2
This means that equation (15A.5) becomes
E3max1V-K, 024=em+w2>2
Lā
1ln K-m2>w h1Q-w2dQ-K
Lā
1ln K-m2>w h1Q2dQ (15A.6)
If we define N1x2 as the probability that a variable with a mean of zero and a standard
deviation of 1.0 is less than x, the first integral in equation (15A.6) is
1-N31ln K-m2>w-w4=N31-ln K+m2>w+w4
Substituting for m from equation (15A.3) leads to
Naln3E1V2>K4+w2>2
wb=N1d12
Similarly the second integral in equation (15A.6) is N1d22. Equation (15A.6), therefore,
becomes
E3max1V-K, 024=em+w2>2N1d12-KN1d22
Substituting for m from equation (15A.3) gives the key result.
The BlackāScholesāMerton Result
We now consider a call option on a non-dividend-paying stock maturing at time T. The
strike price is K , the risk-free rate is r , the current stock price is S0, and the volatility
is s. As shown in equation (15.22), the call price c is given by
c=e-rT En3max1ST-K, 024 (15A.7)
where ST is the stock price at time T and En denotes the expectation in a risk-neutral
world. Under the stochastic process assumed by BlackāScholesāMerton, ST is log-
normal. Also, from equations (15.3) and (15.4), En1ST2=S0erT and the standard
deviation of ln ST is s2T.
From the key result just proved, equation (15A.7) implies
c=e-rT3S0erT N1d12-KN1d224=S0N1d12-Ke-rT N1d22
where
d1=ln3En1ST2>K4+s2T>2
s2T=ln1S0>K2+1r+s2>22T
s2T
d2=ln3En1ST2>K4-s2T>2
s2T=ln1S0>K2+1r-s2>22T
s2T
This is the BlackāScholesāMerton result.
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371
Employee
Stock Options16 CHAPTER
Employee stock options are call options on a companyās stock granted by the company
to its employees. The options give the employees a stake in the fortunes of the
company. If the company does well so that the companyās stock price moves above
the strike price, employees gain by exercising the options and then selling the stock they acquire at the market price.
Employee Stock Options
- Employee stock options are call options granted by companies to give workers a financial stake in the organization's success.
- Technology companies and start-ups frequently use these options to attract top talent when they cannot afford high cash salaries.
- Microsoft's early adoption of stock options famously created over 10,000 millionaires as the company's stock price soared.
- Unlike standard market options, employee options typically include a vesting period and are forfeited if the employee leaves the company early.
- When exercised, these options require the company to issue new shares rather than purchasing existing ones from the open market.
Some newly formed companies have even granted options to students who worked for just a few months during their summer breakāand in some cases this has led to windfalls of hundreds of thousands of dollars for the students.
s2T=ln1S0>K2+1r-s2>22T
s2T
This is the BlackāScholesāMerton result.
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371
Employee
Stock Options16 CHAPTER
Employee stock options are call options on a companyās stock granted by the company
to its employees. The options give the employees a stake in the fortunes of the
company. If the company does well so that the companyās stock price moves above
the strike price, employees gain by exercising the options and then selling the stock they acquire at the market price.
Many companies, particularly technology companies, feel that the only way they can
attract and keep the best employees is to offer them attractive stock option packages.
Some companies grant options only to senior management; others grant them to people
at all levels in the organization. Microsoft was one of the first companies to use employee stock options. All Microsoft employees were granted options and, as the companyās stock price rose, it is estimated that over 10,000 of them became millionaires. Employee stock options have become less popular in recent years for reasons we will explain in this chapter. (Microsoft, for example, announced in 2003 that it would discontinue the use of
options and award shares of Microsoft to employees instead.) But many companies throughout the world continue to be enthusiastic users of employee stock options.
Employee stock options are popular with start-up companies. Often these companies
do not have the resources to pay key employees as much as they could earn with an established company and they solve this problem by supplementing the salaries of the
employees with stock options. If the company does well and shares are sold to the public in an initial public offering (IPO), the options are likely to prove to be very
valuable. Some newly formed companies have even granted options to students who worked for just a few months during their summer breakāand in some cases this has led to windfalls of hundreds of thousands of dollars for the students.
This chapter explains how stock option plans work and how their popularity has been
influenced by their accounting treatment. It discusses whether employee stock options help to align the interests of shareholders with those of top executives running a com-pany. It also describes how these options are valued and looks at backdating scandals.
16.1 CONTRACTUAL ARRANGEMENTS
Employee stock options often last as long as 10 to 15 years. Very often the strike price is set equal to the stock price on the grant date so that the option is initially at the money.
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372 CHAPTER 16
The following are common features of employee stock option plans:
1. There is a vesting period during which the options cannot be exercised. This
vesting period can be as long as four years.
2. When employees leave their jobs (voluntarily or involuntarily) during the vesting
period, they forfeit their options.
3. When employees leave (voluntarily or involuntarily) after the vesting period, they forfeit options that are out of the money and they have to exercise vested options that are in the money almost immediately.
4. Employees are not permitted to sell the options.
5. When an employee exercises options, the company issues new shares and sells
them to the employee for the strike price.
The Early Exercise Decision
Employee Stock Option Constraints
- Employee stock options are subject to strict forfeiture rules if an employee leaves the company during or shortly after the vesting period.
- Unlike standard market options, employee stock options cannot be sold to third parties, which fundamentally alters their financial utility.
- The inability to sell options forces employees to exercise them early to realize cash benefits or diversify their portfolios.
- Standard financial theory suggests never exercising early on non-dividend stocks, but this logic fails for employees due to liquidity constraints.
- Corporate culture significantly influences early exercise behavior, with some employees liquidating as soon as options are even slightly in the money.
The only way employees can realize a cash benefit from the options (or diversify their holdings) is by exercising the options and selling the stock.
2. When employees leave their jobs (voluntarily or involuntarily) during the vesting
period, they forfeit their options.
3. When employees leave (voluntarily or involuntarily) after the vesting period, they forfeit options that are out of the money and they have to exercise vested options that are in the money almost immediately.
4. Employees are not permitted to sell the options.
5. When an employee exercises options, the company issues new shares and sells
them to the employee for the strike price.
The Early Exercise Decision
The fourth feature of employee stock option plans noted above has important implica-tions. If employees, for whatever reason, want to realize a cash benefit from options that have vested, they must exercise the options and sell the underlying shares. They cannot sell the options to someone else. This leads to a tendency for employee stock options to be exercised earlier than similar exchange-traded or over-the-counter call options.
Consider a call option on a stock paying no dividends. In Section 11.5 we showed that,
if it is a regular call option, it should never be exercised early. The holder of the option will always do better by selling the option rather than exercising it before the end of its life. However, the arguments we used in Section 11.5 are not applicable to employee stock options because they cannot be sold. The only way employees can realize a cash benefit from the options (or diversify their holdings) is by exercising the options and selling the stock. It is therefore not unusual for an employee stock option to be exercised well before it would be optimal to exercise the option if it were a regular exchange-traded or over-the-counter option.
Should an employee ever exercise his or her options before maturity and then keep
the stock rather than selling it? Assume that the optionās strike price is constant during the life of the option and the option can be exercised at any time. To answer the question we consider two options: the employee stock option and an otherwise identical
regular option that can be sold in the market. We refer to the first option as option A
and the second as option B. If the stock pays no dividends, we know that option B should never be exercised early. It follows that it is not optimal to exercise option A and keep the stock. If the employee wants to maintain a stake in his or her company, a better strategy is to keep the option. This delays paying the strike price and maintains the insurance value of the option, as described in Section 11.5. Only when it is optimal
to exercise option B can it be a rational strategy for an employee to exercise option A before maturity and keep the stock.
1 As discussed in Section 15.12, it is optimal to
exercise option B only when a relatively high dividend is imminent.
In practice the early exercise behavior of employees varies widely from company to
company. In some companies, there is a culture of not exercising early; in others, employees tend to exercise options and sell the stock soon after the end of the vesting period, even if the options are only slightly in the money.
1 The only exception to this could be when an executive wants to own the stock for its voting rights.
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Employee Stock Options 373
Employee Stock Options and Alignment
- Early exercise behavior for employee stock options varies significantly based on corporate culture and dividend timing.
- Stock options are highly effective for motivating employees in start-up environments where success is tied to a potential IPO.
- The asymmetric payoff of options means executives gain from stock price increases but do not share the same downside losses as shareholders.
- Restricted stock units are often considered a superior alternative because they force executives to experience both gains and losses like regular investors.
- The structure of executive options may inadvertently encourage senior management to take excessive risks to drive up stock prices.
If the company does badly then the shareholders lose money, but all that happens to the executives is that they fail to make a gain.
exercise option B only when a relatively high dividend is imminent.
In practice the early exercise behavior of employees varies widely from company to
company. In some companies, there is a culture of not exercising early; in others, employees tend to exercise options and sell the stock soon after the end of the vesting period, even if the options are only slightly in the money.
1 The only exception to this could be when an executive wants to own the stock for its voting rights.
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Employee Stock Options 373
For investors to have confidence in capital markets, it is important that the interests of
shareholders and managers are reasonably well aligned. This means that managers should be motivated to make decisions that are in the best interests of shareholders. Managers are the agents of the shareholders and, as mentioned in Chapter 8, economists use the term agency costs to describe the losses experienced when the interests of agents
and principals are not aligned.
Do employee stock options help align the interests of employees and shareholders?
The answer to this question is not straightforward. There can be little doubt that they serve a useful purpose for a start-up company. The options are an excellent way for the main shareholders, who are usually also senior executives, to motivate employees to work long hours. If the company is successful and there is an IPO, the employees will do very well; but if the company is unsuccessful, the options will be worthless.
It is the options granted to the senior executives of publicly traded companies that
are most controversial. Executive stock options are sometimes referred to as an executiveās āpay for performance.ā If the companyās stock price goes up, so that
shareholders make gains, the executive is rewarded. However, this overlooks the
asymmetric payoffs of options. If the company does badly then the shareholders lose
money, but all that happens to the executives is that they fail to make a gain. Unlike the
shareholders, they do not experience a loss.
2 Many people think that a better type of
pay for performance is a restricted stock unit. This entitles the executive to own a share of the companyās stock at a particular future time (the vesting date). The gains and losses of the executives then mirror those of other shareholders. It is sometimes argued that the asymmetric payoffs of options can lead to senior executives taking risks they would not otherwise take. This may or may not be in the interests of the companyās shareholders.
What temptations do stock options create for a senior executive? Suppose an
Executive Compensation and Misaligned Incentives
- Restricted stock units are often preferred over options because they ensure executive gains and losses mirror those of shareholders more closely.
- The asymmetric payoff structure of stock options can incentivize senior executives to take excessive risks that may not benefit the company.
- Executives may be tempted to manipulate the timing of news or earnings reports to artificially inflate stock prices before exercising their options.
- The heavy weighting of options in compensation packages can distract management from long-term performance in favor of short-term profit chasing.
- One proposed solution to mitigate insider advantages is requiring executives to provide public notice before buying or selling company stock.
Senior management may spend too much time thinking about all the different aspects of their compensation and not enough time running the company.
pay for performance is a restricted stock unit. This entitles the executive to own a share of the companyās stock at a particular future time (the vesting date). The gains and losses of the executives then mirror those of other shareholders. It is sometimes argued that the asymmetric payoffs of options can lead to senior executives taking risks they would not otherwise take. This may or may not be in the interests of the companyās shareholders.
What temptations do stock options create for a senior executive? Suppose an
executive plans to exercise a large number of stock options in three months and sell
the stock. He or she might be tempted to time announcements of good newsāor even move earnings from one quarter to anotherāso that the stock price increases just before the options are exercised. Alternatively, if at-the-money options are due to be
granted to the executive in three months, the executive might be tempted to take actions that reduce the stock price just before the grant date. The type of behavior we are talking about here is of course totally unacceptableāand may well be illegal. But the backdating scandals, which are discussed later in this chapter, show that the way some executives have handled issues related to stock options leaves much to be desired.
Even when there is no impropriety of the type we have just mentioned, executive
stock options are liable to have the effect of motivating executives to focus on short-term profits at the expense of longer-term performance. Managers of large funds worry that, because stock options are such a huge component of an executiveās compensation, they are liable to be a big source of distraction. Senior management may spend too 16.2 DO OPTIONS ALIGN THE INTERESTS OF SHAREHOLDERS
AND MANAGERS?
2 When options have moved out of the money, companies have sometimes replaced them with new at-the-
money options. This practice known as ārepricingā leads to the executiveās gains and losses being even less
closely tied to those of the shareholders.
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374 CHAPTER 16
much time thinking about all the different aspects of their compensation and not
enough time running the company.
A managerās inside knowledge and ability to affect outcomes and announcements is
always liable to interact with his or her trading in a way that is to the disadvantage of other shareholders. One radical suggestion for mitigating this problem is to require executives to give notice to the marketāperhaps one weekās noticeāof an intention to buy or sell their companyās stock.
3 (Once the notice of an intention to trade had been
The Cost of Stock Options
- Managers' inside knowledge creates an inherent conflict of interest when they trade company stock, potentially disadvantaging other shareholders.
- A proposed solution to insider trading involves requiring executives to provide a binding one-week public notice before buying or selling shares.
- Despite corporate claims that at-the-money options are free, they represent a real cost to shareholders because there is no such thing as a free lunch.
- Accounting standards have evolved from simple footnote disclosures to requiring the full expensing of stock options at fair value on income statements.
- Current regulations require valuation only on the grant date, though some argue for continuous revaluation to match how other derivatives are treated.
The reality is that, if options are valuable to employees, they must represent a cost to the companyās shareholdersāand therefore to the company. There is no free lunch.
much time thinking about all the different aspects of their compensation and not
enough time running the company.
A managerās inside knowledge and ability to affect outcomes and announcements is
always liable to interact with his or her trading in a way that is to the disadvantage of other shareholders. One radical suggestion for mitigating this problem is to require executives to give notice to the marketāperhaps one weekās noticeāof an intention to buy or sell their companyās stock.
3 (Once the notice of an intention to trade had been
given, it would be binding on the executive.) This allows the market to form its own conclusions about why the executive is trading. As a result, the price may increase before the executive buys and decrease before the executive sells.
3 This would apply to the exercise of options because, if an executive wants to exercise options and sell the
stock that is acquired, then he or she would have to give notice of intention to sell.
4 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āAccounting for Employee Stock Options: A Practical Approach to Handling
the Valuation Issues,ā Journal of Derivatives Accounting, 1, 1 (2004): 3ā9.16.3 ACCOUNTING ISSUES
An employee stock option represents a cost to the company and a benefit to the employee just like any other form of compensation. This point, which for many is self-evident, is actually quite controversial. Many corporate executives appear to believe that an option has no value unless it is in the money. As a result, they argue that an at-the-money option issued by the company is not a cost to the company. The reality is that, if options are valuable to employees, they must represent a cost to the companyās shareholdersāand therefore to the company. There is no free lunch. The cost to the company of the options arises from the fact that the company has agreed that, if its stock does well, it will sell shares to employees at a price less than that which would apply in the open market.
Prior to 1995, the cost charged to the income statement of a company when it issued
stock options was the intrinsic value. Most options were at the money when they were first issued, so that this cost was zero. In 1995, accounting standard FAS 123 was issued. Many people expected it to require the expensing of options at their fair value. However, as a result of intense lobbying, the 1995 version of FAS 123 only encouraged
companies to expense the fair value of the options they granted on the income statement. It did not require them to do so. If fair value was not expensed on the
income statement, it had to be reported in a footnote to the companyās accounts.
Accounting standards have now changed to require the expensing of all stock-based
compensation at its fair value on the income statement. In February 2004, the Inter-national Accounting Standards Board issued IAS 2 requiring companies to start expensing stock options in 2005. In December 2004, FAS 123 was revised to require the expensing of employee stock options in the United States starting in 2005.
The effect of the new accounting standards is to require options to be valued on the
grant date and the amount to be recorded as an expense in the income statement for the year in which the grant is made. Valuation at a time later than the grant date is not required. It can be argued that options should be revalued at financial year ends (or every quarter) until they are exercised or reach the end of their lives.
4 This would treat
them in the same way as other derivative transactions entered into by the company. If the option became more valuable from one year to the next, there would then be an
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Employee Stock Options 375
Accounting for Stock Options
- New accounting standards introduced in 2004 require companies to expense employee stock options at their fair value on the grant date.
- Proponents of mark-to-market accounting argue that options should be revalued periodically until exercise to reflect their actual cost to the company.
- While revaluing options would reduce incentives for backdating, critics argue it introduces undesirable volatility into corporate income statements.
- The 2005 accounting shift has prompted companies to move away from traditional options toward alternatives like restricted stock units (RSUs).
- Market-leveraged stock units (MSUs) represent a more complex alternative where the final share count depends on the stock's performance relative to its grant price.
The disadvantage usually cited for accounting in this way is that it is undesirable because it introduces volatility into the income statement.
compensation at its fair value on the income statement. In February 2004, the Inter-national Accounting Standards Board issued IAS 2 requiring companies to start expensing stock options in 2005. In December 2004, FAS 123 was revised to require the expensing of employee stock options in the United States starting in 2005.
The effect of the new accounting standards is to require options to be valued on the
grant date and the amount to be recorded as an expense in the income statement for the year in which the grant is made. Valuation at a time later than the grant date is not required. It can be argued that options should be revalued at financial year ends (or every quarter) until they are exercised or reach the end of their lives.
4 This would treat
them in the same way as other derivative transactions entered into by the company. If the option became more valuable from one year to the next, there would then be an
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Employee Stock Options 375
additional amount to be expensed. However, if it declined in value, there would be a
positive impact on income.
This approach would have a number of advantages. The cumulative charge to the
company would reflect the actual cost of the options (either zero if the options are not exercised or the option payoff if they are exercised). Although the charge in any year would depend on the option pricing model used, the cumulative charge over the life of the option would not.
5 Arguably there would be much less incentive for the company to
engage in the backdating practices described later in the chapter. The disadvantage usually cited for accounting in this way is that it is undesirable because it introduces volatility into the income statement.
6
Alternatives to Stock Options
The accounting rules which came into effect in 2005 have led companies to consider alternatives to traditional compensation plans where at-the-money stock options are granted. We have already mentioned restricted stock units (RSUs), which are shares that will be owned by the employee at a future time (the vesting date). Many companies have replaced stock options by RSUs. A variation on an RSU is a market-leveraged stock unit (MSU), in which the number of shares that will be owned on the vesting date is equal to
ST>S0, where S0 is the stock price on the grant date and ST is the stock price
on the vesting date.7
Evolution of Executive Compensation
- New accounting rules introduced in 2005 prompted companies to shift away from traditional at-the-money stock options.
- Restricted stock units (RSUs) and market-leveraged stock units (MSUs) have emerged as popular alternatives for employee equity.
- To ensure executives are only rewarded for outperforming the market, some companies tie option strike prices to broad or sector-specific indices.
- Accounting standards allow for significant latitude in valuation methods, including the use of the BlackāScholesāMerton model.
- Adjusting strike prices based on index performance prevents employees from profiting solely from a rising tide in the general stock market.
The effect of this is that the companyās stock price performance has to beat that of the index to become in the money.
The accounting rules which came into effect in 2005 have led companies to consider alternatives to traditional compensation plans where at-the-money stock options are granted. We have already mentioned restricted stock units (RSUs), which are shares that will be owned by the employee at a future time (the vesting date). Many companies have replaced stock options by RSUs. A variation on an RSU is a market-leveraged stock unit (MSU), in which the number of shares that will be owned on the vesting date is equal to
ST>S0, where S0 is the stock price on the grant date and ST is the stock price
on the vesting date.7
If the stock market as a whole goes up, employees with stock options tend to do well,
even if their own companyās stock price underperforms the market. One way of over- coming this problem is to tie the strike price of the options to the performance of a broadly based index. Suppose that on the option grant date the stock price is $30 and the index is 2,000. The strike price would initially be set at $30. If the index increased by 10% to 2,200, then the strike price would also increase by 10% to $33. If the index moved down by 15% to 1,700, then the strike price would also move down by 15% to $25.50. The effect of this is that the companyās stock price performance has to beat that of the index to become in the money. As an alternative to using a broadly based index as the reference index, the company could use an index of the prices of stocks in the same industrial sector as the company.
5 Interestingly, if an option is settled in cash rather than by the company issuing new shares, it is subject to
the accounting treatment proposed here. (However, there is no economic difference between an option that is
settled in cash and one that is settled by selling new shares to the employee.)
6 In fact the income statement is likely be less volatile if stock options are revalued. When the company does
well, income is reduced by revaluing the executive stock options. When the company does badly, it is increased.
7 Sometimes there is an upper and lower bound to the number of shares which will vest and sometimes S0
and ST are defined as average stock prices over a number of days preceding the grant data and vesting date,
respectively. For an analysis of MSUs, see J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe Valuation of Market-Leveraged Stock Units,ā Journal of Derivatives, 21, 3 (Spring 2014): 85ā90.16.4 VALUATION
Accounting standards give companies quite a bit of latitude in choosing a method for
valuing employee stock options. In this section we review some of the alternatives.
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376 CHAPTER 16
Using the BlackāScholesāMerton Model
Valuing Employee Stock Options
- Standard stock options often reward employees for general market growth rather than specific company performance.
- Indexing the strike price to a broad market or industry benchmark ensures that options only gain value if the company outperforms its peers.
- The BlackāScholesāMerton model is frequently applied to employee options by substituting the option's contractual life with its 'expected life.'
- Using the expected life in valuation models lacks theoretical validity but remains a common practice accepted by accounting standards.
- Accounting for stock options can paradoxically reduce income volatility because option revaluation acts as a counter-cyclical buffer to company performance.
It should be emphasized that using the BlackāScholesāMerton formula in this way has no theoretical validity.
If the stock market as a whole goes up, employees with stock options tend to do well,
even if their own companyās stock price underperforms the market. One way of over- coming this problem is to tie the strike price of the options to the performance of a broadly based index. Suppose that on the option grant date the stock price is $30 and the index is 2,000. The strike price would initially be set at $30. If the index increased by 10% to 2,200, then the strike price would also increase by 10% to $33. If the index moved down by 15% to 1,700, then the strike price would also move down by 15% to $25.50. The effect of this is that the companyās stock price performance has to beat that of the index to become in the money. As an alternative to using a broadly based index as the reference index, the company could use an index of the prices of stocks in the same industrial sector as the company.
5 Interestingly, if an option is settled in cash rather than by the company issuing new shares, it is subject to
the accounting treatment proposed here. (However, there is no economic difference between an option that is
settled in cash and one that is settled by selling new shares to the employee.)
6 In fact the income statement is likely be less volatile if stock options are revalued. When the company does
well, income is reduced by revaluing the executive stock options. When the company does badly, it is increased.
7 Sometimes there is an upper and lower bound to the number of shares which will vest and sometimes S0
and ST are defined as average stock prices over a number of days preceding the grant data and vesting date,
respectively. For an analysis of MSUs, see J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe Valuation of Market-Leveraged Stock Units,ā Journal of Derivatives, 21, 3 (Spring 2014): 85ā90.16.4 VALUATION
Accounting standards give companies quite a bit of latitude in choosing a method for
valuing employee stock options. In this section we review some of the alternatives.
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376 CHAPTER 16
Using the BlackāScholesāMerton Model
A frequently used approach is based on what is known as the optionās expected life. This
is the average time for which employees hold the option before it is exercised or expires.
The expected life can be approximately estimated from historical data on the early exercise behavior of employees and reflects the vesting period, the impact of employees
leaving the company, and the tendency we mentioned in Section 16.1 for employee stock options to be exercised earlier than regular options. The BlackāScholesāMerton model is used with the life of the option, T , set equal to the expected life. The volatility is usually
estimated from several years of historical data as described in Section 15.4.
It should be emphasized that using the BlackāScholesāMerton formula in this way has
no theoretical validity. There is no reason why the value of a European stock option with the time to maturity, T , set equal to the expected life should be approximately the same as
the value of the American-style employee stock option that we are interested in. However, the results given by the model are not unreasonable in many situations. Companies, when reporting their employee stock option expense, will frequently mention the volatility and expected life used in their BlackāScholesāMerton computations.
Example 16.1
Valuing Employee Stock Options
- The expected life approach estimates the average time employees hold options before exercise or expiration to simplify valuation.
- While widely used for financial reporting, applying the BlackāScholesāMerton model to an option's expected life lacks theoretical validity.
- A more sophisticated alternative involves binomial trees that account for vesting periods and employee turnover rates.
- Quantifying the probability of early exercise is difficult but generally correlates with higher stock prices and approaching maturity dates.
- Companies must balance historical data on employee behavior with mathematical models to report stock option expenses accurately.
It should be emphasized that using the BlackāScholesāMerton formula in this way has no theoretical validity.
A frequently used approach is based on what is known as the optionās expected life. This
is the average time for which employees hold the option before it is exercised or expires.
The expected life can be approximately estimated from historical data on the early exercise behavior of employees and reflects the vesting period, the impact of employees
leaving the company, and the tendency we mentioned in Section 16.1 for employee stock options to be exercised earlier than regular options. The BlackāScholesāMerton model is used with the life of the option, T , set equal to the expected life. The volatility is usually
estimated from several years of historical data as described in Section 15.4.
It should be emphasized that using the BlackāScholesāMerton formula in this way has
no theoretical validity. There is no reason why the value of a European stock option with the time to maturity, T , set equal to the expected life should be approximately the same as
the value of the American-style employee stock option that we are interested in. However, the results given by the model are not unreasonable in many situations. Companies, when reporting their employee stock option expense, will frequently mention the volatility and expected life used in their BlackāScholesāMerton computations.
Example 16.1
A company grants 1,000,000 options to its executives on November 1, 2021. The
stock price on that date is $30 and the strike price of the options is also $30. The
options last for 10 years and vest after three years. The company has issued similar at-the-money options for the last 10 years. The average time to exercise
or expiry of these options is 4.5 years. The company therefore decides to use an
āexpected lifeā of 4.5 years. It estimates the long-term volatility of the stock price, using 5 years of historical data, to be 25%. The present value of dividends during the next 4.5 years is estimated to be $4. The 4.5-year zero-coupon risk-free interest rate is 5%. The option is therefore valued using the BlackāScholesā Merton model (adjusted for dividends in the way described in Section 15. 12)
with
S0=30-4=26, K=30, r=5,, s=25,, and T=4.5. The Blackā
ScholesāMerton formula gives the value of one option as $6.31. Hence, the income statement expense is
1,000,000*6.31, or $6,310,000.
Binomial Tree Approach
A more sophisticated approach to valuing employee stock options involves building a binomial tree as outlined in Chapter 13 and adjusting the rules used when rolling back through the tree to reflect (a) whether the option has vested, (b) the probability of the employee leaving the company, and (c) the probability of the employee choosing to
exercise the option. The terms of the option define whether the option has vested at different nodes of the tree. Historical data on turnover rates for employees can be used to estimate the probability of the option being either prematurely exercised or forfeited at a node because the employee leaves the company. The probability of an employee
choosing to exercise the option at different nodes of the tree is more difficult to quantify. Clearly this probability increases as the ratio of the stock price to the strike
price increases and as the time to the optionās maturity declines. If enough historical data is available, the probability of exercise as a function of these two variables can be estimatedāat least approximately.
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Employee Stock Options 377
Example 16.2
Suppose a company grants stock options that last 8 years and vest after 3 years.
The stock price and strike price are both $40. The stock price volatility is 30%, the
risk-free rate is 5%, and the company pays no dividends. Figure 16. 1 shows how a
four-step tree could be used to value the option. (This is for illustration; in practice more time steps would be used.) In this case,
s=0.3, āt=2, and r=0.05, so
that, with the notation of Chapter 13, a=e0.05*2=1.1052, u=e0.322=1.5285,
Valuing Employee Stock Options
- The text illustrates the valuation of employee stock options using a four-step binomial tree model over an eight-year period.
- Unlike standard options, employee options are subject to vesting periods and specific conditions regarding employee turnover and forfeiture.
- The model incorporates the probability of early exercise based on both voluntary employee choice and involuntary triggers like leaving the company.
- Calculations at each node account for risk-free rates, stock volatility, and the likelihood of the option being in or out of the money.
- Forfeiture occurs if an employee leaves before vesting or while the option is out of the money, significantly impacting the final valuation.
If an employee leaves the company before an option has vested or when the option is out of the money, the option is forfeited.
Employee Stock Options 377
Example 16.2
Suppose a company grants stock options that last 8 years and vest after 3 years.
The stock price and strike price are both $40. The stock price volatility is 30%, the
risk-free rate is 5%, and the company pays no dividends. Figure 16. 1 shows how a
four-step tree could be used to value the option. (This is for illustration; in practice more time steps would be used.) In this case,
s=0.3, āt=2, and r=0.05, so
that, with the notation of Chapter 13, a=e0.05*2=1.1052, u=e0.322=1.5285,
d=1>u=0.6543, and p=1a-d2>1u-d2=0.5158. The probability on the āup
branchesā is 0.5158 and the probability on the ādown branchesā is 0.4842. There are three nodes where early exercise could be desirable: D, G, and H. (The option has not vested at node B and is not in the money at the other nodes prior to maturity.) We assume that the probabilities that the holder will choose to exercise
at nodes D, G, and H (conditional on no earlier exercise) have been estimated as 40%, 80%, and 30%, respectively. We suppose that the probability of an em ployee
leaving the company during each time step is 5%. (This corresponds to an em -
ployee turnover rate of approximately 2.5% per year.) For the purposes of the calculation, it is assumed that employees always leave at the end of a time period.
If an employee leaves the company before an option has vested or when the option is out of the money, the option is forfeited. In other cases the option must be exercised immediately.
Figure 16.1 Valuation of employee stock option in Example 16. 2.
At each node:
Upper value 5 Underlying asset price
Lower value 5 Option price
Values in bold are a result of early exercise.
Strike price 5 40
Discount factor per step 5 0.9048
Time step, dt 5 2.0000 years, 730.00 days
Growth factor per step, a 5 1.1052 218.31
Probability of up move, p 5 0.5158 G 178.31
Up step size, u 5 1.5285 142.83
Down step size, d 5 0.6543 D 103.56
93.45 93.45
B 56.44 H 53.45
61.14 61.14
A 29.39 E 23.67
40.00 40.00 40.00
14.97 C 10.49 I 0.00
26.17 26.17
4.65 F 0.00
17.12 17.12
0.00 J 0.00
11.20
0.00
7.33
0.00
Node time:
0.0000 2.0000 4.0000 6.0000 8.0000
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378 CHAPTER 16
The value of the option at the final nodes is its intrinsic value. Consider the
nodes at time 6 years. Nodes I and J are easy. Since these nodes are certain to lead
to nodes where the option is worth nothing, the value of the option is zero at
these nodes. At node H there is a 30% chance that the employee will choose to exercise the option. In cases where the employee does not choose to exercise, there
is a 5% chance that the employee leaves the company and has to exercise. The total probability of exercise is therefore
0.3+0.7*0.05=0.335. If the option is
exercised, its value is 61.14-40=21.14. If it is not exercised, its value is
e-0.05*210.5158*53.45+0.4842*02=24.95
The value of the option at node H is therefore
0.335*21.14+0.665*24.95=23.67
The value at node G is similarly
0.81*102.83+0.19*106.64=103.56
We now move on to the nodes at time 4 years. At node F the option is clearly
worth zero. At node E there is a 5% chance that the employee will forfeit the option because he or she leaves the company and a 95% chance that the option will be retained. In the latter case the option is worth
e-0.05*210.5158*23.67+0.4842*02=11.05
Valuing Employee Stock Options
- The text details the mathematical valuation of employee stock options using binomial trees, accounting for factors like vesting periods and forfeiture risks.
- Employee options are often worth significantly less than regular market options due to the high probability of forfeiture if an employee leaves the company.
- Hull and White propose an 'exercise multiple' model where employees are assumed to exercise options once the stock price reaches a specific ratio relative to the strike price.
- Estimating an exercise multiple from historical data is often more reliable than predicting the expected life of an option, which is highly sensitive to stock price paths.
- Market-based approaches, such as selling identical instruments to institutional investors, have been attempted by companies like Cisco but faced regulatory hurdles from the SEC.
Cisco was the first to try this in 2006. It proposed selling options with the exact terms of its employee stock options to institutional investors.
exercised, its value is 61.14-40=21.14. If it is not exercised, its value is
e-0.05*210.5158*53.45+0.4842*02=24.95
The value of the option at node H is therefore
0.335*21.14+0.665*24.95=23.67
The value at node G is similarly
0.81*102.83+0.19*106.64=103.56
We now move on to the nodes at time 4 years. At node F the option is clearly
worth zero. At node E there is a 5% chance that the employee will forfeit the option because he or she leaves the company and a 95% chance that the option will be retained. In the latter case the option is worth
e-0.05*210.5158*23.67+0.4842*02=11.05
The option is therefore worth 0.95*11.05=10.49. At node D there is a 0.43
probability that the option will be exercised and a 0.57 chance that it will be retained. The value of the option is 56.44.
Consider next the initial node and the nodes at time 2 years. The option has not
vested at these nodes. There is a 5% chance that the option will be forfeited and a
95% chance that it will be retained for a further 2 years. This leads to the valuations shown in Figure 16. 1. The valuation of the option at the initial node
is 14.97. (This compares with a valuation of 17.98 for a regular option using the
same tree.)
Exercise Multiple Approach
Hull and White suggest a simple model where an employee exercises as soon as the option has vested and the ratio of the stock price to the strike price is above a certain level.
8 They refer to the ratio of stock price to strike price that triggers exercise as the
āexercise multipleā. The option can be valued using a binomial or trinomial tree. As outlined in Section 27.6, it is important to construct a binomial or trinomial tree where nodes lie on the stock prices that will lead to exercise. For example, if the strike price is
$30 and the assumption is that employees exercise when the ratio of the stock price to the strike price is 1.5, the tree should be constructed so that there are nodes at a stock
price level of $45. The tree calculations are similar to those for Example 16.2 and take account of the probability of an employee leaving the company.
9 To estimate the
exercise multiple, it is necessary to calculate from historical data the average ratio of
8 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āHow to value employee stock options,ā Financial Analysts Journal, 60, 1
(January/February 2004): 3ā9.
9 Software implementing this approach is on www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull.
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Employee Stock Options 379
stock price to strike price at the time of exercise. (Exercises at maturity and those arising
from the termination of the employeeās job are not included in the calculation of the
average.) This may be easier to estimate from historical data than the expected life
because the latter is quite heavily dependent on the particular path that has been followed by the stockās price.
A Market-Based Approach
One way of valuing an employee stock option is to see what the market would pay for
it. Cisco was the first to try this in 2006. It proposed selling options with the exact terms of its employee stock options to institutional investors. This approach was rejected by the SEC on the grounds that the range of investors bidding for the options was not wide enough.
Zions Bancorp has suggested an alternative approach. It proposed that securities
Valuing Employee Stock Options
- Market-based approaches attempt to value employee stock options by selling mirroring securities to institutional investors.
- Zions Bancorp developed a Dutch auction process to sell securities that provide payoffs based on actual employee exercise behavior.
- The SEC initially rejected market-based valuation attempts by Cisco, citing a lack of investor diversity in the bidding process.
- Stock price dilution occurs when the market first anticipates or hears about a grant, rather than at the moment of exercise.
- If the current market price already reflects anticipated dilution, no further adjustment to the option's valuation is required.
Suppose that the strike price for a particular grant to employees is $40 and it turns out that 1% of employees exercise after exactly 5 years when the stock price is $60, 2% exercise after exactly 6 years when the stock price is $65, and so on.
stock price to strike price at the time of exercise. (Exercises at maturity and those arising
from the termination of the employeeās job are not included in the calculation of the
average.) This may be easier to estimate from historical data than the expected life
because the latter is quite heavily dependent on the particular path that has been followed by the stockās price.
A Market-Based Approach
One way of valuing an employee stock option is to see what the market would pay for
it. Cisco was the first to try this in 2006. It proposed selling options with the exact terms of its employee stock options to institutional investors. This approach was rejected by the SEC on the grounds that the range of investors bidding for the options was not wide enough.
Zions Bancorp has suggested an alternative approach. It proposed that securities
providing payoffs mirroring those actually realized by its employees be sold. Suppose that the strike price for a particular grant to employees is $40 and it turns out that 1% of employees exercise after exactly 5 years when the stock price is $60, 2% exercise after exactly 6 years when the stock price is $65, and so on. Then 1% of the securities owned by an investor will provide a $20 payoff after 5 years, 2% will provide a payoff of $25 after 6 years, and so on.
Zions Bancorp tested the idea using its own stock option grant to its employees. It
sold the securities using a Dutch auction process. In this individuals or companies can submit a bid indicating the price they are prepared to pay and the number of options they are prepared to buy. The clearing price is the highest bid such that the aggregate number of options sought at that price or a higher price equals or exceeds the number of options for sale. Buyers who have bid more than the clearing price get their orders filled at the clearing price and the buyer who bid the clearing price gets the remainder. Zions Bancorp announced that it had received SEC approval for its market-based approach in October 2007, but the approach has not been used to any great extent.
Dilution
The fact that a company issues new stock when an employee stock option is exercised leads to some dilution for existing stock holders because new shares are being sold to
employees at below the current stock price. It is natural to assume that this dilution
takes place at the time the option is exercised. However, this is not the case. As explained in Section 15.10, stock prices are diluted when the market first hears about a stock option grant. The possible exercise of options is anticipated and immediately reflected in the stock price. This point is emphasized by the example in Business
Snapshot 15.3.
The stock price immediately after a grant is announced to the public reflects any
dilution. Provided that this stock price is used in the valuation of the option, it is not necessary to adjust the option price for dilution. In many instances the market expects a
company to make regular stock option grants and so the market price of the stock anticipates dilution even before the announcement is made.
If a company is contemplating a stock option grant that will surprise the market, the
cost can be calculated as described in Example 15.7. This cost can be compared with
benefits such as lower regular employee remuneration and less employee turnover.
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380 CHAPTER 16
No discussion of employee stock options would be complete without mentioning a
Stock Options and Backdating
- Stock price dilution occurs when the market first anticipates or hears about a stock option grant, rather than at the moment of exercise.
- If the current market price already reflects anticipated dilution, no further adjustment is needed to value the options.
- Backdating involves illegally marking option grant dates in the past to secure a lower strike price without reporting the options as being in-the-money.
- Statistical research between 1993 and 2002 revealed that stock prices were suspiciously at a low point on reported grant dates, suggesting widespread manipulation.
- The SEC addressed this scandal in 2002 by requiring companies to report option grants within two business days, which significantly curtailed the practice.
The stock price on a reported grant date was on average lower than that on each of the 30 days before the grant date and lower than that on each of the 30 days after the grant date.
The fact that a company issues new stock when an employee stock option is exercised leads to some dilution for existing stock holders because new shares are being sold to
employees at below the current stock price. It is natural to assume that this dilution
takes place at the time the option is exercised. However, this is not the case. As explained in Section 15.10, stock prices are diluted when the market first hears about a stock option grant. The possible exercise of options is anticipated and immediately reflected in the stock price. This point is emphasized by the example in Business
Snapshot 15.3.
The stock price immediately after a grant is announced to the public reflects any
dilution. Provided that this stock price is used in the valuation of the option, it is not necessary to adjust the option price for dilution. In many instances the market expects a
company to make regular stock option grants and so the market price of the stock anticipates dilution even before the announcement is made.
If a company is contemplating a stock option grant that will surprise the market, the
cost can be calculated as described in Example 15.7. This cost can be compared with
benefits such as lower regular employee remuneration and less employee turnover.
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380 CHAPTER 16
No discussion of employee stock options would be complete without mentioning a
backdating scandal. Backdating is the practice of marking a document with a date that precedes the current date.
Suppose that a company decides to grant at-the-money options to its executives on
April 30 when the stock price is $50. If the stock price was $42 on April 3, it is tempting to
behave as if those the options were granted on April 3 and use a strike price of $42. This is
legal provided that the company reports the options as $8 in the money on the date when the decision to grant the options is made, April 30. But it is illegal for the company to
report the options as at-the-money and granted on April 3. The value on April 3 of an option with a strike price of $42 is much less than its value on April 30. Shareholders are misled about the true cost of the decision to grant options if the company reports the
options as granted on April 3.
Prior to 2002, it appears that backdating was not uncommon. Early research by
Yermack shows that stock prices tend to increase after reported grant dates.
10 Lie
extended Yermackās work, showing that stock prices also tended to decrease before reported grant dates.
11 The period covered by this research was 1993 to 2002. The
research clearly shows that stock prices tended to be at a low point on reported grant dates. The stock price on a reported grant date was on average lower than that on each of the 30 days before the grant date and lower than that on each of the 30 days after the
grant date. Statistical tests carried out by the researchers showed that this could not have happened by chance. The research led regulators to conclude that backdating was occurring. In August 2002, the SEC required option grants by public companies to be reported within two business days. Heron and Lie showed that this led to a dramatic
change in the stock price patterns around the grant dateāparticularly for those companies that complied with the SEC rule.
12 Reported grant dates were no longer
The Backdating Scandal
- Statistical research revealed that stock prices were suspiciously at their lowest points on reported grant dates, suggesting systematic backdating.
- In response to these findings, the SEC mandated in 2002 that option grants must be reported within two business days to curb manipulation.
- The practice of backdating led to significant legal consequences, including prison sentences for CEOs and massive financial restatements for companies.
- While some argued managers were simply timing grants around news, data shows backdating was the primary driver of the observed price patterns.
- Accounting standards eventually shifted to require the expensing of options, removing the previous accounting advantages of at-the-money grants.
Allegedly, Mr. Reyes said to a human resources employee: āIt is not illegal if you do not get caught.ā
research clearly shows that stock prices tended to be at a low point on reported grant dates. The stock price on a reported grant date was on average lower than that on each of the 30 days before the grant date and lower than that on each of the 30 days after the
grant date. Statistical tests carried out by the researchers showed that this could not have happened by chance. The research led regulators to conclude that backdating was occurring. In August 2002, the SEC required option grants by public companies to be reported within two business days. Heron and Lie showed that this led to a dramatic
change in the stock price patterns around the grant dateāparticularly for those companies that complied with the SEC rule.
12 Reported grant dates were no longer
low-stock-price dates. It might be argued that the patterns observed by Yermack and
Lie can be explained by managers choosing grant dates after bad news or before good news, but Heron and Lieās research shows that, although there might been a tendency for this to happen, it is not the major explanation of the Yermack and Lie results.
Estimates of the number of companies that illegally backdated stock option grants in
the United States vary widely. Tens and maybe hundreds of companies seem to have engaged in the practice. Many companies seem to have adopted the view that it was acceptable to backdate up to one month. Some CEOs resigned when their backdating practices came to light. In August 2007, Gregory Reyes of Brocade Communications Systems, Inc., became the first CEO to be tried for backdating stock option grants. Allegedly, Mr. Reyes said to a human resources employee: āIt is not illegal if you do not get caught.ā In June 2010, he was sentenced to 18 months in prison and fined $15 million.
Companies involved in backdating have had to restate past financial statements and
have been defendants in class action suits brought by shareholders who claim to have lost money as a result of backdating. For example, McAfee announced in December 16.5 THE BACKDATING SCANDAL
10 See D. Yermack, āGood timing: CEO stock option awards and company news announcements,ā Journal
of Finance, 52 (1997), 449ā476.
11 See E. Lie, āOn the timing of CEO stock option awards,ā Management Science, 51, 5 (May 2005), 802ā12.
12 See R. Heron and E. Lie, āDoes backdating explain the stock price pattern around executive stock option
grants,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 83, 2 (February 2007), 271ā95.
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Employee Stock Options 381
2007 that it would restate earnings between 1995 and 2005 by $137.4 million. In 2006, it
set aside $13.8 million to cover lawsuits.
SUMMARY
Until 2005, at-the-money stock option grants were a very attractive form of compensa-tion. They had no impact on the income statement and were very valuable to employees. Accounting standards now require options to be expensed.
There are a number of different approaches to valuing employee stock options. A
common approach is to use the BlackāScholesāMerton model with the life of the option set equal to the expected time to exercise or expiry of the option. Another approach is to assume that options are exercised as soon as the ratio of the stock price to the strike price reaches a certain barrier. A third approach is to try and estimate the
relationship between the probability of exercise, the ratio of the stock price to the strike price, and the time to option maturity. A fourth approach is to create a market for securities that replicate the payoffs on the options.
Academic research has shown beyond doubt that many companies have engaged in
the illegal practice of backdating stock option grants in order to reduce the strike price, while still contending that the options were at the money. The first prosecutions for this illegal practice were in 2007.
FURTHER READING
Employee Stock Option Valuation
- Prior to 2005, at-the-money stock options were favored because they did not impact a company's income statement.
- Current accounting standards now mandate that employee stock options must be recorded as an expense.
- Valuation methods vary from using the BlackāScholesāMerton model to creating market securities that replicate option payoffs.
- Academic research uncovered widespread illegal backdating of grants to artificially lower strike prices while claiming they were at the money.
- The first legal prosecutions for the practice of backdating stock options began in 2007.
Academic research has shown beyond doubt that many companies have engaged in the illegal practice of backdating stock option grants in order to reduce the strike price, while still contending that the options were at the money.
Until 2005, at-the-money stock option grants were a very attractive form of compensa-tion. They had no impact on the income statement and were very valuable to employees. Accounting standards now require options to be expensed.
There are a number of different approaches to valuing employee stock options. A
common approach is to use the BlackāScholesāMerton model with the life of the option set equal to the expected time to exercise or expiry of the option. Another approach is to assume that options are exercised as soon as the ratio of the stock price to the strike price reaches a certain barrier. A third approach is to try and estimate the
relationship between the probability of exercise, the ratio of the stock price to the strike price, and the time to option maturity. A fourth approach is to create a market for securities that replicate the payoffs on the options.
Academic research has shown beyond doubt that many companies have engaged in
the illegal practice of backdating stock option grants in order to reduce the strike price, while still contending that the options were at the money. The first prosecutions for this illegal practice were in 2007.
FURTHER READING
Carpenter, J., āThe Exercise and Valuation of Executive Stock Options, ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 48, 2 (May 1998): 127ā58.
Core, J. E., and W. R. Guay, āStock Option Plans for Non-Executive Employees, ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 61, 2 (2001): 253ā87.
Heron, R., and E. Lie, āDoes Backdating Explain the Stock Price Pattern around Executive
Stock Option Grants, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 83, 2 (February 2007): 271 ā95.
Huddart, S., and M. Lang, āEmployee Stock Option Exercises: An Empirical Analysis, ā Journal
of Accounting and Economics, 21, 1 (February): 5ā43.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āHow to Value Employee Stock Options, ā Financial Analysts Journal,
60, 1 (January/February 2004): 3ā9.
Lie, E., āOn the Timing of CEO Stock Option Awards, ā Management Science, 51, 5 (May 2005):
802ā12.
Yermack, D., āGood Timing: CEO Stock Option Awards and Company News Announcements, ā
Journal of Finance, 52 (1997): 449ā76.
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382 CHAPTER 16
Practice Questions
Employee Stock Option Analysis
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of academic research focusing on the valuation, exercise patterns, and timing of executive stock options.
- Practice questions challenge the ethical and economic rationale of using stock options as a primary tool for motivating executive performance.
- Specific exercises address the controversial practice of backdating and how quarterly revaluation might mitigate its financial benefits.
- The material explores the technical complexities of valuing options using the Black-Scholes-Merton model, specifically regarding expected life and volatility.
- Quantitative problems illustrate the accounting impact of stock options, including how companies must report expenses even when stock prices decline significantly.
āGranting stock options to executives is like allowing a professional footballer to bet on the outcome of games.ā
Carpenter, J., āThe Exercise and Valuation of Executive Stock Options, ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 48, 2 (May 1998): 127ā58.
Core, J. E., and W. R. Guay, āStock Option Plans for Non-Executive Employees, ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 61, 2 (2001): 253ā87.
Heron, R., and E. Lie, āDoes Backdating Explain the Stock Price Pattern around Executive
Stock Option Grants, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 83, 2 (February 2007): 271 ā95.
Huddart, S., and M. Lang, āEmployee Stock Option Exercises: An Empirical Analysis, ā Journal
of Accounting and Economics, 21, 1 (February): 5ā43.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āHow to Value Employee Stock Options, ā Financial Analysts Journal,
60, 1 (January/February 2004): 3ā9.
Lie, E., āOn the Timing of CEO Stock Option Awards, ā Management Science, 51, 5 (May 2005):
802ā12.
Yermack, D., āGood Timing: CEO Stock Option Awards and Company News Announcements, ā
Journal of Finance, 52 (1997): 449ā76.
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382 CHAPTER 16
Practice Questions
16.1. āStock option grants are good because they motivate executives to act in the best
interests of shareholders. ā Discuss this viewpoint.
16.2. āGranting stock options to executives is like allowing a professional footballer to bet on
the outcome of games. ā Discuss this viewpoint.
16.3. In what way would the benefits of backdating be reduced if a stock option grant had to be revalued at the end of each quarter?
16.4. Explain how you would do an analysis similar to that of Yermack and Lie to determine whether the backdating of stock option grants was happening.
16.5. On May 31 a companyās stock price is $70. One million shares are outstanding. An executive exercises 100,000 stock options with a strike price of $50. What is the impact of
this on the stock price?
16.6. The notes accompanying a companyās financial statements say: āOur executive stock options last 10 years and vest after 4 years. We valued the options granted this year using the BlackāScholesāMerton model with an expected life of 5 years and a volatility of 20%. ā What does this mean? Discuss the modeling approach used by the company.
16.7 . In a Dutch auction of 10,000 options, bids are as follows: A bids $30 for 3,000; B bids $33 for 2,500; C bids $29 for 5,000; D bids $40 for 1,000; E bids $22 for 8,000; and
F bids $35 for 6,000. What is the result of the auction? Who buys how many at what price?
16.8. A company has granted 500,000 options to its executives. The stock price and strike price are both $40. The options last for 12 years and vest after 4 years. The company decides to value the options using an expected life of 5 years and a volatility of 30% per
annum. The company pays no dividends and the risk-free rate is 4%. What will the company report as an expense for the options on its income statement?
16.9. A companyās CFO says: āThe accounting treatment of stock options is crazy. We
granted 10,000,000 at-the-money stock options to our employees last year when the stock price was $30. We estimated the value of each option on the grant date to be $5. At our year-end the stock price had fallen to $4, but we were still stuck with a $50 million charge to the P&L. ā Discuss.
16.10. What is the (risk-neutral) expected life for the employee stock option in Example 16. 2?
What is the value of the option obtained by using this expected life in BlackāScholesā
Merton?
16.11. A company has granted 2,000,000 options to its employees. The stock price and strike price are both $60. The options last for 8 years and vest after 2 years. The company decides to value the options using an expected life of 6 years and a volatility of 22% per annum. Dividends on the stock are $1 per year, payable halfway through each year, and the risk-free rate is 5%. What will the company report as an expense for the options on its income statement?
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Employee Stock Options 383
Employee Stock Option Analysis
- The text presents a series of discussion questions and quantitative problems regarding the valuation and ethical implications of executive stock options.
- It explores the controversial practice of backdating options and how accounting revaluations might mitigate the benefits of such manipulation.
- Mathematical exercises require applying the BlackāScholesāMerton model to determine financial statement expenses based on expected life and volatility.
- The material compares executive compensation structures to hedge fund incentive fees, questioning if both encourage similar risk-taking behaviors.
- Specific scenarios illustrate the disconnect between grant-date accounting charges and subsequent declines in actual stock market value.
Granting stock options to executives is like allowing a professional footballer to bet on the outcome of games.
16.1. āStock option grants are good because they motivate executives to act in the best
interests of shareholders. ā Discuss this viewpoint.
16.2. āGranting stock options to executives is like allowing a professional footballer to bet on
the outcome of games. ā Discuss this viewpoint.
16.3. In what way would the benefits of backdating be reduced if a stock option grant had to be revalued at the end of each quarter?
16.4. Explain how you would do an analysis similar to that of Yermack and Lie to determine whether the backdating of stock option grants was happening.
16.5. On May 31 a companyās stock price is $70. One million shares are outstanding. An executive exercises 100,000 stock options with a strike price of $50. What is the impact of
this on the stock price?
16.6. The notes accompanying a companyās financial statements say: āOur executive stock options last 10 years and vest after 4 years. We valued the options granted this year using the BlackāScholesāMerton model with an expected life of 5 years and a volatility of 20%. ā What does this mean? Discuss the modeling approach used by the company.
16.7 . In a Dutch auction of 10,000 options, bids are as follows: A bids $30 for 3,000; B bids $33 for 2,500; C bids $29 for 5,000; D bids $40 for 1,000; E bids $22 for 8,000; and
F bids $35 for 6,000. What is the result of the auction? Who buys how many at what price?
16.8. A company has granted 500,000 options to its executives. The stock price and strike price are both $40. The options last for 12 years and vest after 4 years. The company decides to value the options using an expected life of 5 years and a volatility of 30% per
annum. The company pays no dividends and the risk-free rate is 4%. What will the company report as an expense for the options on its income statement?
16.9. A companyās CFO says: āThe accounting treatment of stock options is crazy. We
granted 10,000,000 at-the-money stock options to our employees last year when the stock price was $30. We estimated the value of each option on the grant date to be $5. At our year-end the stock price had fallen to $4, but we were still stuck with a $50 million charge to the P&L. ā Discuss.
16.10. What is the (risk-neutral) expected life for the employee stock option in Example 16. 2?
What is the value of the option obtained by using this expected life in BlackāScholesā
Merton?
16.11. A company has granted 2,000,000 options to its employees. The stock price and strike price are both $60. The options last for 8 years and vest after 2 years. The company decides to value the options using an expected life of 6 years and a volatility of 22% per annum. Dividends on the stock are $1 per year, payable halfway through each year, and the risk-free rate is 5%. What will the company report as an expense for the options on its income statement?
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Employee Stock Options 383
16.12. (a) Hedge funds earn a management fee plus an incentive fee that is a percentage of the
profits, if any, that they generate (see Business Snapshot 1. 3). How is a fund manager
motivated to behave with this type of compensation package?
(b) āGranting options to an executive gives the executive the same type of compensation package as a hedge fund manager and motivates him or her to behave in the same way as a hedge fund manager. ā Discuss this statement.
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384
Options on
Stock Indices and
Currencies
Index Options and Portfolio Insurance
- Hedge fund compensation structures, involving management and incentive fees, create specific behavioral motivations similar to executive stock options.
- Stock index options are typically settled in cash rather than physical delivery, with one contract usually representing 100 times the index value.
- Valuation models for index and currency options are derived by treating them as analogous to stocks that pay a known dividend yield.
- Portfolio managers utilize index put options as a form of insurance to limit downside risk for well-diversified holdings.
- The effectiveness of using index options for insurance depends on the portfolio's beta and its correlation with the underlying market index.
It is then argued that both stock indices and currencies are analogous to stocks paying dividend yields.
16.12. (a) Hedge funds earn a management fee plus an incentive fee that is a percentage of the
profits, if any, that they generate (see Business Snapshot 1. 3). How is a fund manager
motivated to behave with this type of compensation package?
(b) āGranting options to an executive gives the executive the same type of compensation package as a hedge fund manager and motivates him or her to behave in the same way as a hedge fund manager. ā Discuss this statement.
M16_HULL0654_11_GE_C16.indd 383 30/04/2021 17:32
384
Options on
Stock Indices and
Currencies
Options on stock indices and currencies were introduced in Chapter 10. This chapter
discusses them in more detail. It explains how they work and reviews some of the ways they can be used. In the second half of the chapter, the valuation results in Chapter 15 are extended to cover European options on a stock paying a known dividend yield. It is
then argued that both stock indices and currencies are analogous to stocks paying dividend yields. This enables the results for options on a stock paying a dividend yield
to be applied to these types of options as well.17 CHAPTER
Several exchanges trade options on stock indices. Some of the indices track the move-ment of the market as a whole. Others are based on the performance of a particular sector (e.g., computer technology, oil and gas, transportation, or telecoms). Among the index options traded on the Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE) are American and European options on the S&P 100 (OEX and XEO), European options on the S&P 500 (SPX), European options on the Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJX), and Euro-pean options on the Nasdaq 100 (NDX). In Chapter 10, we explained that the CBOE trades LEAPS and flex options on individual stocks. It also offers these option products on indices.
One index option contract is usually on 100 times the index. (Note that the Dow
Jones index used for index options is 0.01 times the usually quoted Dow Jones index.) Index options are settled in cash. This means that, on exercise of the option, the holder of a call option contract receives
1S-K2*100 in cash and the writer of the option pays
this amount in cash, where S is the value of the index at the close of trading on the day
of the exercise and K is the strike price. Similarly, the holder of a put option contract receives
1K-S2*100 in cash and the writer of the option pays this amount in cash.
Portfolio Insurance
Portfolio managers can use options on a well-diversified index to limit their downside risk. Suppose that the value of the index today is
S0. Consider a manager in charge of a
well-diversified portfolio whose beta is 1.0. A beta of 1.0 implies that the returns from the 17.1 OPTIONS ON STOCK INDICES
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 385
portfolio mirror those from the index. Assuming the dividend yield from the portfolio is
the same as the dividend yield from the index, the percentage changes in the value of the
portfolio can be expected to be approximately the same as the percentage changes in the value of the index. Since each contract is on 100 times the index, it follows that the value
of the portfolio is protected against the possibility of the index falling below K if, for each
100S0 dollars in the portfolio, the manager buys one put option contract with strike price
K. Suppose that the managerās portfolio is worth $500,000 and the value of the index is
currently 1,000. The portfolio is worth 500 times the index. The manager can obtain
insurance against the value of the portfolio dropping below $450,000 in the next three
months by buying five three-month put option contracts on the index with a strike price of 900.
To illustrate how the insurance works, consider the situation where the index drops
to 880 in three months. The portfolio will be worth about $440,000. The payoff from the options will be
Hedging Portfolios with Index Options
- Portfolio managers can use index put options to provide insurance against the value of their holdings dropping below a specific floor.
- When a portfolio's beta is 1.0, the manager buys one put option contract for every 100 times the index value represented in the portfolio.
- For portfolios with a beta other than 1.0, the number of required put options must be adjusted by multiplying the standard hedge ratio by the portfolio's beta.
- The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is utilized to determine the appropriate strike price by calculating the expected portfolio value relative to index movements.
- The payoff from the put options is designed to compensate for the portfolio's loss, effectively bringing the total value back up to the desired insured level.
The strike price for the options that are purchased should be the index level corresponding to the protection level required on the portfolio.
portfolio mirror those from the index. Assuming the dividend yield from the portfolio is
the same as the dividend yield from the index, the percentage changes in the value of the
portfolio can be expected to be approximately the same as the percentage changes in the value of the index. Since each contract is on 100 times the index, it follows that the value
of the portfolio is protected against the possibility of the index falling below K if, for each
100S0 dollars in the portfolio, the manager buys one put option contract with strike price
K. Suppose that the managerās portfolio is worth $500,000 and the value of the index is
currently 1,000. The portfolio is worth 500 times the index. The manager can obtain
insurance against the value of the portfolio dropping below $450,000 in the next three
months by buying five three-month put option contracts on the index with a strike price of 900.
To illustrate how the insurance works, consider the situation where the index drops
to 880 in three months. The portfolio will be worth about $440,000. The payoff from the options will be
5*1900-8802*100=+10,000, bringing the total value of the
portfolio up to the insured value of $450,000.
When the Portfolioās Beta Is Not 1.0
If the portfolioās beta 1b2 is not 1.0, b put options must be purchased for each 100S0
dollars in the portfolio, where S0 is the current value of the index. Suppose that the
$500,000 portfolio just considered has a beta of 2.0 instead of 1.0. We continue to
assume that the index is 1,000. The number of put options required is
2.0*500,000
1,000*100=10
rather than 5 as before.
To calculate the appropriate strike price, the capital asset pricing model can be used
(see the appendix to Chapter 3). Suppose that the risk free rate is 12%, the dividend yield on both the index and the portfolio is 4%, and protection is required against the value of the portfolio dropping below $450,000 in the next three months. Under the
Value of index in three months: 1,040
Return from change in index: 40>1,000, or 4% per three months
Dividends from index: 0.25*4=1, per three months
Total return from index: 4+1=5, per three months
Risk-free interest rate: 0.25*12=3, per three months
Excess return from index
over risk-free interest rate: 5-3=2, per three months
Expected excess return from portfolio
over risk-free interest rate: 2*2=4, per three months
Expected return from portfolio: 3+4=7, per three months
Dividends from portfolio: 0.25*4=1, per three months
Expected increase in value of portfolio: 7-1=6, per three months
Expected value of portfolio: +500,000*1.06=+530,000Table 17.1 Calculation of expected value of portfolio when the index is 1,040 in
three months and b=2.0.
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386 CHAPTER 17
capital asset pricing model, the expected excess return of a portfolio over the risk-free
rate is assumed to equal beta times the excess return of the index portfolio over the risk- free rate. The model enables the expected value of the portfolio to be calculated for
different values of the index at the end of three months. Table 1 7.1 shows the calcula-
tions for the case where the index is 1,040. In this case, the expected value of the
portfolio at the end of the three months is $530,000. Similar calculations can be carried
out for other values of the index at the end of the three months. The results are shown in
Table 17.2. The strike price for the options that are purchased should be the index level
corresponding to the protection level required on the portfolio. In this case, the
protection level is $450,000 and so the correct strike price for the 10 put option contracts
that are purchased is 960.
1
To illustrate how the insurance works, consider what happens if the value of the
index falls to 880. As shown in Table 1 7.2, the value of the portfolio is then about
$370,000. The put options pay off 1960-8802*10*100=+80,000, and this is exactly
Hedging Portfolios and Currency Options
- The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is used to determine the expected value of a portfolio based on index performance and the portfolio's beta.
- Portfolio insurance is achieved by purchasing put options with a strike price that corresponds to the desired protection level of the assets.
- Higher portfolio betas increase hedging costs because they require more put options and higher strike prices to maintain the same level of protection.
- Currency options are predominantly traded in the over-the-counter market, allowing for customized strike prices and expiration dates for corporate treasurers.
- European currency options provide the right to buy or sell a specific amount of foreign currency at a fixed exchange rate to hedge against market volatility.
The examples in this section show that there are two reasons why the cost of hedging increases as the beta of a portfolio increases.
capital asset pricing model, the expected excess return of a portfolio over the risk-free
rate is assumed to equal beta times the excess return of the index portfolio over the risk- free rate. The model enables the expected value of the portfolio to be calculated for
different values of the index at the end of three months. Table 1 7.1 shows the calcula-
tions for the case where the index is 1,040. In this case, the expected value of the
portfolio at the end of the three months is $530,000. Similar calculations can be carried
out for other values of the index at the end of the three months. The results are shown in
Table 17.2. The strike price for the options that are purchased should be the index level
corresponding to the protection level required on the portfolio. In this case, the
protection level is $450,000 and so the correct strike price for the 10 put option contracts
that are purchased is 960.
1
To illustrate how the insurance works, consider what happens if the value of the
index falls to 880. As shown in Table 1 7.2, the value of the portfolio is then about
$370,000. The put options pay off 1960-8802*10*100=+80,000, and this is exactly
what is necessary to move the total value of the portfolio managerās position up from $370,000 to the required level of $450,000.
The examples in this section show that there are two reasons why the cost of hedging
increases as the beta of a portfolio increases. More put options are required and they have a higher strike price.Value of index
in three monthsValue of portfolio
in three months ($)
1,080 570,000
1,040 530,000
1 ,000 490,000
960 450,000
920 410,000
880 370,000Table 17.2 Relationship between value of index
and value of portfolio for b=2.0.
1 Approximately 1% of $500,000, or $5,000, will be earned in dividends over the next three months. If we
want the insured level of $450,000 to include dividends, we can choose a strike price corresponding to
$445,000 rather than $450,000. This is 955.17.2 CURRENCY OPTIONS
Currency options are primarily traded in the over-the-counter market. The advantage
of this market is that large trades are possible, with strike prices, expiration dates, and other features tailored to meet the needs of corporate treasurers. Although currency options do trade on NASDAQ OMX in the United States, the exchange-traded market for these options is much smaller than the over-the-counter market.
An example of a European call option is a contract that gives the holder the right to
buy one million euros with U.S. dollars at an exchange rate of 1.1000 U.S. dollars per
euro. If the actual exchange rate at the maturity of the option is 1.1500, the payoff is
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 387
1,000,000*11.1500-1.10002=+50,000. Similarly, an example of a European put
option is a contract that gives the holder the right to sell ten million Australian
dollars for U.S. dollars at an exchange rate of 0.7000 U.S. dollars per Australian
dollar. If the actual exchange rate at the maturity of the option is 0.6700, the payoff is
10,000,000*10.7000-0.67002=+300,000.
For a corporation wishing to hedge a foreign exchange exposure, foreign currency
Currency Options and Range Forwards
- Foreign currency options provide the right to buy or sell specific amounts of currency at a predetermined exchange rate.
- Unlike forward contracts that lock in a specific rate, options act as insurance by protecting against downside risk while allowing for upside gains.
- The primary disadvantage of using options for hedging is the requirement of an upfront premium payment, whereas forward contracts are free to enter.
- A range forward contract is a hybrid strategy created by buying a put and selling a call, effectively creating a flexible exchange rate window.
- Range forwards allow companies to eliminate the upfront cost of an option while still maintaining some participation in favorable market movements.
Whereas a forward contract locks in the exchange rate for a future transaction, an option provides a type of insurance.
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 387
1,000,000*11.1500-1.10002=+50,000. Similarly, an example of a European put
option is a contract that gives the holder the right to sell ten million Australian
dollars for U.S. dollars at an exchange rate of 0.7000 U.S. dollars per Australian
dollar. If the actual exchange rate at the maturity of the option is 0.6700, the payoff is
10,000,000*10.7000-0.67002=+300,000.
For a corporation wishing to hedge a foreign exchange exposure, foreign currency
options are an alternative to forward contracts. A U.S. company due to receive sterling at
a known time in the future can hedge its risk by buying put options on sterling that
mature at that time. The hedging strategy guarantees that the exchange rate applicable to
the sterling will not be less than the strike price, while allowing the company to benefit from any favorable exchange-rate movements. Similarly, a U.S. company due to pay sterling at a known time in the future can hedge by buying calls on sterling that mature at
that time. This hedging strategy guarantees that the cost of the sterling will not be greater
than a certain amount while allowing the company to benefit from favorable exchange-rate movements. Whereas a forward contract locks in the exchange rate for a future transaction, an option provides a type of insurance. This is not free. It costs nothing to enter into a forward transaction, but options require a premium to be paid up front.
Range Forwards
A range forward contract is a variation on a standard forward contract for hedging
foreign exchange risk. Consider a U.S. company that knows it will receive one million pounds sterling in three months. Suppose that the three-month forward exchange rate is 1.3200 dollars per pound. The company could lock in this exchange rate for the dollars it receives by entering into a short forward contract to sell one million pounds sterling
in three months. This would ensure that the amount received for the one million
pounds is $1,320,000.
An alternative is to buy a European put option with a strike price of
K1 and sell a
European call option with a strike price K2, where K161.32006K2. This is known as a
short position in a range forward contract. The payoff is shown in Figure 17.1a. Both
options are on one million pounds. If the exchange rate in three months proves to be less
than K1, the put option is exercised and as a result the company is able to sell the
Figure 17.1 Payoffs from (a) short and (b) long position in a range forward contract.
Payof f
K1 K2
(a)Asset
pricePayoff
K1 K2
(b)Asset
price
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388 CHAPTER 17
Range Forward Contracts
- A range forward contract is constructed by combining a long position in one option with a short position in another to hedge currency risk.
- In a short range forward, a company protects a currency inflow by buying a put at strike K1 and selling a call at strike K2.
- A long range forward protects a currency outflow by selling a put at strike K1 and buying a call at strike K2.
- These contracts are typically structured as zero-cost instruments where the premium of the purchased option equals the premium of the sold option.
- As the two strike prices converge toward each other, the range forward contract mathematically transforms into a standard forward contract.
In practice, a range forward contract is set up so that the price of the put option equals the price of the call option.
European call option with a strike price K2, where K161.32006K2. This is known as a
short position in a range forward contract. The payoff is shown in Figure 17.1a. Both
options are on one million pounds. If the exchange rate in three months proves to be less
than K1, the put option is exercised and as a result the company is able to sell the
Figure 17.1 Payoffs from (a) short and (b) long position in a range forward contract.
Payof f
K1 K2
(a)Asset
pricePayoff
K1 K2
(b)Asset
price
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388 CHAPTER 17
one million pounds at an exchange rate of K1. If the exchange rate is between K1 and K2,
neither option is exercised and the company gets the current exchange rate for the
one million pounds. If the exchange rate is greater than K2, the call option is exercised
against the company and the one million pounds is sold at an exchange rate of K2. The
exchange rate realized for the one million pounds is shown in Figure 1 7.2.
If the company knew it was due to pay rather than receive one million pounds in three
months, it could sell a European put option with strike price K1 and buy a European
call option with strike price K2. This is a long position in a range forward contract and
the payoff is shown in Figure 1 7.1b. If the exchange rate in three months proves to be less
than K1, the put option is exercised against the company and as a result the company
buys the one million pounds it needs at an exchange rate of K1. If the exchange rate is
between K1 and K2, neither option is exercised and the company buys the one million
pounds at the current exchange rate. If the exchange rate is greater than K2, the call
option is exercised and the company is able to buy the one million pounds at an exchange rate of
K2. The exchange rate paid for the one million pounds is the same
as that received for the one million pounds in the earlier example and is shown in Figure 17.2.
In practice, a range forward contract is set up so that the price of the put option
equals the price of the call option. This means that it costs nothing to set up the range forward contract, just as it costs nothing to set up a regular forward contract. Suppose that the U.S. and British interest rates are both 2%, so that the spot exchange rate is 1.3200 (the same as the forward exchange rate). Suppose further that the exchange rate volatility is 14%. We can use DerivaGem to show that a European put with strike price 1.3000 to sell one pound has the same price as a European call option with a strike price
of 1.3414 to buy one pound. (Both are worth 0.0273.) Setting
K1=1.3000 and
K2=1.3414 therefore leads to a contract with zero cost in our example.Figure 17.2 Exchange rate realized when a range forward contract is used
to hedge either a future foreign currency inflow or a future foreign currency outflow.
K1
K1K2
K2Exchange rate
in market Exchange rate realized
when range-forward
contract is used
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 389
As the strike prices of the call and put options in a range forward contract are moved
together, the range forward contract becomes a regular forward contract. The (short)
range forward contract in Figure 1 7.1a becomes a short forward contract and the (long)
range forward contract in Figure 1 7.1b becomes a long forward contract.
17.3 OPTIONS ON STOCKS PAYING KNOWN DIVIDEND YIELDS
In this section we produce a simple rule that enables valuation results for European options on a non-dividend-paying stock to be extended so that they apply to European options on a stock paying a known dividend yield. Later we show how this enables us to
value options on stock indices and currencies.
Suppose that the dividend yield per year (measured with continuous compounding)
Valuing Options with Dividend Yields
- A simple rule allows European option valuation to be extended to stocks paying a known dividend yield by adjusting the current stock price.
- The payment of a continuous dividend yield at rate q reduces the growth rate of the stock price compared to a non-dividend-paying stock.
- Valuation is achieved by replacing the current stock price S0 with S0e-qT and then treating the stock as if it pays no dividends.
- This adjustment is applied to determine lower bounds for option prices, establish put-call parity, and modify the Black-Scholes-Merton formulas.
- The methodology provides a foundation for valuing more complex instruments such as stock indices and foreign currencies.
When valuing a European option lasting for time T on a stock paying a known dividend yield at rate q, we reduce the current stock price from S0 to S0e-qT and then value the option as though the stock pays no dividends.
range forward contract in Figure 1 7.1a becomes a short forward contract and the (long)
range forward contract in Figure 1 7.1b becomes a long forward contract.
17.3 OPTIONS ON STOCKS PAYING KNOWN DIVIDEND YIELDS
In this section we produce a simple rule that enables valuation results for European options on a non-dividend-paying stock to be extended so that they apply to European options on a stock paying a known dividend yield. Later we show how this enables us to
value options on stock indices and currencies.
Suppose that the dividend yield per year (measured with continuous compounding)
is q. Dividends cause stock prices to reduce on the ex-dividend date by the amount of the
dividend payment. The payment of a dividend yield at rate q therefore causes the growth
rate in the stock price to be less than it would otherwise be by an amount q. If, with a
dividend yield of q, the stock price grows from
S0 today to ST at time T, then in the
absence of dividends it would grow from S0 today to ST eqT at time T. Alternatively, in
the absence of dividends it would grow from S0e-qT today to ST at time T.
This argument shows that we get the same probability distribution for the stock price
at time T in each of the following two cases:
1. The stock starts at price S0 and provides a dividend yield at rate q.
2. The stock starts at price S0e-qT and pays no dividends.
This leads to a simple rule. When valuing a European option lasting for time T on a
stock paying a known dividend yield at rate q, we reduce the current stock price from S0
to S0e-qT and then value the option as though the stock pays no dividends.2
Lower Bounds for Option Prices
As a first application of this rule, consider the problem of determining bounds for the price of a European option on a stock paying a dividend yield at rate q. Substituting
S0e-qT for S0 in equation (11. 4), we see that a lower bound for the European call option
price, c, is given by
cĆmax1S0e-qT-Ke-rT, 02 (17.1)
We can also prove this directly by considering the following two portfolios:
Portfolio A: one European call option plus an amount of cash equal to Ke-rT
Portfolio B: e-qT shares with dividends being reinvested in additional shares.
To obtain a lower bound for a European put option, we can similarly replace S0 by
S0e-qT in equation (11. 5) to get
pĆmax1Ke-rT-S0e-qT, 02 (17.2)
2 This rule is analogous to the one developed in Section 15.12 for valuing a European option on a stock
paying known cash dividends. (In that case we concluded that it is correct to reduce the stock price by the
present value of the dividends; in this case we discount the stock price at the dividend yield rate.)
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390 CHAPTER 17
This result can also be proved directly by considering the following portfolios:
Portfolio C : one European put option plus e-qT shares with dividends on the shares
being reinvested in additional shares
Portfolio D : an amount of cash equal to Ke-rT.
PutāCall Parity
Replacing S0 by S0e-qT in equation (11. 6) we obtain putācall parity for an option on a
stock paying a dividend yield at rate q:
c+Ke-rT=p+S0e-qT (17.3)
This result can also be proved directly by considering the following two portfolios:
Portfolio A : one European call option plus an amount of cash equal to Ke-rT
Portfolio C : one European put option plus e-qT shares with dividends on the shares
being reinvested in additional shares.
Both portfolios are both worth max 1ST, K2 at time T. They must therefore be worth the
same today, and the putācall parity result in equation (1 7.3) follows. For American
options, the putācall parity relationship is (see Problem 17.10)
S0e-qT-Kā¦C-Pā¦S0-Ke-rT
Pricing Formulas
By replacing S0 by S0e-qT in the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas, equations (15. 20)
and (15. 21), we obtain the price, c, of a European call and the price, p, of a European
put on a stock paying a dividend yield at rate q as
Valuing Options with Dividend Yields
- The Black-Scholes-Merton formulas are adapted for stocks paying a continuous dividend yield by replacing the current stock price with its dividend-adjusted present value.
- Put-call parity for European options is modified to account for the dividend yield, establishing a specific relationship between the prices of calls, puts, and the underlying asset.
- In a risk-neutral world, the expected growth rate of a stock price is adjusted to the risk-free rate minus the dividend yield, as dividends contribute to the total return.
- The valuation of European stock index options follows the same mathematical framework by treating the index as an asset providing a known dividend yield.
- Merton's differential equation for option pricing remains independent of risk preferences, allowing for the application of risk-neutral valuation techniques.
In a risk-neutral world, the total return from the stock must be r. The dividends provide a return of q. The expected growth rate in the stock price must therefore be r-q.
being reinvested in additional shares.
Both portfolios are both worth max 1ST, K2 at time T. They must therefore be worth the
same today, and the putācall parity result in equation (1 7.3) follows. For American
options, the putācall parity relationship is (see Problem 17.10)
S0e-qT-Kā¦C-Pā¦S0-Ke-rT
Pricing Formulas
By replacing S0 by S0e-qT in the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas, equations (15. 20)
and (15. 21), we obtain the price, c, of a European call and the price, p, of a European
put on a stock paying a dividend yield at rate q as
c=S0e-qT N1d12-Ke-rT N1d22 (17.4)
p=Ke-rT N1-d22-S0e-qT N1-d12 (17.5)
Since
lnS0e-qT
K=lnS0
K-qT
it follows that d1 and d2 are given by
d1=ln1S0>K2+1r-q+s2>22T
s2T
d2=ln1S0>K2+1r-q-s2>22T
s2T=d1-s2T
These results were first derived by Merton.3 As discussed in Chapter 15, the word
dividend should, for the purposes of option valuation, be defined as the reduction in the
stock price on the ex-dividend date arising from any dividends declared. If the dividend yield rate is known but not constant during the life of the option, equations (1 7.4)
3 See R. C. Merton, āTheory of Rational Option Pricing, ā Bell Journal of Economics and Management
Science, 4 (Spring 1973): 141 ā83.
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 391
and (1 7.5) are still true, with q equal to the average annualized dividend yield during the
optionās life.
Differential Equation and Risk-Neutral Valuation
To prove the results in equations (1 7.4) and (1 7.5) more formally, we can either solve
the differential equation that the option price must satisfy or use risk-neutral valuation.
When we include a dividend yield of q in the analysis in Section 15.6, the differential
equation (15. 16) becomes4
0f
0t+1r-q2S0f
0S+1
2 s2S202f
0S2=rf (17.6)
Like equation (15. 16), this does not involve any variable affected by risk preferences.
Therefore the risk-neutral valuation procedure described in Section 15.7 can be used.
In a risk-neutral world, the total return from the stock must be r. The dividends
provide a return of q. The expected growth rate in the stock price must therefore be
r-q. It follows that the risk-neutral process for the stock price is
dS=1r-q2S dt+sS dz (17.7)
To value a derivative dependent on a stock that provides a dividend yield equal to q, we
set the expected growth rate of the stock equal to r-q and discount the expected payoff
at rate r. When the expected growth rate in the stock price is r-q, the expected stock
price at time T is S0e1r-q2T. A similar analysis to that in the appendix to Chapter 15 gives
the expected payoff for a call option in a risk-neutral world as
e1r-q2T S0N1d12-KN1d22
where d1 and d2 are defined as above. Discounting at rate r for time T leads to
equation (1 7.4).
4 See Technical Note 6 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a proof of this.17.4 VALUATION OF EUROPEAN STOCK INDEX OPTIONS
In valuing index futures in Chapter 5, we assumed that the index could be treated as an
asset paying a known yield. In valuing index options, we make similar assumptions.
This means that equations (1 7.1) and (1 7.2) provide a lower bound for European index
options; equation (1 7.3) is the putācall parity result for European index options;
equations (1 7.4) and (1 7.5) can be used to value European options on an index; and
the binomial tree approach can be used for American options. In all cases, S0 is equal to
the current value of the index, s is equal to the volatility of the index, and q is equal to
the average annualized dividend yield on the index during the life of the option expressed with continuous compounding.
Example 17.1
Consider a European call option on an index that is two months from maturity. The
current value of the index is 930, the exercise price is 900, the risk-free interest rate is
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392 CHAPTER 17
Valuing European Stock Index Options
- Stock indices are treated as assets paying a known continuous dividend yield for the purposes of option valuation.
- The Black-Scholes-Merton formulas are adapted by incorporating the average annualized dividend yield expected during the option's life.
- Calculating the dividend yield requires precise timing, as ex-dividend dates often cluster during specific months depending on the country's market habits.
- While using absolute dividend amounts is possible, it is often impractical for broad indices because it requires tracking every underlying stock's payout.
- The relationship between forward prices and index values allows for an alternative formulation of call and put prices using the forward price as a primary variable.
In Japan, for example, all companies tend to use the same ex-dividend dates.
where d1 and d2 are defined as above. Discounting at rate r for time T leads to
equation (1 7.4).
4 See Technical Note 6 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a proof of this.17.4 VALUATION OF EUROPEAN STOCK INDEX OPTIONS
In valuing index futures in Chapter 5, we assumed that the index could be treated as an
asset paying a known yield. In valuing index options, we make similar assumptions.
This means that equations (1 7.1) and (1 7.2) provide a lower bound for European index
options; equation (1 7.3) is the putācall parity result for European index options;
equations (1 7.4) and (1 7.5) can be used to value European options on an index; and
the binomial tree approach can be used for American options. In all cases, S0 is equal to
the current value of the index, s is equal to the volatility of the index, and q is equal to
the average annualized dividend yield on the index during the life of the option expressed with continuous compounding.
Example 17.1
Consider a European call option on an index that is two months from maturity. The
current value of the index is 930, the exercise price is 900, the risk-free interest rate is
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392 CHAPTER 17
8% per annum, and the volatility of the index is 20% per annum. Dividend yields of
0.2% and 0.3% (expressed with continuous compounding) are expected in the first
month and the second month, respectively. In this case S0=930, K=900,
r=0.08, s=0.2, and T=2>12. The total dividend yield during the optionās life
is 0.2,+0.3,=0.5,. This corresponds to 3% per annum. Hence, q=0.03 and
d1=ln1930>9002+10.08-0.03+0.22>22*2>12
0.222>12=0.5444
d2=ln1930>9002+10.08-0.03-0.22>22*2>12
0.222>12=0.4628
N1d12=0.7069, N1d22=0.6782
so that the call price, c, is given by equation (1 7.4) as
c=930*0.7069e-0.03*2>12-900*0.6782e-0.08*2>12=51.83
One contract, if on 100 times the index, would cost $5,183.
The calculation of q should include only dividends for which the ex-dividend dates
occur during the life of the option. In the United States ex-dividend dates tend to occur during the first week of February, May, August, and November. At any given time the correct value of q is therefore likely to depend on the life of the option. This is even more true for indices in other countries. In Japan, for example, all companies tend to use the same ex-dividend dates.
If the absolute amount of the dividend that will be paid on the stocks underlying the
index (rather than the dividend yield) is assumed to be known, the basic Blackā
ScholesāMerton formulas can be used with the initial stock price being reduced by
the present value of the dividends. This is the approach recommended in Chapter 15 for
a stock paying known dividends. However, it may be difficult to implement for a
broadly based stock index because it requires a knowledge of the dividends expected on every stock underlying the index.
It is sometimes argued that, in the long run, the return from investing a certain
amount of money in a well-diversified stock portfolio is almost certain to beat the return from investing the same amount of money in a bond portfolio. If this were so, a long-dated put option allowing the stock portfolio to be sold for the value of the bond portfolio should not cost very much. In fact, as indicated by Business Snapshot 1 7.1, it
is quite expensive.
Forward Prices and the Estimation of Dividend Yields
Define F0 as the forward price of the index for a contract with maturity T . As shown by
equation (5.3), F0=S0e1r-q2T. This means that the equations for the European call
price c and the European put price p in equations (1 7.4) and (1 7.5) can be written
c=F0e-rT N1d12-Ke-rT N1d22 (17.8)
p=Ke-rT N1-d22-F0e-rT N1-d12 (17.9)
where
d1=ln 1F0>K2+s2T>2
s2T and d2=ln 1F0>K2-s2T>2
s2T
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 393
The putācall parity relationship in equation (1 7.3) can be written
Index Options and Forward Pricing
- European index option pricing can be simplified by using forward prices, which avoids the need to estimate dividend yields directly.
- The market's expected dividend yield is implicitly incorporated into forward and futures prices, allowing for more accurate modeling of option values.
- Put-call parity relationships can be rearranged to solve for the implied forward price or the average dividend yield over a specific period.
- A financial guarantee that stocks will outperform bonds over a ten-year period is mathematically equivalent to a European put option.
- While historically common, offering long-term stock performance guarantees is surprisingly expensive, potentially costing up to 17% of the total fund value.
This shows that the guarantee contemplated by the fund manager is worth about 17% of the fundāhardly something that should be given away!
Define F0 as the forward price of the index for a contract with maturity T . As shown by
equation (5.3), F0=S0e1r-q2T. This means that the equations for the European call
price c and the European put price p in equations (1 7.4) and (1 7.5) can be written
c=F0e-rT N1d12-Ke-rT N1d22 (17.8)
p=Ke-rT N1-d22-F0e-rT N1-d12 (17.9)
where
d1=ln 1F0>K2+s2T>2
s2T and d2=ln 1F0>K2-s2T>2
s2T
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 393
The putācall parity relationship in equation (1 7.3) can be written
c+Ke-rT=p+F0e-rT
or
F0=K+1c-p2erT (17.10)
Working with forward prices and equations (1 7.8) and (1 7.9) is attractive because it
avoids the need to estimate the dividend yield on the index directly. The dividend yield
expected by the market is incorporated into forward prices. Futures prices for stock indices can be assumed to be the same as forward prices and so futures markets can be used to estimate forward prices for the maturities of the futures contracts that trade. If,
as is not uncommon, European put and call options with the same strike price and maturity date are traded, equation (1 7.10) can be used to provide an estimate of the
forward price of the index for that maturity date.
Once forward prices for a number of different maturity dates have been obtained (at
least approximately), a smooth function describing the forward price as a function of maturity can be estimated, and equations (1 7.8) and (1 7.9) can be used to determine the
prices of European index options for a range of maturities.
When American options on an index are valued, the average dividend yield during
the life of the option must be estimated explicitly.
5 Because F0=S0e1r-q2T, the average Business Snapshot 1 7.1 Can We Guarantee that Stocks Will Beat Bonds in
the Long Run?
It is often said that if you are a long-term investor you should buy stocks rather than bonds. Consider a U.S. fund manager who is trying to persuade investors to
buy, as a long-term investment, an equity fund that is expected to mirror the
S&P 500. The manager might be tempted to offer purchasers of the fund a guarantee that their return will be at least as good as the return on risk-free bonds
over the next 10 years. Historically stocks have outperformed bonds in the United States over almost any 10-year period. It appears that the fund manager would not be giving much away.
In fact, this type of guarantee is surprisingly expensive. Suppose that an equity
index is 1,000 today, the dividend yield on the index is 1% per annum, the volatility of the index is 15% per annum, and the 10-year risk-free rate is 5% per annum. To outperform bonds, the stocks underlying the index must earn more than 5% per annum. The dividend yield will provide 1% per annum. The capital gains on the stocks must therefore provide 4% per annum. This means that we require the index level to be at least
1,000e0.04*10=1,492 in 10 years.
A guarantee that the return on $1,000 invested in the index will be greater than the
return on $1,000 invested in bonds over the next 10 years is therefore equivalent to
the right to sell the index for 1,492 in 10 years. This is a European put option on the
index and can be valued from equation ( 17.5) with S0=1,000, K=1,492, r=5,,
s=15,, T=10, and q=1,. The value of the put option is 169.7. This shows that
the guarantee contemplated by the fund manager is worth about 17% of the fundāhardly something that should be given away!
5 As explained in Section 21.5, the dividend yield can be made a function of time when American options
are valued.
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394 CHAPTER 17
dividend yield during the life of a futures contract can be estimated as
q=r-1
T lnF0
S0
A European call and put option with the same strike price and maturity date can also
be used to estimate q. From equation (1 7.3),
q=-1
T ln c-p+Ke-rT
S0
Forward Prices and Equity Guarantees
- Using forward and futures prices allows analysts to value index options without needing to estimate dividend yields directly.
- Market-implied dividend yields can be derived by analyzing the relationship between matched pairs of European call and put options.
- A common financial misconception is that guaranteeing stocks will outperform bonds over the long term is a low-cost promise.
- The cost of a 10-year guarantee on equity performance is equivalent to a European put option and can represent nearly 17% of the fund's value.
- While historical data suggests stocks usually beat bonds, the market volatility and risk-free rates make the insurance against underperformance surprisingly expensive.
This shows that the guarantee contemplated by the fund manager is worth about 17% of the fundāhardly something that should be given away!
Working with forward prices and equations (1 7.8) and (1 7.9) is attractive because it
avoids the need to estimate the dividend yield on the index directly. The dividend yield
expected by the market is incorporated into forward prices. Futures prices for stock indices can be assumed to be the same as forward prices and so futures markets can be used to estimate forward prices for the maturities of the futures contracts that trade. If,
as is not uncommon, European put and call options with the same strike price and maturity date are traded, equation (1 7.10) can be used to provide an estimate of the
forward price of the index for that maturity date.
Once forward prices for a number of different maturity dates have been obtained (at
least approximately), a smooth function describing the forward price as a function of maturity can be estimated, and equations (1 7.8) and (1 7.9) can be used to determine the
prices of European index options for a range of maturities.
When American options on an index are valued, the average dividend yield during
the life of the option must be estimated explicitly.
5 Because F0=S0e1r-q2T, the average Business Snapshot 1 7.1 Can We Guarantee that Stocks Will Beat Bonds in
the Long Run?
It is often said that if you are a long-term investor you should buy stocks rather than bonds. Consider a U.S. fund manager who is trying to persuade investors to
buy, as a long-term investment, an equity fund that is expected to mirror the
S&P 500. The manager might be tempted to offer purchasers of the fund a guarantee that their return will be at least as good as the return on risk-free bonds
over the next 10 years. Historically stocks have outperformed bonds in the United States over almost any 10-year period. It appears that the fund manager would not be giving much away.
In fact, this type of guarantee is surprisingly expensive. Suppose that an equity
index is 1,000 today, the dividend yield on the index is 1% per annum, the volatility of the index is 15% per annum, and the 10-year risk-free rate is 5% per annum. To outperform bonds, the stocks underlying the index must earn more than 5% per annum. The dividend yield will provide 1% per annum. The capital gains on the stocks must therefore provide 4% per annum. This means that we require the index level to be at least
1,000e0.04*10=1,492 in 10 years.
A guarantee that the return on $1,000 invested in the index will be greater than the
return on $1,000 invested in bonds over the next 10 years is therefore equivalent to
the right to sell the index for 1,492 in 10 years. This is a European put option on the
index and can be valued from equation ( 17.5) with S0=1,000, K=1,492, r=5,,
s=15,, T=10, and q=1,. The value of the put option is 169.7. This shows that
the guarantee contemplated by the fund manager is worth about 17% of the fundāhardly something that should be given away!
5 As explained in Section 21.5, the dividend yield can be made a function of time when American options
are valued.
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394 CHAPTER 17
dividend yield during the life of a futures contract can be estimated as
q=r-1
T lnF0
S0
A European call and put option with the same strike price and maturity date can also
be used to estimate q. From equation (1 7.3),
q=-1
T ln c-p+Ke-rT
S0
For a particular strike price and time to maturity, the estimates of q calculated from this equation are liable to be unreliable. But when the results from many matched pairs of calls and puts are combined, a clearer picture of the term structure of dividend yields being assumed by the market emerges.
17.5 VALUATION OF EUROPEAN CURRENCY OPTIONS
Valuation of European Currency Options
- Dividend yields can be estimated by combining results from matched pairs of European call and put options to reveal market-assumed term structures.
- Foreign currencies are treated as stocks paying a continuous dividend yield equal to the foreign risk-free interest rate.
- The Black-Scholes model is adapted for currency options by replacing the dividend yield variable with the foreign interest rate in the pricing formulas.
- Currency options exhibit a unique symmetry where a put option to sell currency A for B is mathematically equivalent to a call option to buy currency B with A.
- Forward exchange rates can simplify the valuation process, allowing options to be priced based on forward contract data rather than spot rates.
Put and call options on a currency are symmetrical in that a put option to sell one unit of currency A for currency B at strike price K is the same as a call option to buy K units of B with currency A at strike price 1/K.
T lnF0
S0
A European call and put option with the same strike price and maturity date can also
be used to estimate q. From equation (1 7.3),
q=-1
T ln c-p+Ke-rT
S0
For a particular strike price and time to maturity, the estimates of q calculated from this equation are liable to be unreliable. But when the results from many matched pairs of calls and puts are combined, a clearer picture of the term structure of dividend yields being assumed by the market emerges.
17.5 VALUATION OF EUROPEAN CURRENCY OPTIONS
To value currency options, we define S0 as the spot exchange rate. To be precise, S0 is
the value of one unit of the foreign currency in U.S. dollars. As explained in Sec-tion 5.10, a foreign currency is analogous to a stock paying a known dividend yield. The owner of foreign currency receives a yield equal to the risk-free interest rate,
rf, in the
foreign currency. Equations (1 7.1) and (1 7.2), with q replaced by rf, provide bounds for
the European call price, c, and the European put price, p:
cĆmax1S0e-rfT-Ke-rT, 02 and pĆmax1Ke-rT-S0e-rfT, 02
Equation (1 7.3), with q replaced by rf, provides the putācall parity result for European
currency options:
c+Ke-rT=p+S0e-rfT
Finally, equations (1 7.4) and (1 7.5) provide the pricing formulas for European currency
options when q is replaced by r f :
c=S0e-rfT N1d12-Ke-rT N1d22 (17.11)
p=Ke-rT N1-d22-S0e-rfT N1-d12 (17.12)
where
d1=ln1S0>K2+1r-rf+s2>22T
s2T
d2=ln1S0>K2+1r-rf-s2>22T
s2T=d1-s2T
Both the domestic interest rate, r, and the foreign interest rate, r f , are the rates for a
maturity T.
Example 17.2
Consider a 4-month European call option on the British pound. Suppose that the
current exchange rate is 1.6000, the exercise price is 1.6000, the risk-free interest rate
in the United States is 8% per annum, the risk-free interest rate in Britain is 11% per
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 395
annum, and the option price is 4.3 cents. In this case, S0=1.6, K=1.6, r=0.08,
rf=0.11, T=0.3333, and c=0.043. The implied volatility can be calculated by
trial and error. A volatility of 20% gives an option price of 0.0639; a volatility of
10% gives an option price of 0.0285; and so on. The implied volatility is 14.1%.
Put and call options on a currency are symmetrical in that a put option to sell one unit
of currency A for currency B at strike price K is the same as a call option to buy K units of B with currency A at strike price
1>K (see Problem 17.6).
Using Forward Exchange Rates
Because banks and other financial institutions trade forward contracts on foreign exchange rates actively, forward exchange rates are often used for valuing options.
From equation (5.9), the forward exchange rate,
F0, for a maturity T is given by
F0=S0e1r-rf2T
This relationship allows equations (1 7.11) and (1 7.12) to be simplified to
c=e-rT 3F0N1d12-KN1d224 (17.13)
p=e-rT 3KN1-d22-F0N1-d124 (17.14)
where
d1=ln1F0>K2+s2T>2
s2T
d2=ln1F0>K2-s2T>2
s2T=d1-s2T
Equations (1 7.13) and (1 7.14) are the same as equations (1 7.8) and (1 7.9). As we shall
see in Chapter 18, a European option on the spot price of any asset can be valued in terms of the price of a forward or futures contract on the asset using equations (1 7.13)
and (1 7.14). The maturity of the forward or futures contract must be the same as the
maturity of the European option.
17.6 AMERICAN OPTIONS
As described in Chapter 13, binomial trees can be used to value American options on indices and currencies. As in the case of American options on a non-dividend-paying stock, the parameter determining the size of up movements, u, is set equal to
es1āt,
where s is the volatility and āt is the length of time steps. The parameter determining
the size of down movements, d, is set equal to 1>u, or e-s1āt. For a non-dividend-
paying stock, the probability of an up movement is
p=a-d
u-d
Valuing American Index and Currency Options
- Binomial trees are utilized to value American options on indices and currencies by adjusting the growth parameter to account for dividend yields or foreign risk-free rates.
- Early exercise of American options is often optimal, making them more valuable than their European counterparts in specific market conditions.
- Call options on high-interest currencies and put options on low-interest currencies are the most likely candidates for early exercise due to expected depreciation or appreciation.
- Index options are settled in cash and can serve as portfolio insurance, with the number of contracts determined by the portfolio's beta relative to the index.
- Currency options are primarily traded over-the-counter and allow corporate treasurers to hedge foreign exchange exposure through puts, calls, or zero-cost range forward contracts.
In general, call options on high-interest currencies and put options on low-interest currencies are the most likely to be exercised early.
17.6 AMERICAN OPTIONS
As described in Chapter 13, binomial trees can be used to value American options on indices and currencies. As in the case of American options on a non-dividend-paying stock, the parameter determining the size of up movements, u, is set equal to
es1āt,
where s is the volatility and āt is the length of time steps. The parameter determining
the size of down movements, d, is set equal to 1>u, or e-s1āt. For a non-dividend-
paying stock, the probability of an up movement is
p=a-d
u-d
where a=erāt. For options on indices and currencies, the formula for p is the same,
but a is defined differently. In the case of options on an index,
a=e1r-q2āt (17.15)
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396 CHAPTER 17
where q is the dividend yield on the index. In the case of options on a currency,
a=e1r-rf2āt (17.16)
where rf is the foreign risk-free rate. Example 13.1 in Section 13.11 shows how a two-step
tree can be constructed to value an option on an index. Example 13.2 shows how a three-
step tree can be constructed to value an option on a currency. Further examples of the use of binomial trees to value options on indices and currencies are given in Chapter 21.
In some circumstances, it is optimal to exercise American currency and index options
prior to maturity. Thus, American currency and index options are worth more than their European counterparts. In general, call options on high-interest currencies and put options on low-interest currencies are the most likely to be exercised early. The reason is that a high-interest currency is expected to depreciate and a low-interest currency is expected to appreciate. Similarly, call options on indices with high-dividend yields and put options on indices with low-dividend yields are most likely to be exercised early.
SUMMARY
The index options trading on exchanges are settled in cash. On exercise of an index call option contract, the holder typically receives 100 times the amount by which the index exceeds the strike price. Similarly, on exercise of an index put option contract, the holder receives 100 times the amount by which the strike price exceeds the index. Index options can be used for portfolio insurance. If the value of the portfolio mirrors the
index, it is appropriate to buy one put option contract for each
100S0 dollars in the
portfolio, where S0 is the value of the index. If the portfolio does not mirror the index,
b put option contracts should be purchased for each 100S0 dollars in the portfolio,
where b is the beta of the portfolio from the capital asset pricing model. The strike price
of the put options purchased should reflect the level of insurance required.
Most currency options are traded in the over-the-counter market. They can be used
by corporate treasurers to hedge a foreign exchange exposure. For example, a U.S. corporate treasurer who knows that the company will be receiving sterling at a certain
time in the future can hedge by buying put options that mature at that time. Similarly, a
U.S. corporate treasurer who knows that the company will be paying sterling at a
certain time in the future can hedge by buying call options that mature at that time. Currency options can also be used to create a range forward contract. This is a zero-cost contract that can be used to provide downside protection while giving up some of the upside for a company with a known foreign exchange exposure.
The BlackāScholesāMerton formula for valuing European options on a non-dividend-
paying stock can be extended to cover European options on a stock paying a known
dividend yield. The extension can be used to value European options on stock indices and currencies because:
1. A stock index is analogous to a stock paying a dividend yield. The dividend yield is the dividend yield on the stocks that make up the index.
Index and Currency Options
- Portfolio insurance can be achieved by purchasing put options, with the quantity determined by the portfolio's beta relative to the index.
- Corporate treasurers utilize currency options in the over-the-counter market to hedge foreign exchange risks for future receivables and payables.
- Range forward contracts offer a zero-cost hedging strategy that provides downside protection by sacrificing potential upside gains.
- The BlackāScholesāMerton model is extended to indices and currencies by treating them as stocks with a continuous dividend yield.
- In currency option valuation, the foreign risk-free interest rate serves the exact same mathematical role as a stock's dividend yield.
A foreign currency is analogous to a stock paying a dividend yield.
portfolio, where S0 is the value of the index. If the portfolio does not mirror the index,
b put option contracts should be purchased for each 100S0 dollars in the portfolio,
where b is the beta of the portfolio from the capital asset pricing model. The strike price
of the put options purchased should reflect the level of insurance required.
Most currency options are traded in the over-the-counter market. They can be used
by corporate treasurers to hedge a foreign exchange exposure. For example, a U.S. corporate treasurer who knows that the company will be receiving sterling at a certain
time in the future can hedge by buying put options that mature at that time. Similarly, a
U.S. corporate treasurer who knows that the company will be paying sterling at a
certain time in the future can hedge by buying call options that mature at that time. Currency options can also be used to create a range forward contract. This is a zero-cost contract that can be used to provide downside protection while giving up some of the upside for a company with a known foreign exchange exposure.
The BlackāScholesāMerton formula for valuing European options on a non-dividend-
paying stock can be extended to cover European options on a stock paying a known
dividend yield. The extension can be used to value European options on stock indices and currencies because:
1. A stock index is analogous to a stock paying a dividend yield. The dividend yield is the dividend yield on the stocks that make up the index.
2. A foreign currency is analogous to a stock paying a dividend yield. The foreign risk-free interest rate plays the role of the dividend yield.
Binomial trees can be used to value American options on stock indices and currencies.
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 397
FURTHER READING
Biger, N., and J. C. Hull. āThe Valuation of Currency Options, ā Financial Management, 12
(Spring 1983): 24ā28.
Bodie, Z. āOn the Risk of Stocks in the Long Run, ā Financial Analysts Journal, 51, 3 (1995):
18ā22.
Garman, M. B., and S. W. Kohlhagen. āForeign Currency Option Values, ā Journal of
International Money and Finance, 2 (December 1983): 231 ā37.
Giddy, I. H., and G. Dufey. āUses and Abuses of Currency Options, ā Journal of Applied
Corporate Finance, 8, 3 (1995): 49ā57.
Grabbe, J. O. āThe Pricing of Call and Put Options on Foreign Exchange, ā Journal of
International Money and Finance, 2 (December 1983): 239ā53.
Merton, R. C. āTheory of Rational Option Pricing, ā Bell Journal of Economics and Management
Science, 4 (Spring 1973): 141 ā83.
Practice Questions
Currency and Index Option Valuation
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of foundational academic papers on currency option valuation and rational option pricing theory.
- A series of practice questions focuses on calculating lower bounds and values for European and American call and put options on stock indices.
- Quantitative problems address the impact of dividend yields and foreign risk-free interest rates on the pricing of financial derivatives.
- The material explores the application of binomial trees and range forward contracts as tools for corporate foreign exchange risk management.
- Mathematical proofs are introduced to demonstrate the relationship between call and put options when exchanging different currency units.
Show that the formula in equation (1 7.12) for a put option to sell one unit of currency A for currency B at strike price K gives the same value as equation (1 7.11) for a call option to buy K units of currency B for currency A at strike price 1/K.
Biger, N., and J. C. Hull. āThe Valuation of Currency Options, ā Financial Management, 12
(Spring 1983): 24ā28.
Bodie, Z. āOn the Risk of Stocks in the Long Run, ā Financial Analysts Journal, 51, 3 (1995):
18ā22.
Garman, M. B., and S. W. Kohlhagen. āForeign Currency Option Values, ā Journal of
International Money and Finance, 2 (December 1983): 231 ā37.
Giddy, I. H., and G. Dufey. āUses and Abuses of Currency Options, ā Journal of Applied
Corporate Finance, 8, 3 (1995): 49ā57.
Grabbe, J. O. āThe Pricing of Call and Put Options on Foreign Exchange, ā Journal of
International Money and Finance, 2 (December 1983): 239ā53.
Merton, R. C. āTheory of Rational Option Pricing, ā Bell Journal of Economics and Management
Science, 4 (Spring 1973): 141 ā83.
Practice Questions
17.1. A stock index is currently 300, the dividend yield on the index is 3% per annum, and the
risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum. What is a lower bound for the price of a six- month European call option on the index when the strike price is 290?
17.2. A currency is currently worth $0.80 and has a volatility of 12%. The domestic and foreign risk-free interest rates are 6% and 8%, respectively. Use a two-step binomial tree to value (a) a European four-month call option with a strike price of 0.79 and (b) an American
four-month call option with the same strike price.
17.3. Explain how corporations can use range forward contracts to hedge their foreign exchange risk when they are due to receive a certain amount of a foreign currency in
the future.
17.4. Calculate the value of a three-month at-the-money European call option on a stock index when the index is at 250, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, the
volatility of the index is 18% per annum, and the dividend yield on the index is 3%
per annum.
17.5. Calculate the value of an eight-month European put option on a currency with a strike
price of 0.50. The current exchange rate is 0.52, the volatility of the exchange rate
is 12%, the domestic risk-free interest rate is 4% per annum, and the foreign risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum.
17.6. Show that the formula in equation (1 7.12) for a put option to sell one unit of currency A
for currency B at strike price K gives the same value as equation (1 7.11) for a call option
to buy K units of currency B for currency A at strike price
1>K.
17.7 . A foreign currency is currently worth $1.50. The domestic and foreign risk-free interest rates are 5% and 9%, respectively. Calculate a lower bound for the value of a six-month
call option on the currency with a strike price of $1.40 if it is (a) European and
(b) American.
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398 CHAPTER 17
17.8. Consider a stock index currently standing at 250. The dividend yield on the index is
4% per annum, and the risk-free rate is 6% per annum. A three-month European call
option on the index with a strike price of 245 is currently worth $10. What is the value of a three-month put option on the index with a strike price of 245?
17.9. An index currently stands at 696 and has a volatility of 30% per annum. The risk-free
rate of interest is 7% per annum and the index provides a dividend yield of 4% per
annum. Calculate the value of a three-month European put with an exercise price
of 700.
17.10. Show that, if C is the price of an American call with exercise price K and maturity T on a
stock paying a dividend yield of q, and P is the price of an American put on the same
stock with the same strike price and exercise date, then
S0e-qT-K6C-P6S0-Ke-rT,
where S0 is the stock price, r is the risk-free rate, and r70. (Hint: To obtain the first half
of the inequality, consider possible values of :
Portfolio A: a European call option plus an amount K invested at the risk-free rate
Portfolio B: an American put option plus e-qT of stock with dividends being re-
invested in the stock.
To obtain the second half of the inequality, consider possible values of:
Index and Currency Option Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on the valuation of European and American options on stock indices and currencies.
- Mathematical proofs are required to establish bounds for American options and to demonstrate put-call parity relationships in the presence of dividend yields.
- Practical applications include calculating implied volatility using software and determining the necessary options for portfolio insurance based on a portfolio's beta.
- The problems explore the relationship between index volatility and individual stock volatility, as well as the mechanics of total return indices.
- Specific scenarios address currency exchange rate options and how they can potentially be synthesized from different currency pairs.
Would you expect the volatility of a stock index to be greater or less than the volatility of a typical stock?
17.8. Consider a stock index currently standing at 250. The dividend yield on the index is
4% per annum, and the risk-free rate is 6% per annum. A three-month European call
option on the index with a strike price of 245 is currently worth $10. What is the value of a three-month put option on the index with a strike price of 245?
17.9. An index currently stands at 696 and has a volatility of 30% per annum. The risk-free
rate of interest is 7% per annum and the index provides a dividend yield of 4% per
annum. Calculate the value of a three-month European put with an exercise price
of 700.
17.10. Show that, if C is the price of an American call with exercise price K and maturity T on a
stock paying a dividend yield of q, and P is the price of an American put on the same
stock with the same strike price and exercise date, then
S0e-qT-K6C-P6S0-Ke-rT,
where S0 is the stock price, r is the risk-free rate, and r70. (Hint: To obtain the first half
of the inequality, consider possible values of :
Portfolio A: a European call option plus an amount K invested at the risk-free rate
Portfolio B: an American put option plus e-qT of stock with dividends being re-
invested in the stock.
To obtain the second half of the inequality, consider possible values of:
Portfolio C : an American call option plus an amount Ke-rT invested at the risk-
free rate
Portfolio D : a European put option plus one stock with dividends being reinvested in
the stock.)
17.11. Show that a European call option on a currency has the same price as the correspond-
ing European put option on the currency when the forward price equals the strike
price.
17.12. Would you expect the volatility of a stock index to be greater or less than the volatility of
a typical stock? Explain your answer.
17.13. Does the cost of portfolio insurance increase or decrease as the beta of a portfolio
increases? Explain your answer.
17.14. Suppose that a portfolio is worth $60 million and a stock index stands at 1,200. If the
value of the portfolio mirrors the value of the index, what options should be purchased to provide protection against the value of the portfolio falling below $54 million in one yearās time?
17.15. Consider again the situation in Problem 17.14. Suppose that the portfolio has a beta
of 2.0, the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum, and the dividend yield on both the
portfolio and the index is 3% per annum. What options should be purchased to provide
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Options on Stock Indices and Currencies 399
protection against the value of the portfolio falling below $54 million in one yearās
time?
17.16. An index currently stands at 1,500. European call and put options with a strike price
of 1,400 and time to maturity of six months have market prices of 154.00 and 34.25, respectively. The six-month risk-free rate is 5%. What is the implied dividend yield?
17.17 . A total return index tracks the return, including dividends, on a certain portfolio. Explain how you would value (a) forward contracts and (b) European options on the index.
17.18. What is the putācall parity relationship for European currency options?
17.19. Prove the results in equations (1 7.1), (1 7.2), and (1 7.3) using the portfolios indicated.
17.20. Can an option on the yen/euro exchange rate be created from two options, one on the
dollar/euro exchange rate, and the other on the dollar/yen exchange rate? Explain your answer.
17.21. Suppose the Dow Jones Industrial Average is 27,000 and the price of a two-month
(European) call option on the index with a strike price of 270 is $5.35. Use the
DerivaGem software to calculate the implied volatility of this option. Assume the
risk-free rate is 0.25% and the dividend yield is 2%. Estimate the price of a two-month
put option with a 270 strike price. What is the volatility implied by the price you
estimate for this option? (Note that options are on the Dow Jones index divided
by 100.)
Derivatives Valuation and Futures Options
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating implied dividend yields and volatilities for index options.
- It explores the application of put-call parity relationships across different financial instruments, including European currency options.
- Mathematical proofs and binomial tree models are utilized to value both European and American style options on indices and currencies.
- The section introduces the transition from 'spot options' to 'futures options,' where exercise results in a position in a futures contract rather than the immediate delivery of the underlying asset.
In these contracts, exercise of the option gives the holder a position in a futures contract.
protection against the value of the portfolio falling below $54 million in one yearās
time?
17.16. An index currently stands at 1,500. European call and put options with a strike price
of 1,400 and time to maturity of six months have market prices of 154.00 and 34.25, respectively. The six-month risk-free rate is 5%. What is the implied dividend yield?
17.17 . A total return index tracks the return, including dividends, on a certain portfolio. Explain how you would value (a) forward contracts and (b) European options on the index.
17.18. What is the putācall parity relationship for European currency options?
17.19. Prove the results in equations (1 7.1), (1 7.2), and (1 7.3) using the portfolios indicated.
17.20. Can an option on the yen/euro exchange rate be created from two options, one on the
dollar/euro exchange rate, and the other on the dollar/yen exchange rate? Explain your answer.
17.21. Suppose the Dow Jones Industrial Average is 27,000 and the price of a two-month
(European) call option on the index with a strike price of 270 is $5.35. Use the
DerivaGem software to calculate the implied volatility of this option. Assume the
risk-free rate is 0.25% and the dividend yield is 2%. Estimate the price of a two-month
put option with a 270 strike price. What is the volatility implied by the price you
estimate for this option? (Note that options are on the Dow Jones index divided
by 100.)
17.22. A stock index currently stands at 300 and has a volatility of 20%. The risk-free interest
rate is 8% and the dividend yield on the index is 3%. Use a three-step binomial tree to value a six-month put option on the index with a strike price of 300 if it is (a) European and (b) American?
17.23. Suppose that the spot price of the Canadian dollar is U.S. $0.75 and that the Canadian
dollar/U.S. dollar exchange rate has a volatility of 8% per annum. The risk-free rates of
interest in Canada and the United States are 4% and 5% per annum, respectively. Calculate the value of a European call option to buy one Canadian dollar for U.S. $0.75
in nine months. Use putācall parity to calculate the price of a European put option to
sell one Canadian dollar for U.S. $0.75 in nine months. What is the price of a call option to buy U.S. $0.75 with one Canadian dollar in nine months?
17.24. The spot price of an index is 1,000 and the risk-free rate is 4%. The prices of 3-month
European call and put options when the strike price is 950 are 78 and 26. Estimate
(a) the dividend yield and (b) the implied volatility.
17.25. Assume that the price of currency A expressed in terms of the price of currency B follows
the process
dS=1rB-rA2S dt+sS dz, where rA is the risk-free interest rate in currency
A and rB is the risk-free interest rate in currency B. What is the process followed by the
price of currency B expressed in terms of currency A?
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400 CHAPTER 17
17.26. In Business Snapshot 1 7.1, what is the cost of a guarantee that the return on the fund
will not be negative over the next 10 years?
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401
Futures Options
and Blackās Model
The options we have considered so far provide the holder with the right to buy or sell a
certain asset by a certain date for a certain price. They are sometimes termed options on spot or spot options because, when the options are exercised, the sale or purchase of the
asset at the agreed-on price takes place immediately. In this chapter we move on to consider options on futures, also known as futures options. In these contracts, exercise of
the option gives the holder a position in a futures contract.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission in the U.S. authorized the trading of
Understanding Futures Options
- Futures options differ from spot options because exercising them results in a position in a futures contract rather than the immediate purchase of a physical asset.
- The Commodity Futures Trading Commission authorized these contracts experimentally in 1982, leading to permanent approval and rapid growth by 1987.
- Exercising a futures call option grants the holder a long futures position plus a cash amount based on the difference between the strike price and the most recent settlement price.
- Fischer Black developed a specific valuation model in 1976 that serves as a critical alternative to the Black-Scholes-Merton model for pricing these instruments.
- Most futures options are American-style, meaning they can be exercised at any point during the life of the contract to capture the difference between the futures price and the strike price.
A futures option is the right, but not the obligation, to enter into a futures contract at a certain futures price by a certain date.
The options we have considered so far provide the holder with the right to buy or sell a
certain asset by a certain date for a certain price. They are sometimes termed options on spot or spot options because, when the options are exercised, the sale or purchase of the
asset at the agreed-on price takes place immediately. In this chapter we move on to consider options on futures, also known as futures options. In these contracts, exercise of
the option gives the holder a position in a futures contract.
The Commodity Futures Trading Commission in the U.S. authorized the trading of
options on futures on an experimental basis in 1982. Permanent trading was approved in 1987, and since then the popularity of the contract has grown very fast.
In this chapter we consider how futures options work and the differences between
these options and spot options. We examine how futures options can be priced, explore the relative pricing of futures options and spot options, and discuss what are known as futures-style options.
In 1976, Fischer Black proposed a model, now known as Blackās model, for valuing
European options on futures.
1 As this chapter will show, the model has proved to be an
important alternative to the BlackāScholesāMerton model for valuing a wide range of European spot options.18 CHAPTER
1 See F. Black, āThe Pricing of Commodity Contracts, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (1976), 167ā79.18.1 NATURE OF FUTURES OPTIONS
A futures option is the right, but not the obligation, to enter into a futures contract at a
certain futures price by a certain date. Specifically, a futures call option is the right to enter into a long futures contract at a certain price; a futures put option is the right to
enter into a short futures contract at a certain price. Futures options are generally American; that is, they can be exercised any time during the life of the contract.
If a futures call option is exercised, the holder acquires a long position in the
underlying futures contract plus a cash amount equal to the most recent settlement
futures price minus the strike price. If a futures put option is exercised, the holder acquires a short position in the underlying futures contract plus a cash amount equal to
the strike price minus the most recent settlement futures price. As the following examples show, the effective payoff from a futures call option is
max1F-K, 02 and
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402 CHAPTER 18
the effective payoff from a futures put option is max 1K-F, 02, where F is the futures
price at the time of exercise and K is the strike price.
Example 18.1
Suppose it is August 15 and a trader has one September futures call option
contract on copper with a strike price of 320 cents per pound. One futures
contract is on 25,000 pounds of copper. Suppose that the futures price of copper
for delivery in September is currently 331 cents, and at the close of trading on August 14 (the last settlement) it was 330 cents. If the option is exercised, the trader receives a cash amount of
25,000*1330-3202 cents=+2,500
plus a long position in a futures contract to buy 25,000 pounds of copper in September. If desired, the position in the futures contract can be closed out
immediately. This would leave the trader with the $2,500 cash payoff plus an
amount
25,000*1331-3302 cents=+250
reflecting the change in the futures price since the last settlement. The total payoff from exercising the option on August 15 is $2,750, which equals
25,000 1F-K2,
where F is the futures price at the time of exercise and K is the strike price.
Example 18.2
A trader has one December futures put option on corn with a strike price of 600 cents per bushel. One futures contract is on 5,000 bushels of corn. Suppose that the current futures price of corn for delivery in December is 580, and the most recent settlement price is 579 cents. If the option is exercised, the trader receives a cash amount of
5,000*1600-5792 cents=+1,050
Mechanics of Futures Options
- Exercising a futures option results in a cash payoff based on the difference between the strike price and the most recent settlement price.
- Upon exercise, the trader also enters into a long or short position in the underlying futures contract, which can be immediately closed out for additional profit or loss.
- Futures options are typically named after the delivery month of the underlying futures contract rather than the option's own expiration date.
- The transition from LIBOR to SOFR is reshaping the landscape of interest rate futures, with SOFR being a backward-looking rate calculated from compounded overnight rates.
If the option is exercised, the trader receives a cash amount plus a short position in a futures contract to sell 5,000 bushels of corn in December.
reflecting the change in the futures price since the last settlement. The total payoff from exercising the option on August 15 is $2,750, which equals
25,000 1F-K2,
where F is the futures price at the time of exercise and K is the strike price.
Example 18.2
A trader has one December futures put option on corn with a strike price of 600 cents per bushel. One futures contract is on 5,000 bushels of corn. Suppose that the current futures price of corn for delivery in December is 580, and the most recent settlement price is 579 cents. If the option is exercised, the trader receives a cash amount of
5,000*1600-5792 cents=+1,050
plus a short position in a futures contract to sell 5,000 bushels of corn in December. If desired, the position in the futures contract can be closed out. This would leave the trader with the $1,050 cash payoff minus an amount
5,000*1580-5792 cents=+50
reflecting the change in the futures price since the last settlement. The net payoff from exercise is $1,000, which equals
5,0001K-F2, where F is the futures price at
the time of exercise and K is the strike price.
Expiration Months
Futures options are referred to by the delivery month of the underlying futures contract ānot by the expiration month of the option. As mentioned earlier, most futures options are American. The expiration date of a futures option contract is usually a short period of time before the last trading day of the underlying futures contract. (For example, the CME Group Treasury bond futures option expires on the latest Friday that precedes by at least two business days the end of the month before the futures delivery month.) Exceptions are the CME Group mid-curve Eurodollar and the mid-curve three-month SOFR contracts where the futures contract expires much later than the options contract.
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Futures Options and Blackās Model 403
Options on Interest Rate Futures
In Chapter 6, we discussed the interest rate futures contracts traded by the CME Group.
Options on interest rate futures are also traded by the exchange. Consider, for example, the Treasury bond futures option contract. This is an option to enter into a Treasury bond futures contract. One Treasury bond futures contract is for the delivery of bonds with a principal of $100,000. The price of the Treasury bond futures option is quoted as
a percentage of the face value of the underlying Treasury bonds to the nearest sixty- fourth of 1%.
As explained in Chapter 6, the CMEās most popular contract on short-term interest
rates has traditionally been its Eurodollar futures contract. As LIBOR is phased out, the exchange expects this to be replaced by the three-month SOFR futures contract. Options on Eurodollar futures have been popular and are expected to be replaced by options on three-month SOFR futures, which were launched by the CME in January 2020. It will be recalled that the Eurodollar rate is a forward-looking rate (a borrowing rate for the next three months) whereas SOFR is a backward-looking rate (calculated by compounding overnight rates for the previous three months). Eurodollar and three-month SOFR futures are designed so that a one-basis-point move in the futures price is
worth $25 per contract. The same is true of options on these futures contracts.
Interest rate futures option contracts work in the same way as the other futures
options contracts discussed in this chapter. For example, in addition to the cash payoff, the holder of a call option obtains a long position in the futures contract when the option is exercised and the option writer obtains a corresponding short position. The total payoff from the call, including the value of the futures position, is
max1F-K, 02,
Interest Rate Futures Options
- The CME Group facilitates trading for options on interest rate futures, including Treasury bonds and short-term rate benchmarks.
- The market is transitioning from Eurodollar futures to three-month SOFR futures, moving from a forward-looking to a backward-looking rate calculation.
- A one-basis-point move in both Eurodollar and SOFR futures contracts is standardized to a value of $25.
- Investors utilize call options to speculate on falling interest rates and put options to profit from rising interest rates across various maturities.
- Exercising these options results in a cash payoff and the acquisition of a corresponding long or short position in the underlying futures contract.
It will be recalled that the Eurodollar rate is a forward-looking rate (a borrowing rate for the next three months) whereas SOFR is a backward-looking rate (calculated by compounding overnight rates for the previous three months).
In Chapter 6, we discussed the interest rate futures contracts traded by the CME Group.
Options on interest rate futures are also traded by the exchange. Consider, for example, the Treasury bond futures option contract. This is an option to enter into a Treasury bond futures contract. One Treasury bond futures contract is for the delivery of bonds with a principal of $100,000. The price of the Treasury bond futures option is quoted as
a percentage of the face value of the underlying Treasury bonds to the nearest sixty- fourth of 1%.
As explained in Chapter 6, the CMEās most popular contract on short-term interest
rates has traditionally been its Eurodollar futures contract. As LIBOR is phased out, the exchange expects this to be replaced by the three-month SOFR futures contract. Options on Eurodollar futures have been popular and are expected to be replaced by options on three-month SOFR futures, which were launched by the CME in January 2020. It will be recalled that the Eurodollar rate is a forward-looking rate (a borrowing rate for the next three months) whereas SOFR is a backward-looking rate (calculated by compounding overnight rates for the previous three months). Eurodollar and three-month SOFR futures are designed so that a one-basis-point move in the futures price is
worth $25 per contract. The same is true of options on these futures contracts.
Interest rate futures option contracts work in the same way as the other futures
options contracts discussed in this chapter. For example, in addition to the cash payoff, the holder of a call option obtains a long position in the futures contract when the option is exercised and the option writer obtains a corresponding short position. The total payoff from the call, including the value of the futures position, is
max1F-K, 02,
where F is the futures price at the time of exercise and K is the strike price.
Interest rate futures prices increase when bond prices increase (i.e., when interest rates
fall). They decrease when bond prices decrease (i.e., when interest rates rise). An investor who thinks that short-term interest rates will rise can speculate by buying
put options on Eurodollar or SOFR futures, whereas an investor who thinks the rates will fall can speculate by buying call options on Eurodollar or SOFR futures. An investor who thinks that long-term interest rates will rise can speculate by buying put options on Treasury note futures or Treasury bond futures, whereas an investor who thinks the rates will fall can speculate by buying call options on these instruments.
Example 18.3
Suppose that the June SOFR futures is 99.35 (indicating an interest rate of 0.65%
per annum) and that an investor expects short-term interest rates to decline so that
overnight rates between June and September are less than 0.5% per annum. Suppose also that the price of a call option with a strike price of 99.50 is 0.05
(i.e., 5 basis points). The investor could buy a call option contract with a strike
price of 99.50 for
+25*5, or $125. If the investor exercises the call when the
futures price is 99.70 (indicating an interest rate of 0.3% per annum), the payoff to the investor is
+25*20, or $500, and the investorās profit is $375.
Example 18.4
It is August and the futures price for the December Treasury bond contract is 96-09 (or
96 9
32=96.28125). The yield on long-term government bonds is about
6.4% per annum. An investor who feels that this yield will fall by December
might choose to buy December calls with a strike price of 98. Assume that the
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404 CHAPTER 18
price of these calls is 1 -04 (or 1 4
64=1.0625, of the principal). If long-term rates
fall to 6% per annum and the Treasury bond futures price rises to 100-00, the
investor will make a net profit per $100 of bond futures of
100.00-98.00-1.0625=0.9375
Advantages of Futures Options
- Futures options are often preferred over spot options because futures contracts typically offer higher liquidity and more transparent pricing than the underlying assets.
- The convenience of cash settlement is a major draw, as exercising a futures option usually results in a futures position that is closed out rather than requiring physical delivery.
- Trading futures and their corresponding options on the same exchange facilitates more efficient hedging, arbitrage, and speculative strategies.
- European futures options and spot options are equivalent in value if the futures contract and the option share the same maturity date.
- Lower transaction costs and reduced capital requirements make futures options particularly attractive to investors with limited funds.
It is much easier and more convenient to make or take delivery of a live-cattle futures contract than it is to make or take delivery of the cattle.
32=96.28125). The yield on long-term government bonds is about
6.4% per annum. An investor who feels that this yield will fall by December
might choose to buy December calls with a strike price of 98. Assume that the
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404 CHAPTER 18
price of these calls is 1 -04 (or 1 4
64=1.0625, of the principal). If long-term rates
fall to 6% per annum and the Treasury bond futures price rises to 100-00, the
investor will make a net profit per $100 of bond futures of
100.00-98.00-1.0625=0.9375
Since one option contract is for the purchase or sale of instruments with a face value of $100,000, the investorās profit is $937.50 per option contract bought.
18.2 REASONS FOR THE POPULARITY OF FUTURES OPTIONS
It is natural to ask why people choose to trade options on futures rather than options on the underlying asset. The main reason appears to be that a futures contract is, in many circumstances, more liquid and easier to trade than the underlying asset. Furthermore, a
futures price is known immediately from trading on the futures exchange, whereas the spot price of the underlying asset may not be so readily available.
Consider Treasury bonds. The market for Treasury bond futures is much more active
than the market for any particular Treasury bond. Also, a Treasury bond futures price is
known immediately from exchange trading. By contrast, the current market price of a bond can be obtained only by contacting one or more dealers. It is not surprising that investors would rather take delivery of a Treasury bond futures contract than Treasury bonds.
Futures on commodities are also often easier to trade than the commodities them-
selves. For example, it is much easier and more convenient to make or take delivery of a live-cattle futures contract than it is to make or take delivery of the cattle.
An important point about a futures option is that exercising it does not usually lead
to delivery of the underlying asset, as in most circumstances the underlying futures contract is closed out prior to delivery. Futures options are therefore normally even-
tually settled in cash. This is appealing to many investors, particularly those with
limited capital who may find it difficult to come up with the funds to buy the underlying
asset when an option on spot is exercised. Another advantage sometimes cited for futures options is that futures and futures options are traded on the same exchange. This facilitates hedging, arbitrage, and speculation. It also tends to make the markets more efficient. A final point is that futures options entail lower transaction costs than spot options in many situations.
18.3 EUROPEAN SPOT AND FUTURES OPTIONS
The payoff from a European call option with strike price K on the spot price of an asset is
max1ST-K, 02
where ST is the spot price at the optionās maturity. The payoff from a European call
option with the same strike price on the futures price of the asset is
max1FT-K, 02
where FT is the futures price at the optionās maturity. If the futures contract matures at
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Futures Options and Blackās Model 405
the same time as the option, then FT=ST and the two options are equivalent.
Similarly, a European futures put option is worth the same as its spot put option
counterpart when the futures contract matures at the same time as the option.
Most of the futures options that trade are American-style. However, as we shall see, it
is useful to study European futures options because the results that are obtained can be
used to value the corresponding European spot options.
18.4 PUTāCALL PARITY
In Chapter 11, we derived a putācall parity relationship for European stock options. We now consider a similar argument to derive a putācall parity relationship for European futures options. Consider European futures call and put options, both with
strike price K and time to expiration T . We can form two portfolios:
PutāCall Parity for Futures
- European futures options are equivalent to spot options when the underlying futures contract and the option share the same maturity date.
- A specific putācall parity relationship is derived by comparing two portfolios that yield the same payoff at expiration regardless of the futures price.
- The parity formula for futures options differs from stock options by replacing the spot price with the discounted futures price.
- This relationship establishes theoretical lower bounds for the pricing of European call and put options on futures.
- The daily settlement process of futures contracts is a key factor in determining the current value of the portfolios used in the parity argument.
The difference between this putācall parity relationship and the one for a non-dividend-paying stock in equation (11. 6) is that the stock price, S0, is replaced by the discounted futures price, F0e-rT.
the same time as the option, then FT=ST and the two options are equivalent.
Similarly, a European futures put option is worth the same as its spot put option
counterpart when the futures contract matures at the same time as the option.
Most of the futures options that trade are American-style. However, as we shall see, it
is useful to study European futures options because the results that are obtained can be
used to value the corresponding European spot options.
18.4 PUTāCALL PARITY
In Chapter 11, we derived a putācall parity relationship for European stock options. We now consider a similar argument to derive a putācall parity relationship for European futures options. Consider European futures call and put options, both with
strike price K and time to expiration T . We can form two portfolios:
Portfolio A: a European futures call option plus an amount of cash equal to
Ke-rT
Portfolio B: a European futures put option plus a long futures contract plus an amount of cash equal to
F0e-rT, where F0 is the futures price
In portfolio A, the cash can be invested at the risk-free rate, r, and grows to K at time T.
Let FT be the futures price at maturity of the option. If FT7K, the call option in
portfolio A is exercised and portfolio A is worth FT. If FTā¦K, the call is not exercised
and portfolio A is worth K. The value of portfolio A at time T is therefore
max1FT, K2
In portfolio B, the cash can be invested at the risk-free rate to grow to F0 at time T. The
put option provides a payoff of max1K-FT, 02. The futures contract provides a payoff
of FT-F0.2 The value of portfolio B at time T is therefore
F0+1FT-F02+max1K-FT, 02=max1FT, K2
Because the two portfolios have the same value at time T and European options cannot
be exercised early, it follows that they are worth the same today. The value of portfolio A today is
c+Ke-rT
where c is the price of the futures call option. The daily settlement process ensures that the
futures contract in portfolio B is worth zero today. Portfolio B is therefore worth
p+F0e-rT
where p is the price of the futures put option. Hence
c+Ke-rT=p+F0e-rT (18.1)
The difference between this putācall parity relationship and the one for a non-
dividend-paying stock in equation (11. 6) is that the stock price, S0, is replaced by
the discounted futures price, F0e-rT.
2 This analysis assumes that a futures contract is like a forward contract and settled at the end of its life
rather than on a day-to-day basis.
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406 CHAPTER 18
As shown in Section 18. 3, when the underlying futures contract matures at the same
time as the option, European futures and spot options are the same. Equation (18. 1)
therefore gives a relationship between the price of a call option on the spot price, the
price of a put option on the spot price, and the futures price when both options mature at the same time as the futures contract.
Example 18.5
Suppose that the price of a European call option on a commodity for delivery in
six months is $0.56 per ounce when the strike price is $8.50. Assume that the
futures price for delivery in six months is currently $8.00, and the risk-free interest rate for an investment that matures in six months is 10% per annum. From a rearrangement of equation (18. 1), the price of a European put option on the spot
price with the same maturity and exercise date as the call option is
0.56+8.50e-0.1*6>12-8.00e-0.1*6>12=1.04
For American futures options, the putācall relationship is (see Problem 18.15)
F0e-rT-K6C-P6F0-Ke-rT (18.2)
18.5 BOUNDS FOR FUTURES OPTIONS
The putācall parity relationship in equation (18. 1) provides bounds for European call
and put options. Because the price of a put, p, cannot be negative, it follows from
equation (18. 1) that
c+Ke-rTĆF0e-rT
so that
cĆmax11F 0-K2e-rT, 02 (18.3)
Similarly, because the price of a call option cannot be negative, it follows from equa-
tion (18. 1) that
Ke-rTā¦F0e-rT+p
so that
Futures Options and Risk-Neutrality
- The text establishes mathematical lower bounds for European futures options based on put-call parity relationships.
- American futures options generally command higher lower bounds than European ones because the right to early exercise always carries potential value.
- In a risk-neutral world, a futures price behaves identically to a stock that pays a dividend yield equal to the risk-free interest rate.
- The drift of a futures price in a risk-neutral environment is proven to be zero, regardless of assumptions about interest rates or volatility.
- The standard model for futures price movement in a risk-neutral world is defined by a stochastic process where the change in price depends only on volatility.
This result is a very general one. It is true for all futures prices and does not depend on any assumptions about interest rates, volatilities, etc.
For American futures options, the putācall relationship is (see Problem 18.15)
F0e-rT-K6C-P6F0-Ke-rT (18.2)
18.5 BOUNDS FOR FUTURES OPTIONS
The putācall parity relationship in equation (18. 1) provides bounds for European call
and put options. Because the price of a put, p, cannot be negative, it follows from
equation (18. 1) that
c+Ke-rTĆF0e-rT
so that
cĆmax11F 0-K2e-rT, 02 (18.3)
Similarly, because the price of a call option cannot be negative, it follows from equa-
tion (18. 1) that
Ke-rTā¦F0e-rT+p
so that
pĆmax11K-F02e-rT, 02 (18.4)
These bounds are analogous to the ones derived for European stock options in
Chapter 11. The prices of European call and put options are very close to their lower
bounds when the options are deep in the money. To see why this is so, we return to the putācall parity relationship in equation (18. 1). When a call option is deep in the money,
a put option with the same strike price is deep out of the money. This means that p is
very close to zero. The difference between c and its lower bound equals p, so that the price of the call option must be very close to its lower bound. A similar argument applies to put options.
Because American futures options can be exercised at any time, we must have
CĆmax1F0-K, 02
and
PĆmax1K-F0, 02
Thus, assuming interest rates are positive, the lower bound for an American option
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Futures Options and Blackās Model 407
price is always higher than the lower bound for the corresponding European option
price. There is always some chance that an American futures option will be exercised early.
18.6 DRIFT OF A FUTURES PRICE IN A RISK-NEUTRAL WORLD
There is a general result that allows us to use the analysis in Section 17.3 for futures options. This result is that in a risk-neutral world a futures price behaves in the same way as a stock paying a dividend yield at the domestic risk-free interest rate r.
One clue that this might be so is given by noting that the putācall parity relationship
for futures options prices is the same as that for options on a stock paying a dividend yield at rate q when the stock price is replaced by the futures price and
q=r (compare
equations (18. 1) and (1 7.3)).
To prove the result formally, we calculate the drift of a futures price in a risk-neutral
world. We define Ft as the futures price at time t and suppose the settlement dates are
at times 0, āt, 2āt,cIf we enter into a long futures contract at time 0, its value is
zero. At time āt, it provides a payoff of Fāt-F0. If r is the very-short-term ( āt-period)
interest rate at time 0, risk-neutral valuation gives the value of the contract at time 0 as
e-rātEn3Fāt-F04
where En denotes expectations in a risk-neutral world. We must therefore have
e-rāt En1Fāt-F02=0
showing that
En1Fāt2=F0
Similarly, En1F2āt2=Fāt, En1F3āt2=F2āt, and so on. Putting many results like this
together, we see that
En1FT2=F0
for any time T.
The drift of the futures price in a risk-neutral world is therefore zero. From equa-
tion ( 17.7), the futures price behaves like a stock providing a dividend yield q equal to r.
This result is a very general one. It is true for all futures prices and does not depend on any assumptions about interest rates, volatilities, etc.
3
The usual assumption made for the process followed by a futures price F in the risk-
neutral world is
dF=sF dz (18.5)
where s is a constant.
Differential Equation
Blackās Model and Futures Pricing
- In a risk-neutral world, the drift of a futures price is zero, meaning it behaves like a stock with a dividend yield equal to the risk-free interest rate.
- A zero-drift stochastic process is formally known as a martingale, which simplifies the valuation of derivatives dependent on futures.
- Fischer Black extended the Black-Scholes-Merton framework in 1976 to value European futures options by substituting the futures price for the spot price.
- When the option and the futures contract mature at the same time, European futures options and European spot options are considered equivalent.
- The volatility of a futures price is generally identical to the volatility of the underlying asset when the cost of carry is a function of time.
A futures price has zero drift in the traditional risk-neutral world where the numeraire is the money market account.
for any time T.
The drift of the futures price in a risk-neutral world is therefore zero. From equa-
tion ( 17.7), the futures price behaves like a stock providing a dividend yield q equal to r.
This result is a very general one. It is true for all futures prices and does not depend on any assumptions about interest rates, volatilities, etc.
3
The usual assumption made for the process followed by a futures price F in the risk-
neutral world is
dF=sF dz (18.5)
where s is a constant.
Differential Equation
For another way of seeing that a futures price behaves like a stock paying a dividend
yield at rate q, we can derive the differential equation satisfied by a derivative dependent
3 As we will discover in Chapter 28, a more precise statement of the result is: ā A futures price has zero drift in
the traditional risk-neutral world where the numeraire is the money market account. ā A zero-drift stochastic
process is known as a martingale. A forward price is a martingale in a different risk-neutral world. This is one where the numeraire is a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T.
M18_HULL0654_11_GE_C18.indd 407 12/05/2021 17:50
408 CHAPTER 18
on a futures price in the same way as we derived the differential equation for a derivative
dependent on a non-dividend-paying stock in Section 15.6. This is4
0f
0t+1
2 02f
0F2 s2F2=rf (18.6)
It has the same form as equation (1 7.6) with q set equal to r. This confirms that, for the
purpose of valuing derivatives, a futures price can be treated in the same way as a stock providing a dividend yield at rate r.
4 See Technical Note 7 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a proof of this.
5 See F. Black, āThe Pricing of Commodity Contracts, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (March 1976):
167ā79.18.7 BLACKāS MODEL FOR VALUING FUTURES OPTIONS
European futures options can be valued by extending the results we have produced. Fischer Black was the first to show this in a paper published in 1976.
5 Assuming that
the futures price follows the (lognormal) process in equation (18. 5), the European call
price c and the European put price p for a futures option are given by equations (1 7.4)
and (1 7.5) with S0 replaced by F0 and q=r:
c=e-rT3F0N1d12-KN1d224 (18.7)
p=e-rT3KN1-d22-F0N1-d124 (18.8)
where
d1=ln1F0>K2+s2T>2
s2T
d2=ln1F0>K2-s2T>2
s2T=d1-s2T
and s is the volatility of the futures price. When the cost of carry and the convenience
yield are functions only of time, it can be shown that the volatility of the futures price is
the same as the volatility of the underlying asset.
Example 18.6
Consider a European put futures option on a commodity. The time to the optionās
maturity is 4 months, the current futures price is $20, the exercise price is $20, the
risk-free interest rate is 9% per annum, and the volatility of the futures price is 25%
per annum. In this case, F0=20, K=20, r=0.09, T=4>12, s=0.25, and
ln1F0>K2=0, so that
d1=s2T
2=0.07216
d2=-s2T
2=-0.07216
N1-d12=0.4712, N1-d22=0.52880f
0t+1
2 02f
0F2 s2F2=rf
M18_HULL0654_11_GE_C18.indd 408 12/05/2021 17:50
Futures Options and Blackās Model 409
and the put price p is given by
p=e-0.09*4>12120*0.5288-20*0.47122=1.12
or $1.12.
18.8 USING BLACKāS MODEL INSTEAD OF
BLACKāSCHOLESāMERTON
The results in Section 18. 3 show that European futures options and European spot
options are equivalent when the option contract matures at the same time as the futures
contract. Specifically, equations (18. 7) and (18. 8) provide the price of a European
option on the spot price of a asset where F0 is the futures price of the asset for a
contract maturing at the same time as the option.
Example 18.7
Black's Model and Futures Options
- European spot options and futures options are equivalent when the option and the futures contract share the same maturity date.
- Traders often prefer Blackās model over BlackāScholesāMerton because it eliminates the need to explicitly estimate income or convenience yields.
- The futures or forward price used in Black's model inherently incorporates market expectations regarding dividends, foreign interest rates, and storage costs.
- Binomial trees for futures options differ from stock options because entering a futures contract requires no up-front cost, affecting the underlying valuation logic.
- Put-call parity is frequently used to imply forward prices from actively traded options, which are then interpolated for other maturities.
The big advantage of Blackās model is that it avoids the need to estimate the income (or convenience yield) on the underlying asset.
p=e-0.09*4>12120*0.5288-20*0.47122=1.12
or $1.12.
18.8 USING BLACKāS MODEL INSTEAD OF
BLACKāSCHOLESāMERTON
The results in Section 18. 3 show that European futures options and European spot
options are equivalent when the option contract matures at the same time as the futures
contract. Specifically, equations (18. 7) and (18. 8) provide the price of a European
option on the spot price of a asset where F0 is the futures price of the asset for a
contract maturing at the same time as the option.
Example 18.7
Consider a six-month European call option on the spot price of gold, that is, an
option to buy one ounce of gold in the spot market in six months. The strike price is $1,200, the six-month futures price of gold is $1,240, the risk-free rate of interest is 5% per annum, and the volatility of the futures price is 20%. The option is the same as a six-month European option on the six-month futures price. The value of the option is therefore given by equation (18. 7) as
e-0.05*0.531,240N1d12-1,200N1d224
where
d1=ln11,240>1,2002+0.22*0.5>2
0.2*20.5=0.3026
d2=ln11,240>1,2002-0.22*0.5>2
0.2*20.5=0.1611
It is $88.37.
Traders like to use Blackās model rather than BlackāScholesāMerton to value Euro-
pean spot options. It has a fairly general applicability. The underlying asset can be a consumption or investment asset and it can provide income to the holder. Often
F0 is
set equal to the forward price rather than the futures price. When interest rates are assumed to be deterministic, forward and futures prices are equal and so this is valid.
As we will see later in the book, when interest rates are stochastic it is valid to set
F0
equal to the forward price provided that r is the risk-free rate for maturity T.
The big advantage of Blackās model is that it avoids the need to estimate the income
(or convenience yield) on the underlying asset. The futures or forward price that is used in the model incorporate the marketās estimate of this income.
Equations (1 7.13) and (1 7.14) show Blackās model being used to value European
options on the spot value of a currency. In this case, Blackās model avoids the need to
estimate the foreign risk-free rate explicity because all information needed about this rate is captured by
F0. Equations (1 7.8) and (1 7.9) show Blackās model being used to
value European options on the spot value of an index. In this case, dividends on the
underlying portfolio of stocks do not have to be estimated explicitly because all
information needed about dividends is captured by F0.
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410 CHAPTER 18
When considering stock indices in Section 17.4, we explained that putācall parity is
used to imply the forward prices for maturities for which there are actively traded
options. Interpolation is then used to estimate forward prices for other maturities. The same approach can be used for a wide range of other underlying assets.
18.9 VALUATION OF FUTURES OPTIONS USING BINOMIAL TREES
This section examines, more formally than in Chapter 13, how binomial trees can be used to price futures options. A key difference between futures options and stock options is that there are no up-front costs when a futures contract is entered into.
Suppose that the current futures price is 30 and that it will move either up to 33 or
down to 28 over the next month. We consider a one-month call option on the futures with a strike price of 29 and ignore daily settlement. The situation is as indicated in Figure 18.1. If the futures price proves to be 33, the payoff from the option is 4 and the
value of the futures contract is 3. If the futures price proves to be 28, the payoff from the
option is zero and the value of the futures contract is
-2.6
Pricing Futures Options with Binomial Trees
- The text establishes a formal framework for pricing futures options using binomial trees, highlighting that futures contracts require no up-front costs.
- A riskless hedge is constructed by combining a short position in an option with a specific delta (Ī) of long futures contracts.
- The valuation formula generalizes to a risk-neutral probability model where the option value is the discounted expected payoff.
- Multistep trees can be applied to American-style futures options by defining price movements based on volatility and time-step length.
- The risk-neutral probability of an up movement in a futures price is uniquely determined by the magnitude of the up and down shifts.
A key difference between futures options and stock options is that there are no up-front costs when a futures contract is entered into.
This section examines, more formally than in Chapter 13, how binomial trees can be used to price futures options. A key difference between futures options and stock options is that there are no up-front costs when a futures contract is entered into.
Suppose that the current futures price is 30 and that it will move either up to 33 or
down to 28 over the next month. We consider a one-month call option on the futures with a strike price of 29 and ignore daily settlement. The situation is as indicated in Figure 18.1. If the futures price proves to be 33, the payoff from the option is 4 and the
value of the futures contract is 3. If the futures price proves to be 28, the payoff from the
option is zero and the value of the futures contract is
-2.6
To set up a riskless hedge, we consider a portfolio consisting of a short position in
one option contract and a long position in ā futures contracts. If the futures price
moves up to 33, the value of the portfolio is 3ā-4; if it moves down to 28, the value
of the portfolio is -2ā. The portfolio is riskless when these are the same, that is,
when
3ā-4=-2ā
or ā=0.8.
For this value of ā, we know the portfolio will be worth 3*0.8-4=-1.6 in one
month. Assume a risk-free interest rate of 6%. The value of the portfolio today
must be
-1.6e-0.06*1>12=-1.592
6 There is an approximation here in that the gain or loss on the futures contract is not realized at time T. It is
realized day by day between time 0 and time T . However, as the length of the time step in a multistep
binomial tree becomes shorter, the approximation becomes better.Figure 18.1 Futures price movements in numerical example.
30
2833
M18_HULL0654_11_GE_C18.indd 410 12/05/2021 17:50
Futures Options and Blackās Model 411
The portfolio consists of one short option and ¢ futures contracts. Because the value of
the futures contract today is zero, the value of the option today must be 1.592.
A Generalization
We can generalize this analysis by considering a futures price that starts at F0 and is
anticipated to rise to F0u or move down to F0d over the time period T. We consider an
option maturing at time T and suppose that its payoff is fu if the futures price moves up
and fd if it moves down. The situation is summarized in Figure 18. 2.
The riskless portfolio in this case consists of a short position in one option combined
with a long position in ā futures contracts, where
ā=fu-fd
F0u-F0d
The value of the portfolio at time T is then always
1F0u-F02ā-fu
Denoting the risk-free interest rate by r, we obtain the value of the portfolio today as
31F0u-F02ā-fu4e-rT
Another expression for the present value of the portfolio is -f, where f is the value of
the option today. It follows that
-f=31F0u-F02ā-fu4e-rT
Substituting for ā and simplifying reduces this equation to
f=e-rT3 pfu+11-p2fd4 (18.9)
where
p=1-d
u-d (18.10)
This agrees with the result in Section 13.9. Equation (18. 10) gives the risk-neutral
probability of an up movement.
Figure 18.2 Futures price and option price in a general situation.
fdF0dfuF0u
fF0
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412 CHAPTER 18
In the numerical example considered previously (see Figure 18. 1), u=1.1,
d=0.9333, r=0.06, T=1>12, fu=4, and fd=0. From equation (18. 10),
p=1-0.9333
1.1-0.9333=0.4
and, from equation (18. 9),
f=e-0.06*1>1230.4*4+0.6*04=1.592
This result agrees with the answer obtained for this example earlier.
Multistep Trees
Multistep binomial trees are used to value American-style futures options in much the
same way that they are used to value options on stocks. This is explained in Section 13.9. The parameter u defining up movements in the futures price is
es1āt, where s is the
volatility of the futures price and āt is the length of one time step. The probability of an
up movement in the future price is that in equation (18. 10):
p=1-d
u-d
Valuing American Futures Options
- Multistep binomial trees are adapted for American-style futures options by using specific parameters for up movements and probabilities based on futures price volatility.
- Unlike European options, American futures options often warrant early exercise when interest rates are positive, making them more valuable than their European counterparts.
- The value of an American futures option differs from a spot option based on whether the market is normal or inverted, as futures prices may be higher or lower than spot prices.
- Futures-style options function as bets on an option's payoff, where traders post margin and settle daily rather than paying the full premium upfront.
- In a futures-style option, the futures price is equivalent to the current European option price compounded forward at the risk-free rate.
Just as a futures contract is a bet on what the future price of an asset will be, a futures-style option is a bet on what the payoff from an option will be.
This result agrees with the answer obtained for this example earlier.
Multistep Trees
Multistep binomial trees are used to value American-style futures options in much the
same way that they are used to value options on stocks. This is explained in Section 13.9. The parameter u defining up movements in the futures price is
es1āt, where s is the
volatility of the futures price and āt is the length of one time step. The probability of an
up movement in the future price is that in equation (18. 10):
p=1-d
u-d
Example 13.3 illustrates the use of multistep binomial trees for valuing a futures option. Example 21.3 in Chapter 21 provides a further illustration.
18.10 AMERICAN FUTURES OPTIONS vs. AMERICAN SPOT OPTIONS
Traded futures options are in practice usually American. Assuming that the risk-free rate of interest, r, is positive, there is always some chance that it will be optimal to exercise an American futures option early. American futures options are therefore
worth more than their European counterparts.
It is not generally true that an American futures option is worth the same as the
corresponding American spot option when the futures and options contracts have the same maturity.
7 Suppose, for example, that there is a normal market with futures prices
consistently higher than spot prices prior to maturity. An American futures call option must be worth more than the corresponding American spot call option. The reason is that in some situations the futures option will be exercised early, in which case it will provide a greater profit to the holder. Similarly, an American futures put option must be worth less than the corresponding American spot put option. If there is an inverted market with futures prices consistently lower than spot prices, the reverse must be true. American futures call options are worth less than the corresponding American spot call option, whereas American futures put options are worth more than the corresponding American spot put option.
The differences just described between American futures options and American spot
options hold true when the futures contract expires later than the options contract as well as when the two expire at the same time. In fact, the later the futures contract expires the greater the differences tend to be.
7 The spot option ācorrespondingā to a futures option is defined here as one with the same strike price and
the same expiration date.
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Futures Options and Blackās Model 413
18.11 FUTURES-STYLE OPTIONS
Some exchanges, particularly those in Europe, trade what are termed futures-style
options. These are futures contracts on the payoff from an option. Normally a trader who buys (sells) an option, whether on the spot price of an asset or on the futures price of an asset, pays (receives) cash up front. By contrast, traders who buy or sell a futures-style option post margin in the same way that they do on a regular futures contract (see Chapter 2). The contract is settled daily as with any other futures contract and the final settlement price is the payoff from the option. Just as a futures contract is a bet on what the future price of an asset will be, a futures-style option is a bet on what the payoff from an option will be.
8 If interest rates are constant, the futures price in a futures-style
option is the same as the forward price in a forward contract on the option payoff. Our analysis of forward contracts in Chapter 5 shows that this is the current option price compounded forward at the risk-free rate.
Blackās model in equations (18. 7) and (18. 8) gives the current European option price.
The futures price in a futures-style call option is therefore
F0N1d12-K N1d22
and the futures price in a futures-style put option is
K N1-d22-F0N1-d12
Pricing Futures-Style Options
- Futures-style options are valued using formulas that do not depend on interest rate levels when rates are constant.
- The put-call parity for futures-style options is expressed by the relationship p + F0 = c + K.
- It is never optimal to exercise an American futures-style option early because its futures price consistently exceeds its intrinsic value.
- A futures price behaves mathematically like a stock providing a dividend yield equal to the risk-free interest rate.
- American futures calls are worth more than American spot calls in normal markets, but the reverse is true in inverted markets.
But as it turns out, it is never optimal to exercise an American futures-style option early because the futures price of the option is always greater than the intrinsic value.
8 If interest rates are constant, the futures price in a futures-style
option is the same as the forward price in a forward contract on the option payoff. Our analysis of forward contracts in Chapter 5 shows that this is the current option price compounded forward at the risk-free rate.
Blackās model in equations (18. 7) and (18. 8) gives the current European option price.
The futures price in a futures-style call option is therefore
F0N1d12-K N1d22
and the futures price in a futures-style put option is
K N1-d22-F0N1-d12
where d1 and d2 are as defined in equations (18. 7) and (18. 8). These formulas do not
depend on the level of interest rates. They are correct for a futures-style option on a futures contract and a futures-style option on the spot value of an asset. In the first
case,
F0 is the current futures price for the contract underlying the option; in the second
case, it is the current futures price for a futures contract on the underlying asset maturing at the same time as the option.
The putācall parity relationship for a futures-style options is
p+F0=c+K
An American futures-style option can be exercised early, in which case there is an
immediate final settlement at the optionās intrinsic value. But as it turns out, it is never optimal to exercise an American futures-style option early because the futures price of the option is always greater than the intrinsic value. This type of American futures-style option can therefore be treated as though it is European.
SUMMARY
Futures options require delivery of the underlying futures contract on exercise. When a call is exercised, the holder acquires a long futures position plus a cash amount equal to the excess of the futures price over the strike price. Similarly, when a put is exercised the
holder acquires a short position plus a cash amount equal to the excess of the strike
8 For a more detailed discussion of futures-style options, see D. Lieu, āOption Pricing with Futures-Style
Margining, ā Journal of Futures Markets, 10, 4 (1990), 327ā38. For pricing when interest rates are stochastic,
see R.-R. Chen and L. Scott, āPricing Interest Rate Futures Options with Futures-Style Margining. ā Journal
of Futures Markets, 13, 1 (1993) 15ā22.
M18_HULL0654_11_GE_C18.indd 413 12/05/2021 17:50
414 CHAPTER 18
price over the futures price. The futures contract that is delivered usually expires slightly
later than the option.
A futures price behaves in the same way as a stock that provides a dividend yield
equal to the risk-free rate, r. This means that the results produced in Chapter 17 for options on a stock paying a dividend yield apply to futures options if we replace the stock price by the futures price and set the dividend yield equal to the risk-free interest
rate. Pricing formulas for European futures options were first produced by Fischer Black in 1976. They assume that the futures price is lognormally distributed at the optionās expiration.
If the expiration dates for the option and futures contracts are the same, a European
futures option is worth exactly the same as the corresponding European spot option. This result is often used to value European spot options. The result is not true for American options. If the futures market is normal, an American futures call is worth more than the corresponding American spot call option, while an American futures put is worth less than the corresponding American spot put option. If the futures market is inverted, the reverse is true.
FURTHER READING
Black, F. āThe Pricing of Commodity Contracts, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (1976):
167ā79.
Practice Questions
Futures Options and Black's Model
- Futures prices behave similarly to stocks with a dividend yield equal to the risk-free interest rate.
- Fischer Black's 1976 formulas for European futures options assume the futures price follows a lognormal distribution at expiration.
- European futures options and European spot options share the same value if their expiration dates are identical.
- The valuation of American futures options differs from spot options based on whether the market is normal or inverted.
- In a normal market, an American futures call is worth more than a spot call, while an American futures put is worth less than a spot put.
If the expiration dates for the option and futures contracts are the same, a European futures option is worth exactly the same as the corresponding European spot option.
price over the futures price. The futures contract that is delivered usually expires slightly
later than the option.
A futures price behaves in the same way as a stock that provides a dividend yield
equal to the risk-free rate, r. This means that the results produced in Chapter 17 for options on a stock paying a dividend yield apply to futures options if we replace the stock price by the futures price and set the dividend yield equal to the risk-free interest
rate. Pricing formulas for European futures options were first produced by Fischer Black in 1976. They assume that the futures price is lognormally distributed at the optionās expiration.
If the expiration dates for the option and futures contracts are the same, a European
futures option is worth exactly the same as the corresponding European spot option. This result is often used to value European spot options. The result is not true for American options. If the futures market is normal, an American futures call is worth more than the corresponding American spot call option, while an American futures put is worth less than the corresponding American spot put option. If the futures market is inverted, the reverse is true.
FURTHER READING
Black, F. āThe Pricing of Commodity Contracts, ā Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (1976):
167ā79.
Practice Questions
18.1. A futures price is currently 50. At the end of six months it will be either 56 or 46. The risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum. What is the value of a six-month European call option on the futures with a strike price of 50?
18.2. Consider an American futures call option where the futures contract and the option contract expire at the same time. Under what circumstances is the futures option worth more than the corresponding American option on the underlying asset?
18.3. Calculate the value of a five-month European futures put option when the futures price is $19, the strike price is $20, the risk-free interest rate is 12% per annum, and the volatility of the futures price is 20% per annum.
18.4. Suppose you buy a put option contract on October gold futures with a strike price of
$1,400 per ounce. Each contract is for the delivery of 100 ounces. What happens if you exercise when the October futures price is $1,380?
18.5. Suppose you sell a call option contract on April live cattle futures with a strike price of 130 cents per pound. Each contract is for the delivery of 40,000 pounds. What happens if
the contract is exercised when the futures price is 135 cents?
18.6. Consider a two-month futures call option with a strike price of 40 when the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum. The current futures price is 47. What is a lower bound for the value of the futures option if it is (a) European and (b) American?
M18_HULL0654_11_GE_C18.indd 414 12/05/2021 17:50
Futures Options and Blackās Model 415
Futures Options and Blackās Model
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on valuing European and American options on futures contracts.
- Calculations involve the application of binomial trees and Black's model to determine option prices based on volatility, strike prices, and risk-free rates.
- Several problems explore the mechanics of exercising futures options, including the physical delivery of underlying assets like gold and live cattle.
- The exercises address theoretical bounds for option values and the verification of put-call parity relationships in futures markets.
- Specific scenarios challenge the reader to identify arbitrage opportunities when market prices deviate from theoretical values.
Identify an arbitrage opportunity.
18.1. A futures price is currently 50. At the end of six months it will be either 56 or 46. The risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum. What is the value of a six-month European call option on the futures with a strike price of 50?
18.2. Consider an American futures call option where the futures contract and the option contract expire at the same time. Under what circumstances is the futures option worth more than the corresponding American option on the underlying asset?
18.3. Calculate the value of a five-month European futures put option when the futures price is $19, the strike price is $20, the risk-free interest rate is 12% per annum, and the volatility of the futures price is 20% per annum.
18.4. Suppose you buy a put option contract on October gold futures with a strike price of
$1,400 per ounce. Each contract is for the delivery of 100 ounces. What happens if you exercise when the October futures price is $1,380?
18.5. Suppose you sell a call option contract on April live cattle futures with a strike price of 130 cents per pound. Each contract is for the delivery of 40,000 pounds. What happens if
the contract is exercised when the futures price is 135 cents?
18.6. Consider a two-month futures call option with a strike price of 40 when the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum. The current futures price is 47. What is a lower bound for the value of the futures option if it is (a) European and (b) American?
M18_HULL0654_11_GE_C18.indd 414 12/05/2021 17:50
Futures Options and Blackās Model 415
18.7. Consider a four-month futures put option with a strike price of 50 when the risk-free
interest rate is 10% per annum. The current futures price is 47. What is a lower bound for the value of the futures option if it is (a) European and (b) American?
18.8. A futures price is currently 60 and its volatility is 30%. The risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum. Use a two-step binomial tree to calculate the value of a six-month European call option on the futures with a strike price of 60. If the call were American, would it ever be worth exercising it early?
18.9. In Problem 18.8, what does the binomial tree give for the value of a six-month
European put option on futures with a strike price of 60? If the put were American, would it ever be worth exercising it early? Verify that the call prices calculated in Problem 18.8 and the put prices calculated here satisfy putācall parity relationships.
18.10. A futures price is currently 25, its volatility is 30% per annum, and the risk-free interest
rate is 10% per annum. What is the value of a nine-month European call on the futures with a strike price of 26?
18.11. A futures price is currently 70, its volatility is 20% per annum, and the risk-free interest
rate is 6% per annum. What is the value of a five-month European put on the futures with a strike price of 65?
18.12. Suppose that a one-year futures price is currently 35. A one-year European call option
and a one-year European put option on the futures with a strike price of 34 are both priced at 2 in the market. The risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum. Identify an arbitrage opportunity.
18.13. āThe price of an at-the-money European futures call option always equals the price of a
similar at-the-money European futures put option.ā Explain why this statement is true.
18.14. Suppose that a futures price is currently 30. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum.
A three-month American futures call option with a strike price of 28 is worth 4.
Calculate bounds for the price of a three-month American futures put option with a
strike price of 28.
18.15. Show that, if C is the price of an American call option on a futures contract when the
strike price is K and the maturity is T, and P is the price of an American put on the same futures contract with the same strike price and exercise date, then
F0e-rT-K6C-P6F0-Ke-rT
Futures Options Problem Set
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating the value of European and American options on futures contracts.
- Key financial concepts explored include the use of binomial trees, volatility estimates, and risk-free interest rates to determine option pricing.
- Several problems require the verification of put-call parity relationships and the identification of market arbitrage opportunities.
- The exercises address practical hedging scenarios, such as a corporation using exchange-traded options to guarantee a minimum interest rate on a future investment.
- Mathematical proofs are requested to establish price bounds for American futures options based on strike prices and contract maturities.
Identify an arbitrage opportunity.
18.7. Consider a four-month futures put option with a strike price of 50 when the risk-free
interest rate is 10% per annum. The current futures price is 47. What is a lower bound for the value of the futures option if it is (a) European and (b) American?
18.8. A futures price is currently 60 and its volatility is 30%. The risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum. Use a two-step binomial tree to calculate the value of a six-month European call option on the futures with a strike price of 60. If the call were American, would it ever be worth exercising it early?
18.9. In Problem 18.8, what does the binomial tree give for the value of a six-month
European put option on futures with a strike price of 60? If the put were American, would it ever be worth exercising it early? Verify that the call prices calculated in Problem 18.8 and the put prices calculated here satisfy putācall parity relationships.
18.10. A futures price is currently 25, its volatility is 30% per annum, and the risk-free interest
rate is 10% per annum. What is the value of a nine-month European call on the futures with a strike price of 26?
18.11. A futures price is currently 70, its volatility is 20% per annum, and the risk-free interest
rate is 6% per annum. What is the value of a five-month European put on the futures with a strike price of 65?
18.12. Suppose that a one-year futures price is currently 35. A one-year European call option
and a one-year European put option on the futures with a strike price of 34 are both priced at 2 in the market. The risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum. Identify an arbitrage opportunity.
18.13. āThe price of an at-the-money European futures call option always equals the price of a
similar at-the-money European futures put option.ā Explain why this statement is true.
18.14. Suppose that a futures price is currently 30. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum.
A three-month American futures call option with a strike price of 28 is worth 4.
Calculate bounds for the price of a three-month American futures put option with a
strike price of 28.
18.15. Show that, if C is the price of an American call option on a futures contract when the
strike price is K and the maturity is T, and P is the price of an American put on the same futures contract with the same strike price and exercise date, then
F0e-rT-K6C-P6F0-Ke-rT
where F0 is the futures price and r is the risk-free rate. Assume that r70 and that there
is no difference between forward and futures contracts. (Hint: Use an analogous approach to that indicated for Problem 17.10.)
18.16. Calculate the price of a three-month European call option on the spot value of silver.
The three-month futures price is $12, the strike price is $13, the risk-free rate is 4% and the volatility of the price of silver is 25%.
18.17. A corporation knows that in three months it will have $5 million to invest for 90 days at
LIBOR minus 50 basis points and wishes to ensure that the rate obtained will be at least 6.5%. What position in exchange-traded options should it take to hedge?
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Futures and Options Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on pricing European and American options on futures contracts.
- Specific exercises require the application of the Black-Scholes model and binomial trees to value calls and puts on assets like silver, corn, and soybeans.
- One scenario explores corporate hedging strategies, specifically using exchange-traded options to guarantee a minimum investment return relative to LIBOR.
- The problems emphasize the relationship between futures prices, strike prices, and implied volatility in determining market premiums.
- Calculations involve comparing European and American option values, highlighting the impact of early exercise features on pricing ranges.
A corporation knows that in three months it will have $5 million to invest for 90 days at LIBOR minus 50 basis points and wishes to ensure that the rate obtained will be at least 6.5%.
where F0 is the futures price and r is the risk-free rate. Assume that r70 and that there
is no difference between forward and futures contracts. (Hint: Use an analogous approach to that indicated for Problem 17.10.)
18.16. Calculate the price of a three-month European call option on the spot value of silver.
The three-month futures price is $12, the strike price is $13, the risk-free rate is 4% and the volatility of the price of silver is 25%.
18.17. A corporation knows that in three months it will have $5 million to invest for 90 days at
LIBOR minus 50 basis points and wishes to ensure that the rate obtained will be at least 6.5%. What position in exchange-traded options should it take to hedge?
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18.18. A futures price is currently 40. It is known that at the end of three months the price will
be either 35 or 45. What is the value of a three-month European call option on the
futures with a strike price of 42 if the risk-free interest rate is 7% per annum?
18.19. The futures price of an asset is currently 78 and the risk-free rate is 3%. A six-month put
on the futures with a strike price of 80 is currently worth 6.5. What is the value of a six-month call on the futures with a strike price of 80 if both the put and call are European? What is the range of possible values of the six-month call with a strike price of 80 if both put and call are American?
18.20. Use a three-step tree to value an American futures put option when the futures price is
50, the life of the option is 9 months, the strike price is 50, the risk-free rate is 3%, and the volatility is 25%.
18.21. It is February 4. July call options on corn futures with strike prices of 260, 270, 280, 290,
and 300 cost 26.75, 21.25, 17.25, 14.00, and 11.375, respectively. July put options with these strike prices cost 8.50, 13.50, 19.00, 25.625, and 32.625, respectively. The options mature on June 19, the current July corn futures price is 278.25, and the risk-free interest rate is 1.1%. Calculate implied volatilities for the options using DerivaGem. Comment on the results you get.
18.22. Calculate the implied volatility of soybean futures prices from the following information
concerning a European put on soybean futures:
Current futures price 525
Exercise price 525
Risk-free rate 6% per annum
Time to maturity 5 months
Put price 20
18.23. Calculate the price of a six-month European put option on the spot value of an index.
The six-month forward price of the index is 1,400, the strike price is 1,450, the risk-free rate is 5%, and the volatility of the index is 15%.
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The Greek Letters19 CHAPTER
Managing Risk with Greek Letters
- Financial institutions face significant challenges when hedging bespoke over-the-counter options that lack direct exchange-traded equivalents.
- The 'Greek letters' serve as essential metrics for measuring different dimensions of risk within an option position.
- Traders aim to manage these Greeks to ensure that all market risks remain within acceptable institutional limits.
- Creating an option synthetically is fundamentally the same process as hedging the opposite position of that option.
- The effectiveness of a hedging procedure can be influenced by the expected return of the underlying asset, even if it does not affect the option's price.
Each Greek letter measures a different dimension to the risk in an option position and the aim of a trader is to manage the Greeks so that all risks are acceptable.
18.18. A futures price is currently 40. It is known that at the end of three months the price will
be either 35 or 45. What is the value of a three-month European call option on the
futures with a strike price of 42 if the risk-free interest rate is 7% per annum?
18.19. The futures price of an asset is currently 78 and the risk-free rate is 3%. A six-month put
on the futures with a strike price of 80 is currently worth 6.5. What is the value of a six-month call on the futures with a strike price of 80 if both the put and call are European? What is the range of possible values of the six-month call with a strike price of 80 if both put and call are American?
18.20. Use a three-step tree to value an American futures put option when the futures price is
50, the life of the option is 9 months, the strike price is 50, the risk-free rate is 3%, and the volatility is 25%.
18.21. It is February 4. July call options on corn futures with strike prices of 260, 270, 280, 290,
and 300 cost 26.75, 21.25, 17.25, 14.00, and 11.375, respectively. July put options with these strike prices cost 8.50, 13.50, 19.00, 25.625, and 32.625, respectively. The options mature on June 19, the current July corn futures price is 278.25, and the risk-free interest rate is 1.1%. Calculate implied volatilities for the options using DerivaGem. Comment on the results you get.
18.22. Calculate the implied volatility of soybean futures prices from the following information
concerning a European put on soybean futures:
Current futures price 525
Exercise price 525
Risk-free rate 6% per annum
Time to maturity 5 months
Put price 20
18.23. Calculate the price of a six-month European put option on the spot value of an index.
The six-month forward price of the index is 1,400, the strike price is 1,450, the risk-free rate is 5%, and the volatility of the index is 15%.
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The Greek Letters19 CHAPTER
A financial institution that sells an option to a client in the over-the-counter markets is
faced with the problem of managing its risk. If the option happens to be the same as one that is traded actively on an exchange or in the OTC market, the financial institution can neutralize its exposure by buying the same option as it has sold. But when the option has been tailored to the needs of a client and does not correspond to the products traded by exchanges, hedging the exposure is far more difficult.
In this chapter we discuss some of the alternative approaches to this problem. We
cover what are commonly referred to as the āGreek lettersā, or simply the āGreeksā. Each Greek letter measures a different dimension to the risk in an option position and the aim of a trader is to manage the Greeks so that all risks are acceptable. The analysis presented in this chapter is applicable to market makers in options on an exchange as well as to traders working in the over-the-counter market for financial institutions.
Toward the end of the chapter, we will consider the creation of options synthetically.
This turns out to be very closely related to the hedging of options. Creating an option position synthetically is essentially the same task as hedging the opposite option position. For example, creating a long call option synthetically is the same as hedging a short position in the call option.
1 As shown in Chapters 13 and 15, the expected return is irrelevant to the pricing of an option. It is given here
because it can have some bearing on the effectiveness of a hedging procedure.19.1 ILLUSTRATION
In the next few sections we use as an example the position of a financial institution that has sold for $300,000 a European call option on 100,000 shares of a non-dividend- paying stock. We assume that the stock price is $49, the strike price is $50, the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum, the stock price volatility is 20% per annum, the time to maturity is 20 weeks (0.3846 years), and the expected return from the stock is 13% per annum.
Managing Option Risk and Greeks
- Financial institutions face significant risk management challenges when selling customized over-the-counter options that cannot be easily offset by exchange-traded products.
- The 'Greek letters' provide a framework for measuring different dimensions of risk, allowing traders to manage positions so that total exposure remains acceptable.
- A 'naked position' strategy involves doing nothing, which can lead to massive losses if the stock price rises significantly above the strike price.
- A 'covered position' involves buying the underlying stock immediately, but this exposes the institution to heavy losses if the stock price declines sharply.
- Neither naked nor covered positions provide an effective hedge, as they result in high variance where costs can range from zero to over a million dollars.
Neither a naked position nor a covered position provides a good hedge.
A financial institution that sells an option to a client in the over-the-counter markets is
faced with the problem of managing its risk. If the option happens to be the same as one that is traded actively on an exchange or in the OTC market, the financial institution can neutralize its exposure by buying the same option as it has sold. But when the option has been tailored to the needs of a client and does not correspond to the products traded by exchanges, hedging the exposure is far more difficult.
In this chapter we discuss some of the alternative approaches to this problem. We
cover what are commonly referred to as the āGreek lettersā, or simply the āGreeksā. Each Greek letter measures a different dimension to the risk in an option position and the aim of a trader is to manage the Greeks so that all risks are acceptable. The analysis presented in this chapter is applicable to market makers in options on an exchange as well as to traders working in the over-the-counter market for financial institutions.
Toward the end of the chapter, we will consider the creation of options synthetically.
This turns out to be very closely related to the hedging of options. Creating an option position synthetically is essentially the same task as hedging the opposite option position. For example, creating a long call option synthetically is the same as hedging a short position in the call option.
1 As shown in Chapters 13 and 15, the expected return is irrelevant to the pricing of an option. It is given here
because it can have some bearing on the effectiveness of a hedging procedure.19.1 ILLUSTRATION
In the next few sections we use as an example the position of a financial institution that has sold for $300,000 a European call option on 100,000 shares of a non-dividend- paying stock. We assume that the stock price is $49, the strike price is $50, the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum, the stock price volatility is 20% per annum, the time to maturity is 20 weeks (0.3846 years), and the expected return from the stock is 13% per annum.
1 With our usual notation, this means that
S0=49, K=50, r=0.05, s=0.20, T=0.3846, m=0.13
The BlackāScholesāMerton price of the option is about $240,000. (This is because the
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418 CHAPTER 19
One strategy open to the financial institution is to do nothing. This is sometimes referred
to as a naked position. It is a strategy that works well if the stock price is below $50 at the
end of the 20 weeks. The option then costs the financial institution nothing and it makes a profit of $300,000. A naked position works less well if the call is exercised because the financial institution then has to buy 100,000 shares at the market price prevailing in 20
weeks to cover the call. The cost to the financial institution is 100,000 times the amount
by which the stock price exceeds the strike price. For example, if after 20 weeks the stock price is $60, the option costs the financial institution $1,000,000. This is considerably greater than the $300,000 charged for the option.
As an alternative to a naked position, the financial institution can adopt a covered
position. This involves buying 100,000 shares as soon as the option has been sold. If the option is exercised, this strategy works well, but in other circumstances it could lead to a
significant loss. For example, if the stock price drops to $40, the financial institution loses $900,000 on its stock position. This is also considerably greater than the $300,000 charged for the option.
3
Neither a naked position nor a covered position provides a good hedge. If the
assumptions underlying the BlackāScholesāMerton formula hold, the cost to the financial institution should always be $240,000 on average for both approaches.
4 But
on any one occasion the cost is liable to range from zero to over $1,000,000. A good
hedge would ensure that the cost is always close to $240,000.
A Stop-Loss Strategy
Hedging Naked and Covered Positions
- A naked position involves doing nothing after selling an option, which yields profit if the option expires worthless but risks heavy losses if the stock price rises.
- A covered position involves buying the underlying stock immediately, which protects against price increases but risks significant losses if the stock price falls.
- Neither naked nor covered positions provide a reliable hedge, as both result in costs that fluctuate wildly compared to the theoretical value of the option.
- A stop-loss strategy attempts to hedge by buying the stock when its price rises above the strike price and selling it when it falls below.
- The theoretical goal of a perfect hedge is to ensure the cost of fulfilling the option remains close to its calculated Black-Scholes-Merton value.
This is sometimes referred to as a naked position. It is a strategy that works well if the stock price is below $50 at the end of the 20 weeks.
One strategy open to the financial institution is to do nothing. This is sometimes referred
to as a naked position. It is a strategy that works well if the stock price is below $50 at the
end of the 20 weeks. The option then costs the financial institution nothing and it makes a profit of $300,000. A naked position works less well if the call is exercised because the financial institution then has to buy 100,000 shares at the market price prevailing in 20
weeks to cover the call. The cost to the financial institution is 100,000 times the amount
by which the stock price exceeds the strike price. For example, if after 20 weeks the stock price is $60, the option costs the financial institution $1,000,000. This is considerably greater than the $300,000 charged for the option.
As an alternative to a naked position, the financial institution can adopt a covered
position. This involves buying 100,000 shares as soon as the option has been sold. If the option is exercised, this strategy works well, but in other circumstances it could lead to a
significant loss. For example, if the stock price drops to $40, the financial institution loses $900,000 on its stock position. This is also considerably greater than the $300,000 charged for the option.
3
Neither a naked position nor a covered position provides a good hedge. If the
assumptions underlying the BlackāScholesāMerton formula hold, the cost to the financial institution should always be $240,000 on average for both approaches.
4 But
on any one occasion the cost is liable to range from zero to over $1,000,000. A good
hedge would ensure that the cost is always close to $240,000.
A Stop-Loss Strategy
One interesting hedging procedure that is sometimes proposed involves a stop-loss strategy. To illustrate the basic idea, consider an institution that has written a call option with strike price K to buy one unit of a stock. The hedging procedure involves buying one
unit of the stock as soon as its price rises above K and selling it as soon as its price falls
below K. The objective is to hold a naked position whenever the stock price is less than K
and a covered position whenever the stock price is greater than K. The procedure is
designed to ensure that at time T the institution owns the stock if the option closes in the
money and does not own it if the option closes out of the money. In the situation illustrated in Figure 19.1, it involves buying the stock at time
t1, selling it at time t2,
buying it at time t3, selling it at time t4, buying it at time t5, and delivering it at time T.
2 A call option on a non-dividend-paying stock is a convenient example with which to develop our ideas. The
points that will be made apply to other types of options and to other derivatives.
3 Putācall parity shows that the exposure from writing a covered call is the same as the exposure from writing
a naked put.
4 More precisely, the present value of the expected cost is $240,000 for both approaches assuming that
appropriate risk-adjusted discount rates are used.value of an option to buy one share is $2.40.) The financial institution has therefore
sold a product for $60,000 more than its theoretical value. But it is faced with the problem of hedging the risks.
2
19.2 NAKED AND COVERED POSITIONS
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The Greek Letters 419
As usual, we denote the initial stock price by S0. The cost of setting up the hedge
initially is S0 if S07K and zero otherwise. It seems as though the total cost, Q, of
writing and hedging the option is the optionās initial intrinsic value:
Q=max1S0-K, 02 (19.1)
Flaws of Stop-Loss Hedging
- A stop-loss strategy involves buying a stock when its price rises above the strike price and selling when it falls below, theoretically covering an option's risk.
- The strategy appears to suggest that the cost of hedging is merely the option's initial intrinsic value, which would imply riskless profits for traders.
- In reality, the strategy fails because purchases and sales cannot occur at the exact same price, leading to a cost of 2P for every round-trip trade.
- As a hedger attempts to minimize the price gap by monitoring more closely, the frequency of trades increases toward infinity, offsetting any potential savings.
- Monte Carlo simulations demonstrate that while the strategy costs nothing if the strike is never reached, it becomes prohibitively expensive if the price fluctuates around the strike.
As P is made smaller, trades tend to occur more frequently. Thus, the lower cost per trade is offset by the increased frequency of trading.
buying it at time t3, selling it at time t4, buying it at time t5, and delivering it at time T.
2 A call option on a non-dividend-paying stock is a convenient example with which to develop our ideas. The
points that will be made apply to other types of options and to other derivatives.
3 Putācall parity shows that the exposure from writing a covered call is the same as the exposure from writing
a naked put.
4 More precisely, the present value of the expected cost is $240,000 for both approaches assuming that
appropriate risk-adjusted discount rates are used.value of an option to buy one share is $2.40.) The financial institution has therefore
sold a product for $60,000 more than its theoretical value. But it is faced with the problem of hedging the risks.
2
19.2 NAKED AND COVERED POSITIONS
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The Greek Letters 419
As usual, we denote the initial stock price by S0. The cost of setting up the hedge
initially is S0 if S07K and zero otherwise. It seems as though the total cost, Q, of
writing and hedging the option is the optionās initial intrinsic value:
Q=max1S0-K, 02 (19.1)
This is because all purchases and sales subsequent to time 0 are made at price K . If this
were in fact correct, the hedging procedure would work perfectly in the absence of
transaction costs. Furthermore, the cost of hedging the option would always be less than its BlackāScholesāMerton price. Thus, a trader could earn riskless profits by writing options and hedging them.
There are two key reasons why equation (19.1) is incorrect. The first is that the cash
flows to the hedger occur at different times and must be discounted. The second is that
purchases and sales cannot be made at exactly the same price K. This second point is
critical. If we assume a risk-neutral world with zero interest rates, we can justify
ignoring the time value of money. But we cannot legitimately assume that both
purchases and sales are made at the same price. If markets are efficient, the hedger
cannot know whether, when the stock price equals K, it will continue above or below K.
As a practical matter, purchases must be made at a price
K+P and sales must be
made at a price K-P, for some small positive number P. Thus, every purchase and
subsequent sale involves a cost (apart from transaction costs) of 2P. A natural response
on the part of the hedger is to monitor price movements more closely, so that P is
reduced. Assuming that stock prices change continuously, P can be made arbitrarily
small by monitoring the stock prices closely. But as P is made smaller, trades tend to
occur more frequently. Thus, the lower cost per trade is offset by the increased
frequency of trading. As PS0, the expected number of trades tends to infinity.5Figure 19.1 A stop-loss strategy.
Stock
price, S(t)
Time, t
t1K
t2 t3 t4 t5 TBuy Sell Deliver Buy Buy Sell
5 As mentioned in Section 14.2, the expected number of times a Wiener process equals any particular value in
a given time interval is infinite.
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420 CHAPTER 19
A stop-loss strategy, although superficially attractive, does not work particularly well
as a hedging procedure. Consider its use for an out-of-the-money option. If the stock
price never reaches the strike price K , the hedging procedure costs nothing. If the path of
the stock price crosses the strike price level many times, the procedure is quite expensive. Monte Carlo simulation can be used to assess the overall performance of stop-loss hedging. This involves randomly sampling paths for the stock price and observing the results of using the procedure. Table 19.1 shows the results for the option considered in Section 19.1. It assumes that the stock price is observed at the end of time intervals of
length
Stop-Loss Failures and Greek Letters
- Monte Carlo simulations demonstrate that stop-loss hedging is an ineffective strategy because costs escalate rapidly if the stock price crosses the strike level multiple times.
- The performance measure of stop-loss hedging remains poor regardless of how frequently the stock price is observed, staying significantly above zero.
- Professional traders prefer using 'Greek letters' like delta, gamma, and vega to quantify and manage specific dimensions of risk in an option position.
- Delta measures the sensitivity of an option's price to changes in the underlying asset's price, represented as the slope of the pricing curve.
- The 'practitioner Black-Scholes model' involves setting volatility equal to current implied volatility to ensure the model matches market prices exactly.
This emphasizes that the stop-loss strategy is not a good hedging procedure.
as a hedging procedure. Consider its use for an out-of-the-money option. If the stock
price never reaches the strike price K , the hedging procedure costs nothing. If the path of
the stock price crosses the strike price level many times, the procedure is quite expensive. Monte Carlo simulation can be used to assess the overall performance of stop-loss hedging. This involves randomly sampling paths for the stock price and observing the results of using the procedure. Table 19.1 shows the results for the option considered in Section 19.1. It assumes that the stock price is observed at the end of time intervals of
length
āt.6 The hedge performance measure in Table 19.1 is the ratio of the standard
deviation of the cost of hedging the option to the BlackāScholesāMerton price. (The cost of hedging was calculated as the cumulative cost excluding the impact of interest payments and discounting.) Each result is based on one million sample paths for the stock price. An effective hedging scheme should have a hedge performance measure close to zero. In this case, it seems to stay above 0.7 regardless of how small
āt is. This
emphasizes that the stop-loss strategy is not a good hedging procedure.āt (weeks) 5 4 2 1 0.5 0.25
Hedge performance 0.98 0.93 0.83 0.79 0.77 0.76Table 19.1 Performance of stop-loss strategy. The performance measure is the
ratio of the standard deviation of the cost of writing the option and hedging it to the theoretical price of the option.
6 The precise hedging rule used was as follows. If the stock price moves from below K to above K in a time
interval of length āt, it is bought at the end of the interval. If it moves from above K to below K in the time
interval, it is sold at the end of the interval; otherwise, no action is taken.19.3 GREEK LETTER CALCULATION
Most traders use more sophisticated hedging procedures than those mentioned so far. These hedging procedures involve calculating measures such as delta, gamma, and vega.
The measures are collectively referred to as Greek letters. They quantify different aspects of the risk in an option position. This chapter considers the properties of some of most important Greek letters.
In order to calculate a Greek letter, it is necessary to assume an option pricing
model. Traders usually assume the BlackāScholesāMerton model (or its extensions in
Chapters 17 and 18) for European options and the binomial tree model (introduced in Chapter 13) for American options. (As has been pointed out, the latter makes the same assumptions as BlackāScholesāMerton model.) When calculating Greek letters, traders normally set the volatility equal to the current implied volatility. This approach, which is sometimes referred to as using the āpractitioner BlackāScholes model,ā is appealing. When volatility is set equal to the implied volatility, the model gives the option price at a particular time as an exact function of the price of the underlying asset, the implied volatility, interest rates, and (possibly) dividends. The only way the option price can change in a short time period is if one of these variables changes. A trader naturally feels confident if the risks of changes in all these variables have been adequately hedged.
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The Greek Letters 421
The delta 1ā2 of an option was introduced in Chapter 13. It is defined as the rate of
change of the option price with respect to the price of the underlying asset. It is the
slope of the curve that relates the option price to the underlying asset price. Suppose that the delta of a call option on a stock is 0.6. This means that when the stock price changes by a small amount, the option price changes by about 60% of that amount. Figure 19.2 shows the relationship between a call price and the underlying stock price.
When the stock price corresponds to point A, the option price corresponds to point B, and
ā is the slope of the line indicated. In general,
ā=0c
0S
Delta and Dynamic Hedging
- Delta measures the rate of change in an option's price relative to the price movement of its underlying asset.
- A delta-neutral position is achieved when the combined delta of an option and its underlying stock equals zero, effectively hedging the portfolio.
- Because delta is not constant and changes with the stock price, traders must periodically adjust their holdings through a process called rebalancing.
- Dynamic hedging involves regular adjustments to maintain a neutral position, contrasting with the 'hedge-and-forget' approach of static hedging.
- The Black-Scholes-Merton model relies on the principle of creating a riskless, delta-neutral portfolio to determine option value.
It is important to realize that, since the delta of an option does not remain constant, the traderās position remains delta hedged (or delta neutral) for only a relatively short period of time.
The delta 1ā2 of an option was introduced in Chapter 13. It is defined as the rate of
change of the option price with respect to the price of the underlying asset. It is the
slope of the curve that relates the option price to the underlying asset price. Suppose that the delta of a call option on a stock is 0.6. This means that when the stock price changes by a small amount, the option price changes by about 60% of that amount. Figure 19.2 shows the relationship between a call price and the underlying stock price.
When the stock price corresponds to point A, the option price corresponds to point B, and
ā is the slope of the line indicated. In general,
ā=0c
0S
where c is the price of the call option and S is the stock price.
Suppose that, in Figure 19.2, the stock price is $100 and the option price is $10.
Imagine an investor who has sold call options to buy 2,000 shares of a stock. The
investorās position could be hedged by buying 0.6*2,000=1,200 shares. The gain
(loss) on the stock position would then tend to offset the loss (gain) on the option
position. For example, if the stock price goes up by $1 (producing a gain of $1,200 on
the shares purchased), the option price will tend to go up by 0.6*+1=+0.60
(producing a loss of $1,200 on the options written); if the stock price goes down by
$1 (producing a loss of $1,200 on the shares purchased), the option price will tend to go
down by $0.60 (producing a gain of $1,200 on the options written).
In this example, the delta of the traderās short position in 2,000 options is
0.6*1-2,0002=-1,200
This means that the trader loses 1,200āS on the option position when the stock price In this chapter, we first consider the calculation of Greek letters for a European option
on a non-dividend-paying stock. We then present results for other European options. Chapter 21 will show how Greek letters can be calculated for American-style options.
19.4 DELTA HEDGING
Figure 19.2 Calculation of delta.
Option
price
Stock
priceSlope 5 D 5 0.6
AB
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422 CHAPTER 19
increases by āS. The delta of one share of the stock is 1.0, so that the long position in
1,200 shares has a delta of +1,200. The delta of the traderās overall position in our
example is, therefore, zero. The delta of the stock position offsets the delta of the option position. A position with a delta of zero is referred to as delta neutral.
It is important to realize that, since the delta of an option does not remain constant,
the traderās position remains delta hedged (or delta neutral) for only a relatively short period of time. The hedge has to be adjusted periodically. This is known as rebalancing. In our example, by the end of 1 day the stock price might have increased to $110. As indicated by Figure 19.2, an increase in the stock price leads to an increase in delta. Suppose that delta rises from 0.60 to 0.65. An extra
0.05*2,000=100 shares would
then have to be purchased to maintain the hedge. A procedure such as this, where the
hedge is adjusted on a regular basis, is referred to as dynamic hedging. It can be contrasted with static hedging, where a hedge is set up initially and never adjusted.
Static hedging is sometimes also referred to as āhedge-and-forget.ā
Delta is closely related to the BlackāScholesāMerton analysis. As explained in
Chapter 15, the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation can be derived by setting up a riskless portfolio consisting of a position in an option on a stock and a position in the stock. Expressed in terms of
ā, the portfolio is
-1: option
+Ā¢: shares of the stock.
Using our new terminology, we can say that options can be valued by setting up a delta- neutral position and arguing that the return on the position should (instantaneously) be the risk-free interest rate.
Delta of European Stock Options
Delta and Dynamic Hedging
- Delta is derived from the BlackāScholesāMerton model by creating a riskless portfolio of options and underlying stock.
- A delta-neutral position is maintained when the return on the portfolio instantaneously equals the risk-free interest rate.
- For European call options, delta is calculated as N(d1), while for put options, it is N(d1) minus one.
- Dynamic hedging requires frequent rebalancing of the stock position as the stock price and time to maturity change the option's delta.
As soon as the option is written, $2,557,800 must be borrowed to buy 52,200 shares at a price of $49 to create a delta-neutral position.
Delta is closely related to the BlackāScholesāMerton analysis. As explained in
Chapter 15, the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation can be derived by setting up a riskless portfolio consisting of a position in an option on a stock and a position in the stock. Expressed in terms of
ā, the portfolio is
-1: option
+Ā¢: shares of the stock.
Using our new terminology, we can say that options can be valued by setting up a delta- neutral position and arguing that the return on the position should (instantaneously) be the risk-free interest rate.
Delta of European Stock Options
For a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock, it can be shown (see Problem 15.15) that the BlackāScholesāMerton model gives
ā1call2=N1d12
Figure 19.3 Variation of delta with stock price for (a) a call option and (b) a put
option on a non-dividend-paying stock 1K=50, r=0, s=25,, T=22.
02 04 0 60 80 1000.00.20.40.60.81.0
Stock price ($)
(a)02 04 0 60 80 100
21.020.820.620.420.20.0
Stock price ($)
(b)
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The Greek Letters 423
where d1 is defined as in equation (15.20) and N1x2 is the cumulative distribution
function for a standard normal distribution. The formula gives the delta of a long
position in one call option. The delta of a short position in one call option is -N1d12.
Using delta hedging for a short position in a European call option involves maintaining
a long position of N1d12 for each option sold. Similarly, using delta hedging for a long
position in a European call option involves maintaining a short position of N1d12 shares
for each option purchased.
For a European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock, delta is given by
ā1put2=N1d12-1
Delta is negative, which means that a long position in a put option should be hedged with a long position in the underlying stock, and a short position in a put option should be hedged with a short position in the underlying stock. Figure 19.3 shows the variation of the delta of a call option and a put option with the stock price. Figure 19.4 shows the variation of delta with the time to maturity for in-the-money, at-the-money, and out-of-the-money call options.
Example 19.1
Consider again the call option on a non-dividend-paying stock in Section 19. 1
where the stock price is $49, the strike price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5%, the
time to maturity is 20 weeks (= 0.3846 years), and the volatility is 20%. In this case,
d1=ln149>502+10.05+0.22>22*0.3846
0.2*20.3846=0.0542
Delta is N1d12, or 0.522. When the stock price changes by āS, the option price
changes by 0.522āS.Figure 19.4 Typical patterns for variation of delta with time to maturity for a call
option 1S0=50, r=0, s=25,2.
0 246 8 100.00.20.40.60.81.0Delta
Time to maturity (years)In the mone y (K 5 40)
At the mone y (K 5 50)
Out of the mone y (K 5 60)
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424 CHAPTER 19
Dynamic Aspects of Delta Hedging
Tables 19.2 and 19.3 provide two examples of the operation of delta hedging for the
example in Section 19.1, where 100,000 call options are sold. The hedge is assumed to
be adjusted or rebalanced weekly and the assumptions underlying the BlackāScholesā
Merton model are assumed to hold with the volatility staying constant at 20%. The initial value of delta for a single option is calculated in Example 19.1 as 0.522. This
means that the delta of the option position is initially
-100,000*0.522, or -52,200. As
soon as the option is written, $2,557,800 must be borrowed to buy 52,200 shares at a price of $49 to create a delta-neutral position. The rate of interest is 5%. An interest cost of approximately $2,500 is therefore incurred in the first week.
In Table 19.2, the stock price falls by the end of the first week to $48.12. The delta of
the option declines to 0.458, so that the new delta of the option position is
-45,800. This
Mechanics of Delta Hedging
- Delta hedging involves maintaining a neutral position by buying or selling shares as the stock price and the option's delta fluctuate.
- The cost of hedging includes the initial purchase of shares, cumulative interest on borrowed funds, and adjustments made during rebalancing.
- As an option nears expiration, the delta approaches 1.0 if it is in the money or 0.0 if it is out of the money, dictating the final share position.
- The discrepancy between actual hedging costs and the BlackāScholesāMerton price arises primarily from the discrete nature of weekly rebalancing.
- In an idealized model with continuous rebalancing and no transaction costs, the discounted cost of hedging would exactly equal the theoretical option price.
As rebalancing takes place more frequently, the variation in the hedging cost is reduced.
means that the delta of the option position is initially
-100,000*0.522, or -52,200. As
soon as the option is written, $2,557,800 must be borrowed to buy 52,200 shares at a price of $49 to create a delta-neutral position. The rate of interest is 5%. An interest cost of approximately $2,500 is therefore incurred in the first week.
In Table 19.2, the stock price falls by the end of the first week to $48.12. The delta of
the option declines to 0.458, so that the new delta of the option position is
-45,800. This
means that 6,400 of the shares initially purchased are sold to maintain the delta-neutral hedge. The strategy realizes $308,000 in cash, and the cumulative borrowings at the end
of Week 1 are reduced to $2,252,300. During the second week, the stock price reduces to
$47.37, delta declines again, and so on. Toward the end of the life of the option, it becomes apparent that the option will be exercised and the delta of the option approaches 1.0. By Week 20, therefore, the hedger has a fully covered position. The
Week Stock
priceDelta Shares
purchasedCost of shares
purchased
($000)Cumulative cost
including interest
($000)Interest
cost
($000)
0 49.00 0.522 52,200 2,557.8 2,557.8 2.5
1 48.12 0.458 (6,400) (308.0) 2,252.3 2.2
2 47.37 0.400 (5,800) (274.7) 1,979.8 1.9
3 50.25 0.596 19,600 984.9 2,966.6 2.9
4 51.75 0.693 9,700 502.0 3,471.5 3.3
5 53.12 0.774 8,100 430.3 3,905.1 3.8
6 53.00 0.771 (300) (15.9) 3,893.0 3.7
7 51.87 0.706 (6,500) (337.2) 3,559.5 3.4
8 51.38 0.674 (3,200) (164.4) 3,398.5 3.3
9 53.00 0.787 11,300 598.9 4,000.7 3.8
10 49.88 0.550 (23,700) (1,182.2) 2,822.3 2.7
11 48.50 0.413 (13,700) (664.4) 2,160.6 2.1
12 49.88 0.542 12,900 643.5 2,806.2 2.7
13 50.37 0.591 4,900 246.8 3,055.7 2.9
14 52.13 0.768 17,700 922.7 3,981.3 3.8
15 51.88 0.759 (900) (46.7) 3,938.4 3.8
16 52.87 0.865 10,600 560.4 4,502.6 4.3
17 54.87 0.978 11,300 620.0 5,126.9 4.9
18 54.62 0.990 1,200 65.5 5,197.3 5.0
19 55.87 1.000 1,000 55.9 5,258.2 5.1
20 57.25 1.000 0 0.0 5,263.3Table 19.2 Simulation of delta hedging. Option closes in the money and cost of
hedging is $263,300.
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The Greek Letters 425
hedger receives $5 million for the stock held, so that the total cost of writing the option
and hedging it is $263,300.
Table 19.3 illustrates an alternative sequence of events such that the option closes out
of the money. As it becomes clear that the option will not be exercised, delta approaches zero. By Week 20 the hedger has a naked position and has incurred costs totaling $256,600.
In Tables 19.2 and 19.3, the costs of hedging the option, when discounted to the
beginning of the period, are close to but not exactly the same as the BlackāScholesā Merton price of $240,000. If the hedging worked perfectly, the cost of hedging would, after discounting, be exactly equal to the BlackāScholesāMerton price for every simu-lated stock price path. The reason for the variation in the hedging cost is that the hedge is rebalanced only once a week. As rebalancing takes place more frequently, the variation in the hedging cost is reduced. Of course, the examples in Tables 19.2 and 19.3 are idealized
in that they assume that the volatility is constant and there are no transaction costs.
Table 19.4 shows statistics on the performance of delta hedging obtained from one
million random stock price paths in our example. The performance measure is calculated, similarly to Table 19.1, as the ratio of the standard deviation of the cost of hedging the
option to the BlackāScholesāMerton price of the option. It is clear that delta hedging is a Week Stock
priceDelta Shares
purchasedCost of shares
purchased
($000)Cumulative cost
including interest
($000)Interest
cost
($000)
0 49.00 0.522 52,200 2,557.8 2,557.8 2.5
1 49.75 0.568 4,600 228.9 2,789.2 2.7
2 52.00 0.705 13,700 712.4 3,504.3 3.4
3 50.00 0.579 (12,600) (630.0) 2,877.7 2.8
4 48.38 0.459 (12,000) (580.6) 2,299.9 2.2
Mechanics of Delta Hedging
- Delta hedging involves rebalancing a portfolio of shares to offset the price movements of a written option position.
- The cost of hedging converges toward the BlackāScholesāMerton price as the frequency of rebalancing increases.
- Simulation data shows that delta hedging significantly outperforms stop-loss strategies by reducing the variance of hedging costs.
- In practice, the strategy aims to keep the net value of a financial institution's position nearly unchanged despite significant market fluctuations.
- The idealized model assumes constant volatility and zero transaction costs, which are primary sources of real-world variation.
As rebalancing takes place more frequently, the variation in the hedging cost is reduced.
hedger receives $5 million for the stock held, so that the total cost of writing the option
and hedging it is $263,300.
Table 19.3 illustrates an alternative sequence of events such that the option closes out
of the money. As it becomes clear that the option will not be exercised, delta approaches zero. By Week 20 the hedger has a naked position and has incurred costs totaling $256,600.
In Tables 19.2 and 19.3, the costs of hedging the option, when discounted to the
beginning of the period, are close to but not exactly the same as the BlackāScholesā Merton price of $240,000. If the hedging worked perfectly, the cost of hedging would, after discounting, be exactly equal to the BlackāScholesāMerton price for every simu-lated stock price path. The reason for the variation in the hedging cost is that the hedge is rebalanced only once a week. As rebalancing takes place more frequently, the variation in the hedging cost is reduced. Of course, the examples in Tables 19.2 and 19.3 are idealized
in that they assume that the volatility is constant and there are no transaction costs.
Table 19.4 shows statistics on the performance of delta hedging obtained from one
million random stock price paths in our example. The performance measure is calculated, similarly to Table 19.1, as the ratio of the standard deviation of the cost of hedging the
option to the BlackāScholesāMerton price of the option. It is clear that delta hedging is a Week Stock
priceDelta Shares
purchasedCost of shares
purchased
($000)Cumulative cost
including interest
($000)Interest
cost
($000)
0 49.00 0.522 52,200 2,557.8 2,557.8 2.5
1 49.75 0.568 4,600 228.9 2,789.2 2.7
2 52.00 0.705 13,700 712.4 3,504.3 3.4
3 50.00 0.579 (12,600) (630.0) 2,877.7 2.8
4 48.38 0.459 (12,000) (580.6) 2,299.9 2.2
5 48.25 0.443 (1,600) (77.2) 2,224.9 2.1
6 48.75 0.475 3,200 156.0 2,383.0 2.3
7 49.63 0.540 6,500 322.6 2,707.9 2.6
8 48.25 0.420 (12,000) (579.0) 2,131.5 2.1
9 48.25 0.410 (1,000) (48.2) 2,085.4 2.0
10 51.12 0.658 24,800 1,267.8 3,355.2 3.2
11 51.50 0.692 3,400 175.1 3,533.5 3.4
12 49.88 0.542 (15,000) (748.2) 2,788.7 2.7
13 49.88 0.538 (400) (20.0) 2,771.4 2.7
14 48.75 0.400 (13,800) (672.7) 2,101.4 2.0
15 47.50 0.236 (16,400) (779.0) 1,324.4 1.3
16 48.00 0.261 2,500 120.0 1,445.7 1.4
17 46.25 0.062 (19,900) (920.4) 526.7 0.5
18 48.13 0.183 12,100 582.4 1,109.6 1.1
19 46.63 0.007 (17,600) (820.7) 290.0 0.3
20 48.12 0.000 (700) (33.7) 256.6Table 19.3 Simulation of delta hedging. Option closes out of the money and cost of
hedging is $256,600.
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426 CHAPTER 19
great improvement over a stop-loss strategy. Unlike a stop-loss strategy, the performance
of delta-hedging gets steadily better as the hedge is monitored more frequently.
Delta hedging aims to keep the value of the financial institutionās position as close to
unchanged as possible. Initially, the value of the written option is $240,000. In the situation depicted in Table 19.2, the value of the option can be calculated as $414,500 in
Week 9. (This value is obtained from the BlackāScholesāMerton model by setting the stock price equal to $53 and the time to maturity equal to 11 weeks.) Thus, the financial institution has lost $174,500 on its short option position. Its cash position, as measured by the cumulative cost, is $1,442,900 worse in Week 9 than in Week 0. The value of the shares held has increased from $2,557,800 to $4,171,100. The net effect of all this is that the value of the financial institutionās position has changed by only $4,100 between Week 0 and Week 9.
Where the Cost Comes From
Mechanics of Delta Hedging
- Delta hedging aims to neutralize the risk of a financial institution's position by keeping its value as close to unchanged as possible despite asset price fluctuations.
- The strategy effectively creates a long position to offset a short one, but it inherently requires a 'buy-high, sell-low' trading pattern that generates costs.
- Portfolio delta is calculated by summing the deltas of individual positions, allowing a single trade in the underlying asset to hedge multiple options simultaneously.
- The efficiency of a hedge improves with more frequent monitoring, though transaction costs like bid-ask spreads can make daily rebalancing expensive for small portfolios.
It might be termed a buy-high, sell-low trading strategy!
of delta-hedging gets steadily better as the hedge is monitored more frequently.
Delta hedging aims to keep the value of the financial institutionās position as close to
unchanged as possible. Initially, the value of the written option is $240,000. In the situation depicted in Table 19.2, the value of the option can be calculated as $414,500 in
Week 9. (This value is obtained from the BlackāScholesāMerton model by setting the stock price equal to $53 and the time to maturity equal to 11 weeks.) Thus, the financial institution has lost $174,500 on its short option position. Its cash position, as measured by the cumulative cost, is $1,442,900 worse in Week 9 than in Week 0. The value of the shares held has increased from $2,557,800 to $4,171,100. The net effect of all this is that the value of the financial institutionās position has changed by only $4,100 between Week 0 and Week 9.
Where the Cost Comes From
The delta-hedging procedure in Tables 19.2 and 19.3 creates the equivalent of a long position in the option. This neutralizes the short position the financial institution created by writing the option. As the tables illustrate, delta hedging a short position
generally involves selling stock just after the price has gone down and buying stock just after the price has gone up. It might be termed a buy-high, sell-low trading strategy! The average cost of $240,000 comes from the present value of the difference between the price at which stock is purchased and the price at which it is sold.
Delta of a Portfolio
The delta of a portfolio of options or other derivatives dependent on a single asset whose price is S is
0Ī
0S
where ā is the value of the portfolio.
The delta of the portfolio can be calculated from the deltas of the individual options
in the portfolio. If a portfolio consists of a quantity wi of option i 11ā¦iā¦n2, the delta
of the portfolio is given by
ā=an
i=1wi āi
where āi is the delta of the i th option. The formula can be used to calculate the
position in the underlying asset necessary to make the delta of the portfolio zero. When
this position has been taken, the portfolio is delta neutral.Time between hedge
rebalancing (weeks): 5 4 2 1 0.5 0.25
Performance measure: 0.42 0.38 0.28 0.21 0.16 0.13Table 19.4 Performance of delta hedging. The performance measure is the ratio
of the standard deviation of the cost of writing the option and hedging it to the theoretical price of the option.
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The Greek Letters 427
Suppose a financial institution has the following three positions in options on a
stock:
1. A long position in 100,000 call options with strike price $55 and an expiration date
in 3 months. The delta of each option is 0.533.
2. A short position in 200,000 call options with strike price $56 and an expiration
date in 5 months. The delta of each option is 0.468.
3. A short position in 50,000 put options with strike price $56 and an expiration date
in 2 months. The delta of each option is -0.508.
The delta of the whole portfolio is
100,000*0.533-200,000*0.468-50,000*1-0.5082=-14,900
This means that the portfolio can be made delta neutral by buying 14,900 shares.
Transaction Costs
Derivatives dealers usually rebalance their positions once a day to maintain delta neutrality. When the dealer has a small number of options on a particular asset, this is
liable to be prohibitively expensive because of the bidāask spreads the dealer is subject to
on trades. For a large portfolio of options, it is more feasible. Only one trade in the underlying asset is necessary to zero out delta for the whole portfolio. The bidāask spread transaction costs are absorbed by the profits on many different trades.
19.5 THETA
Theta and Time Decay
- Derivatives dealers manage portfolio costs by rebalancing delta neutrality once a day, allowing transaction costs to be absorbed by the profits of a large portfolio.
- Theta measures the rate of change in a portfolio's value relative to the passage of time, a phenomenon commonly known as time decay.
- While theta is typically negative because options lose value as they approach expiration, it can be positive for certain in-the-money European puts or high-interest currency calls.
- Unlike delta, theta is not a hedgeable risk because time is certain; however, it serves as a critical descriptive statistic and a proxy for gamma in delta-neutral portfolios.
It makes sense to hedge against changes in the price of the underlying asset, but it does not make any sense to hedge against the passage of time.
Derivatives dealers usually rebalance their positions once a day to maintain delta neutrality. When the dealer has a small number of options on a particular asset, this is
liable to be prohibitively expensive because of the bidāask spreads the dealer is subject to
on trades. For a large portfolio of options, it is more feasible. Only one trade in the underlying asset is necessary to zero out delta for the whole portfolio. The bidāask spread transaction costs are absorbed by the profits on many different trades.
19.5 THETA
The theta 1Ī2 of a portfolio of options is the rate of change of the value of the portfolio
with respect to the passage of time with all else remaining the same. Theta is sometimes
referred to as the time decay of the portfolio. For a European call option on a non- dividend-paying stock, it can be shown from the BlackāScholesāMerton formula (see Problem 15.15) that
Ī1call2=-S0Nā²1d 12s
22T-rKe-rT N1d22
where d1 and d2 are defined as in equation (15.20) and
Nā²1x2=1
22p e-x2>2 (19.2)
is the probability density function for a standard normal distribution.
For a European put option on the stock,
Ī1put2=-S0Nā²1d 12s
22T+rKe-rT N1-d22
Because N1-d22=1-N1d22, the theta of a put exceeds the theta of the corresponding
call by rKe-rT.
In these formulas, time is measured in years. Usually, when theta is quoted, time is
measured in days, so that theta is the change in the portfolio value when 1 day passes
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428 CHAPTER 19
with all else remaining the same. We can measure theta either āper calendar dayā or
āper trading day.ā To obtain the theta per calendar day, the formula for theta must be divided by 365; to obtain theta per trading day, it must be divided by 252. (DerivaGem measures theta per calendar day.)
Example 19.2
As in Example 19. 1, consider a call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where
the stock price is $49, the strike price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5%, the time to
maturity is 20 weeks (= 0.3846 years), and the volatility is 20%. In this case,
S0=49, K=50, r=0.05, s=0.2, and T=0.3846.
The optionās theta is
-S0Nā²1d 12s
22T-rKe-rT N1d22=-4.31
The theta is -4.31>365=-0.0118 per calendar day, or -4.31>252=-0.0171 per
trading day.
Theta is usually negative for an option.7 This is because, as time passes with all else
remaining the same, the option tends to become less valuable. The variation of Ā® with
stock price for a call option on a stock is shown in Figure 19.5. When the stock price is
very low, theta is close to zero. For an at-the-money call option, theta is large and negative. As the stock price becomes larger, theta tends to
-rKe-rT. (In our example,
r=0.) Figure 19.6 shows typical patterns for the variation of Ā® with the time to
maturity for in-the-money, at-the-money, and out-of-the-money call options.
7 An exception to this could be an in-the-money European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock or an
in-the-money European call option on a currency with a very high interest rate.Figure 19.5 Variation of theta of a European call option with stock price (K = 50,
r = 0, s = 0.25, T = 2).
0 30 60 90 120 150
22.021.521.020.50.0Stock price
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The Greek Letters 429
Theta is not the same type of hedge parameter as delta. There is uncertainty about
the future stock price, but there is no uncertainty about the passage of time. It makes
sense to hedge against changes in the price of the underlying asset, but it does not make any sense to hedge against the passage of time. In spite of this, many traders regard theta as a useful descriptive statistic for a portfolio. This is because, as we shall see later, in a delta-neutral portfolio theta is a proxy for gamma.Figure 19.6 Typical patterns for variation of theta of a European call option with time
to maturity 1S0=50, K=50, r=0, s=25,2.
0 2468 10
2625242322210Time to maturity (yrs)
Out of the mone y (K 5 60)
Theta and Gamma Dynamics
- Theta represents the passage of time and, unlike delta, cannot be hedged because time is certain and unidirectional.
- Gamma measures the rate of change of a portfolio's delta, effectively quantifying the curvature of the option price relative to the asset price.
- In delta-neutral portfolios, theta serves as a proxy for gamma, illustrating a trade-off where time decay often offsets potential gains from price volatility.
- High absolute gamma values indicate a portfolio is highly sensitive to asset price movements, necessitating frequent adjustments to maintain delta neutrality.
- Gamma neutrality can only be achieved by adding non-linear instruments like options, as the underlying asset itself has a gamma of zero.
It makes sense to hedge against changes in the price of the underlying asset, but it does not make any sense to hedge against the passage of time.
Theta is not the same type of hedge parameter as delta. There is uncertainty about
the future stock price, but there is no uncertainty about the passage of time. It makes
sense to hedge against changes in the price of the underlying asset, but it does not make any sense to hedge against the passage of time. In spite of this, many traders regard theta as a useful descriptive statistic for a portfolio. This is because, as we shall see later, in a delta-neutral portfolio theta is a proxy for gamma.Figure 19.6 Typical patterns for variation of theta of a European call option with time
to maturity 1S0=50, K=50, r=0, s=25,2.
0 2468 10
2625242322210Time to maturity (yrs)
Out of the mone y (K 5 60)
At the mone y(K 5 50)
In the mone y(K 5 40)
19.6 GAMMA
The gamma 1Ī2 of a portfolio of options on an underlying asset is the rate of change of
the portfolioās delta with respect to the price of the underlying asset. It is the second partial derivative of the portfolio with respect to asset price:
Ī=02Ī
0S2
If gamma is small, delta changes slowly, and adjustments to keep a portfolio delta neutral need to be made only relatively infrequently. However, if gamma is highly negative or highly positive, delta is very sensitive to the price of the underlying asset. It is then quite risky to leave a delta-neutral portfolio unchanged for any length of time.
Figure 19.7 illustrates this point. When the stock price moves from S to
Sā², delta
hedging assumes that the option price moves from C to Cā², when in fact it moves from
C to Cā³. The difference between Cā² and Cā³ leads to a hedging error. The size of the
error depends on the curvature of the relationship between the option price and the stock price. Gamma measures this curvature.
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430 CHAPTER 19
Suppose that āS is the price change of an underlying asset during a small interval of
time, āt, and āĪ is the corresponding price change in the portfolio. The appendix at
the end of this chapter shows that, if terms of order higher than āt are ignored,
āĪ =Īāt+1
2 ĪāS2 (19.3)
for a delta-neutral portfolio, where Ī is the theta of the portfolio. Figure 19.8 shows the
nature of the relationship between āĪ and āS. When gamma is positive, theta tends to
be negative. The portfolio declines in value if there is no change in S, but increases in
value if there is a large positive or negative change in S. When gamma is negative, theta
tends to be positive and the reverse is true: the portfolio increases in value if there is no
change in S but decreases in value if there is a large positive or negative change in S . As
the absolute value of gamma increases, the sensitivity of the value of the portfolio to S increases.
Example 19.3
Suppose that the gamma of a delta-neutral portfolio of options on an asset is
-10,000. Equation (19.3) shows that, if a change of +2 or -2 in the price of the
asset occurs over a short period of time, there is an unexpected decrease in the
value of the portfolio of approximately 0.5*10,000*22=+20,000.
Making a Portfolio Gamma Neutral
A position in the underlying asset has zero gamma and cannot be used to change the gamma of a portfolio. What is required is a position in an instrument such as an option that is not linearly dependent on the underlying asset.
Suppose that a delta-neutral portfolio has a gamma equal to
Ī, and a traded option
has a gamma equal to ĪT. If the number of traded options added to the portfolio is wT,
the gamma of the portfolio is
wT ĪT+Ī
Hence, the position in the traded option necessary to make the portfolio gamma neutral is
-Ī>ĪT. Including the traded option is likely to change the delta of the portfolio, so
the position in the underlying asset then has to be changed to maintain delta neutrality.Figure 19.7 Hedging error introduced by nonlinearity.
Call
price
Stock price
SS 9CC9C99
āĪ =Īāt+1
2 ĪāS2
Ī
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The Greek Letters 431
Gamma Neutrality and Hedging
- Gamma neutrality is achieved by adding traded options to a portfolio to offset the curvature of the price-asset relationship.
- Because adding options to achieve gamma neutrality alters the portfolio's delta, the position in the underlying asset must be adjusted to maintain delta neutrality.
- Delta neutrality protects against small price fluctuations, whereas gamma neutrality provides protection against larger movements in the underlying stock price.
- Short-life at-the-money options exhibit very high gammas, making the position's value extremely sensitive to sudden jumps in the stock price.
- The relationship between the Greeks is defined by a differential equation where theta, delta, and gamma must balance against the risk-free return of the portfolio.
Short-life at-the-money options have very high gammas, which means that the value of the option holderās position is highly sensitive to jumps in the stock price.
has a gamma equal to ĪT. If the number of traded options added to the portfolio is wT,
the gamma of the portfolio is
wT ĪT+Ī
Hence, the position in the traded option necessary to make the portfolio gamma neutral is
-Ī>ĪT. Including the traded option is likely to change the delta of the portfolio, so
the position in the underlying asset then has to be changed to maintain delta neutrality.Figure 19.7 Hedging error introduced by nonlinearity.
Call
price
Stock price
SS 9CC9C99
āĪ =Īāt+1
2 ĪāS2
Ī
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The Greek Letters 431
Note that the portfolio is gamma neutral only for a short period of time. As time
passes, gamma neutrality can be maintained only if the position in the traded option is adjusted so that it is always equal to
-Ī>ĪT.
Making a portfolio gamma neutral as well as delta-neutral can be regarded as a
correction for the hedging error illustrated in Figure 19.7. Delta neutrality provides protection against relatively small stock price moves between rebalancing. Gamma neutrality provides protection against larger movements in this stock price between
hedge rebalancing. Suppose that a portfolio is delta neutral and has a gamma of
-3,000. The delta and gamma of a particular traded call option are 0.62 and 1.50,
respectively. The portfolio can be made gamma neutral by including in the portfolio a long position of
3,000
1.5=2,000
in the call option. However, the delta of the portfolio will then change from zero to
2,000*0.62=1,240. Therefore 1,240 units of the underlying asset must be sold from
the portfolio to keep it delta neutral.Figure 19.8 Relationship between āĪ and āS in time āt for a delta-neutral portfolio
with (a) slightly positive gamma, (b) large positive gamma, (c) slightly negative gamma, and (d) large negative gamma.
(a)DSDP
(b)DSDP
(c)DSDP
(d)DSDP
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432 CHAPTER 19
Calculation of Gamma
For a European call or put option on a non-dividend-paying stock, the gamma given
by the BlackāScholesāMerton model is
Ī=Nā²1d 12
S0s2T
where d1 is defined as in equation (15.20) and Nā²1x2 is as given by equation (19.2). The
gamma of a long position is always positive and varies with S0 in the way indicated in
Figure 19.9. The variation of gamma with time to maturity for out-of-the-money,
at-the-money, and in-the-money options is shown in Figure 19.10. For an at-the-money option, gamma increases as the time to maturity decreases. Short-life at-the-money options have very high gammas, which means that the value of the option holderās position is highly sensitive to jumps in the stock price.
Example 19.4
As in Example 19. 1, consider a call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where
the stock price is $49, the strike price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5%, the time to
maturity is 20 weeks
1= 0.3846 years2, and the volatility is 20%. In this case,
S0=49, K=50, r=0.05, s=0.2, and T=0.3846.
The optionās gamma is
Nā²1d 12
S0s2T=0.066
When the stock price changes by āS, the delta of the option changes by 0.066āS.
Figure 19.9 Variation of gamma with stock price for an option 1K=50, r=0,
s=25,, T=22.
0 20 40 60 80 100 1200.0000.0050.0100.0150.0200.0250.030
Stock priceGamma
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The Greek Letters 433
The price of a single derivative dependent on a non-dividend-paying stock that follows
a geometric Brownian motion process must satisfy the differential equation (15.16). It follows that the value of
Ī of a portfolio of such derivatives also satisfies the differential
equation
0Ī
0t+rS 0Ī
0S+1
2s2S202Ī
0S2=rĪ
Since
Ī=0Ī
0t, ā=0Ī
0S, Ī=02Ī
0S2
it follows that
Ī+rSā+1
2 s2S2Ī=rĪ (19.4)
Similar results can be produced for other underlying assets (see Problem 19.15).
For a delta-neutral portfolio, ā=0 and
Ī+1
2s2S2Ī=rĪ
Delta, Gamma, and Vega Relationships
- The Black-Scholes-Merton differential equation establishes a formal mathematical link between theta, delta, and gamma for derivative portfolios.
- In a delta-neutral portfolio, theta can often serve as a proxy for gamma because a large positive theta typically corresponds to a large negative gamma.
- Vega measures an option's sensitivity to changes in the underlying asset's implied volatility, a factor the standard model assumes is constant but which fluctuates in practice.
- Achieving simultaneous gamma and vega neutrality is complex and requires the use of at least two different traded options rather than just the underlying asset.
Unfortunately, a portfolio that is gamma neutral will not in general be vega neutral, and vice versa.
The price of a single derivative dependent on a non-dividend-paying stock that follows
a geometric Brownian motion process must satisfy the differential equation (15.16). It follows that the value of
Ī of a portfolio of such derivatives also satisfies the differential
equation
0Ī
0t+rS 0Ī
0S+1
2s2S202Ī
0S2=rĪ
Since
Ī=0Ī
0t, ā=0Ī
0S, Ī=02Ī
0S2
it follows that
Ī+rSā+1
2 s2S2Ī=rĪ (19.4)
Similar results can be produced for other underlying assets (see Problem 19.15).
For a delta-neutral portfolio, ā=0 and
Ī+1
2s2S2Ī=rĪ
This shows that, when Ī is large and positive, gamma of a portfolio tends to be large
and negative, and vice versa. This is consistent with the way in which Figure 19.8 has
been drawn and explains why theta can to some extent be regarded as a proxy for gamma in a delta-neutral portfolio.Figure 19.10 Variation of gamma with time to maturity for a stock option (S 0 = 50,
r = 0, s = 25%).
0 2 468 100.000.010.020.030.040.050.060.070.08
Time to maturit y (years)Out of the mone y(K 5 60)
At the mone y(K 5 50)
In the mone y(K 5 40)
19.7 RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN DELTA, THETA, AND GAMMA
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434 CHAPTER 19
As mentioned in Section 19.3, when Greek letters are calculated the volatility of the
asset is in practice usually set equal to its implied volatility. The BlackāScholesāMerton model assumes that the volatility of the asset underlying an option is constant. This means that the implied volatilities of all options on the asset are constant and equal to this assumed volatility.
But in practice the volatility of an asset changes over time. As a result, the value of an
option is liable to change because of movements in volatility as well as because of changes in the asset price and the passage of time. The vega of an option,
V, is the rate
of change in its value with respect to the volatility of the underlying asset:8
V=0f
0s
where f is the option price and the volatility measure, s, is usually the optionās implied
volatility. When vega is highly positive or highly negative, there is a high sensitivity to changes in volatility. If the vega of an option position is close to zero, volatility changes have very little effect on the value of the position.
A position in the underlying asset has zero vega. Vega cannot therefore be changed
by taking a position in the underlying asset. In this respect, vega is like gamma.
A complication is that different options in a portfolio are liable to have different implied volatilities. If all implied volatilities are assumed to change by the same amount during any short period of time, vega can be treated like gamma and the vega risk in a
portfolio of options can be hedged by taking a position in a single option. If
V is the
vega of a portfolio and VT is the vega of a traded option, a position of -V>VT in the
traded option makes the portfolio instantaneously vega neutral. Unfortunately, a portfolio that is gamma neutral will not in general be vega neutral, and vice versa. If
a hedger requires a portfolio to be both gamma and vega neutral, at least two traded options dependent on the underlying asset must be used.
Example 19.5
Consider a portfolio that is delta neutral, with a gamma of
-5,000 and a vega
(measuring sensitivity to implied volatility) of -8,000. The options shown in the
following table can be traded. The portfolio can be made vega neutral by including
a long position in 4,000 of Option 1. This would increase delta to 2,400 and require that 2,400 units of the asset be sold to maintain delta neutrality. The gamma of the portfolio would change from
-5,000 to -3,000.
Delta Gamma Vega
Portfolio 0 -5000 -8000
Option 1 0.6 0.5 2.0
Option 2 0.5 0.8 1.2
Gamma and Vega Neutrality
- Traders can achieve simultaneous gamma and vega neutrality by solving linear equations to determine the necessary quantities of multiple traded options.
- Maintaining neutrality across multiple Greek letters often requires a subsequent adjustment of the underlying asset to restore delta neutrality.
- Standard vega hedging assumes all implied volatilities change uniformly, though in reality, traders must manage a complex 'volatility surface' across different strikes and maturities.
- While calculating vega using the BlackāScholesāMerton model is theoretically inconsistent with its constant volatility assumption, traders prefer this practical approach over complex stochastic models.
Calculating vega from the BlackāScholesāMerton model and its extensions may seem strange because one of the assumptions underlying the model is that volatility is constant.
Consider a portfolio that is delta neutral, with a gamma of
-5,000 and a vega
(measuring sensitivity to implied volatility) of -8,000. The options shown in the
following table can be traded. The portfolio can be made vega neutral by including
a long position in 4,000 of Option 1. This would increase delta to 2,400 and require that 2,400 units of the asset be sold to maintain delta neutrality. The gamma of the portfolio would change from
-5,000 to -3,000.
Delta Gamma Vega
Portfolio 0 -5000 -8000
Option 1 0.6 0.5 2.0
Option 2 0.5 0.8 1.2
To make the portfolio gamma and vega neutral, both Option 1 and Option 2
can be used. If w1 and w2 are the quantities of Option 1 and Option 2 that are 19.8 VEGA
8 Vega is the name given to one of the āGreek lettersā in option pricing, but it is not one of the letters in the
Greek alphabet.
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The Greek Letters 435
added to the portfolio, we require that
-5,000+0.5w1+0.8w2=0
and
-8,000+2.0w1+1.2w2=0
The solution to these equations is w1=400, w2=6,000. The portfolio can there-
fore be made gamma and vega neutral by including 400 of Option 1 and 6,000 of
Option 2. The delta of the portfolio, after the addition of the positions in the two traded options, is
400*0.6+6,000*0.5=3,240. Hence, 3,240 units of the asset
would have to be sold to maintain delta neutrality.
Hedging in the way indicated in Example 19.5 assumes that the implied volatilities of all options in a portfolio will change by the same amount during a short period of time. In practice, this is not necessarily true and a traderās hedging problem is more complex. As
we will see in the next chapter, for any given underlying asset a trader monitors a āvolatility surfaceā that describes the implied volatilities of options with different strike
prices and times to maturity. The traderās total vega risk for a portfolio is related to the different ways in which the volatility surface can change.
For a European call or put option on a non-dividend-paying stock, vega given by the
BlackāScholesāMerton model is
V=S02T Nā²1d 12
where d1 is defined as in equation (15.20). The formula for Nā²1x2 is given in equa-
tion (19.2). The vega of a long position in a European or American option is always positive. The general way in which vega varies with
S0 is shown in Figure 19.11.
Figure 19.11 Variation of vega with stock price for an option 1K=50, r=0,
s=25,, T=22.
0 50 100 150051015202530
Stock priceVega
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436 CHAPTER 19
Example 19.6
As in Example 19. 1, consider a call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where
the stock price is $49, the strike price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5%, the time to
maturity is 20 weeks (= 0.3846 years), and the implied volatility is 20%. In this case,
S0=49, K=50, r=0.05, s=0.2, and T=0.3846.
The optionās vega is
S02T Nā²1d 12=12.1
Thus a 1% (0.01) increase in the implied volatility from (20% to 21%) increases the value of the option by approximately
0.01*12.1=0.121.
Calculating vega from the BlackāScholesāMerton model and its extensions may seem strange because one of the assumptions underlying the model is that volatility is constant. It would be theoretically more correct to calculate vega from a model in which
volatility is assumed to be stochastic.
9 However, traders prefer the simpler approach of
measuring vega in terms of potential movements in the BlackāScholesāMerton implied volatility.
Gamma neutrality protects against large changes in the price of the underlying asset
between hedge rebalancing. Vega neutrality protects against changes in volatility. As might be expected, whether it is best to use an available traded option for vega or gamma hedging depends on the time between hedge rebalancing and the volatility of the volatility.
10
When volatilities change, the implied volatilities of short-dated options tend to change
Greeks and Hedging Realities
- Gamma and vega neutrality protect against large price swings and volatility shifts, though their effectiveness depends on rebalancing frequency.
- Short-dated options exhibit higher sensitivity to volatility changes than long-dated options, requiring adjusted vega calculations.
- Rho measures an option's sensitivity to interest rate changes, representing the exposure a trader has to the term structure.
- While delta neutrality is often maintained daily, achieving zero gamma or vega is difficult due to the lack of liquid, competitively priced derivatives.
- Economies of scale are crucial in derivatives trading, as the costs of daily rebalancing are only sustainable for large portfolios.
Unfortunately, a zero gamma and a zero vega are less easy to achieve because it is difficult to find options or other nonlinear derivatives that can be traded in the volume required at competitive prices.
measuring vega in terms of potential movements in the BlackāScholesāMerton implied volatility.
Gamma neutrality protects against large changes in the price of the underlying asset
between hedge rebalancing. Vega neutrality protects against changes in volatility. As might be expected, whether it is best to use an available traded option for vega or gamma hedging depends on the time between hedge rebalancing and the volatility of the volatility.
10
When volatilities change, the implied volatilities of short-dated options tend to change
by more than the implied volatilities of long-dated options. The vega of a portfolio is therefore often calculated by changing the volatilities of long-dated options by less than that of short-dated options. One way of doing this is discussed in Section 23.6.
9 See Chapter 27 for a discussion of stochastic volatility models.
10 For a discussion of this issue, see J. C. Hull and A. White, āHedging the Risks from Writing Foreign
Currency Options, ā Journal of International Money and Finance 6 (June 1987): 131 ā52.19.9 RHO
The rho of an option is the rate of change of its price f with respect to the interest
rate r:
0f
0r
It measures the sensitivity of the value of a portfolio to a change in the interest rate when all else remains the same. In practice (at least for European options) r is usually set equal
to the risk-free rate for a maturity equal to the optionās maturity (see Section 28.6). This means that a trader has exposure to movements in the whole term structure when the options in the traderās portfolio have different maturities. For a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock,
rho 1call2=KTe-rT N1d22
where d2 is defined as in equation (15.20). For a European put option,
rho 1put2=-KTe-rT N1-d22
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The Greek Letters 437
Example 19.7
As in Example 19. 1, consider a call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where
the stock price is $49, the strike price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5%, the time to
maturity is 20 weeks (= 0.3846 years), and the volatility is 20%. In this case,
S0=49, K=50, r=0.05, s=0.2, and T=0.3846.
The optionās rho is
KTe-rT N1d22=8.91
This means that a 1% (0.01) increase in the risk-free rate (from 5% to 6%)
increases the value of the option by approximately 0.01*8.91=0.0891.
11 The trading costs arise from the fact that each day the hedger buys some of the underlying asset at the ask
price or sells some of the underlying asset at the bid price.19.10 THE REALITIES OF HEDGING
In an ideal world, traders working for financial institutions would be able to rebalance
their portfolios very frequently in order to maintain all Greeks equal to zero. In
practice, this is not possible. When managing a large portfolio dependent on a single
underlying asset, traders usually make delta zero, or close to zero, at least once a day by trading the underlying asset. Unfortunately, a zero gamma and a zero vega are less easy to achieve because it is difficult to find options or other nonlinear derivatives that can be traded in the volume required at competitive prices. Business Snapshot 19.1 provides a discussion of how dynamic hedging is organized at financial institutions.
As already mentioned, there are big economies of scale in trading derivatives.
Maintaining delta neutrality for a small number of options on an asset by trading
daily is usually not economically feasible because the trading costs per option hedged are high.
11 But when a derivatives dealer maintains delta neutrality for a large portfolio
of options on an asset, the trading costs per option hedged are more reasonable.
19.11 SCENARIO ANALYSIS
Realities of Portfolio Hedging
- Traders aim to maintain delta neutrality daily by trading the underlying asset, but achieving zero gamma and vega is much more difficult due to market liquidity constraints.
- Economies of scale play a critical role in derivatives trading, as the costs of frequent rebalancing are only sustainable for large portfolios.
- Scenario analysis serves as a vital risk management tool by calculating potential gains or losses under various price and volatility shifts.
- The effectiveness of hedging is often limited by the availability and competitive pricing of nonlinear derivatives required to offset complex risks.
- Management often uses specific time horizons for risk assessment based on the liquidity of the financial instruments being held.
Unfortunately, a zero gamma and a zero vega are less easy to achieve because it is difficult to find options or other nonlinear derivatives that can be traded in the volume required at competitive prices.
This means that a 1% (0.01) increase in the risk-free rate (from 5% to 6%)
increases the value of the option by approximately 0.01*8.91=0.0891.
11 The trading costs arise from the fact that each day the hedger buys some of the underlying asset at the ask
price or sells some of the underlying asset at the bid price.19.10 THE REALITIES OF HEDGING
In an ideal world, traders working for financial institutions would be able to rebalance
their portfolios very frequently in order to maintain all Greeks equal to zero. In
practice, this is not possible. When managing a large portfolio dependent on a single
underlying asset, traders usually make delta zero, or close to zero, at least once a day by trading the underlying asset. Unfortunately, a zero gamma and a zero vega are less easy to achieve because it is difficult to find options or other nonlinear derivatives that can be traded in the volume required at competitive prices. Business Snapshot 19.1 provides a discussion of how dynamic hedging is organized at financial institutions.
As already mentioned, there are big economies of scale in trading derivatives.
Maintaining delta neutrality for a small number of options on an asset by trading
daily is usually not economically feasible because the trading costs per option hedged are high.
11 But when a derivatives dealer maintains delta neutrality for a large portfolio
of options on an asset, the trading costs per option hedged are more reasonable.
19.11 SCENARIO ANALYSIS
In addition to monitoring risks such as delta, gamma, and vega, option traders often also carry out a scenario analysis. The analysis involves calculating the gain or loss on their portfolio over a specified period under a variety of different scenarios. The time period chosen is likely to depend on the liquidity of the instruments. The scenarios can be either chosen by management or generated by a model.
Consider a bank with a portfolio of options dependent on the USD/EUR exchange
rate. The two key variables on which the value of the portfolio depends are the exchange rate and the exchange rate volatility. The bank could calculate a table such as Table 19.5 showing the profit or loss experienced during a 2-week period under different scenarios. This table considers seven different exchange rate movements and three different implied volatility movements. The table makes the simplifying assump-tion that the implied volatilities of all options in the portfolio change by the same amount. (Note: + 2% would indicate a volatility change from 10% to 12%, not 10%
to 10.2%.)
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438 CHAPTER 19
Option Portfolio Scenario Analysis
- Traders use scenario analysis to calculate potential portfolio gains or losses under various market conditions, supplementing standard Greek risk metrics.
- Financial institutions typically assign specific traders responsibility for all derivatives tied to a single underlying asset, governed by strict daily limits on delta, gamma, and vega.
- While traders prioritize becoming delta neutral by the end of each day, gamma and vega are monitored but not always managed with the same daily frequency.
- Banks often accumulate negative gamma and vega from client transactions, leading them to seek opportunities to buy options to balance their risk exposure.
- The risk of options often diminishes as they move deep in or out of the money, but traders face significant danger if written options remain at the money near maturity.
A nightmare scenario for an options trader is where written options remain very close to the money as the maturity date is approached.
In addition to monitoring risks such as delta, gamma, and vega, option traders often also carry out a scenario analysis. The analysis involves calculating the gain or loss on their portfolio over a specified period under a variety of different scenarios. The time period chosen is likely to depend on the liquidity of the instruments. The scenarios can be either chosen by management or generated by a model.
Consider a bank with a portfolio of options dependent on the USD/EUR exchange
rate. The two key variables on which the value of the portfolio depends are the exchange rate and the exchange rate volatility. The bank could calculate a table such as Table 19.5 showing the profit or loss experienced during a 2-week period under different scenarios. This table considers seven different exchange rate movements and three different implied volatility movements. The table makes the simplifying assump-tion that the implied volatilities of all options in the portfolio change by the same amount. (Note: + 2% would indicate a volatility change from 10% to 12%, not 10%
to 10.2%.)
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438 CHAPTER 19
In Table 19.5, the greatest loss is in the lower right corner of the table. The loss
corresponds to implied volatilities increasing by 2% and the exchange rate moving up
by 0.06. Usually the greatest loss in a table such as Table 19.5 occurs at one of the
corners, but this is not always so. Consider, for example, the situation where a bankās
portfolio consists of a short position in a butterfly spread (see Section 12.3). The greatest loss will be experienced if the exchange rate stays where it is.Business Snapshot 19.1 Dynamic Hedging in Practice
In a typical arrangement at a financial institution, the responsibility for a portfolio of
derivatives dependent on a particular underlying asset is assigned to one trader or to
a group of traders working together. For example, one trader at Goldman Sachs might be assigned responsibility for all derivatives dependent on the value of the Australian dollar. A computer system calculates the value of the portfolio and Greek
letters for the portfolio. Limits are defined for each Greek letter and special permission is required if a trader wants to exceed a limit at the end of a trading day.
The delta limit is often expressed as the equivalent maximum position in the
underlying asset. For example, the delta limit for a stock at a particular bank might
be $1 million. If the stock price is $50, this means that the absolute value of delta as we have calculated it can be no more than 20,000. The vega limit is usually expressed as a maximum dollar exposure per 1% change in implied volatilities.
As a matter of course, options traders make themselves delta neutralāor close to
delta neutralāat the end of each day. Gamma and vega are monitored, but are not usually managed on a daily basis. Financial institutions often find that their business with clients involves writing options and that as a result they accumulate negative gamma and vega. They are then always looking out for opportunities to manage their gamma and vega risks by buying options at competitive prices.
There is one aspect of an options portfolio that mitigates problems of managing
gamma and vega somewhat. Options are often close to the money when they are first sold, so that they have relatively high gammas and vegas. But after some time
has elapsed, the underlying asset price has often changed enough for them to become deep out of the money or deep in the money. Their gammas and vegas are then very small and of little consequence. A nightmare scenario for an options trader is where written options remain very close to the money as the maturity date is approached.
Implied
volatility
changesExchange rate change
-0.06 -0.04 -0.02 0.00 +0.02 +0.04 +0.06
-2, +102 +55 +25 +6 -10 -34 -80
0% +80 +40 +17 +2 -14 -38 -85
Dynamic Hedging and Greek Limits
- Financial institutions manage derivative portfolios by assigning specific assets to individual traders who must operate within strict Greek letter limits.
- Traders typically maintain delta-neutral positions daily, while gamma and vega are monitored and managed over longer intervals.
- Banks often accumulate negative gamma and vega from client transactions, leading them to seek opportunities to buy options to offset these risks.
- The risk profile of an options portfolio naturally diminishes over time as assets move deep in or out of the money, reducing their sensitivity.
- Greek letter formulas for various assets like indices and currencies can be derived by adjusting the dividend yield parameter in standard models.
A nightmare scenario for an options trader is where written options remain very close to the money as the maturity date is approached.
In Table 19.5, the greatest loss is in the lower right corner of the table. The loss
corresponds to implied volatilities increasing by 2% and the exchange rate moving up
by 0.06. Usually the greatest loss in a table such as Table 19.5 occurs at one of the
corners, but this is not always so. Consider, for example, the situation where a bankās
portfolio consists of a short position in a butterfly spread (see Section 12.3). The greatest loss will be experienced if the exchange rate stays where it is.Business Snapshot 19.1 Dynamic Hedging in Practice
In a typical arrangement at a financial institution, the responsibility for a portfolio of
derivatives dependent on a particular underlying asset is assigned to one trader or to
a group of traders working together. For example, one trader at Goldman Sachs might be assigned responsibility for all derivatives dependent on the value of the Australian dollar. A computer system calculates the value of the portfolio and Greek
letters for the portfolio. Limits are defined for each Greek letter and special permission is required if a trader wants to exceed a limit at the end of a trading day.
The delta limit is often expressed as the equivalent maximum position in the
underlying asset. For example, the delta limit for a stock at a particular bank might
be $1 million. If the stock price is $50, this means that the absolute value of delta as we have calculated it can be no more than 20,000. The vega limit is usually expressed as a maximum dollar exposure per 1% change in implied volatilities.
As a matter of course, options traders make themselves delta neutralāor close to
delta neutralāat the end of each day. Gamma and vega are monitored, but are not usually managed on a daily basis. Financial institutions often find that their business with clients involves writing options and that as a result they accumulate negative gamma and vega. They are then always looking out for opportunities to manage their gamma and vega risks by buying options at competitive prices.
There is one aspect of an options portfolio that mitigates problems of managing
gamma and vega somewhat. Options are often close to the money when they are first sold, so that they have relatively high gammas and vegas. But after some time
has elapsed, the underlying asset price has often changed enough for them to become deep out of the money or deep in the money. Their gammas and vegas are then very small and of little consequence. A nightmare scenario for an options trader is where written options remain very close to the money as the maturity date is approached.
Implied
volatility
changesExchange rate change
-0.06 -0.04 -0.02 0.00 +0.02 +0.04 +0.06
-2, +102 +55 +25 +6 -10 -34 -80
0% +80 +40 +17 +2 -14 -38 -85
+2% +60 +25 +9 -2 -18 -42 -90Table 19.5 Profit or loss realized in 2 weeks under different scenarios ($ million).
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The Greek Letters 439
The formulas produced so far for delta, theta, gamma, vega, and rho have been for a
European option on a non-dividend-paying stock. Table 19.6 shows how they change when the stock pays a continuous dividend yield at rate q . The expressions for
d1 and d2
are as for equations (17.4) and (17.5). By setting q equal to the dividend yield on an index,
we obtain the Greek letters for European options on indices. By setting q equal to the
foreign risk-free rate, we obtain the Greek letters for European options on a currency. By setting
q=r, we obtain delta, gamma, theta, and vega for European options on a futures
contract. The rho for a call futures option is -cT and the rho for a European put futures
option is -pT.
In the case of currency options, there are two rhos corresponding to the two interest
rates. The rho corresponding to the domestic interest rate is given by the formula in
Table 19.6 (with d2 as in equation (17.11)). The rho corresponding to the foreign
interest rate for a European call on a currency is
Greek Letters and Delta Hedging
- The formulas for Greek letters in European options can be adapted for indices, currencies, and futures by adjusting the dividend yield variable.
- Currency options are unique in that they possess two distinct rhos, corresponding to both domestic and foreign interest rates.
- The delta of a long forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock is always 1.0, allowing for a simple one-to-one hedge with the underlying share.
- Daily settlement causes the deltas of futures and forward contracts to differ slightly, even when interest rates are constant and prices are equal.
- Delta-neutral positions can be achieved using futures contracts by adjusting the required asset position by a factor related to the risk-free rate and yield.
It is interesting that daily settlement makes the deltas of futures and forward contracts slightly different.
are as for equations (17.4) and (17.5). By setting q equal to the dividend yield on an index,
we obtain the Greek letters for European options on indices. By setting q equal to the
foreign risk-free rate, we obtain the Greek letters for European options on a currency. By setting
q=r, we obtain delta, gamma, theta, and vega for European options on a futures
contract. The rho for a call futures option is -cT and the rho for a European put futures
option is -pT.
In the case of currency options, there are two rhos corresponding to the two interest
rates. The rho corresponding to the domestic interest rate is given by the formula in
Table 19.6 (with d2 as in equation (17.11)). The rho corresponding to the foreign
interest rate for a European call on a currency is
rho1call, foreign rate2=-Te-rfT S0N1d12
For a European put, it is
rho1put, foreign rate2=Te-rf T S0N1-d12
with d1 as in equation (17.11).
The calculation of Greek letters for American options is discussed in Chapter 21.
Delta of Forward Contracts
The concept of delta can be applied to financial instruments other than options. Consider
a forward contract on a non-dividend-paying stock. Equation (5.5) shows that the value
of a forward contract is S0-Ke-rT, where K is the delivery price and T is the forward
contractās time to maturity. When the price of the stock changes by āS, with all else
remaining the same, the value of a forward contract on the stock also changes by āS. The
Greek letter Call option Put option
Delta e-qT N1d12 e-qT 3N1d12-14
GammaNā²1d 12e-qT
S0s2TNā²1d 12e-qT
S0s2T
Theta-S0Nā²1d 12se-qT>122T2
+ qS0N1d12e-qT-rKe-rT N1d22-S0Nā²1d 12se-qT>122T2
- qS0N1-d12e-qT+rKe-rT N1-d22
VegaS02TNā²1d 12e-qTS02TNā²1d 12e-qT
Rho KTe-rT N1d22 -KTe-rT N1-d22Table 19.6 Greek letters for European options on an asset providing a yield at rate q .19.12 EXTENSION OF FORMULAS
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440 CHAPTER 19
delta of a long forward contract on one share of the stock is therefore always 1.0. This
means that a long forward contract on one share can be hedged by shorting one share; a
short forward contract on one share can be hedged by purchasing one share.12
For an asset providing a dividend yield at rate q, equation (5.7) shows that the
forward contractās delta is e-qT. For the delta of a forward contract on a stock index, q
is set equal to the dividend yield on the index in this expression. For the delta of a
forward foreign exchange contract, it is set equal to the foreign risk-free rate, rf.
Delta of a Futures Contract
From equation (5.1), the futures price for a contract on a non-dividend-paying stock is
S0erT, where T is the time to maturity of the futures contract. This shows that when the
price of the stock changes by āS, with all else remaining the same, the futures price
changes by āS erT. Since futures contracts are settled daily, the holder of a long futures
position makes an almost immediate gain of this amount. The delta of a futures
contract is therefore erT. For a futures position on an asset providing a dividend yield
at rate q, equation (5.3) shows similarly that delta is e1r-q2T.
It is interesting that daily settlement makes the deltas of futures and forward contracts
slightly different. This is true even when interest rates are constant and the forward price equals the futures price. (A related point is made in Business Snapshot 5.2.)
Sometimes a futures contract is used to achieve a delta-neutral position. Define:
T : Maturity of futures contract
H
A: Required position in asset for delta hedging
HF : Alternative required position in futures contracts for delta hedging.
If the underlying asset is a non-dividend-paying stock, the analysis we have just given shows that
HF=e-rT HA (19.5)
When the underlying asset pays a dividend yield q,
HF=e-1r-q2T HA (19.6)
Futures Delta and Synthetic Options
- The delta of a futures contract is defined as e to the power of (r-q)T, reflecting how the futures price reacts to changes in the underlying asset's price.
- Daily settlement of futures contracts creates a slight divergence between the deltas of futures and forward contracts, even when interest rates remain constant.
- Portfolio managers can create synthetic put options by maintaining a position in the underlying asset or futures that matches the desired option's delta.
- Synthetic options are often preferred over market-traded options when fund managers require specific strike prices or when market liquidity is insufficient for large trades.
It is interesting that daily settlement makes the deltas of futures and forward contracts slightly different.
From equation (5.1), the futures price for a contract on a non-dividend-paying stock is
S0erT, where T is the time to maturity of the futures contract. This shows that when the
price of the stock changes by āS, with all else remaining the same, the futures price
changes by āS erT. Since futures contracts are settled daily, the holder of a long futures
position makes an almost immediate gain of this amount. The delta of a futures
contract is therefore erT. For a futures position on an asset providing a dividend yield
at rate q, equation (5.3) shows similarly that delta is e1r-q2T.
It is interesting that daily settlement makes the deltas of futures and forward contracts
slightly different. This is true even when interest rates are constant and the forward price equals the futures price. (A related point is made in Business Snapshot 5.2.)
Sometimes a futures contract is used to achieve a delta-neutral position. Define:
T : Maturity of futures contract
H
A: Required position in asset for delta hedging
HF : Alternative required position in futures contracts for delta hedging.
If the underlying asset is a non-dividend-paying stock, the analysis we have just given shows that
HF=e-rT HA (19.5)
When the underlying asset pays a dividend yield q,
HF=e-1r-q2T HA (19.6)
For a stock index, we set q equal to the dividend yield on the index; for a currency, we
set it equal to the foreign risk-free rate, r f , so that
HF=e-1r-rf2T HA (19.7)
Example 19.8
Suppose that a portfolio of currency options held by a U.S. bank can be made delta neutral with a short position of 458,000 pounds sterling. Risk-free rates are 4% in the United States and 7% in the United Kingdom. From equation (19.7), hedging using 9-month currency futures requires a short futures position
e-10.04-0.072*9>12*458,000
or £468,442. Since each futures contract is for the purchase or sale of £62,500, seven contracts would be shorted. (Seven is the nearest whole number to 468,442/62,500.)
12 These are hedge-and-forget schemes. Since delta is always 1.0, no changes need to be made to the position
in the stock during the life of the contract.
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The Greek Letters 441
A portfolio manager is often interested in acquiring a put option on his or her portfolio.
This provides protection against market declines while preserving the potential for a gain if the market does well. One approach (discussed in Section 17.1) is to buy put options on a market index such as the S&P 500. An alternative is to create the options synthetically.
Creating an option synthetically involves maintaining a position in the underlying
asset (or futures on the underlying asset) so that the delta of the position is equal to the delta of the required option. The position necessary to create an option synthetically is the reverse of that necessary to hedge it. This is because the procedure for hedging an option involves the creation of an equal and opposite option synthetically.
There are two reasons why it may be more attractive for the portfolio manager to
create the required put option synthetically than to buy it in the market. First, option markets do not always have the liquidity to absorb the trades required by managers of large funds. Second, fund managers often require strike prices and exercise dates that are different from those available in exchange-traded options markets.
The synthetic option can be created from trading the portfolio or from trading in
index futures contracts. We first examine the creation of a put option by trading the portfolio. From Table 19.6, the delta of a European put on the portfolio is
ā=e-qT 3N1d12-14 (19.8)
where, with our usual notation,
d1=ln1S0>K2+1r-q+s2>22T
s2T
The other variables are defined as usual: S0 is the value of the portfolio, K is the strike
Synthetic Portfolio Insurance
- Synthetic options are created by maintaining a position in the underlying asset that matches the delta of the desired option.
- Managers often prefer synthetic creation over market purchases due to limited liquidity in exchange-traded markets and the need for custom strike prices.
- The strategy requires selling stocks and moving into riskless assets as the portfolio value declines, effectively mimicking a put option's behavior.
- Portfolio insurance costs arise because the manager is forced to sell after market declines and buy after market rises, creating a 'buy high, sell low' dynamic.
The cost of the insurance arises from the fact that the portfolio manager is always selling after a decline in the market and buying after a rise in the market.
asset (or futures on the underlying asset) so that the delta of the position is equal to the delta of the required option. The position necessary to create an option synthetically is the reverse of that necessary to hedge it. This is because the procedure for hedging an option involves the creation of an equal and opposite option synthetically.
There are two reasons why it may be more attractive for the portfolio manager to
create the required put option synthetically than to buy it in the market. First, option markets do not always have the liquidity to absorb the trades required by managers of large funds. Second, fund managers often require strike prices and exercise dates that are different from those available in exchange-traded options markets.
The synthetic option can be created from trading the portfolio or from trading in
index futures contracts. We first examine the creation of a put option by trading the portfolio. From Table 19.6, the delta of a European put on the portfolio is
ā=e-qT 3N1d12-14 (19.8)
where, with our usual notation,
d1=ln1S0>K2+1r-q+s2>22T
s2T
The other variables are defined as usual: S0 is the value of the portfolio, K is the strike
price, r is the risk-free rate, q is the dividend yield on the portfolio, s is the volatility of
the portfolio, and T is the life of the option. The volatility of the portfolio can usually
be assumed to be its beta times the volatility of a well-diversified market index.
To create the put option synthetically, the fund manager should ensure that at any
given time a proportion
e-qT 31-N1d124
of the stocks in the original portfolio has been sold and the proceeds invested in riskless
assets. As the value of the original portfolio declines, the delta of the put given by
equation (19.8) becomes more negative and the proportion of the original portfolio sold
must be increased. As the value of the original portfolio increases, the delta of the put
becomes less negative and the proportion of the original portfolio sold must be decreased (i.e., some of the original portfolio must be repurchased).
Using this strategy to create portfolio insurance means that at any given time funds
are divided between the stock portfolio on which insurance is required and riskless assets. As the value of the stock portfolio increases, riskless assets are sold and the position in the stock portfolio is increased. As the value of the stock portfolio declines, the position in the stock portfolio is decreased and riskless assets are purchased. The cost of the insurance arises from the fact that the portfolio manager is always selling after a decline in the market and buying after a rise in the market.19.13 PORTFOLIO INSURANCE
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442 CHAPTER 19
Example 19.9
A portfolio is worth $90 million. To protect against market downturns the man-
agers of the portfolio require a 6-month European put option on the portfolio with a strike price of $87 million. The risk-free rate is 9% per annum, the dividend yield is 3% per annum, and the volatility of the portfolio is estimated as 25% per annum. A stock index stands at 900. The portfolio is considered to mimic the index fairly closely. One alternative, discussed in Section 17.1, is to buy 1,000 put option contracts on the index with a strike price of 870. Another alternative is to create
the required option synthetically. In this case, S
0 = 90 million, K = 87 million,
r = 0.09, q = 0.03, Ļ = 0.25, and T = 0.5, so that
d1=ln190>872+10.09-0.03+0.252>220.5
0.2520.5=0.4499
and the delta of the required option is
e-qT 3N1d12-14=-0.3215
Synthetic Options and Portfolio Insurance
- Portfolio managers can protect against market downturns by creating synthetic European put options through dynamic asset allocation.
- The delta of the required option determines the initial percentage of the portfolio that must be sold and reinvested in risk-free assets.
- Using index futures to create synthetic options is often preferable to trading underlying stocks due to significantly lower transaction costs.
- Maintaining a synthetic position requires frequent monitoring and rebalancing as the index value and time to maturity change.
- When a portfolio does not perfectly mirror an index, managers must adjust the number of contracts based on the portfolio's beta.
This shows that 32.15% of the portfolio should be sold initially and invested in risk-free assets to match the delta of the required option.
A portfolio is worth $90 million. To protect against market downturns the man-
agers of the portfolio require a 6-month European put option on the portfolio with a strike price of $87 million. The risk-free rate is 9% per annum, the dividend yield is 3% per annum, and the volatility of the portfolio is estimated as 25% per annum. A stock index stands at 900. The portfolio is considered to mimic the index fairly closely. One alternative, discussed in Section 17.1, is to buy 1,000 put option contracts on the index with a strike price of 870. Another alternative is to create
the required option synthetically. In this case, S
0 = 90 million, K = 87 million,
r = 0.09, q = 0.03, Ļ = 0.25, and T = 0.5, so that
d1=ln190>872+10.09-0.03+0.252>220.5
0.2520.5=0.4499
and the delta of the required option is
e-qT 3N1d12-14=-0.3215
This shows that 32.15% of the portfolio should be sold initially and invested in
risk-free assets to match the delta of the required option. The amount of the
portfolio sold must be monitored frequently. For example, if the value of the
original portfolio reduces to $88 million after 1 day, the delta of the required
option changes to 0.3679 and a further 4.64% of the original portfolio should be
sold and invested in risk-free assets. If the value of the portfolio increases
to $92 million, the delta of the required option changes to -0.2787 and 4.28%
of the original portfolio should be repurchased.
Use of Index Futures
Using index futures to create options synthetically can be preferable to using the underlying stocks because the transaction costs associated with trades in index futures
are generally lower than those associated with the corresponding trades in the under-lying stocks. The dollar amount of the futures contracts shorted as a proportion of the value of the portfolio should from equations (19.6) and (19.8) be
e-qT e-1r-q2T* 31-N1d124=eq1T*-T2e-rT* 31-N1d124
where T* is the maturity of the futures contract. If the portfolio is worth A1 times the
index and each index futures contract is on A2 times the index, the number of futures
contracts shorted at any given time should be
eq1T*-T2e-rT* 31-N1d124 A1>A2
Example 19.10
Suppose in Example 19. 9 futures contracts on the index maturing in 9 months
are used to create the option synthetically. In this case initially T = 0.5, T* = 0.75,
A1 = 100,000, and d1=0.4499. Each index futures contract is on 250 times the
index, so that A2=250. The number of futures contracts shorted should be
eq1T*-T2e-rT* 31-N1d124 A1>A2=122.96
or 123, rounding to the nearest whole number. As time passes and the index changes, the position in futures contracts must be adjusted.
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The Greek Letters 443
This analysis assumes that the portfolio mirrors the index. When this is not the case, it
is necessary to (a) calculate the portfolioās beta, (b) find the position in options on the index that gives the required protection, and (c) choose a position in index futures to create the options synthetically. As discussed in Section 17.1, the strike price for the options should be the expected level of the market index when the portfolio reaches its insured value. The number of options required is beta times the number that would be required if the portfolio had a beta of 1.0.
Impact on Volatility
Portfolio Insurance and Hedging
- Portfolio insurance strategies require adjusting positions based on a portfolio's beta and the expected level of the market index.
- Dynamic hedging strategies, such as selling during market declines and buying during rises, have the potential to significantly increase market volatility.
- The destabilizing effect of these strategies is magnified when they represent a large fraction of total trades, as evidenced by the 1987 market crash.
- Modern financial engineering is increasingly applying reinforcement learning to optimize hedging decisions in the presence of transaction costs.
- Reinforcement learning treats hedging as a sequential decision problem, similar to the logic used by software to master games like chess and Go.
But if portfolio insurance becomes very popular, it is liable to have a destabilizing effect on the market, as it did in 1987.
This analysis assumes that the portfolio mirrors the index. When this is not the case, it
is necessary to (a) calculate the portfolioās beta, (b) find the position in options on the index that gives the required protection, and (c) choose a position in index futures to create the options synthetically. As discussed in Section 17.1, the strike price for the options should be the expected level of the market index when the portfolio reaches its insured value. The number of options required is beta times the number that would be required if the portfolio had a beta of 1.0.
Impact on Volatility
We discussed in Chapter 15 the issue of whether volatility is caused solely by the arrival of new information or whether trading itself generates volatility. Portfolio insurance strategies such as those just described have the potential to increase volatility. When the
market declines, they cause portfolio managers either to sell stock or to sell index futures contracts. Either action may accentuate the decline (see Business Snapshot 19.2).
The sale of stock is liable to drive down the market index further in a direct way. The sale of index futures contracts is liable to drive down futures prices. This creates selling pressure on stocks via the mechanism of index arbitrage (see Chapter 5), so that the market index is liable to be driven down in this case as well. Similarly, when the market rises, the portfolio insurance strategies cause portfolio managers either to buy stock or to buy futures contracts. This may accentuate the rise.
In addition to formal portfolio trading strategies, we can speculate that many investors
consciously or subconsciously follow portfolio insurance rules of their own. For example, an investor may choose to sell when the market is falling to limit the downside risk.
Whether portfolio insurance trading strategies (formal or informal) affect volatility
depends on how easily the market can absorb the trades that are generated by portfolio insurance. If portfolio insurance trades are a very small fraction of all trades, there is likely to be no effect. But if portfolio insurance becomes very popular, it is liable to have a destabilizing effect on the market, as it did in 1987.
13 See, for example, J. Cao, J. Chen, J. Hull, and Z. Poulos, āDeep Hedging of Derivatives Using
Reinforcement Learningā (2019), SSRN 3514586; H. Buehler, L. Gonon, J. Teichmann, B. Wood, āDeep
Hedging, ā Quantitative Finance , 19, 8 (2019); and P . N. Kolm and G. Ritter, āDynamic Replication and
Hedging: A Reinforcement Learning Approach, ā Journal of Financial Data Science, 1 (Winter 2019): 159ā171.19.14 APPLICATION OF MACHINE LEARNING TO HEDGING
Hedging a position in derivatives involves a sequence of decisions. An initial hedge is
chosen and, as the price of the underlying asset changes, further decisions have to be made at later points in time. If there are no transaction costs or other trading frictions, it is optimal to take positions that make the Greek letters equal to zero. But, if there are non-negligible costs associated with trading, the hedger will want to take these into account when developing a hedging strategy.
Reinforcement learning is the machine learning tool that is used for sequential
decision problems. It has been employed to develop software that can play games such
as chess and Go better than any human being, and has recently be applied to the
problem of hedging derivatives positions when there are transaction/trading costs.
13
Reinforcement learning involves specifying an objective function and using a systematic
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444 CHAPTER 19
Reinforcement Learning and Hedging
- Hedging derivatives involves a sequence of decisions that must account for transaction costs and trading frictions.
- Reinforcement learning is being applied to optimize hedging strategies by balancing expected costs against portfolio risk.
- The algorithm uses Monte Carlo simulations to generate vast amounts of data for a 'trial and error' learning process.
- Historical strategies like portfolio insurance are scrutinized for their role in major market events like the 1987 crash.
- Stop-loss strategies, while superficially attractive, are often ineffective for providing a reliable hedge in practice.
Reinforcement learning involves specifying an objective function and using a systematic 'trial and error' approach to determine the best strategy.
Hedging a position in derivatives involves a sequence of decisions. An initial hedge is
chosen and, as the price of the underlying asset changes, further decisions have to be made at later points in time. If there are no transaction costs or other trading frictions, it is optimal to take positions that make the Greek letters equal to zero. But, if there are non-negligible costs associated with trading, the hedger will want to take these into account when developing a hedging strategy.
Reinforcement learning is the machine learning tool that is used for sequential
decision problems. It has been employed to develop software that can play games such
as chess and Go better than any human being, and has recently be applied to the
problem of hedging derivatives positions when there are transaction/trading costs.
13
Reinforcement learning involves specifying an objective function and using a systematic
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444 CHAPTER 19
ātrial and errorā approach to determine the best strategy. It requires a great deal of data
representing different ways the future might unfold. In the case of the hedging decision, a stochastic process can be assumed for the underlying assetās price and the required data can be generated using Monte Carlo simulation.
The hedger is faced with a trade-off between (a) the expected cost of hedging and
(b) the riskiness of the portfolio. Risks can be reduced, but only by incurring transaction/trading costs. An objective could be to minimize
X+cY, where X is the expected cost of
hedging, Y is the standard deviation of the profit/loss from the hedged portfolio, and c is
a constant reflecting the trade-off. Many possible paths for the price of the underlying asset are simulated. The reinforcement algorithm uses the paths to learn the hedging strategy that gives an optimal value for the specified objective function.
SUMMARY
Financial institutions offer a variety of option products to their clients. Often the options do not correspond to the standardized products traded by exchanges. The financial institutions are then faced with the problem of hedging their exposure. Naked and covered positions leave them subject to an unacceptable level of risk. One course of action that is sometimes proposed is a stop-loss strategy. This involves holding a naked position when an option is out of the money and converting it to a covered position as soon as the option moves into the money. Although superficially attractive, the strategy does not provide a good hedge.Business Snapshot 19.2 Was Portfolio Insurance to Blame for the 1987 Crash?
On Monday, October 19, 1987 , the Dow Jones Industrial Average dropped by more than 20%. Many people feel that portfolio insurance played a major role in this crash. In October 1987 between $60 billion and $90 billion of equity assets were subject to portfolio insurance trading rules where put options were created synthetically in the
way discussed in Section 19. 13. During the period Wednesday, October 14, 1987, to
Friday, October 16, 1987 , the market declined by about 10%, with much of this
decline taking place on Friday afternoon. The portfolio trading rules should have generated at least $12 billion of equity or index futures sales as a result of this decline. In fact, portfolio insurers had time to sell only $4 billion and they approached the
following week with huge amounts of selling already dictated by their models. It is
estimated that on Monday, October 19, sell programs by three portfolio insurers
Hedging Strategies and Market Crashes
- Financial institutions must manage risk for non-standardized option products through complex hedging rather than simple naked or covered positions.
- The stop-loss strategy, while superficially attractive, fails to provide a reliable hedge for options moving in and out of the money.
- Portfolio insurance and synthetic put options are widely blamed for exacerbating the 1987 stock market crash due to massive automated sell orders.
- Delta hedging requires maintaining a delta-neutral position by frequently adjusting holdings in the underlying asset as prices fluctuate.
- The 1987 crash demonstrates the danger of many market participants following identical trading strategies simultaneously, leading to system overloads.
One of the morals of this story is that it is dangerous to follow a particular trading strategyāeven a hedging strategyāwhen many other market participants are doing the same thing.
Financial institutions offer a variety of option products to their clients. Often the options do not correspond to the standardized products traded by exchanges. The financial institutions are then faced with the problem of hedging their exposure. Naked and covered positions leave them subject to an unacceptable level of risk. One course of action that is sometimes proposed is a stop-loss strategy. This involves holding a naked position when an option is out of the money and converting it to a covered position as soon as the option moves into the money. Although superficially attractive, the strategy does not provide a good hedge.Business Snapshot 19.2 Was Portfolio Insurance to Blame for the 1987 Crash?
On Monday, October 19, 1987 , the Dow Jones Industrial Average dropped by more than 20%. Many people feel that portfolio insurance played a major role in this crash. In October 1987 between $60 billion and $90 billion of equity assets were subject to portfolio insurance trading rules where put options were created synthetically in the
way discussed in Section 19. 13. During the period Wednesday, October 14, 1987, to
Friday, October 16, 1987 , the market declined by about 10%, with much of this
decline taking place on Friday afternoon. The portfolio trading rules should have generated at least $12 billion of equity or index futures sales as a result of this decline. In fact, portfolio insurers had time to sell only $4 billion and they approached the
following week with huge amounts of selling already dictated by their models. It is
estimated that on Monday, October 19, sell programs by three portfolio insurers
accounted for almost 10% of the sales on the New York Stock Exchange, and that portfolio insurance sales amounted to 21.3% of all sales in index futures markets. It is likely that the decline in equity prices was exacerbated by investors other than portfolio insurers selling heavily because they anticipated the actions of portfolio insurers.
Because the market declined so fast and the stock exchange systems were over-
loaded, many portfolio insurers were unable to execute the trades generated by their
models and failed to obtain the protection they required. Needless to say, the popularity of portfolio insurance schemes has declined significantly since 1987.
One of the morals of this story is that it is dangerous to follow a particular trading
strategyāeven a hedging strategyāwhen many other market participants are doing
the same thing.
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The Greek Letters 445
The delta 1ā2 of an option is the rate of change of its price with respect to the price of
the underlying asset. Delta hedging involves creating a position with zero delta (some-
times referred to as a delta-neutral position). Because the delta of the underlying asset is 1.0, one way of hedging is to take a position of
-ā in the underlying asset for each
long option being hedged. The delta of an option changes over time. This means that the position in the underlying asset has to be frequently adjusted.
Once an option position has been made delta neutral, the next stage is often to look
at its gamma
Option Greeks and Hedging
- Delta hedging involves creating a neutral position by offsetting an option's price sensitivity with the underlying asset, though it requires frequent rebalancing as the delta changes.
- Gamma measures the curvature of the relationship between option and asset prices, and gamma neutrality is achieved by taking positions in other traded options.
- Vega, theta, and rho measure sensitivities to volatility, time decay, and interest rates respectively, providing a comprehensive risk profile known as the Greeks.
- While delta neutrality is maintained daily, achieving gamma and vega neutrality is more complex and often involves monitoring rather than constant adjustment.
- Synthetic put options can provide portfolio insurance, but these strategies failed dramatically during the market crash of October 19, 1987.
On Monday, October 19, 1987, when the Dow Jones Industrial Average dropped very sharply, it worked badly.
The delta 1ā2 of an option is the rate of change of its price with respect to the price of
the underlying asset. Delta hedging involves creating a position with zero delta (some-
times referred to as a delta-neutral position). Because the delta of the underlying asset is 1.0, one way of hedging is to take a position of
-ā in the underlying asset for each
long option being hedged. The delta of an option changes over time. This means that the position in the underlying asset has to be frequently adjusted.
Once an option position has been made delta neutral, the next stage is often to look
at its gamma
1Ī2. The gamma of an option is the rate of change of its delta with respect
to the price of the underlying asset. It is a measure of the curvature of the relationship
between the option price and the asset price. The impact of this curvature on the
performance of delta hedging can be reduced by making an option position gamma
neutral. If Ī is the gamma of the position being hedged, this reduction is usually
achieved by taking a position in a traded option that has a gamma of -Ī.
Delta and gamma hedging are both based on the assumption that the volatility of the
underlying asset is constant. In practice, volatilities do change over time. The vega of an option or an option portfolio measures the rate of change of its value with respect to volatility, often implied volatility. Sometimes the same change is assumed to apply to all implied volatilities. A trader who wishes to hedge an option position against volatility changes can make the position vega neutral. As with the procedure for creating gamma neutrality, this usually involves taking an offsetting position in a traded option. If the
trader wishes to achieve both gamma and vega neutrality, at least two traded options are usually required.
Two other measures of the risk of an option position are theta and rho. Theta
measures the rate of change of the value of the position with respect to the passage of
time, with all else remaining constant. Rho measures the rate of change of the value of the position with respect to the interest rate, with all else remaining constant.
In practice, option traders usually rebalance their portfolios at least once a day to
maintain delta neutrality. It is usually not feasible to maintain gamma and vega neutrality on a regular basis. Typically a trader monitors these measures. If they get
too large, either corrective action is taken or trading is curtailed.
Portfolio managers are sometimes interested in creating put options synthetically for
the purposes of insuring an equity portfolio. They can do so either by trading the portfolio or by trading index futures on the portfolio. Trading the portfolio involves
splitting the portfolio between equities and risk-free securities. As the market declines,
more is invested in risk-free securities. As the market increases, more is invested in equities. Trading index futures involves keeping the equity portfolio intact and selling
index futures. As the market declines, more index futures are sold; as it rises, fewer are
sold. This type of portfolio insurance works well in normal market conditions. On
Monday, October 19, 1987, when the Dow Jones Industrial Average dropped very
sharply, it worked badly. Portfolio insurers were unable to sell either stocks or index futures fast enough to protect their positions.
FURTHER READING
Cao, J., J. Chen, J. Hull, and Z. Poulos, āDeep Hedging of Derivatives Using Reinforcement
Learning,ā Journal of Financial Data Science, 3 (Winter 2021): 1ā18.
Hull, J. C. Machine Learning in Business: An Introduction to the World of Data Science, 2nd edn.,
2020. Available from Amazon. See: www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull.
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446 CHAPTER 19
Hedging and Greek Letters
- The text highlights the practical limitations of portfolio insurance, noting that insurers often cannot sell assets fast enough during sharp market declines.
- A curated list of further reading explores advanced topics like deep hedging using reinforcement learning and the management of exotic options.
- Practice problems focus on the mechanics of delta neutrality and the synthetic creation of option positions through dynamic trading.
- The exercises contrast the costs of hedging in steady versus volatile markets, emphasizing how price oscillations impact the expense of synthetic options.
- Calculations for the 'Greeks'ādelta, gamma, vega, theta, and rhoāare presented as essential tools for managing financial institution risk.
Portfolio insurers were unable to sell either stocks or index futures fast enough to protect their positions.
sharply, it worked badly. Portfolio insurers were unable to sell either stocks or index futures fast enough to protect their positions.
FURTHER READING
Cao, J., J. Chen, J. Hull, and Z. Poulos, āDeep Hedging of Derivatives Using Reinforcement
Learning,ā Journal of Financial Data Science, 3 (Winter 2021): 1ā18.
Hull, J. C. Machine Learning in Business: An Introduction to the World of Data Science, 2nd edn.,
2020. Available from Amazon. See: www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull.
M19_HULL0654_11_GE_C19.indd 445 12/05/2021 17:56
446 CHAPTER 19
Passarelli, D. Trading Option Greeks: How Time, Volatility, and Other Factors Drive Profits,
2nd edn. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley, 2012.
Taleb, N. N., Dynamic Hedging: Managing Vanilla and Exotic Options. New York: Wiley, 1996.
Practice Questions
19.1. How can a short position in 1,000 options be made delta neutral when the delta of each
option is 0.7?
19.2. Calculate the delta of an at-the-money six-month European call option on a non- dividend-paying stock when the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum and the stock price volatility is 25% per annum.
19.3. āThe procedure for creating an option position synthetically is the reverse of the procedure for hedging the option position.ā Explain this statement.
19.4. The BlackāScholesāMerton price of an out-of-the-money call option with an exercise
price of $40 is $4. A trader who has written the option plans to use a stop-loss strategy. The traderās plan is to buy at $40.10 and to sell at $39.90. Estimate the expected number of times the stock will be bought or sold.
19.5. Suppose that a stock price is currently $20 and that a call option with an exercise price of $25 is created synthetically using a continually changing position in the stock. Consider the following two scenarios: (a) Stock price increases steadily from $20 to $35 during the life of the option; (b) Stock price oscillates wildly, ending up at $35. Which scenario would make the synthetically created option more expensive? Explain your answer.
19.6. What is the delta of a short position in 1,000 European call options on silver futures? The options mature in 8 months, and the futures contract underlying the option matures in 9 months. The current 9-month futures price is $8 per ounce, the exercise price of the options is $8, the risk-free interest rate is 12% per annum, and the volatility of silver futures prices is 18% per annum.
19.7. In Problem 19.6, what initial position in 9-month silver futures is necessary for delta hedging? If silver itself is used, what is the initial position? If 1-year silver futures are used, what is the initial position? Assume no storage costs for silver.
19.8. A company uses delta hedging to hedge a portfolio of long positions in put and call
options on a currency. Which would give the most favorable result: (a) a virtually constant spot rate or (b) wild movements in the spot rate? Explain your answer.
19.9. Repeat Problem 19.8 for a financial institution with a portfolio of short positions in put
and call options on a currency.
19.10. A financial institution has just sold 1,000 7-month European call options on the
Japanese yen. Suppose that the spot exchange rate is 0.80 cent per yen, the exercise
price is 0.81 cent per yen, the risk-free interest rate in the United States is 8% per annum,
the risk-free interest rate in Japan is 5% per annum, and the volatility of the yen is 15% per annum. Calculate the delta, gamma, vega, theta, and rho of the financial institutionās position. Interpret each number.
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The Greek Letters 447
The Greek Letters Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating and interpreting the 'Greeks'ādelta, gamma, vega, theta, and rhoāfor various financial derivatives.
- It explores the practical challenges of delta hedging, comparing the costs and outcomes of synthetic option creation under steady versus volatile market conditions.
- Specific scenarios address hedging strategies for diverse assets, including silver futures, foreign currencies like the Japanese yen, and stock indices.
- The problems contrast the effectiveness of different hedging instruments, such as risk-free securities, index futures, and traded European put or call options.
- Advanced exercises require the application of mathematical proofs to verify the relationships between option sensitivities for non-dividend-paying stocks.
Which scenario would make the synthetically created option more expensive? Explain your answer.
price of $40 is $4. A trader who has written the option plans to use a stop-loss strategy. The traderās plan is to buy at $40.10 and to sell at $39.90. Estimate the expected number of times the stock will be bought or sold.
19.5. Suppose that a stock price is currently $20 and that a call option with an exercise price of $25 is created synthetically using a continually changing position in the stock. Consider the following two scenarios: (a) Stock price increases steadily from $20 to $35 during the life of the option; (b) Stock price oscillates wildly, ending up at $35. Which scenario would make the synthetically created option more expensive? Explain your answer.
19.6. What is the delta of a short position in 1,000 European call options on silver futures? The options mature in 8 months, and the futures contract underlying the option matures in 9 months. The current 9-month futures price is $8 per ounce, the exercise price of the options is $8, the risk-free interest rate is 12% per annum, and the volatility of silver futures prices is 18% per annum.
19.7. In Problem 19.6, what initial position in 9-month silver futures is necessary for delta hedging? If silver itself is used, what is the initial position? If 1-year silver futures are used, what is the initial position? Assume no storage costs for silver.
19.8. A company uses delta hedging to hedge a portfolio of long positions in put and call
options on a currency. Which would give the most favorable result: (a) a virtually constant spot rate or (b) wild movements in the spot rate? Explain your answer.
19.9. Repeat Problem 19.8 for a financial institution with a portfolio of short positions in put
and call options on a currency.
19.10. A financial institution has just sold 1,000 7-month European call options on the
Japanese yen. Suppose that the spot exchange rate is 0.80 cent per yen, the exercise
price is 0.81 cent per yen, the risk-free interest rate in the United States is 8% per annum,
the risk-free interest rate in Japan is 5% per annum, and the volatility of the yen is 15% per annum. Calculate the delta, gamma, vega, theta, and rho of the financial institutionās position. Interpret each number.
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The Greek Letters 447
19.11. Under what circumstances is it possible to make a European option on a stock index both
gamma neutral and vega neutral by adding a position in one other European option?
19.12. A fund manager has a well-diversified portfolio that mirrors the performance of an index
and is worth $360 million. The value of the index is 1,200, and the portfolio manager would like to buy insurance against a reduction of more than 5% in the value of the portfolio over the next 6 months. The risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum. The divi -
dend yield on both the portfolio and the index is 3%, and the volatility of the index is 30% per annum.
(a) If the fund manager buys traded European put options, how much would the
insurance cost?
(b) Explain carefully alternative strategies open to the fund manager involving traded European call options, and show that they lead to the same result.
(c) If the fund manager decides to provide insurance by keeping part of the portfolio in risk-free securities, what should the initial position be?
(d) If the fund manager decides to provide insurance by using 9-month index futures, what should the initial position be?
19.13. Repeat Problem 19.12 on the assumption that the portfolio has a beta of 1.5. Assume
that the dividend yield on the portfolio is 4% per annum.
19.14. Show by substituting for the various terms in equation (19.4) that the equation is true for:
(a) A single European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock
(b) A single European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock
Derivatives Hedging and Greeks
- The text presents complex quantitative problems focused on achieving gamma and vega neutrality in European option portfolios.
- It explores portfolio insurance strategies, comparing the use of traded put options against maintaining risk-free securities or index futures.
- Mathematical relationships between the Greeksādelta, gamma, vega, and thetaāare examined through the lens of put-call parity for non-dividend-paying stocks.
- Practical scenarios analyze the impact of market volatility and exchange rate shifts on a bank's delta-neutral positioning.
- The exercises challenge the reader to calculate the systemic impact of large-scale portfolio insurance schemes during a market crash.
Calculate the value of the stock or futures contracts that the administrators of the portfolio insurance schemes will attempt to sell if the market falls by 23% in a single day.
19.11. Under what circumstances is it possible to make a European option on a stock index both
gamma neutral and vega neutral by adding a position in one other European option?
19.12. A fund manager has a well-diversified portfolio that mirrors the performance of an index
and is worth $360 million. The value of the index is 1,200, and the portfolio manager would like to buy insurance against a reduction of more than 5% in the value of the portfolio over the next 6 months. The risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum. The divi -
dend yield on both the portfolio and the index is 3%, and the volatility of the index is 30% per annum.
(a) If the fund manager buys traded European put options, how much would the
insurance cost?
(b) Explain carefully alternative strategies open to the fund manager involving traded European call options, and show that they lead to the same result.
(c) If the fund manager decides to provide insurance by keeping part of the portfolio in risk-free securities, what should the initial position be?
(d) If the fund manager decides to provide insurance by using 9-month index futures, what should the initial position be?
19.13. Repeat Problem 19.12 on the assumption that the portfolio has a beta of 1.5. Assume
that the dividend yield on the portfolio is 4% per annum.
19.14. Show by substituting for the various terms in equation (19.4) that the equation is true for:
(a) A single European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock
(b) A single European put option on a non-dividend-paying stock
(c) Any portfolio of European put and call options on a non-dividend-paying stock.
19.15. What is the equation corresponding to equation (19.4) for (a) a portfolio of derivatives
on a currency and (b) a portfolio of derivatives on a futures price?
19.16. Suppose that $70 billion of equity assets are the subject of portfolio insurance schemes.
Assume that the schemes are designed to provide insurance against the value of the assets declining by more than 5% within 1 year. Making whatever estimates you find necessary, use the DerivaGem software to calculate the value of the stock or futures contracts that the administrators of the portfolio insurance schemes will attempt to sell if the market falls by 23% in a single day.
19.17. Does a forward contract on a stock index have the same delta as the corresponding
futures contract? Explain your answer.
19.18. A bankās position in options on the dollar/CAD exchange rate has a delta of 30,000 and a
gamma of
-80,000. Explain how these numbers can be interpreted. The exchange rate
(dollars per CAD) is 0.90. What position would you take to make the position delta
neutral? After a short period of time, the exchange rate moves to 0.93. Estimate the new
delta. What additional trade is necessary to keep the position delta neutral? Assuming the bank did set up a delta-neutral position originally, has it gained or lost money from the exchange rate movement?
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448 CHAPTER 19
19.19. Use the putācall parity relationship to derive, for a non-dividend-paying stock, the
relationship between:
(a) The delta of a European call and the delta of a European put
(b) The gamma of a European call and the gamma of a European put
(c) The vega of a European call and the vega of a European put
(d) The theta of a European call and the theta of a European put.
19.20. A financial institution has the following portfolio of over-the-counter options on
sterling:
Type Position Delta
of optionGamma
of optionVega
of option
Call -1,000 0.50 2.2 1.8
Call -500 0.80 0.6 0.2
Put -2,000 -0.40 1.3 0.7
Call -500 0.70 1.8 1.4
Managing Portfolio Greeks
- The text presents complex quantitative problems for achieving delta, gamma, and vega neutrality in a multi-option portfolio.
- Mathematical proofs are required to derive the delta, vega, and rho for European call futures options using the Black-Scholes framework.
- A Taylor series expansion is utilized to demonstrate how different Greek letters contribute to the change in a portfolio's value over a short time interval.
- For a delta-neutral portfolio, the change in value is primarily driven by theta and gamma when higher-order terms are ignored.
- The text evaluates a bank deposit instrument that guarantees a return based on a market index, framing it as a specific type of option payoff.
A Taylor series expansion of the change in the portfolio value in a short period of time shows the role played by different Greek letters.
(a) The delta of a European call and the delta of a European put
(b) The gamma of a European call and the gamma of a European put
(c) The vega of a European call and the vega of a European put
(d) The theta of a European call and the theta of a European put.
19.20. A financial institution has the following portfolio of over-the-counter options on
sterling:
Type Position Delta
of optionGamma
of optionVega
of option
Call -1,000 0.50 2.2 1.8
Call -500 0.80 0.6 0.2
Put -2,000 -0.40 1.3 0.7
Call -500 0.70 1.8 1.4
A traded option is available with a delta of 0.6, a gamma of 1.5, and a vega of 0.8.
(a) What position in the traded option and in sterling would make the portfolio both
gamma neutral and delta neutral?
(b) What position in the traded option and in sterling would make the portfolio both
vega neutral and delta neutral? Assume that all implied volatilities change by the
same amount so that vegas can be aggregated.
19.21. Consider again the situation in Problem 19.20. Suppose that a second traded option with
a delta of 0.1, a gamma of 0.5, and a vega of 0.6 is available. How could the portfolio be made delta, gamma, and vega neutral?
19.22. A deposit instrument offered by a bank guarantees that investors will receive a return
during a 6-month period that is the greater of (a) zero and (b) 40% of the return provided by a market index. An investor is planning to put $100,000 in the instrument.
Describe the payoff as an option on the index. Assuming that the risk-free rate of interest is 8% per annum, the dividend yield on the index is 3% per annum, and the volatility of the index is 25% per annum, is the product a good deal for the investor?
19.23. The formula for the price c of a European call futures option in terms of the futures
price
F0 is given in Chapter 18 as
c=e-rT 3F0N1d12-K N1d224
where
d1=ln1F0>K2+s2T>2
s2T and d2=d1-s2T
M19_HULL0654_11_GE_C19.indd 448 12/05/2021 17:56
The Greek Letters 449
and K, r, T, and s are the strike price, interest rate, time to maturity, and volatility,
respectively.
(a) Prove that F0Nā²1d 12=K Nā²1d 22.
(b) Prove that the delta of the call price with respect to the futures price is e-rT N1d12.
(c) Prove that the vega of the call price is F01T Nā²1d 12e-rT.
(d) Prove the formula for the rho of a call futures option given in Section 19. 12.
The delta, gamma, theta, and vega of a call futures option are the same as those for a call
option on a stock paying dividends at rate q, with q replaced by r and S0 replaced by F0.
Explain why the same is not true of the rho of a call futures option.
19.24. Use DerivaGem to check that equation (19.4) is satisfied for the option considered in
Section 19.1. (Note: DerivaGem produces a value of theta āper calendar day.ā The theta
in equation (19.4) is āper year.ā)
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450 CHAPTER 19
APPENDIX
TAYLOR SERIES EXPANSIONS AND GREEK LETTERS
A Taylor series expansion of the change in the portfolio value in a short period of time
shows the role played by different Greek letters. If the volatility of the underlying asset is assumed to be constant, the value ā of the portfolio is a function of the asset price S, and time t. The Taylor series expansion gives
āĪ =0Ī
0SāS+0Ī
0tāt+1
2 02Ī
0S2āS2+1
2 02Ī
0t2āt2+02Ī
0S 0tāS āt+g (19A.1)
where āĪ and āS are the change in Ī and S in a small time interval āt. Delta hedging
eliminates the first term on the right-hand side. The second term is nonstochastic. The
third term (which is of order āt) can be made zero by ensuring that the portfolio is
gamma neutral as well as delta neutral. Other terms are of order higher than āt.
For a delta-neutral portfolio, the first term on the right-hand side of equation (19A.1)
is zero, so that
āĪ =Ī āt+1
2Ī āS2
when terms of order higher than āt are ignored. This is equation (19.3).
The Practitioner BlackāScholes Model
Practitioner Models and Volatility Surfaces
- Traders utilize the BlackāScholesāMerton model differently than originally intended by allowing volatility to vary based on strike price and maturity.
- Delta, gamma, and vega hedging address the primary terms of a Taylor series expansion to manage risk in a non-constant volatility environment.
- A volatility smile represents implied volatility as a function of the strike price, while a volatility surface adds the dimension of time to maturity.
- Put-call parity ensures that the implied volatility for European call and put options remains identical when they share the same strike and expiration.
- Managing a portfolio of options requires accounting for complex exposures to the various ways a volatility surface can shift over short intervals.
This is because they allow the volatility used to price an option to depend on its strike price and time to maturity.
where āĪ and āS are the change in Ī and S in a small time interval āt. Delta hedging
eliminates the first term on the right-hand side. The second term is nonstochastic. The
third term (which is of order āt) can be made zero by ensuring that the portfolio is
gamma neutral as well as delta neutral. Other terms are of order higher than āt.
For a delta-neutral portfolio, the first term on the right-hand side of equation (19A.1)
is zero, so that
āĪ =Ī āt+1
2Ī āS2
when terms of order higher than āt are ignored. This is equation (19.3).
The Practitioner BlackāScholes Model
In practice, volatility is not constant. As explained in this chapter, practitioners usually
set volatility equal to implied volatility when calculating Greek letters. From the definition of implied volatility, the option price is an exact function of the asset price,
implied volatility, time, interest rates, and dividends. As an approximation, we can ignore changes in interest rates and dividends and assume that an option price, f, is at any given time a function of only two variables: the asset price, S, and the implied volatility, s
imp.
The change in the option price over a short period of time is then given by
āf=0f
0SāS+0f
0simpāsimp+1
2 02f
0S21āS22+1
2 02f
0s2
imp1āsimp22+02f
0S0simpāSāsimp+g
Delta, vega, and gamma hedging deal with the first three terms in this expansion (which are the most important ones). Traders sometimes define other Greek letters such as
02f>0s2
imp and 02f>0S 0simp to explore their exposure to later terms in the Taylor series.
When portfolios of options are considered, the traderās problem is more complicated
because the implied volatility of an option on a particular asset depends on the optionās
strike price and time to maturity. The trader must consider the portfolioās exposure to the different ways the volatility surface can change over a short period of time. Volatility surfaces are discussed in the next chapter.
M19_HULL0654_11_GE_C19.indd 450 12/05/2021 17:56
451
Volatility Smiles
and Volatility
Surfaces
How close are the market prices of options to those predicted by the BlackāScholesā
Merton model? Do traders really use the BlackāScholesāMerton model when determinĀing a price for an option? Are the probability distributions of asset prices really logĀ normal? This chapter answers these questions. It explains that traders do use the Blackā ScholesāMerton modelābut not in exactly the way that Black, Scholes, and Merton originally intended. This is because they allow the volatility used to price an option to depend on its strike price and time to maturity.
A plot of the implied volatility of an option with a certain life as a function of its strike
price is known as a volatility smile. A threeĀdimensional plot of the implied volatility as a function of both strike price and time to maturity is known as a volatility surface. This chapter describes the volatility smiles and volatility surfaces that traders use in equity and
foreign currency markets. It explains the relationship between a volatility smile and the
riskĀneutral probability distribution being assumed for the future asset price. It also discusses how traders use volatility surfaces as optionĀpricing tools.20 CHAPTER
This section shows that the implied volatility of a European call option is the same as
that of a European put option when they have the same strike price and time to
maturity. This is a particularly convenient result. It shows that when talking about a volatility smile or volatility surface we do not have to worry about whether the options are calls or puts.
As explained in earlier chapters, putācall parity provides a relationship between the
prices of European call and put options when they have the same strike price and time to maturity. With a dividend yield on the underlying asset of q, the relationship is
p+S0e-qT=c+Ke-rT (20.1)
Volatility Smiles and Put-Call Parity
- Traders utilize the BlackāScholesāMerton model by adjusting the volatility input based on an option's strike price and time to maturity.
- A volatility smile represents the relationship between implied volatility and strike price, while a volatility surface adds the dimension of time to maturity.
- The implied volatility for European call and put options is identical when they share the same strike price and expiration date.
- Put-call parity is a robust no-arbitrage relationship that remains valid regardless of whether the underlying asset price distribution is lognormal.
- The mathematical consistency between market prices and Black-Scholes-Merton prices ensures that discrepancies in call values must equal discrepancies in put values.
It explains that traders do use the BlackāScholesāMerton modelābut not in exactly the way that Black, Scholes, and Merton originally intended.
How close are the market prices of options to those predicted by the BlackāScholesā
Merton model? Do traders really use the BlackāScholesāMerton model when determinĀing a price for an option? Are the probability distributions of asset prices really logĀ normal? This chapter answers these questions. It explains that traders do use the Blackā ScholesāMerton modelābut not in exactly the way that Black, Scholes, and Merton originally intended. This is because they allow the volatility used to price an option to depend on its strike price and time to maturity.
A plot of the implied volatility of an option with a certain life as a function of its strike
price is known as a volatility smile. A threeĀdimensional plot of the implied volatility as a function of both strike price and time to maturity is known as a volatility surface. This chapter describes the volatility smiles and volatility surfaces that traders use in equity and
foreign currency markets. It explains the relationship between a volatility smile and the
riskĀneutral probability distribution being assumed for the future asset price. It also discusses how traders use volatility surfaces as optionĀpricing tools.20 CHAPTER
This section shows that the implied volatility of a European call option is the same as
that of a European put option when they have the same strike price and time to
maturity. This is a particularly convenient result. It shows that when talking about a volatility smile or volatility surface we do not have to worry about whether the options are calls or puts.
As explained in earlier chapters, putācall parity provides a relationship between the
prices of European call and put options when they have the same strike price and time to maturity. With a dividend yield on the underlying asset of q, the relationship is
p+S0e-qT=c+Ke-rT (20.1)
As usual, c and p are the European call and put price. They have the same strike
price, K, and time to maturity, T. The variable S0 is the price of the underlying asset
today, and r is the riskĀfree interest rate for maturity T.
A key feature of the putācall parity relationship is that it is based on a relatively
simple noĀarbitrage argument. It does not require any assumption about the probability 20.1 IMPLIED VOLATILITIES OF CALLS AND PUTS
451
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452 CHAPTER 20
distribution of the asset price in the future. It is true both when the asset price
distribution is lognormal and when it is not lognormal.
Suppose that, for a particular value of the volatility, pBS and cBS are the values of
European put and call options calculated using the BlackāScholesāMerton model.
Suppose further that pmkt and cmkt are the market values of these options. Because
putācall parity holds for the BlackāScholesāMerton model, we must have
pBS+S0e-qT=cBS+Ke-rT
In the absence of arbitrage opportunities, putācall parity also holds for the market
prices, so that
pmkt+S0e-qT=cmkt+Ke-rT
Subtracting these two equations, we get
pBS-pmkt=cBS-cmkt (20.2)
Implied Volatility and Put-Call Parity
- The Black-Scholes-Merton model's pricing errors for European call and put options must be identical when they share the same strike price and maturity.
- Put-call parity ensures that the implied volatility of a European call option is always equal to the implied volatility of a corresponding European put option.
- The volatility smile and volatility surface are identical for both calls and puts, representing a consistent relationship between implied volatility and strike price.
- Foreign currency options typically exhibit a 'smile' where implied volatility is lowest for at-the-money options and higher for in-the-money or out-of-the-money options.
- The presence of a volatility smile indicates that the market's implied probability distribution has heavier tails than a standard lognormal distribution.
It can be seen that the implied distribution has heavier tails than the lognormal distribution.
distribution of the asset price in the future. It is true both when the asset price
distribution is lognormal and when it is not lognormal.
Suppose that, for a particular value of the volatility, pBS and cBS are the values of
European put and call options calculated using the BlackāScholesāMerton model.
Suppose further that pmkt and cmkt are the market values of these options. Because
putācall parity holds for the BlackāScholesāMerton model, we must have
pBS+S0e-qT=cBS+Ke-rT
In the absence of arbitrage opportunities, putācall parity also holds for the market
prices, so that
pmkt+S0e-qT=cmkt+Ke-rT
Subtracting these two equations, we get
pBS-pmkt=cBS-cmkt (20.2)
This shows that the dollar pricing error when the BlackāScholesāMerton model is used
to price a European put option should be exactly the same as the dollar pricing error when it is used to price a European call option with the same strike price and time to maturity.
Suppose that the implied volatility of the put option is 22%. This means that
pBS=pmkt when a volatility of 22% is used in the BlackāScholesāMerton model. From
equation (20.2), it follows that cBS=cmkt when this volatility is used. The implied
volatility of the call is, therefore, also 22%. This argument shows that the implied
volatility of a European call option is always the same as the implied volatility of a
European put option when the two have the same strike price and maturity date. To put
this another way, for a given strike price and maturity, the correct volatility to use in conjunction with the BlackāScholesāMerton model to price a European call should always be the same as that used to price a European put. This means that the volatility smile (i.e., the relationship between implied volatility and strike price for a particular maturity) is the same for European calls and European puts. More generally, it means that the volatility surface (i.e., the implied volatility as a function of strike price and time
to maturity) is the same for European calls and European puts. These results are also true
to a good approximation for American options.
Example 20.1
The value of a foreign currency is $0.60. The riskĀfree interest rate is 5% per annum
in the United States and 10% per annum in the foreign country. The market price
of a European call option on the foreign currency with a maturity of 1 year and a
strike price of $0.59 is 0.0236. DerivaGem shows that the implied volatility of the
call is 14.5%. For there to be no arbitrage, the putācall parity relationship in
equation (20.1) must apply with q equal to the foreign riskĀfree rate. The price p
of a European put option with a strike price of $0.59 and maturity of 1 year
therefore satisfies
p+0.60e-0.10*1=0.0236+0.59e-0.05*1
so that p=0.0419. DerivaGem shows that, when the put has this price, its implied
volatility is also 14.5%. This is what we expect from the analysis just given.
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Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 453
The volatility smile used by traders to price foreign currency options tends to have the
general form shown in Figure 20.1. The implied volatility is relatively low for atĀtheĀmoney options. It becomes progressively higher as an option moves either into the money or out of the money.
In the appendix at the end of this chapter, we show how to determine the riskĀneutral
probability distribution for an asset price at a future time from the volatility smile given
by options maturing at that time. We refer to this as the implied distribution. The
volatility smile in Figure 20.1 corresponds to the implied distribution shown by the solid line in Figure 20.2. A lognormal distribution with the same mean and standard deviation as the implied distribution is shown by the dashed line in Figure 20.2. It can be
seen that the implied distribution has heavier tails than the lognormal distribution.
1
Currency Volatility Smiles
- Foreign currency options exhibit a volatility smile where implied volatility is lowest for at-the-money options and increases as they move into or out of the money.
- The volatility smile indicates that the market's implied probability distribution has heavier tails and a higher peak than a standard lognormal distribution.
- Empirical data from ten major exchange rates over a decade confirms that extreme price movements occur more frequently than the lognormal model predicts.
- Traders use the volatility smile to price options more accurately by accounting for the increased likelihood of large exchange rate fluctuations.
- The consistency between high option prices and high implied volatility for deep-out-of-the-money contracts validates the use of non-lognormal distributions.
It can be seen that the implied distribution has heavier tails than the lognormal distribution.
The volatility smile used by traders to price foreign currency options tends to have the
general form shown in Figure 20.1. The implied volatility is relatively low for atĀtheĀmoney options. It becomes progressively higher as an option moves either into the money or out of the money.
In the appendix at the end of this chapter, we show how to determine the riskĀneutral
probability distribution for an asset price at a future time from the volatility smile given
by options maturing at that time. We refer to this as the implied distribution. The
volatility smile in Figure 20.1 corresponds to the implied distribution shown by the solid line in Figure 20.2. A lognormal distribution with the same mean and standard deviation as the implied distribution is shown by the dashed line in Figure 20.2. It can be
seen that the implied distribution has heavier tails than the lognormal distribution.
1
To see that Figures 20.1 and 20.2 are consistent with each other, consider first a deepĀ
outĀofĀtheĀmoney call option with a high strike price of K2 (K2>S0 well above 1.0). This
option pays off only if the exchange rate proves to be above K2. Figure 20.2 shows that
the probability of this is higher for the implied probability distribution than for the lognormal distribution. We therefore expect the implied distribution to give a relatively
high price for the option. A relatively high price leads to a relatively high implied
volatilityāand this is exactly what we observe in Figure 20.1 for the option. The two
figures are therefore consistent with each other for high strike prices. Consider next a
deepĀoutĀofĀtheĀmoney put option with a low strike price of
K1 (K1>S0 well below 1.0).
This option pays off only if the exchange rate proves to be below K1. Figure 20.2 shows
that the probability of this is also higher for the implied probability distribution than for the lognormal distribution. We therefore expect the implied distribution to give a
relatively high price, and a relatively high implied volatility, for this option as well. Again, this is exactly what we observe in Figure 20.1.20.2 VOLATILITY SMILE FOR FOREIGN CURRENCY OPTIONS
Figure 20.1 Volatility smile for foreign currency options (K=strike price, S0=current
exchange rate).
K/S0Impl ied
volatility
1.0
1 This is known as kurtosis. Note that, in addition to having a heavier tail, the implied distribution is more
āpeaked. ā Both small and large movements in the exchange rate are more likely than with the lognormal
distribution. Intermediate movements are less likely.
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454 CHAPTER 20
Empirical Results
We have just shown that the volatility smile used by traders for foreign currency options
implies that they consider that the lognormal distribution understates the probability of
extreme movements in exchange rates. To test whether they are right, Table 20.1
examines the daily movements in 10 different exchange rates over a 10Āyear period between 2005 and 2015. The exchange rates are those between the U.S. dollar and the following currencies: Australian dollar, British pound, Canadian dollar, Danish krone, euro, Japanese yen, Mexican peso, New Zealand dollar, Swedish krona, and Swiss
franc. The first step in the production of the table is to calculate the standard deviation of daily percentage change in each exchange rate. The next stage is to note how often the actual percentage change exceeded 1 standard deviation, 2 standard deviations, and
so on. The final stage is to calculate how often this would have happened if the
percentage changes had been normally distributed. (The lognormal model implies that percentage changes are almost exactly normally distributed over a oneĀday time period.)
Table 20.1 Percentage of days when daily exchange rate
moves are greater than 1, 2,Ā .Ā .Ā .Ā , 6 standard deviations (
SD= standard deviation of daily change).
Real world Lognormal model
71 SD 23.32 31.73
72 SD 4.67 4.55
Exchange Rates and Heavy Tails
- An empirical study of ten major exchange rates between 2005 and 2015 reveals that real-world currency movements deviate significantly from the lognormal model.
- Data shows that extreme price movements, such as those exceeding six standard deviations, occur far more frequently than the theoretical model predicts.
- The presence of 'heavy tails' in the distribution of returns provides a mathematical justification for the volatility smiles used by options traders.
- The failure of the lognormal model is attributed to the fact that exchange rate volatility is not constant and prices often experience sudden jumps.
- Central bank interventions are cited as a primary cause for the price jumps that make extreme market outcomes more likely.
The lognormal model predicts that we should hardly ever observe this happening.
extreme movements in exchange rates. To test whether they are right, Table 20.1
examines the daily movements in 10 different exchange rates over a 10Āyear period between 2005 and 2015. The exchange rates are those between the U.S. dollar and the following currencies: Australian dollar, British pound, Canadian dollar, Danish krone, euro, Japanese yen, Mexican peso, New Zealand dollar, Swedish krona, and Swiss
franc. The first step in the production of the table is to calculate the standard deviation of daily percentage change in each exchange rate. The next stage is to note how often the actual percentage change exceeded 1 standard deviation, 2 standard deviations, and
so on. The final stage is to calculate how often this would have happened if the
percentage changes had been normally distributed. (The lognormal model implies that percentage changes are almost exactly normally distributed over a oneĀday time period.)
Table 20.1 Percentage of days when daily exchange rate
moves are greater than 1, 2,Ā .Ā .Ā .Ā , 6 standard deviations (
SD= standard deviation of daily change).
Real world Lognormal model
71 SD 23.32 31.73
72 SD 4.67 4.55
73 SD 1.30 0.27
74 SD 0.49 0.01
75 SD 0.24 0.00
76 SD 0.13 0.00Figure 20.2 Implied and lognormal distribution for foreign currency options.
K1LognormalImplied
K2
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Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 455
Daily changes exceed 3 standard deviations on 1.30% of days. The lognormal model
predicts that this should happen on only 0.27% of days. Daily changes exceed 4, 5,
and 6 standard deviations on 0.49%, 0.24%, and 0.13% of days, respectively. The
lognormal model predicts that we should hardly ever observe this happening. The table therefore provides evidence to support the existence of heavy tails (Figure 20.2) and the
volatility smile used by traders (Figure 20.1). Business Snapshot 20.1 shows how you
could have made money if you had done the analysis in Table 20.1 ahead of the rest of
the market.
Reasons for the Smile in Foreign Currency Options
Why are exchange rates not lognormally distributed? Two of the conditions for an asset price to have a lognormal distribution are:
1. The volatility of the asset is constant.
2. The price of the asset changes smoothly with no jumps.
In practice, neither of these conditions is satisfied for an exchange rate. The volatility of
an exchange rate is far from constant, and exchange rates frequently exhibit jumps, sometimes in response to the actions of central banks. It turns out that both a
nonconstant volatility and jumps will have the effect of making extreme outcomes
more likely.
The impact of jumps and nonconstant volatility depends on the option maturity. As
the maturity of the option is increased, the percentage impact of a nonconstant
volatility on prices becomes more pronounced, but its percentage impact on implied
Volatility Smiles and Market Realities
- Exchange rates violate Black-Scholes-Merton assumptions because they exhibit nonconstant volatility and sudden jumps, often triggered by central bank actions.
- The presence of jumps and variable volatility makes extreme financial outcomes more likely than a standard lognormal distribution predicts.
- In the mid-1980s, informed traders exploited the 'heavy tails' of currency distributions to make significant profits by buying cheap out-of-the-money options.
- Equity options exhibit a 'volatility skew' where implied volatility decreases as the strike price increases, reflecting a heavier left tail in the probability distribution.
- As option maturity increases, the impact of jumps tends to average out, causing the volatility smile to become less pronounced over time.
The few traders who were well informed followed the strategy we have describedāand made lots of money.
In practice, neither of these conditions is satisfied for an exchange rate. The volatility of
an exchange rate is far from constant, and exchange rates frequently exhibit jumps, sometimes in response to the actions of central banks. It turns out that both a
nonconstant volatility and jumps will have the effect of making extreme outcomes
more likely.
The impact of jumps and nonconstant volatility depends on the option maturity. As
the maturity of the option is increased, the percentage impact of a nonconstant
volatility on prices becomes more pronounced, but its percentage impact on implied
volatility usually becomes less pronounced. The percentage impact of jumps on both prices and the implied volatility becomes less pronounced as the maturity of the option Business Snapshot 20.1 Making Money from Foreign Currency Options
Black, Scholes, and Merton in their option pricing model assume that the underlying
asset price has a lognormal distribution at future times. This is equivalent to the assumption that asset price changes over a short period of time, such as one day, are
normally distributed. Suppose that most market participants are comfortable with the BlackāScholesāMerton assumptions for exchange rates. You have just done the analysis in Table 20.1 and know that the lognormal assumption is not a good one
for exchange rates. What should you do?
The answer is that you should buy deepĀoutĀofĀtheĀmoney call and put options on
a variety of different currencies and wait. These options will be relatively inexpensive and more of them will close in the money than the lognormal model predicts. The present value of your payoffs will on average be much greater than the cost of the options.
In the midĀ1980s, a few traders knew about the heavy tails of foreign exchange
probability distributions. Everyone else thought that the lognormal assumption of BlackāScholesāMerton was reasonable. The few traders who were well informed followed the strategy we have describedāand made lots of money. By the late 1980s everyone realized that foreign currency options should be priced with a volatility smile and the trading opportunity disappeared.
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 455 30/04/2021 17:35
456 CHAPTER 20
is increased.2 The result of all this is that the volatility smile becomes less pronounced as
option maturity increases.
2 When we look at sufficiently longĀdated options, jumps tend to get āaveraged out, ā so that the exchange
rate distribution when there are jumps is almost indistinguishable from the one obtained when the exchange
rate changes smoothly.Figure 20.3 Volatility smile for equities (K=strike price, S0=current equity price).
Impl ied
volatility
1.0K/S0Prior to the crash of 1987, there was no marked volatility smile for equity options. Since
1987, the volatility smile used by traders to price equity options (both on individual stocks and on stock indices) has tended to look like that in Figure 20.3. This is sometimes referred to as a volatility skew. The volatility decreases as the strike price increases. The volatility used to price a lowĀstrikeĀprice option (i.e., a deepĀoutĀofĀtheĀmoney put or a
deepĀinĀtheĀmoney call) is significantly higher than that used to price a highĀstrikeĀprice option (i.e., a deepĀinĀtheĀmoney put or a deepĀoutĀofĀtheĀmoney call).
The volatility smile for equity options corresponds to the implied probability disĀ
tribution given by the solid line in Figure 20.4. A lognormal distribution with the same
mean and standard deviation as the implied distribution is shown by the dotted line. It can be seen that the implied distribution has a heavier left tail and a less heavy right tail than the lognormal distribution.
To see that Figures 20.3 and 20.4 are consistent with each other, we proceed as for
Figures 20.1 and 20.2 and consider options that are deep out of the money. From
Figure 20.4, a deepĀoutĀofĀtheĀmoney call with a strike price of
K2 (K2>S0 well
Equity Volatility Smiles and Crashophobia
- The implied probability distribution for equity options exhibits a heavier left tail and a thinner right tail compared to the standard lognormal distribution.
- Deep-out-of-the-money put options command higher implied volatilities because the market assigns a higher probability to significant price drops than the lognormal model predicts.
- The negative correlation between equity prices and volatility is driven by factors such as financial leverage and the volatility feedback effect.
- The phenomenon of 'crashophobia' suggests that the modern volatility smile is a psychological artifact of the 1987 stock market crash.
- Stock price declines are often self-reinforcing because they are accompanied by volatility increases that make even greater declines possible.
This has led Mark Rubinstein to suggest that one reason for the equity volatility smile may be ācrashophobia.ā
tribution given by the solid line in Figure 20.4. A lognormal distribution with the same
mean and standard deviation as the implied distribution is shown by the dotted line. It can be seen that the implied distribution has a heavier left tail and a less heavy right tail than the lognormal distribution.
To see that Figures 20.3 and 20.4 are consistent with each other, we proceed as for
Figures 20.1 and 20.2 and consider options that are deep out of the money. From
Figure 20.4, a deepĀoutĀofĀtheĀmoney call with a strike price of
K2 (K2>S0 well
above 1.0) has a lower price when the implied distribution is used than when the 20.3 VOLATILITY SMILE FOR EQUITY OPTIONS
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Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 457
lognormal distribution is used. This is because the option pays off only if the stock price
proves to be above K2, and the probability of this is lower for the implied probability
distribution than for the lognormal distribution. Therefore, we expect the implied distribution to give a relatively low price for the option. A relatively low price leads
to a relatively low implied volatilityāand this is exactly what we observe in Figure 20.3
for the option. Consider next a deepĀoutĀofĀtheĀmoney put option with a strike price
of
K1. This option pays off only if the stock price proves to be below K1 (K1>S0 well
below 1.0). Figure 20.4 shows that the probability of this is higher for the implied
probability distribution than for the lognormal distribution. We therefore expect the
implied distribution to give a relatively high price, and a relatively high implied
volatility, for this option. Again, this is exactly what we observe in Figure 20.3.
The Reason for the Smile in Equity Options
There is a negative correlation between equity prices and volatility.3 As prices move
down (up), volatilities tend to move up (down). There are several possible reasons for
this. One concerns leverage. As equity prices move down (up), leverage increases
(decreases) and as a result volatility increases (decreases). Another is referred to as the volatility feedback effect. As volatility increases (decreases) because of external
factors, investors require a higher (lower) return and as a result the stock price declines (increases). A further explanation is crashophobia (see Business Snapshot 20.2).
Whatever the reason for the negative correlation, it means that stock price declines
are accompanied by increases in volatility, making even greater declines possible. Stock price increases are accompanied by decreases in volatility, making further stock price increases less likely. This explains the heavy left tail and thin right tail of the implied distribution in Figure 20.4.
3 For a machine learning investigation of this, see J. Cao, J. Chen, and J. Hull, āA Neural Network
Approach to Understanding Implied Volatility Movements,ā Quantitative Finance, 20, 9 (2020): 1405ā13.Figure 20.4 Implied distribution and lognormal distribution for equity options.
K1LognormalImplied
K2
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458 CHAPTER 20
Business Snapshot 20.2 Crashophobia
It is interesting that the pattern in Figure 20.3 for equities has existed only since the
stock market crash of October 1987. Prior to October 1987, implied volatilities were
much less dependent on strike price. This has led Mark Rubinstein to suggest that
one reason for the equity volatility smile may be ācrashophobia.ā Traders are
Equity Volatility and Crashophobia
- The negative correlation between stock prices and volatility creates a heavy left tail in implied distributions, making sharp declines more likely than significant increases.
- The 'volatility feedback effect' suggests that as volatility rises, investors demand higher returns, which in turn drives stock prices lower.
- The phenomenon of 'crashophobia' emerged after the 1987 market crash, leading traders to price options with a permanent fear of another sudden collapse.
- Traders characterize the volatility smile by plotting implied volatility against the strike price relative to the current asset price or the forward price.
- Volatility smiles can also be defined using an option's delta, where '50-delta options' are used to represent at-the-money positions across different option types.
Traders are concerned about the possibility of another crash similar to October 1987, and they price options accordingly.
(decreases) and as a result volatility increases (decreases). Another is referred to as the volatility feedback effect. As volatility increases (decreases) because of external
factors, investors require a higher (lower) return and as a result the stock price declines (increases). A further explanation is crashophobia (see Business Snapshot 20.2).
Whatever the reason for the negative correlation, it means that stock price declines
are accompanied by increases in volatility, making even greater declines possible. Stock price increases are accompanied by decreases in volatility, making further stock price increases less likely. This explains the heavy left tail and thin right tail of the implied distribution in Figure 20.4.
3 For a machine learning investigation of this, see J. Cao, J. Chen, and J. Hull, āA Neural Network
Approach to Understanding Implied Volatility Movements,ā Quantitative Finance, 20, 9 (2020): 1405ā13.Figure 20.4 Implied distribution and lognormal distribution for equity options.
K1LognormalImplied
K2
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458 CHAPTER 20
Business Snapshot 20.2 Crashophobia
It is interesting that the pattern in Figure 20.3 for equities has existed only since the
stock market crash of October 1987. Prior to October 1987, implied volatilities were
much less dependent on strike price. This has led Mark Rubinstein to suggest that
one reason for the equity volatility smile may be ācrashophobia.ā Traders are
concerned about the possibility of another crash similar to October 1987, and they
price options accordingly.
There is some empirical support for this explanation. Declines in the S&P 500 tend
to be accompanied by a steepening of the volatility skew. When the S&P increases, the skew tends to become less steep.
4 Research by Derman suggests that this adjustment is sometimes āstickyā in the case of exchangeĀtraded
options. See E. Derman, āRegimes of Volatility, ā Risk, April 1999: 55ā59.There are a number of ways of characterizing the volatility smile. Sometimes it is shown as the relationship between implied volatility and strike price K. However, this relationĀship depends on the price of the asset. As the price of the asset increases (decreases), the
central atĀtheĀmoney strike price increases (decreases) so that the curve relating the implied volatility to the strike price moves to right (left).
4 For this reason the implied
volatility is often plotted as a function of the strike price divided by the current asset price,
K>S0. This is what we have done Figures 20.1 and 20.3.
A refinement of this is to calculate the volatility smile as the relationship between the
implied volatility and K>F0, where F0 is the forward price of the asset for a contract
maturing at the same time as the options that are considered. Traders also often define an āatĀtheĀmoneyā option as an option where
K=F0, not as an option where K=S0.
The argument for this is that F0, not S0, is the expected stock price on the optionās
maturity date in a riskĀneutral world.
Yet another approach to defining the volatility smile is as the relationship between the
implied volatility and the delta of the option (where delta is defined as in Chapter 19).
This approach sometimes makes it possible to apply volatility smiles to options other than European and American calls and puts. When the approach is used, an atĀtheĀmoney option is then defined as a call option with a delta of 0.5 or a put option with a delta of
-0.5. These are referred to as ā50Ādelta options.ā20.4 ALTERNATIVE WAYS OF CHARACTERIZING THE
VOLATILITY SMILE
Traders allow the implied volatility to depend on time to maturity as well as strike price.
Implied volatility tends to be an increasing function of maturity when shortĀdated volatilities are historically low. This is because there is then an expectation that
volatilities will increase. Similarly, volatility tends to be a decreasing function of 20.5 THE VOLATILITY TERM STRUCTURE AND
Characterizing Volatility Smiles and Surfaces
- Traders use various metrics to define volatility smiles, including the ratio of strike price to current asset price, forward prices, or option deltas.
- The volatility term structure reflects market expectations, where implied volatility typically increases with maturity when current rates are low and decreases when they are high.
- Volatility surfaces combine smiles and term structures into a comprehensive table, allowing for the pricing of options across any strike price and maturity.
- The volatility smile tends to become less pronounced as the option's time to maturity increases, a phenomenon observed across most asset classes.
- Financial engineers use interpolation techniques within volatility surfaces to determine the precise implied volatility for non-standardized option contracts.
The table shows that the volatility smile becomes less pronounced as the option maturity increases.
volatility is often plotted as a function of the strike price divided by the current asset price,
K>S0. This is what we have done Figures 20.1 and 20.3.
A refinement of this is to calculate the volatility smile as the relationship between the
implied volatility and K>F0, where F0 is the forward price of the asset for a contract
maturing at the same time as the options that are considered. Traders also often define an āatĀtheĀmoneyā option as an option where
K=F0, not as an option where K=S0.
The argument for this is that F0, not S0, is the expected stock price on the optionās
maturity date in a riskĀneutral world.
Yet another approach to defining the volatility smile is as the relationship between the
implied volatility and the delta of the option (where delta is defined as in Chapter 19).
This approach sometimes makes it possible to apply volatility smiles to options other than European and American calls and puts. When the approach is used, an atĀtheĀmoney option is then defined as a call option with a delta of 0.5 or a put option with a delta of
-0.5. These are referred to as ā50Ādelta options.ā20.4 ALTERNATIVE WAYS OF CHARACTERIZING THE
VOLATILITY SMILE
Traders allow the implied volatility to depend on time to maturity as well as strike price.
Implied volatility tends to be an increasing function of maturity when shortĀdated volatilities are historically low. This is because there is then an expectation that
volatilities will increase. Similarly, volatility tends to be a decreasing function of 20.5 THE VOLATILITY TERM STRUCTURE AND
VOLATILITY SURFACES
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Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 459
maturity when shortĀdated volatilities are historically high. This is because there is then
an expectation that volatilities will decrease.
Volatility surfaces combine volatility smiles with the volatility term structure to
tabulate the volatilities appropriate for pricing an option with any strike price and
any maturity. An example of a volatility surface that might be used for foreign currency options is given in Table 20.2.
One dimension of Table 20.2 is
K>S0; the other is time to maturity. The main body of
the table shows implied volatilities calculated from the BlackāScholesāMerton model. At
any given time, some of the entries in the table are likely to correspond to options for which reliable market data are available. The implied volatilities for these options are calculated directly from their market prices and entered into the table. The rest of the table is typically determined using interpolation. The table shows that the volatility smile
becomes less pronounced as the option maturity increases. As mentioned earlier, this is what is observed for currency options. (It is also what is observed for options on most other assets.)
When a new option has to be valued, financial engineers look up the appropriate
volatility in the table. For example, when valuing a 9Āmonth option with a
K>S0 ratio of
1.05, a financial engineer would interpolate between 13.4 and 14.0 in Table 20.2 to obtain a volatility of 13.7%. This is the volatility that would be used in the BlackāScholesā Merton formula or a binomial tree. When valuing a 1.5Āyear option with a
K>S0 ratio of
0.925, a twoĀdimensional (bilinear) interpolation would be used to give an implied volatility of 14.525%.
The shape of the volatility smile depends on the option maturity. As illustrated in
Table 20.2, the smile tends to become less pronounced as the option maturity increases.
Define T as the time to maturity and
F0 as the forward price of the asset for a contract
maturing at the same time as the option. Some financial engineers choose to define the volatility smile as the relationship between implied volatility and
1
2T ln aK
F0b
Volatility Surfaces and Model Roles
- The volatility smile describes the relationship between implied volatility and strike price, typically becoming less pronounced as option maturity increases.
- Financial engineers use volatility surfaces and bilinear interpolation to determine the implied volatility for any specific strike and maturity combination.
- The minimum variance delta adjusts the standard Black-Scholes-Merton delta to account for the negative correlation between equity prices and volatility.
- The Black-Scholes-Merton model often functions as a sophisticated interpolation tool rather than a perfect representation of market reality.
- While market prices for standard options may remain stable across different models, the choice of model significantly impacts Greek calculations and the pricing of exotic derivatives.
It can be argued that the BlackāScholesāMerton model is no more than a sophisticated interpolation tool used by traders for ensuring that an option is priced consistently with the market prices of other actively traded options.
0.925, a twoĀdimensional (bilinear) interpolation would be used to give an implied volatility of 14.525%.
The shape of the volatility smile depends on the option maturity. As illustrated in
Table 20.2, the smile tends to become less pronounced as the option maturity increases.
Define T as the time to maturity and
F0 as the forward price of the asset for a contract
maturing at the same time as the option. Some financial engineers choose to define the volatility smile as the relationship between implied volatility and
1
2T ln aK
F0b
rather than as the relationship between the implied volatility and K. The smile is then
usually much less dependent on the time to maturity.Table 20.2 Volatility surface.
K>S0
0.90 0.95 1.00 1.05 1.10
1 month 14.2 13.0 12.0 13.1 14.5
3 month 14.0 13.0 12.0 13.1 14.2
6 month 14.1 13.3 12.5 13.4 14.3
1 year 14.7 14.0 13.5 14.0 14.8
2 year 15.0 14.4 14.0 14.5 15.1
5 year 14.8 14.6 14.4 14.7 15.0
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 459 30/04/2021 17:35
460 CHAPTER 20
The formulas for delta and other Greek letters in Chapter 19 assume that the implied
volatility remains the same when the asset price changes. This is not what is usually expected to happen. Consider, for example, a stock or stock index option.
As explained in Section 20.3, there is a negative correlation between equity prices and
volatility. The delta that takes this relationship between implied volatilities and equity prices into account is referred to as the minimum variance delta. It is:
āMV=0fBSM
0S+0fBSM
0simp 0E1simp2
0S
where fBSM is the BlackāScholesāMerton price of the option, simp is the optionās
implied volatility, E1simp2 denotes the expectation of simp as a function of the equity
price, S. This gives
āMV=āBSM+VBSM0E1simp2
0S
where āBSM and VBSM are the delta and vega calculated from the BlackāScholesāMerton
(constant volatility) model. Because VBSM is positive and, as we have just explained
0E1simp2>0S is negative, the minimum variance delta is less than the BlackāScholesā
Merton delta.520.6 MINIMUM VARIANCE DELTA
How important is the optionĀpricing model if traders are prepared to use a different volatility for every option? It can be argued that the BlackāScholesāMerton model is
no more than a sophisticated interpolation tool used by traders for ensuring that an option is priced consistently with the market prices of other actively traded options. If traders stopped using BlackāScholesāMerton and switched to another plausible model, then the volatility surface and the shape of the smile would change, but arguably the dollar prices quoted in the market would not change appreciably. Greek letters and therefore hedging strategies do depend on the model used. An unrealistic model is liable
to lead to poor hedging.
Models have most effect on the pricing of derivatives when similar derivatives do not
trade actively in the market. For example, the pricing of many of the nonstandard
exotic derivatives we will discuss in later chapters is modelĀdependent.20.7 THE ROLE OF THE MODEL
Let us now consider an example of how an unusual volatility smile might arise in equity markets. Suppose that a stock price is currently $50 and an important news announceĀment due in a few days is expected either to increase the stock price by $8 or to reduce it
by $8. (This announcement could concern the outcome of a takeover attempt or the 20.8 WHEN A SINGLE LARGE JUMP IS ANTICIPATED
5 For a further discussion of this, see, for example, J. C. Hull and A. White, āOptimal Delta Hedging of
Options, ā Journal of Banking and Finance, 82 (September 2017), 180ā190.
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 460 30/04/2021 17:35
Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 461
verdict in an important lawsuit.) The probability distribution of the stock price in, say,
1 month might then consist of a mixture of two lognormal distributions, the first
corresponding to favorable news, the second to unfavorable news. The situation is
Models and Volatility Frowns
- The BlackāScholesāMerton model often serves as a sophisticated interpolation tool rather than a literal description of market reality.
- While switching models might not change market prices significantly, it would drastically alter Greek letters and hedging strategies.
- Anticipated large jumps in stock prices, such as legal verdicts or takeover news, create bimodal probability distributions that deviate from lognormal assumptions.
- In extreme cases where only two future price outcomes are possible, the resulting volatility smile becomes a 'frown' where implied volatility declines for out-of-the-money options.
An unrealistic model is liable to lead to poor hedging.
How important is the optionĀpricing model if traders are prepared to use a different volatility for every option? It can be argued that the BlackāScholesāMerton model is
no more than a sophisticated interpolation tool used by traders for ensuring that an option is priced consistently with the market prices of other actively traded options. If traders stopped using BlackāScholesāMerton and switched to another plausible model, then the volatility surface and the shape of the smile would change, but arguably the dollar prices quoted in the market would not change appreciably. Greek letters and therefore hedging strategies do depend on the model used. An unrealistic model is liable
to lead to poor hedging.
Models have most effect on the pricing of derivatives when similar derivatives do not
trade actively in the market. For example, the pricing of many of the nonstandard
exotic derivatives we will discuss in later chapters is modelĀdependent.20.7 THE ROLE OF THE MODEL
Let us now consider an example of how an unusual volatility smile might arise in equity markets. Suppose that a stock price is currently $50 and an important news announceĀment due in a few days is expected either to increase the stock price by $8 or to reduce it
by $8. (This announcement could concern the outcome of a takeover attempt or the 20.8 WHEN A SINGLE LARGE JUMP IS ANTICIPATED
5 For a further discussion of this, see, for example, J. C. Hull and A. White, āOptimal Delta Hedging of
Options, ā Journal of Banking and Finance, 82 (September 2017), 180ā190.
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 460 30/04/2021 17:35
Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 461
verdict in an important lawsuit.) The probability distribution of the stock price in, say,
1 month might then consist of a mixture of two lognormal distributions, the first
corresponding to favorable news, the second to unfavorable news. The situation is
illustrated in Figure 20.5. The solid line shows the mixtureĀofĀlognormals distribution
for the stock price in 1 month; the dashed line shows a lognormal distribution with the same mean and standard deviation as this distribution.
The true probability distribution is bimodal (certainly not lognormal). One easy way
to investigate the general effect of a bimodal stock price distribution is to consider the extreme case where there are only two possible future stock prices. This is what we will
now do.
Suppose that the stock price is currently $50 and it is known that in 1 month it will be
either $42 or $58. Suppose further that the riskĀfree rate is 12% per annum. The situation
is illustrated in Figure 20.6. Options can be valued using the binomial model from
Chapter 13. In this case,
u=1.16, d=0.84, a=1.0101, and p=0.5314. The results
from valuing a range of different options are shown in Table 20.3. The first column shows
alternative strike prices; the second shows prices of 1Āmonth European call options; the third shows the prices of oneĀmonth European put option prices; and the fourth shows Figure 20.5 Effect of a single large jump. The solid line is the true distribution; the
dashed line is the lognormal distribution.
Stock price
Figure 20.6 Change in stock price in 1 month.
50
4258
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 461 30/04/2021 17:35
462 CHAPTER 20
implied volatilities. (As shown in Section 20.1, the implied volatility of a European put
option is the same as that of a European call option when they have the same strike price
and maturity.) Figure 20.7 displays the volatility smile from Table 20.3. It is actually a āfrownā (the opposite of that observed for currencies) with volatilities declining as we move out of or into the money. The volatility implied from an option with a strike price of 50 will overprice an option with a strike price of 44 or 56.
SUMMARY
The BlackāScholesāMerton model and its extensions assume that the probability
Volatility Smiles and Surfaces
- The BlackāScholesāMerton model assumes a lognormal distribution of asset prices, but market traders reject this assumption in practice.
- Traders observe that equity prices typically exhibit heavier left tails and lighter right tails than the lognormal model predicts.
- Volatility smiles represent the relationship between implied volatility and strike price, taking different shapes for equities versus currencies.
- For equity options, the smile is often a downward slope or a 'frown' where volatilities decline as options move further into or out of the money.
- A volatility surface is created by combining volatility smiles with term structures, mapping implied volatility against both strike price and time to maturity.
It is actually a āfrownā (the opposite of that observed for currencies) with volatilities declining as we move out of or into the money.
implied volatilities. (As shown in Section 20.1, the implied volatility of a European put
option is the same as that of a European call option when they have the same strike price
and maturity.) Figure 20.7 displays the volatility smile from Table 20.3. It is actually a āfrownā (the opposite of that observed for currencies) with volatilities declining as we move out of or into the money. The volatility implied from an option with a strike price of 50 will overprice an option with a strike price of 44 or 56.
SUMMARY
The BlackāScholesāMerton model and its extensions assume that the probability
distribution of the underlying asset at any given future time is lognormal. This Table 20.3 Implied volatilities in situation where it is known that the stock price
will move from $50 to either $42 or $58.
Strike price
($)Call price
($)Put price
($)Implied volatility
(%)
42 8.42 0.00 0.0
44 7.37 0.93 58.8
46 6.31 1.86 66.6
48 5.26 2.78 69.5
50 4.21 3.71 69.2
52 3.16 4.64 66.1
54 2.10 5.57 60.0
56 1.05 6.50 49.0
58 0.00 7.42 0.0
Figure 20.7 Volatility smile for situation in Table 20.3.
44 46 48 50 52 54 560102030405060708090Implied
volatility (%)
Strike price
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 462 30/04/2021 17:35
Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 463
assumption is not the one made by traders. They assume the probability distribution of
an equity price has a heavier left tail and a less heavy right tail than the lognormal
distribution. They also assume that the probability distribution of an exchange rate has
a heavier right tail and a heavier left tail than the lognormal distribution.
Traders use volatility smiles to allow for nonlognormality. The volatility smile defines
the relationship between the implied volatility of an option and its strike price. For equity options, the volatility smile tends to be downward sloping. This means that outĀofĀtheĀmoney puts and inĀtheĀmoney calls tend to have high implied volatilities whereas outĀofĀtheĀmoney calls and inĀtheĀmoney puts tend to have low implied volatilities. For foreign currency options, the volatility smile is UĀshaped. Both outĀofĀtheĀmoney and inĀtheĀmoney options have higher implied volatilities than atĀtheĀmoney options.
Often traders also use a volatility term structure. The implied volatility of an option
then depends on its life. When volatility smiles and volatility term structures are combined, they produce a volatility surface. This defines implied volatility as a function
of both the strike price and the time to maturity.
FURTHER READING
Bakshi, G., C. Cao, and Z. Chen. āEmpirical Performance of Alternative Option Pricing
Models,ā Journal of Finance, 52, No. 5 (December 1997): 2004ā49.
Bates, D. S. āPostĀā87 Crash Fears in the S&P Futures Market,ā Journal of Econometrics, 94
(January/February 2000): 181ā238.
Daglish, T., J. C. Hull, and W. Suo. āVolatility Surfaces: Theory, Rules of Thumb, and
Empirical Evidence,ā Quantitative Finance, 7, 5 (2007), 507ā24.
Derman, E. āRegimes of Volatility,ā Risk, April 1999: 55ā59.
Ederington, L. H., and W. Guan. āWhy Are Those Options Smiling,ā Journal of Derivatives, 10,
2 (2002): 9ā34.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āOptimal Delta Hedging of Options,ā Journal of Banking and Finance,
82 (September, 2017): 180ā190.
Jackwerth, J. C., and M. Rubinstein. āRecovering Probability Distributions from Option
Prices,ā Journal of Finance, 51 (December 1996): 1611ā31.
Melick, W. R., and C. P. Thomas. āRecovering an Assetās Implied Probability Density Function
from Option Prices: An Application to Crude Oil during the Gulf Crisis,ā Journal of Financial
and Quantitative Analysis, 32, 1 (March 1997): 91ā115.
Reiswich, D., and U. Wystup. āFX Volatility Smile Construction,ā Working Paper, Frankfurt
School of Finance and Management, April 2010.
Rubinstein, M. āNonparametric Tests of Alternative Option Pricing Models Using All Reported
Volatility Smiles and Arbitrage
- The text provides academic references and practice problems focused on the construction and interpretation of volatility smiles in financial markets.
- It explores how deviations from the lognormal distribution, such as heavy tails or jumps in asset prices, affect implied volatility patterns.
- Specific scenarios like 'crashophobia' and central bank exchange rate corridors are used to illustrate real-world impacts on option pricing.
- The problems challenge students to identify arbitrage opportunities when call and put options with the same parameters exhibit inconsistent implied volatilities.
- The material highlights the limitations of the Black-Scholes-Merton model when faced with binary news events or uncertain volatility correlations.
Option traders sometimes refer to deep-out-of-the-money options as being options on volatility.
Prices,ā Journal of Finance, 51 (December 1996): 1611ā31.
Melick, W. R., and C. P. Thomas. āRecovering an Assetās Implied Probability Density Function
from Option Prices: An Application to Crude Oil during the Gulf Crisis,ā Journal of Financial
and Quantitative Analysis, 32, 1 (March 1997): 91ā115.
Reiswich, D., and U. Wystup. āFX Volatility Smile Construction,ā Working Paper, Frankfurt
School of Finance and Management, April 2010.
Rubinstein, M. āNonparametric Tests of Alternative Option Pricing Models Using All Reported
Trades and Quotes on the 30 Most Active CBOE Option Classes from August 23, 1976,
through August 31, 1978,ā Journal of Finance, 40 (June 1985): 455ā80.
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 463 30/04/2021 17:35
464 CHAPTER 20
Practice Questions
20.1. What volatility smile is likely to be observed when:
(a) Both tails of the stock price distribution are less heavy than those of the lognormal
distribution?
(b) The right tail is heavier, and the left tail is less heavy, than that of a lognormal
distribution?
20.2. What volatility smile is likely to be caused by jumps in the underlying asset price? Is the pattern likely to be more pronounced for a 2Āyear option than for a 3Āmonth option?
20.3. A European call and put option have the same strike price and time to maturity. The call
has an implied volatility of 30% and the put has an implied volatility of 25%. What
trades would you do?
20.4. Explain carefully why a distribution with a heavier left tail and less heavy right tail than the lognormal distribution gives rise to a downward sloping volatility smile.
20.5. The market price of a European call is $3.00 and its price given by BlackāScholesā Merton
model with a volatility of 30% is $3.50. The price given by this BlackāScholesāMerton model for a European put option with the same strike price and time to maturity is $1.00. What should the market price of the put option be? Explain the reasons for your answer.
20.6. Explain what is meant by ācrashophobia.ā
20.7. A stock price is currently $20. Tomorrow, news is expected to be announced that will either increase the price by $5 or decrease the price by $5. What are the problems in
using BlackāScholesāMerton to value 1Āmonth options on the stock?
20.8. What volatility smile is likely to be observed for 6Āmonth options when the volatility is uncertain and positively correlated with the stock price?
20.9. Explain the problems in testing a stock option pricing model empirically.
20.10. Suppose that a central bankās policy is to allow an exchange rate to fluctuate between
0.97 and 1.03. What pattern of implied volatilities for options on the exchange rate
would you expect to see?
20.11. Option traders sometimes refer to deepĀoutĀofĀtheĀmoney options as being options on
volatility. Why do you think they do this?
20.12. A European call option on a certain stock has a strike price of $30, a time to maturity of
1 year, and an implied volatility of 30%. A European put option on the same stock has a
strike price of $30, a time to maturity of 1 year, and an implied volatility of 33%. What is the arbitrage opportunity open to a trader? Does the arbitrage work only when the lognormal assumption underlying BlackāScholesāMerton holds? Explain carefully the reasons for your answer.
20.13. Suppose that the result of a major lawsuit affecting a company is due to be announced
tomorrow. The companyās stock price is currently $60. If the ruling is favorable to the company, the stock price is expected to jump to $75. If it is unfavorable, the stock is expected to jump to $50. What is the riskĀneutral probability of a favorable ruling?
Assume that the volatility of the companyās stock will be 25% for 6 months after the
ruling if the ruling is favorable and 40% if it is unfavorable. Use DerivaGem to calculate
the relationship between implied volatility and strike price for 6Āmonth European
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 464 30/04/2021 17:35
Volatility Smiles and Arbitrage
- The text presents quantitative problems regarding arbitrage opportunities when call and put options with identical strikes exhibit different implied volatilities.
- It explores how binary events, such as major lawsuits, create specific risk-neutral probability distributions and influence the shape of the volatility smile.
- Traders are prompted to evaluate the limitations of the lognormal assumption in the Black-Scholes-Merton model when predicting exchange rate movements.
- The exercises suggest that the Black-Scholes-Merton model often serves as a practical interpolation tool for traders rather than a perfect theoretical representation.
- Empirical data analysis is encouraged to test whether extreme downward market movements occur more frequently than equivalent upward movements.
āThe BlackāScholesāMerton model is used by traders as an interpolation tool.ā
volatility. Why do you think they do this?
20.12. A European call option on a certain stock has a strike price of $30, a time to maturity of
1 year, and an implied volatility of 30%. A European put option on the same stock has a
strike price of $30, a time to maturity of 1 year, and an implied volatility of 33%. What is the arbitrage opportunity open to a trader? Does the arbitrage work only when the lognormal assumption underlying BlackāScholesāMerton holds? Explain carefully the reasons for your answer.
20.13. Suppose that the result of a major lawsuit affecting a company is due to be announced
tomorrow. The companyās stock price is currently $60. If the ruling is favorable to the company, the stock price is expected to jump to $75. If it is unfavorable, the stock is expected to jump to $50. What is the riskĀneutral probability of a favorable ruling?
Assume that the volatility of the companyās stock will be 25% for 6 months after the
ruling if the ruling is favorable and 40% if it is unfavorable. Use DerivaGem to calculate
the relationship between implied volatility and strike price for 6Āmonth European
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 464 30/04/2021 17:35
Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 465
options on the company today. The company does not pay dividends. Assume that
the 6Āmonth riskĀfree rate is 6%. Consider call options with strike prices of $30, $40, $50,
$60, $70, and $80.
20.14. An exchange rate is currently 0.8000. The volatility of the exchange rate is quoted as
12% and interest rates in the two countries are the same. Using the lognormal
assumption, estimate the probability that the exchange rate in 3 months will be (a) less
than 0.7000, (b) between 0.7000 and 0.7500, (c) between 0.7500 and 0.8000, (d) between 0.8000 and 0.8500, (e) between 0.8500 and 0.9000, and (f) greater than 0.9000. Based on
the volatility smile usually observed in the market for exchange rates, which of these estimates would you expect to be too low and which would you expect to be too high?
20.15. A stock price is $40. A 6Āmonth European call option on the stock with a strike price of
$30 has an implied volatility of 35%. A 6Āmonth European call option on the stock with
a strike price of $50 has an implied volatility of 28%. The 6Āmonth riskĀfree rate is 5% and no dividends are expected. Explain why the two implied volatilities are different. Use
DerivaGem to calculate the prices of the two options. Use putācall parity to calculate
the prices of 6Āmonth European put options with strike prices of $30 and $50. Use DerivaGem to calculate the implied volatilities of these two put options.
20.16. āThe BlackāScholesāMerton model is used by traders as an interpolation tool.ā Discuss
this view.
20.17. Using Table 20.2, calculate the implied volatility a trader would use for an 8Āmonth
option with
K>S0=1.04.
20.18. A companyās stock is selling for $4. The company has no outstanding debt. Analysts
consider the liquidation value of the company to be at least $300,000 and there are
100,000 shares outstanding. What volatility smile would you expect to see?
20.19. Data for a number of foreign currencies are provided on the authorās website:
http://wwwĀ2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/data
Choose a currency and use the data to produce a table similar to Table 20.1.
20.20. Data for a number of stock indices are provided on the authorās website:
http://wwwĀ2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/data
Choose an index and test whether a threeĀstandardĀdeviation down movement happens
more often than a threeĀstandardĀdeviation up movement.
20.21. Consider a European call and a European put with the same strike price and time to
maturity. Show that they change in value by the same amount when the volatility
increases from a level s1 to a new level s2 within a short period of time. (Hint: Use
putācall parity.)
Implied Risk-Neutral Distributions
- The text provides quantitative exercises for testing market anomalies, such as whether extreme downward movements in stock indices occur more frequently than upward ones.
- It demonstrates that European call and put options with identical strikes and maturities experience the same value change when volatility shifts, a property derived from put-call parity.
- A mathematical framework is established to derive the risk-neutral probability density function of an asset price directly from the second derivative of the call price with respect to the strike price.
- The Breeden and Litzenberger result allows traders to estimate probability distributions by constructing a butterfly spread using three options with closely spaced strike prices.
- Practical application involves using implied volatility smiles to calculate the specific likelihood of an asset reaching various price levels at maturity.
This shows that the probability density function g is given by g(K) = e^{rT} * (ā²c / āK²).
Choose a currency and use the data to produce a table similar to Table 20.1.
20.20. Data for a number of stock indices are provided on the authorās website:
http://wwwĀ2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/data
Choose an index and test whether a threeĀstandardĀdeviation down movement happens
more often than a threeĀstandardĀdeviation up movement.
20.21. Consider a European call and a European put with the same strike price and time to
maturity. Show that they change in value by the same amount when the volatility
increases from a level s1 to a new level s2 within a short period of time. (Hint: Use
putācall parity.)
20.22. An exchange rate is currently 1.0 and the implied volatilities of 6Āmonth European options
with strike prices 0.7, 0.8, 0.9, 1.0, 1.1, 1.2, 1.3 are 13%, 12%, 11%, 10%, 11%, 12%,
13%. The domestic and foreign riskĀfree rates are both 2.5%. Calculate the implied
probability distribution using an approach similar to that used for Example 20A.1 in
the appendix to this chapter. Compare it with the implied distribution where all the
implied volatilities are 11.5%.
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 465 30/04/2021 17:35
466 CHAPTER 20
20.23. Using Table 20.2, calculate the implied volatility a trader would use for an 11Āmonth
option with K>S0=0.98.
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Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 467
APPENDIX
DETERMINING IMPLIED RISK-NEUTRAL DISTRIBUTIONS
FROM VOLATILITY SMILES
The price of a European call option on an asset with strike price K and maturity T is
given by
c=e-rT 3ā
ST=K1ST-K2g1ST2dST
where r is the interest rate (assumed constant), ST is the asset price at time T, and g is
the riskĀneutral probability density function of ST. Differentiating once with respect
to K gives
0c
0K=-e-rT 3ā
ST=Kg1ST2dST
Differentiating again with respect to K gives
02c
0K2=e-rT g1K2
This shows that the probability density function g is given by
g1K2=erT02 c
0K2 (20A.1)
This result, which is from Breeden and Litzenberger (1978), allows riskĀneutral probĀ
ability distributions to be estimated from volatility smiles.6 Suppose that c1, c2, and c3
are the prices of TĀyear European call options with strike prices of K-d, K, and K+d,
respectively. Assuming d is small, an estimate of g1K2, obtained by approximating the
partial derivative in equation (20A.1), is
erT c1+c3-2c2
d2
For another way of understanding this formula, suppose you set up a butterfly spread
with strike prices K-d, K, and K+d, and maturity T. This means that you buy a call
with strike price K-d, buy a call with strike price K+d, and sell two calls with strike
price K. The value of your position is c1+c3-2c2. The value of the position can also be
calculated by integrating the payoff over the riskĀneutral probability distribution, g1ST2,
and discounting at the riskĀfree rate. The payoff is shown in Figure 20A.1. Since d is small,
we can assume that g1ST2=g1K2 in the whole of the range K-d6ST6K+d, where
the payoff is nonzero. The area under the āspikeā in Figure 20A.1 is 0.5*2d*d=d2.
The value of the payoff (when d is small) is therefore e-rT g1K2d2. It follows that
e-rT g1K2d2=c1+c3-2c2
6 See D. T. Breeden and R. H. Litzenberger, āPrices of StateĀContingent Claims Implicit in Option Prices, ā
Jounal of Business, 51 (1978), 621 ā51.
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 467 30/04/2021 17:35
468 CHAPTER 20
which leads directly to
g1K2=erT c1+c3-2c2
d2 (20A.2)Figure 20A.1 Payoff from butterfly spread.
K K1d Kād2 Payoff
STd
d
Example 20A.1
Suppose that the price of a nonĀdividendĀpaying stock is $10, the riskĀfree interest
rate is 3%, and the implied volatilities of 3Āmonth European options with strike prices of $6, $7, $8, $9, $10, $11, $12, $13, $14 are 30%, 29%, 28%, 27%, 26%, 25%, 24%, 23%, 22%, respectively. One way of applying the above results is as
follows. Assume that
g1ST2 is constant between ST=6 and ST=7, constant
between ST=7 and ST=8, and so on. Define:
g1ST2=g1 for 6ā¦ST67
Implied Distributions and Numerical Procedures
- The text demonstrates how to derive an implied probability distribution from option prices using a butterfly spread approach.
- Calculations show that implied distributions often exhibit heavier left tails and lighter right tails compared to standard lognormal models.
- Numerical procedures like binomial trees, Monte Carlo simulations, and finite difference methods are introduced for valuing complex derivatives.
- While Monte Carlo simulation is ideal for path-dependent payoffs, trees and finite difference methods are preferred for American options involving early exercise decisions.
Although not obvious from Figure 20A.2, the implied distribution does have a heavier left tail and less heavy right tail than a lognormal distribution.
d2 (20A.2)Figure 20A.1 Payoff from butterfly spread.
K K1d Kād2 Payoff
STd
d
Example 20A.1
Suppose that the price of a nonĀdividendĀpaying stock is $10, the riskĀfree interest
rate is 3%, and the implied volatilities of 3Āmonth European options with strike prices of $6, $7, $8, $9, $10, $11, $12, $13, $14 are 30%, 29%, 28%, 27%, 26%, 25%, 24%, 23%, 22%, respectively. One way of applying the above results is as
follows. Assume that
g1ST2 is constant between ST=6 and ST=7, constant
between ST=7 and ST=8, and so on. Define:
g1ST2=g1 for 6ā¦ST67
g1ST2=g2 for 7ā¦ST68
g1ST2=g3 for 8ā¦ST69
g1ST2=g4 for 9ā¦ST610
g1ST2=g5 for 10ā¦ST611
g1ST2=g6 for 11ā¦ST612
g1ST2=g7 for 12ā¦ST613
g1ST2=g8 for 13ā¦ST614
The value of g1 can be calculated by interpolating to get the implied volatility for
a 3Āmonth option with a strike price of $6.5 as 29.5%. This means that options with strike prices of $6, $6.5, and $7 have implied volatilities of 30%, 29.5%, and 29%, respectively. From DerivaGem their prices are $4.045, $3.549, and $3.055, respectively. Using equation (20A.2), with
K=6.5 and d=0.5, gives
g1=e0.03*0.2514.045+3.055-2*3.549)
0.52=0.0057
Similar calculations show that
g2=0.0444, g3=0.1545, g4=0.2781
g5=0.2813, g6=0.1659, g7=0.0573, g8=0.0113
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 468 30/04/2021 17:36
Volatility Smiles and Volatility Surfaces 469
Figure 20A.2 displays the implied distribution. (Note that the area under the
probability distribution is 0.9985. The probability that ST66 or ST714 is thereĀ
fore 0.0015.) Although not obvious from Figure 20A.2, the implied distribution
does have a heavier left tail and less heavy right tail than a lognormal distribuĀ tion. For the lognormal distribution based on a single volatility of 26%, the
probability of a stock price between $6 and $7 is 0.0031 (compared with 0.0057 in Figure 20A.2) and the probability of a stock price between $13 and $14 is
0.0167 (compared with 0.0113 in Figure 20A.2).Figure 20A.2 Implied probability distribution for Example 20A.1.
Probability
00.050.10.150.20.250.3
56 78 91 01 11 21 31 41 5
Stock pr ice
M20_HULL0654_11_GE_C20.indd 469 30/04/2021 17:36
470
Basic Numerical
Procedures
This chapter discusses three numerical procedures for valuing derivatives when analytic
results such as the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas do not exist. The first represents the asset price movements in the form of a tree and was introduced in Chapter 13. The second is Monte Carlo simulation, which we encountered briefly in Chapter 14 when stochastic processes were explained. The third involves finite difference methods.
Monte Carlo simulation is usually used for derivatives where the payoff is dependent
on the history of the underlying variable or where there are several underlying variables. Trees and finite difference methods are usually used for American options and other derivatives where the holder has decisions to make prior to maturity. In addition to valuing a derivative, all the procedures can be used to calculate Greek letters such as delta, gamma, and vega.
The basic procedures discussed in this chapter can be used to handle most of the
derivatives valuation problems encountered in practice. However, sometimes they have to be adapted to cope with particular situations, as will be explained in Chapter 27.21 CHAPTER
Binomial trees were introduced in Chapter 13. They can be used to value either European or American options. The BlackāScholesāMerton formulas and their exten-
sions that were presented in Chapters 15, 17, and 18 provide analytic valuations for European options.
1 There are no analytic valuations for American options. Binomial
trees are therefore most useful for valuing these types of options.2
As explained in Chapter 13, the binomial tree valuation approach involves dividing
Numerical Procedures for Derivatives
- Three primary numerical methodsābinomial trees, Monte Carlo simulations, and finite difference methodsāare used when analytic formulas like Black-Scholes-Merton are unavailable.
- Monte Carlo simulation is preferred for path-dependent payoffs, while trees and finite difference methods are better suited for American options involving early exercise decisions.
- The binomial tree approach discretizes time into small intervals, modeling asset price movements as simple up or down shifts to approximate continuous stochastic processes.
- Risk-neutral valuation allows derivatives to be priced by assuming all assets earn the risk-free rate and discounting expected payoffs accordingly.
- Parameters for tree movements must be mathematically calibrated to match the expected mean and variance of the asset's price changes in a risk-neutral world.
There are no analytic valuations for American options. Binomial trees are therefore most useful for valuing these types of options.
results such as the BlackāScholesāMerton formulas do not exist. The first represents the asset price movements in the form of a tree and was introduced in Chapter 13. The second is Monte Carlo simulation, which we encountered briefly in Chapter 14 when stochastic processes were explained. The third involves finite difference methods.
Monte Carlo simulation is usually used for derivatives where the payoff is dependent
on the history of the underlying variable or where there are several underlying variables. Trees and finite difference methods are usually used for American options and other derivatives where the holder has decisions to make prior to maturity. In addition to valuing a derivative, all the procedures can be used to calculate Greek letters such as delta, gamma, and vega.
The basic procedures discussed in this chapter can be used to handle most of the
derivatives valuation problems encountered in practice. However, sometimes they have to be adapted to cope with particular situations, as will be explained in Chapter 27.21 CHAPTER
Binomial trees were introduced in Chapter 13. They can be used to value either European or American options. The BlackāScholesāMerton formulas and their exten-
sions that were presented in Chapters 15, 17, and 18 provide analytic valuations for European options.
1 There are no analytic valuations for American options. Binomial
trees are therefore most useful for valuing these types of options.2
As explained in Chapter 13, the binomial tree valuation approach involves dividing
the life of the option into a large number of small time intervals of length āt. It assumes
that in each time interval the price of the underlying asset moves from its initial value of S to one of two new values, Su and Sd. The approach is illustrated in Figure 21.1. In 21.1 BINOMIAL TREES
1 The BlackāScholesāMerton formulas are based on the same set of assumptions as binomial trees. As shown
in the appendix to Chapter 13, in the limit as the number of time steps is increased, the price given by a
binomial tree for a European option converges to the BlackāScholesāMerton price.
2 Some analytic approximations for valuing American options have been suggested. See, for example,
Technical Note 8 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a description of the quadratic
approximation approach.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 470 30/04/2021 17:36
Basic Numerical Procedures 471
general, u71 and d61. The movement from S to Su, therefore, is an āupā movement
and the movement from S to Sd is a ādownā movement. The probability of an up
movement will be denoted by p. The probability of a down movement is 1-p.
Risk-Neutral Valuation
The risk-neutral valuation principle, explained in Chapters 13 and 15, states that an
option (or other derivative) can be valued on the assumption that the world is risk neutral. This means that for valuation purposes we can use the following procedure:
1. Assume that the expected return from all traded assets is the risk-free interest rate.
2. Value payoffs from the derivative by calculating their expected values and
discounting at the risk-free interest rate.
This principle underlies the way trees are used.
Determination of p , u, and d
The parameters p, u, and d must give correct values for the mean and variance of asset
price changes during a time interval of length āt. Because we are working in a risk-
neutral world, the expected return from the asset is the risk-free interest rate, r. Suppose that the asset provides a yield of q . The expected return in the form of capital gains must
be
r-q. This means that the expected value of the asset price at the end of a time interval
of length āt must be Se1r-q2āt, where S is the asset price at the beginning of the time
interval. To match the mean return with the tree, we therefore need
Se1r-q2āt=pSu+11-p2Sd
or
e1r-q2āt=pu+11-p2d (21.1)
Binomial Model Parameters
- The binomial model requires specific parameters for up and down movements to accurately reflect the mean and variance of asset price changes.
- In a risk-neutral world, the expected return of an asset is adjusted for the risk-free interest rate and any applicable dividend yields.
- The model utilizes a recombining tree structure where an up movement followed by a down movement results in the same price as the reverse sequence.
- Option valuation is performed using backward induction, starting from the known values at expiration and working back to the present time.
- The Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein condition simplifies the model by assuming the up movement factor is the reciprocal of the down movement factor.
Options are evaluated by starting at the end of the tree (time T ) and working backward.
The parameters p, u, and d must give correct values for the mean and variance of asset
price changes during a time interval of length āt. Because we are working in a risk-
neutral world, the expected return from the asset is the risk-free interest rate, r. Suppose that the asset provides a yield of q . The expected return in the form of capital gains must
be
r-q. This means that the expected value of the asset price at the end of a time interval
of length āt must be Se1r-q2āt, where S is the asset price at the beginning of the time
interval. To match the mean return with the tree, we therefore need
Se1r-q2āt=pSu+11-p2Sd
or
e1r-q2āt=pu+11-p2d (21.1)
The variance of a variable Q is defined as E1Q22-3E1Q242. Defining R as the
percentage change in the asset price in time āt, there is a probability p that 1+R is
u and a probability 1-p that it is d. Using equation (21.1), it follows that the variance
of 1+R is
pu2+11-p2d2-e21r-q2āt
Since adding a constant to a variable makes no difference to its variance, the variance
of 1+R is the same as the variance of R . As explained in Section 15.4, this is s2 āt.p
S
1 2 p
SdSuFigure 21.1 Asset price movements in time āt under the binomial model.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 471 30/04/2021 17:36
472 CHAPTER 21
Hence,
pu2+11-p2d2-e21r-q2āt=s2āt
From equation (21.1), e1r-q2āt1u+d2=pu2+11-p2d2+ud, so that
e1r-q2āt1u+d2-ud-e21r-q2āt=s2āt (21.2)
Equations (21.1) and (21.2) impose two conditions on p, u, and d. A third condition
used by Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein (1979) is3
u=1>d (21.3)
A solution to equations (21.1) to (21.3), when terms of higher order than āt are
ignored, is4
p=a-d
u-d (21.4)
u=es2āt (21.5)
d=e-s2āt (21.6)
where
a=e 1r-q2āt (21.7)
The variable a is sometimes referred to as the growth factor. Equations (21.4) to (21.7)
are the same as those in Sections 13.8 and 13.11.
Tree of Asset Prices
Figure 21.2 shows the complete tree of asset prices that is considered when the binomial
model is used with four time steps. At time zero, the asset price, S0, is known. At time
āt, there are two possible asset prices, S0u and S0d; at time 2āt, there are three possible
asset prices, S0u2, S0, and S0d2; and so on. In general, at time i āt, we consider i+1
asset prices. These are
S0ujd i-j, j=0, 1, c, i
Note that the relationship u=1>d is used in computing the asset price at each node of
the tree in Figure 21.2. For example, the asset price when j=2 and i=3 is
S0u2d=S0u. Note also that the tree recombines in the sense that an up movement
followed by a down movement leads to the same asset price as a down movement
followed by an up movement.
Working Backward through the Tree
Options are evaluated by starting at the end of the tree (time T ) and working backward.
This is known as backward induction. The value of the option is known at time T . For
example, a put option is worth max1K-ST, 02 and a call option is worth max1ST-K, 02,
3 See J. C. Cox, S. A. Ross, and M. Rubinstein, āOption Pricing: A Simplified Approach, ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 7 (October 1979), 229ā63.
4 To see this, we note that equations (21. 4) and (21. 7) satisfy the conditions in equations (21. 1) and (21. 3)
exactly. The exponential function ex can be expanded as 1+x+x2>2+P. When terms of higher order than
āt are ignored, equation (21. 5) implies that u=1+s2āt+1
2s2āt and equation (21. 6) implies that
d=1-s2āt+1
2s2āt. Also, e1r-q2āt=1+1r-q2āt and e21r-q2āt=1+2 1r-q2āt. By substitution, we see
that equation (21. 2) is satisfied when terms of higher order than āt are ignored.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 472 30/04/2021 17:36
Basic Numerical Procedures 473
Option Valuation via Backward Induction
- Options are valued using a binomial tree model that starts at the expiration date and works backward to the present through a process called backward induction.
- In a risk-neutral world, the value at each node is determined by calculating the expected future value and discounting it at the risk-free interest rate.
- American options require an additional check at every node to determine if early exercise provides a higher value than continuing to hold the contract.
- The model uses specific factors for up and down movements based on asset volatility and time intervals to simulate potential price paths.
- The final value of the option at time zero is obtained only after systematically processing every node from the end of the tree to the beginning.
If the option is American, it is necessary to check at each node to see whether early exercise is preferable to holding the option for a further time period āt.
Options are evaluated by starting at the end of the tree (time T ) and working backward.
This is known as backward induction. The value of the option is known at time T . For
example, a put option is worth max1K-ST, 02 and a call option is worth max1ST-K, 02,
3 See J. C. Cox, S. A. Ross, and M. Rubinstein, āOption Pricing: A Simplified Approach, ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 7 (October 1979), 229ā63.
4 To see this, we note that equations (21. 4) and (21. 7) satisfy the conditions in equations (21. 1) and (21. 3)
exactly. The exponential function ex can be expanded as 1+x+x2>2+P. When terms of higher order than
āt are ignored, equation (21. 5) implies that u=1+s2āt+1
2s2āt and equation (21. 6) implies that
d=1-s2āt+1
2s2āt. Also, e1r-q2āt=1+1r-q2āt and e21r-q2āt=1+2 1r-q2āt. By substitution, we see
that equation (21. 2) is satisfied when terms of higher order than āt are ignored.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 472 30/04/2021 17:36
Basic Numerical Procedures 473
where ST is the asset price at time T and K is the strike price. Because a risk-neutral world is
being assumed, the value at each node at time T-āt can be calculated as the expected
value at time T discounted at rate r for a time period āt. Similarly, the value at each node
at time T-2āt can be calculated as the expected value at time T-āt discounted for a
time period āt at rate r , and so on. If the option is American, it is necessary to check at
each node to see whether early exercise is preferable to holding the option for a further
time period āt. Eventually, by working back through all the nodes, we are able to obtain
the value of the option at time zero.
Example 21.1
Consider a 5-month American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock when
the stock price is $50, the strike price is $50, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, and the volatility is 40% per annum. With our usual notation, this means that
S0=50, K=50, r =0.10, s=0.40, T=0.4167, and q=0. Suppose that we
divide the life of the option into five intervals of length 1 month (=0.0833 year2
for the purposes of constructing a binomial tree. Then āt=0.0833 and using
equations (21.4) to (21.7) gives
u=es2āt=1.1224, d=e-s2āt=0.8909, a=erāt=1.0084
p=a-d
u-d=0.5073, 1-p=0.4927
Figure 21.3 shows the binomial tree produced by DerivaGem. At each node there
are two numbers. The top one shows the stock price at the node; the lower one shows the value of the option at the node. The probability of an up movement is always 0.5073; the probability of a down movement is always 0.4927 .Figure 21.2 Tree used to value an option.
S0
S0dS0uS0u2S0u3S0u4
S0u2
S0S0
S0d2
S0d2
S0d4S0u
S0d
S0d3
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 473 30/04/2021 17:36
474 CHAPTER 21
The stock price at the jth node 1j=0, 1, c, i2 at time i āt 1i=0, 1, c, 52 is
calculated as S0ujdi-j. For example, the stock price at node A 1i=4, j=12 (i.e.,
the second node up at the end of the fourth time step) is 50*1.1224*0.89093 =
$39.69. The option prices at the final nodes are calculated as max1K-ST, 02. For
example, the option price at node G is 50.00-35.36=14.64. The option prices at
the penultimate nodes are calculated from the option prices at the final nodes.
First, we assume no exercise of the option at the nodes. This means that the
option price is calculated as the present value of the expected option price one
time step later. For example, at node E, the option price is calculated as
10.5073*0+0.4927*5.452e-0.10*0.0833=2.66
whereas at node A it is calculated as
10.5073*5.45+0.4927*14.642e-0.10*0.0833=9.90Figure 21.3 Binomial tree from DerivaGem for American put on non-dividend-
paying stock (Example 21.1).
At each node:
Upper v alue 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Pr ice
Shading indicat es wher e option is exe rcised
Strike price 5 50
Discount f actor per st ep 5 0.991 7 89.07
Time st ep, dt 5 0.0833 y ears, 30.42 da ys 0.00
Growth factor per st ep, a 5 1.0084 79.35
Binomial Tree Option Pricing
- The binomial tree method calculates stock prices at specific nodes using up and down factors to model potential market movements over time.
- Option values are determined at the final nodes based on the difference between the strike price and the terminal stock price.
- For American options, the value at each internal node is the greater of the discounted expected future value or the immediate exercise value.
- The process involves working backward from the expiration date to the present to arrive at a numerical estimate for the option's current price.
- Increasing the number of time steps in the model leads to a more precise and stable valuation of the derivative asset.
At node A, it is a different story. If the option is exercised, it is worth +50.00-+39.69, or $10.31. This is more than $9.90.
The stock price at the jth node 1j=0, 1, c, i2 at time i āt 1i=0, 1, c, 52 is
calculated as S0ujdi-j. For example, the stock price at node A 1i=4, j=12 (i.e.,
the second node up at the end of the fourth time step) is 50*1.1224*0.89093 =
$39.69. The option prices at the final nodes are calculated as max1K-ST, 02. For
example, the option price at node G is 50.00-35.36=14.64. The option prices at
the penultimate nodes are calculated from the option prices at the final nodes.
First, we assume no exercise of the option at the nodes. This means that the
option price is calculated as the present value of the expected option price one
time step later. For example, at node E, the option price is calculated as
10.5073*0+0.4927*5.452e-0.10*0.0833=2.66
whereas at node A it is calculated as
10.5073*5.45+0.4927*14.642e-0.10*0.0833=9.90Figure 21.3 Binomial tree from DerivaGem for American put on non-dividend-
paying stock (Example 21.1).
At each node:
Upper v alue 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Pr ice
Shading indicat es wher e option is exe rcised
Strike price 5 50
Discount f actor per st ep 5 0.991 7 89.07
Time st ep, dt 5 0.0833 y ears, 30.42 da ys 0.00
Growth factor per st ep, a 5 1.0084 79.35
Probabilit y of up mo ve, p 5 0.5073 0.00
Up st ep size, u 5 1.1224 70.70 70.70
Down st ep si ze, d 5 0.8909 F 0.00 0.00
62.99 62.99
0.64 0.00
56.12 56.12 56.12
D 2.16 C1 .30 E 0.00
50.00 50.00 50.00
4.49 3.77 2.66
44.55 44.55 44.55
6.96 B 6.38 A 5.45
39.69 39.69
10.36 10.31 G
35.36 35.36
14.64 14.64
31.50
18.50
28.07
21.93
Node Time:
0.0000 0.0833 0.1667 0.2500 0.3333 0.4167
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 474 30/04/2021 17:36
Basic Numerical Procedures 475
We then check to see if early exercise is preferable to waiting. At node E, early
exercise would give a value for the option of zero because both the stock price and
strike price are $50. Clearly it is best to wait. The correct value for the option at
node E is therefore $2.66. At node A, it is a different story. If the option is
exercised, it is worth +50.00-+39.69, or $10.31. This is more than $9.90. If node
A is reached, then the option should be exercised and the correct value for the option at node A is $10.31.
Option prices at earlier nodes are calculated in a similar way. Note that it is not
always best to exercise an option early when it is in the money. Consider node B. If the option is exercised, it is worth
+50.00-+39.69, or $10.31. However, if it is
not exercised, it is worth
10.5073*6.38+0.4927*14.642e-0.10*0.0833=10.36
The option should, therefore, not be exercised at this node, and the correct option value at the node is $10.36.
Working back through the tree, the value of the option at the initial node is
$4.49. This is our numerical estimate for the optionās current value. In practice, a
smaller value of
āt, and many more nodes, would be used. DerivaGem shows
that with 30, 50, 100, and 500 time steps we get values for the option of 4.263,
4.272, 4.278, and 4.283.
Expressing the Approach Algebraically
Suppose that the life of an American option is divided into N subintervals of length āt.
We will refer to the jth node at time i āt as the 1i, j2 node, where 0ā¦iā¦N and
0ā¦jā¦i. This means that the lowest node at time i āt is 1i, 02, the next lowest is 1i, 12,
and so on. Define fi, j as the value of the option at the 1i, j2 node. The price of the
underlying asset at the 1i, j2 node is S0ujdi-j. If the option is a call, its value at time T
(the expiration date) is max1ST-K, 02, so that
fN, j=max1S0ujdN-j-K, 02, j=0, 1, c, N
If the option is a put, its value at time T is max1K-ST, 02, so that
fN, j=max1K-S0ujdN-j, 02, j=0, 1, c, N
Binomial Trees and Option Greeks
- The binomial tree method divides an American option's life into subintervals to calculate its value through backward induction from the expiration date.
- Valuation of American options requires comparing the risk-neutral discounted value at each node with the intrinsic value to account for early exercise possibilities.
- The model achieves higher accuracy as the number of time steps increases, with thirty steps typically providing reasonable results for practical applications.
- Key risk measures, known as Greeks, can be estimated directly from the tree by comparing option values at different nodes and time intervals.
- Delta and Gamma are derived from price differences between nodes, while Theta is estimated by comparing the initial option value to the value at the second time step.
Note that, because the calculations start at time T and work backward, the value at time i āt captures not only the effect of early exercise possibilities at time i āt, but also the effect of early exercise at subsequent times.
Suppose that the life of an American option is divided into N subintervals of length āt.
We will refer to the jth node at time i āt as the 1i, j2 node, where 0ā¦iā¦N and
0ā¦jā¦i. This means that the lowest node at time i āt is 1i, 02, the next lowest is 1i, 12,
and so on. Define fi, j as the value of the option at the 1i, j2 node. The price of the
underlying asset at the 1i, j2 node is S0ujdi-j. If the option is a call, its value at time T
(the expiration date) is max1ST-K, 02, so that
fN, j=max1S0ujdN-j-K, 02, j=0, 1, c, N
If the option is a put, its value at time T is max1K-ST, 02, so that
fN, j=max1K-S0ujdN-j, 02, j=0, 1, c, N
There is a probability p of moving from the 1i, j2 node at time i āt to the 1i+1, j+12
node at time 1i+12āt, and a probability 1-p of moving from the 1i, j2 node at time
i āt to the 1i+1, j2 node at time 1i+12āt. Assuming no early exercise, risk-neutral
valuation gives
fi, j=e-rāt3pfi+1, j+1+11-p2fi+1, j4
for 0ā¦iā¦N-1 and 0ā¦jā¦i. When early exercise is possible, this value for fi, j must
be compared with the optionās intrinsic value, so that for a call
fi, j=max5S0ujdi-j-K, e-rāt3pfi+1, j+1+11-p2fi+1, j46
and for a put
fi, j=max5K-S0ujd i-j, e-rāt3pfi+1, j+1+11-p2fi+1, j46
Note that, because the calculations start at time T and work backward, the value at
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 475 30/04/2021 17:36
476 CHAPTER 21
time i āt captures not only the effect of early exercise possibilities at time i āt, but also
the effect of early exercise at subsequent times.
In the limit as āt tends to zero, an exact value for the American put is obtained. In
practice, N=30 usually gives reasonable results. Figure 21.4 shows the convergence of
the option price in Example 21.1. This figure was calculated using the Application
Builder functions provided with the DerivaGem software (see Sample Application A).
Estimating Delta and Other Greek Letters
It will be recalled that the delta 1ā2 of an option is the rate of change of its price with
respect to the underlying stock price. It can be calculated as
āf
āS
where āS is a small change in the asset price and āf is the corresponding small change
in the option price. At time āt, we have an estimate f1, 1 for the option price when the
asset price is S0u and an estimate f1, 0 for the option price when the asset price is S0d.
This means that, when āS=S0u-S0d, āf=f1, 1-f1, 0. Therefore an estimate of
delta at time āt is
ā=f1, 1-f1, 0
S0u-S0d (21.8)
To determine gamma 1Ī2, note that we have two estimates of ā at time 2āt.
When S=1S0u2+S02>2 (halfway between the second and third node), delta is
1f2, 2-f2, 12>1S0u2-S02; when S=1S0+S0d22>2 (halfway between the first and second
node), delta is 1f2, 1-f2, 02>1S0-S0d22. The difference between the two values of S is h,
where
h=0.51S0u2-S0d22Figure 21.4 Convergence of the price of the option in Example 21.1 calculated from
the DerivaGem Application Builder functions.
3.603.804.004.204.404.604.805.00
05 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50No. of stepsOption
value
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 476 30/04/2021 17:36
Basic Numerical Procedures 477
Gamma is the change in delta divided by h:
Ī=31f2, 2-f2, 12>1S0u2-S024-31f2, 1-f2, 02>1S0-S0d224
h (21.9)
These procedures provide estimates of delta at time āt and of gamma at time 2āt. In
practice, they are usually used as estimates of delta and gamma at time zero as well.5
A further hedge parameter that can be obtained directly from the tree is theta 1Ī2.
This is the rate of change of the option price with time when all else is kept constant.
The value of the option at time zero is f0, 0 and at time 2āt it is f2, 1. An estimate of
theta is therefore
Ī=f2, 1-f0, 0
2āt (21.10)
Vega can be calculated by making a small change, ās, in the volatility and constructing
a new tree to obtain a new value of the option. (The number of time steps should be
kept the same.) The estimate of vega is
V=f*-f
ās
Estimating Greeks via Binomial Trees
- Binomial trees allow for the direct estimation of option Greeks like delta, gamma, and theta by comparing values at different nodes and time steps.
- Vega and rho are calculated by slightly adjusting volatility or interest rates and recomputing the entire tree to observe the change in option price.
- The accuracy of these Greek estimates improves significantly as the number of time steps in the binomial model is increased.
- The binomial approach is versatile enough to value options on stock indices, currencies, and futures by adjusting the growth factor to account for known yields.
These are only rough estimates. They become progressively better as the number of time steps on the tree is increased.
These procedures provide estimates of delta at time āt and of gamma at time 2āt. In
practice, they are usually used as estimates of delta and gamma at time zero as well.5
A further hedge parameter that can be obtained directly from the tree is theta 1Ī2.
This is the rate of change of the option price with time when all else is kept constant.
The value of the option at time zero is f0, 0 and at time 2āt it is f2, 1. An estimate of
theta is therefore
Ī=f2, 1-f0, 0
2āt (21.10)
Vega can be calculated by making a small change, ās, in the volatility and constructing
a new tree to obtain a new value of the option. (The number of time steps should be
kept the same.) The estimate of vega is
V=f*-f
ās
where f and f* are the estimates of the option price from the original and the new tree,
respectively. Rho can be calculated similarly.
Example 21.2
Consider again Example 21.1. From Figure 21.3, f1, 0=6.96 and f1, 1=2.16.
Equation (21.8) gives an estimate for delta of
2.16-6.96
56.12-44.55=-0.41
From equation (21.9), an estimate of the gamma of the option can be obtained
from the values at nodes B, C, and F as
310.64-3.772>162.99-50.0024-313.77-10.362>150.00-39.6924
11.65=0.03
From equation (21.10), an estimate of the theta of the option can be obtained from the values at nodes D and C as
3.77-4.49
0.1667=-4.3 per year
or -0.012 per calendar day. These are only rough estimates. They become pro-
gressively better as the number of time steps on the tree is increased. Using 50 time
steps, DerivaGem provides estimates of -0.415, 0.034, and -0.0117 for delta,
gamma, and theta, respectively. By making small changes to parameters and recomputing values, vega and rho are estimated as 0.123 and
-0.072, respectively.
5 If slightly more accuracy is required for delta and gamma, we can start the binomial tree at time -2āt and
assume that the stock price is S0 at this time. This leads to the option price being calculated for three different
stock prices at time zero.
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478 CHAPTER 21
As explained in Chapters 13, 17 and 18, stock indices, currencies, and futures contracts
can, for the purposes of option valuation, be considered as assets providing known yields. For a stock index, the relevant yield is the dividend yield on the stock portfolio underlying the index; in the case of a currency, it is the foreign risk-free interest rate; in the
case of a futures contract, it is the domestic risk-free interest rate. The binomial tree approach can therefore be used to value options on stock indices, currencies, and futures
contracts provided that q in equation (21.7) is interpreted appropriately.
Example 21.3
Consider a 4-month American call option on index futures where the current
futures price is 300, the exercise price is 300, the risk-free interest rate is 8% per 21.2 USING THE BINOMIAL TREE FOR OPTIONS ON INDICES,
CURRENCIES, AND FUTURES CONTRACTS
Figure 21.5 Binomial tree produced by DerivaGem for American call option on
an index futures contract (Example 21.3).
At each node:
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 300
Discount factor per step 5 0.9934
Time step, dt 5 0.0833 years, 30.42 days
Growth factor per step, a 5 1.0000 424.1 9
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.4784 124.19
Up step size, u 5 1.0905 389.00
Down step size, d 5 0.9170 89.00
356.73 356.73
56.73 56.73
327.14 327.14
33.64 27.14
300.00 300.00 300.00
19.161 2.90 0.00
275.1 1 275.1 1
6.13 0.00
252.29 252.29
0.00 0.00
231.36
0.00
212.17
0.00
Node Time:
0.0000 0.0833 0.1667 0.2500 0.3333
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 478 30/04/2021 17:36
Basic Numerical Procedures 479
annum, and the volatility of the index is 30% per annum. The life of the option is
divided into four 1-month periods for the purposes of constructing the tree. In this case,
Binomial Trees for Options
- The text demonstrates how binomial trees are used to value American options on futures and foreign currencies by dividing the option's life into discrete time steps.
- For futures contracts, the growth factor is set to one because they are treated as analogous to stocks paying a dividend rate equal to the risk-free interest rate.
- The DerivaGem software provides estimated option values that increase in accuracy as the number of time steps in the binomial model is increased.
- Valuing options on dividend-paying stocks requires adjusting the tree to account for the reduction in stock price on the ex-dividend date.
- When dealing with long-life stock options, a continuous dividend yield is often assumed for convenience, though discrete yields offer more precision.
The tree, as produced by DerivaGem, is shown in Figure 21. 5. (The upper number is the futures price; the lower number is the option price.)
Up step size, u 5 1.0905 389.00
Down step size, d 5 0.9170 89.00
356.73 356.73
56.73 56.73
327.14 327.14
33.64 27.14
300.00 300.00 300.00
19.161 2.90 0.00
275.1 1 275.1 1
6.13 0.00
252.29 252.29
0.00 0.00
231.36
0.00
212.17
0.00
Node Time:
0.0000 0.0833 0.1667 0.2500 0.3333
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 478 30/04/2021 17:36
Basic Numerical Procedures 479
annum, and the volatility of the index is 30% per annum. The life of the option is
divided into four 1-month periods for the purposes of constructing the tree. In this case,
F0=300, K=300, r=0.08, s=0.3, T=0.3333, and āt=0.0833. Because
a futures contract is analogous to a stock paying dividends at a rate r, q should be
set equal to r in equation (21.7). This gives a=1. The other parameters necessary
to construct the tree are
u=es2āt=1.0905, d=1>u=0.9170
p=a-d
u-d=0.4784, 1-p=0.5216
The tree, as produced by DerivaGem, is shown in Figure 21. 5. (The upper number
is the futures price; the lower number is the option price.) The estimated value of
the option is 19.16. More accuracy is obtained using more steps. With 50 time
steps, DerivaGem gives a value of 20.18; with 100 time steps it gives 20.22.
Figure 21.6 Binomial tree produced by DerivaGem for American put option on
a currency (Example 21.4).
At each node:
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 1.6
Discount factor per step 5 0.9802
Time step, dt 5 0.2500 years, 91.25 days
Growth factor per step, a 5 0.9975 2.0467
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.4642 0.0000
Up step size, u 5 1.06181 .9275
Down step size, d 5 0.941 8 0.0000
1.8153 1.8153
0.0000 0.0000
1.7096 1.7096
0.0249 0.0000
1.6100 1.6100 1.6100
0.071 0 0.0475 0.0000
1.5162 1.5162
0.1136 0.0904
1.4279 1.4279
0.1752 0.1721
1.3448
0.2552
1.2665
0.3335
Node Time:
0.0000 0.2500 0.5000 0.7500 1.0000
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 479 30/04/2021 17:36
480 CHAPTER 21
Example 21.4
Consider a 1-year American put option on a foreign currency. The cur-
rent exchange rate is 1.6100, the strike price is 1.6000, the domestic risk-free
interest rate is 8% per annum, the foreign risk-free interest rate is 9% per annum,
and the volatility of the foreign exchange rate is 12% per annum. In this case,
S0=1.61, K=1.60, r=0.08, rf=0.09, s=0.12, and T=1.0. The life of the
option is divided into four 3-month periods for the purposes of constructing the tree, so that
āt=0.25. In this case, q=rf and equation (21.7) gives
a=e10.08-0.092*0.25=0.9975
The other parameters necessary to construct the tree are
u=es2āt=1.0618, d=1>u=0.9418, p=a-d
u-d=0.4642, 1-p=0.5358
The tree, as produced by DerivaGem, is shown in Figure 21. 6. (The upper number
is the exchange rate; the lower number is the option price.) The estimated value of
the option is $0.0710. (Using 50 time steps, DerivaGem gives the value of the option as 0.0738; with 100 time steps it also gives 0.0738.)
We now move on to the more tricky issue of how the binomial model can be used for a dividend-paying stock. As in Chapter 15, the word ādividendā will, for the purposes of our discussion, be used to refer to the reduction in the stock price on the ex-dividend date as a result of the dividend.
Known Dividend Yield
For long-life stock options, it is sometimes assumed for convenience that there is a known continuous dividend yield of q on the stock. The options can then be valued in the same way as options on a stock index.
For more accuracy, known dividend yields can be assumed to be paid discretely.
Suppose that there is a single dividend, and the dividend yield (i.e., the dividend as a percentage of the stock price) is known. The parameters u , d, and p can be calculated as
though no dividends are expected. If the time
i āt is prior to the stock going ex-
dividend, the nodes on the tree correspond to stock prices
S0ujdi-j, j=0, 1, c, i
Modeling Dividend-Paying Stocks
- Long-life stock options can be modeled using a continuous dividend yield, allowing them to be valued similarly to stock indices.
- When dividend yields are known and discrete, binomial trees are adjusted by multiplying stock prices by the factor (1 - d) after the ex-dividend date.
- Assuming a known dollar dividend amount causes binomial trees to stop recombining, leading to a massive proliferation of nodes that are difficult to calculate.
- To solve the node-proliferation problem, practitioners often split the stock price into an uncertain component and a component representing the present value of future dividends.
- Consistency between European and American option pricing models is essential to ensure that American options which should not be exercised early match European prices.
It does not recombine, which means that the number of nodes that have to be evaluated is liable to become very large.
For long-life stock options, it is sometimes assumed for convenience that there is a known continuous dividend yield of q on the stock. The options can then be valued in the same way as options on a stock index.
For more accuracy, known dividend yields can be assumed to be paid discretely.
Suppose that there is a single dividend, and the dividend yield (i.e., the dividend as a percentage of the stock price) is known. The parameters u , d, and p can be calculated as
though no dividends are expected. If the time
i āt is prior to the stock going ex-
dividend, the nodes on the tree correspond to stock prices
S0ujdi-j, j=0, 1, c, i
If the time i āt is after the stock goes ex-dividend, the nodes correspond to stock prices
S011-d2ujdi-j, j=0, 1, c, i
where d is the dividend yield. The tree has the form shown in Figure 21.7. Several known
dividend yields during the life of an option can be dealt with similarly. If di is the total
dividend yield associated with all ex-dividend dates between time zero and time i āt, the
nodes at time i āt correspond to stock prices
S011-di2ujdi-j21.3 BINOMIAL MODEL FOR A DIVIDEND-PAYING STOCK
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Basic Numerical Procedures 481
Known Dollar Dividend
In some situations, particularly when the life of the option is short, the most realistic
assumption is that the dollar amount of the dividend rather than the dividend yield is known in advance. If the volatility of the stock,
s, is assumed constant, the tree then
takes the form shown in Figure 21.8. It does not recombine, which means that the
number of nodes that have to be evaluated is liable to become very large. Suppose that there is only one dividend, that the ex-dividend date,
t, is between k āt and 1k+12āt,
and that the dollar amount of the dividend is D. When iā¦k, the nodes on the tree at
time i āt correspond to stock prices
S0ujdi-j, j=0, 1, 2, c, i
as before. When i=k+1, the nodes on the tree correspond to stock prices
S0ujdi-j-D, j=0, 1, 2, c, i
When i=k+2, so that the nodes on the tree correspond to stock prices
1S0ujdi-1-j-D2u and 1S0ujdi-1-j-D2d
for j=0, 1, 2, c, i-1, there are 2i rather than i+1 nodes. When i=k+m,
there are m1k+22 rather than k+m+1 nodes. The number of nodes expands even
faster when there are several ex-dividend dates during the optionās life.Figure 21.7 Tree when stock pays a known dividend yield at one particular time.
S0S0u
S0dS0u2(1 2 d)
S0d2(1 2 d)
S0d3(1 2 d)S0u3(1 2 d)S0u4(1 2 d)
S0u2(1 2 d)
S0d2(1 2 d)
S0d4(1 2 d)S0(1 2 d)
S0d(1 2 d)S0u(1 2 d)
Ex-dividend dateS0(1 2 d)
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482 CHAPTER 21
Section 15.12 explained that European options on dividend-paying stocks are valued
by assuming that the stock price has two components: a part that is uncertain and a part
that is the present value of dividends paid during the life of the option. It outlined a number of reasons why practitioners find this a sensible assumption. American options clearly have to be valued using the same model as European options. (Otherwise the prices of American options that should never be exercised early will not be the same as the prices of European options.) American options on stocks paying known dividends are therefore in practice valued using the approach in Section 15.12. As it happens, this solves the node-proliferation problem in Figure 21.8.
Suppose that there is only one ex-dividend date,
t, during the life of the option and that
k ātā¦tā¦1k+12āt. The value S* of the uncertain component (i.e., the component not
used to pay dividends) at time i āt is given by
S*=S when i āt7t
and
S*=S-De-r1t-iāt2 when i ātā¦t
Valuing Options with Known Dividends
- The model assumes stock prices consist of an uncertain component and the present value of dividends paid during the option's life.
- By modeling only the uncertain component of the stock price, practitioners can solve the node-proliferation problem in binomial trees.
- American options are valued using this approach to ensure consistency with European options that should not be exercised early.
- The control variate technique is introduced as a method to improve the accuracy of American option pricing by comparing tree results with Black-Scholes-Merton values.
- A practical example demonstrates that subtracting the present value of a $2.06 dividend allows a standard binomial tree to be applied to a modified initial stock price.
As it happens, this solves the node-proliferation problem in Figure 21.8.
by assuming that the stock price has two components: a part that is uncertain and a part
that is the present value of dividends paid during the life of the option. It outlined a number of reasons why practitioners find this a sensible assumption. American options clearly have to be valued using the same model as European options. (Otherwise the prices of American options that should never be exercised early will not be the same as the prices of European options.) American options on stocks paying known dividends are therefore in practice valued using the approach in Section 15.12. As it happens, this solves the node-proliferation problem in Figure 21.8.
Suppose that there is only one ex-dividend date,
t, during the life of the option and that
k ātā¦tā¦1k+12āt. The value S* of the uncertain component (i.e., the component not
used to pay dividends) at time i āt is given by
S*=S when i āt7t
and
S*=S-De-r1t-iāt2 when i ātā¦t
where D is the dividend. Define s* as the volatility of S* The parameters p, u, and d
can be calculated from equations (21.4) to (21.7) with s replaced by s* and a tree can be
constructed in the usual way to model S*.6 By adding to the stock price at each node,
the present value of future dividends (if any), the tree can be converted into another tree Figure 21.8 Tree when dollar amount of dividend is assumed known and volatility is
assumed constant.
S0S0u
S0dS0 2 D
S0d2 2DS0u2 2 D
Ex-dividend date
6 As discussed in Section 15. 12, the difference between s and s* does not usually have to be considered
explicitly because in practice analysts normally work with volatilities implied from market prices using their
models and these are s*-volatilities.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 482 30/04/2021 17:36
Basic Numerical Procedures 483
that models S. Suppose that S0* is the value of S* at time zero. At time i āt, the nodes
on this tree correspond to the stock prices
S0*ujdi-j+De-r1t-i āt2, j=0, 1, c, i
when i āt6t and
S0*ujdi-j, j=0, 1, c, i
when i āt7t. This approach, which leads to a situation where the tree recombines so
that there are i+1 nodes at time i āt, can be generalized in a straightforward way to
deal with the situation where there are several dividends.
Example 21.5
Consider a 5-month American put option on a stock that is expected to pay a
single dividend of $2.06 during the life of the option. The initial stock price is $52, the strike price is $50, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, the volatility is
40% per annum, and the ex-dividend date is in
31
2 months.
We first construct a tree to model S*, the stock price less the present value of
future dividends during the life of the option. At time zero, the present value of the dividend is
2.06*e-0.2917*0.1=2.00
The initial value of S* is therefore 50.00. If we assume that the 40% per annum
volatility refers to S*, then Figure 21. 3 provides a binomial tree for S*. (This is
because S* has the same initial value and volatility as the stock price that
Figure 21.3 was based upon.) Adding the present value of the dividend at each
node leads to Figure 21.9, which is a binomial model for S. The probabilities at
each node are, as in Figure 21.3, 0.5073 for an up movement and 0.4927 for a
down movement. Working back through the tree in the usual way gives the
option price as $4.44. (Using 50 time steps, DerivaGem gives a value for the
option of 4.208; using 100 steps it gives 4.214.)
Control Variate Technique
A technique known as the control variate technique can improve the accuracy of the pricing of an American option.
7 This involves using the same tree to calculate the value
of both the American option, fA, and the corresponding European option, fE. The
BlackāScholesāMerton price of the European option, fBSM, is also calculated. The
The Control Variate Technique
- Binomial models for stock prices with dividends are constructed by adding the present value of dividends to the underlying asset price at each node.
- The control variate technique is introduced as a method to significantly improve the accuracy of American option pricing in numerical trees.
- This method assumes that the error between a tree-calculated European price and the Black-Scholes-Merton price is identical to the error in the American price calculation.
- By calculating the difference between European and American prices rather than the American price in isolation, the model achieves results closer to high-step simulations.
- Practical examples demonstrate that the control variate approach can correct a basic tree estimate of 4.49 to a much more accurate 4.25.
The control variate technique in effect involves using the tree to calculate the difference between the European and the American price rather than the American price itself.
The initial value of S* is therefore 50.00. If we assume that the 40% per annum
volatility refers to S*, then Figure 21. 3 provides a binomial tree for S*. (This is
because S* has the same initial value and volatility as the stock price that
Figure 21.3 was based upon.) Adding the present value of the dividend at each
node leads to Figure 21.9, which is a binomial model for S. The probabilities at
each node are, as in Figure 21.3, 0.5073 for an up movement and 0.4927 for a
down movement. Working back through the tree in the usual way gives the
option price as $4.44. (Using 50 time steps, DerivaGem gives a value for the
option of 4.208; using 100 steps it gives 4.214.)
Control Variate Technique
A technique known as the control variate technique can improve the accuracy of the pricing of an American option.
7 This involves using the same tree to calculate the value
of both the American option, fA, and the corresponding European option, fE. The
BlackāScholesāMerton price of the European option, fBSM, is also calculated. The
error when the tree is used to price the European option, fBSM-fE, is assumed equal
to the error when the tree is used to price the American option. This gives the estimate of the price of the American option as
fA+1fBSM-fE2
To illustrate this approach, Figure 21.10 values the option in Figure 21.3 on the assumption that it is European. The price obtained,
fE, is $4.32. From the Blackā
ScholesāMerton formula, the true European price of the option, fBSM, is $4.08. The
7 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe Use of the Control Variate Technique in Option Pricing, ā Journal of
Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 23 (September 1988): 237ā51.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 483 30/04/2021 17:36
484 CHAPTER 21
estimate of the American price in Figure 21.3, fA, is $4.49. The control variate estimate
of the American price, therefore, is
4.49+14.08-4.322=4.25
A good estimate of the American price, calculated using 100 steps, is 4.278. The control
variate approach does, therefore, produce a considerable improvement over the basic tree estimate of 4.49 in this case.
The control variate technique in effect involves using the tree to calculate the
difference between the European and the American price rather than the American price itself. We give a further application of the control variate technique when we
discuss Monte Carlo simulation later in the chapter.Figure 21.9 Tree produced by DerivaGem for Example 21.5.
At each node:
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 50
Discount factor per step 5 0.991 7 89.06
Time step, dt 5 0.0833 years, 30.42 days 0.00
Growth factor per step, a 5 1.0084 79.35
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.5073 0.00
Up step size, u 5 1.1224 72.75 70.70
Down step size, d 5 0.8909 0.00 0.00
65.02 62.99
0.64 0.00
58.14 58.17 56.12
2.161 .30 0.00
52.00 52.03 50.00
4.44 3.77 2.66
46.56 46.60 44.55
6.86 6.38 5.45
41.72 39.69
10.16 10.31
37.41 35.36
14.22 14.64
31.50
18.50
28.07
21.93
Node Time:
0.0000 0.0833 0.1667 0.2500 0.3333 0.4167
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Basic Numerical Procedures 485
Figure 21.10 Tree, as produced by DerivaGem, for European version of option in
Figure 21.3. At each node, the upper number is the stock price, and the lower number
is the option price.
At each node:
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 50
Discount factor per step 5 0.991 7 89.07
Time step, dt 5 0.0833 years, 30.42 days 0.00
Growth factor per step, a 5 1.0084 79.35
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.5073 0.00
Up step size, u 5 1.1224 70.70 70.70
Down step size, d 5 0.8909 0.00 0.00
62.99 62.99
0.64 0.00
56.12 56.12 56.12
2.111 .30 0.00
50.00 50.00 50.00
4.32 3.67 2.66
44.55 44.55 44.55
6.66 6.18 5.45
39.69 39.69
9.86 9.90
35.36 35.36
13.81 14.64
31.50
18.08
Alternative Tree Building Procedures
- The text introduces an alternative to the Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein binomial tree model by fixing the probability of up and down moves at 0.5.
- This alternative method ensures that probabilities remain positive even when time steps are large or volatility is low, avoiding a common drawback of standard models.
- A significant disadvantage of this fixed-probability approach is that the tree is no longer centered at the initial stock price, complicating the calculation of Greeks like delta and gamma.
- The section also introduces trinomial trees, which allow for three possible price movementsāup, middle, and downāat each node to match asset mean and standard deviation.
- Calculations for trinomial trees follow the same backward induction logic as binomial trees, moving from the end of the tree to the beginning.
When time steps are so large that s6ā1r-q22ātā, the Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein tree gives negative probabilities.
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 50
Discount factor per step 5 0.991 7 89.07
Time step, dt 5 0.0833 years, 30.42 days 0.00
Growth factor per step, a 5 1.0084 79.35
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.5073 0.00
Up step size, u 5 1.1224 70.70 70.70
Down step size, d 5 0.8909 0.00 0.00
62.99 62.99
0.64 0.00
56.12 56.12 56.12
2.111 .30 0.00
50.00 50.00 50.00
4.32 3.67 2.66
44.55 44.55 44.55
6.66 6.18 5.45
39.69 39.69
9.86 9.90
35.36 35.36
13.81 14.64
31.50
18.08
28.07
21.93
Node Time:
0.0000 0.0833 0.1667 0.2500 0.3333 0.4167
The Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein approach described so far is not the only way of
building a binomial tree. The change in ln S in time āt in a risk-neutral world has mean
1r-q-s2>22 ā t and standard deviation s2āt. These can be matched by setting
p=0.5 and
u=e1r-q-s2>22ā t+s2āt, d=e1r-q-s2>22 ā t-s2āt
This alternative tree-building procedure has the advantage over the Cox, Ross, and 21.4 ALTERNATIVE PROCEDURES FOR CONSTRUCTING TREES
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 485 30/04/2021 17:36
486 CHAPTER 21
Rubinstein approach that the probabilities are always 0.5 regardless of the value of Ļ or
the number of time steps.8 Its disadvantage is that it is not quite as straightforward to
calculate delta, gamma, and theta from the tree because the tree is no longer centered at
the initial stock price.
Example 21.6
Consider a 9-month American call option on a foreign currency. The foreign
currency is worth 0.7900 when measured in the domestic currency, the strike price
is 0.7950, the domestic risk-free interest rate is 6% per annum, the foreign risk-free
interest rate is 10% per annum, and the volatility of the exchange rate is 4% per
annum. In this case, S0=0.79, K=0.795, r=0.06, rf=0.10, s=0.04, and
8 When time steps are so large that s6ā1r-q22ātā, the Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein tree gives negative
probabilities. The alternative procedure described here does not have that drawback.Figure 21.11 Binomial tree for American call option on a foreign currency. At
each node, upper number is spot exchange rate and lower number is option price. All probabilities are 0.5.
At each node:
Upper value 5 Under lying Asset Price
Lower value 5 Option Price
Shading indicat es wher e option is exercised
Strike price 5 0.795
Discount factor per step 5 0.9851
Time step, dt 5 0.2500 years, 91.25 days
Probabilit y of up move, p 5 0.5000
0.8136
0.0186
0.8056
0.010 6
0.7978 0.781 7
0.0052 0.0000
0.7900 0.7740
0.0026 0.0000
0.7665 0.751 0
0.0000 0.0000
0.7437
0.0000
0.721 6
0.0000
Node Time:
0.0000 0.2500 0.5000 0.7500
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Basic Numerical Procedures 487
T=0.75. Using the alternative tree-building procedure, we set āt=0.25 (3 steps)
and the probabilities on each branch to 0.5, so that
u=e10.06-0.10-0.0016>220.25+0.0420.25=1.0098
d=e10.06-0.10-0.0016>220.25-0.0420.25=0.9703
The tree for the exchange rate is shown in Figure 21. 11. The tree gives the value of
the option as $0.0026.
Trinomial Trees
Trinomial trees can be used as an alternative to binomial trees. The general form of the
tree is as shown in Figure 21.12. Suppose that pu, pm, and pd are the probabilities of
up, middle, and down movements at each node and āt is the length of the time step.
For an asset paying dividends at a rate q, parameter values that match the mean and
standard deviation of changes in ln S are
u=es23āt, d=1>u
pd=-Aāt
12s2 ar-q-s2
2b+1
6, pm=2
3, pu=Aāt
12s2 ar-q-s2
2b+1
6
Calculations for a trinomial tree are analogous to those for a binomial tree. We work from the end of the tree to the beginning. At each node we calculate the value of
Figure 21.12 Trinomial stock price tree.
S0S0 S0S0S0u
S0d S0d
S0dS0u
S0uS0u2S0u3
S0u2
S0d2
S0d2
S0d3
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488 CHAPTER 21
Trinomial Trees and Time-Dependent Parameters
- Trinomial trees offer an alternative to binomial models by allowing for up, middle, and down movements at each node.
- The trinomial approach is mathematically equivalent to the explicit finite difference method used in numerical analysis.
- The adaptive mesh model enhances efficiency by grafting high-resolution trees onto low-resolution ones near critical strike prices.
- Financial parameters like interest rates and volatility can be made time-dependent by using forward values and adjusting time-step lengths.
- To maintain a recombining tree when volatility varies, the length of each time step is made inversely proportional to the average variance rate.
In this, a high-resolution (small- āt) tree is grafted onto a low-resolution (large- āt) tree.
Trinomial trees can be used as an alternative to binomial trees. The general form of the
tree is as shown in Figure 21.12. Suppose that pu, pm, and pd are the probabilities of
up, middle, and down movements at each node and āt is the length of the time step.
For an asset paying dividends at a rate q, parameter values that match the mean and
standard deviation of changes in ln S are
u=es23āt, d=1>u
pd=-Aāt
12s2 ar-q-s2
2b+1
6, pm=2
3, pu=Aāt
12s2 ar-q-s2
2b+1
6
Calculations for a trinomial tree are analogous to those for a binomial tree. We work from the end of the tree to the beginning. At each node we calculate the value of
Figure 21.12 Trinomial stock price tree.
S0S0 S0S0S0u
S0d S0d
S0dS0u
S0uS0u2S0u3
S0u2
S0d2
S0d2
S0d3
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488 CHAPTER 21
exercising and the value of continuing. The value of continuing is
e-rāt1pufu+pmfm+pdfd2
where fu, fm, and fd are the values of the option at the subsequent up, middle, and
down nodes, respectively. The trinomial tree approach proves to be equivalent to the
explicit finite difference method, which will be described in Section 21.8.
Figlewski and Gao have proposed an enhancement of the trinomial tree method,
which they call the adaptive mesh model. In this, a high-resolution (small- āt) tree is
grafted onto a low-resolution (large- āt) tree.9 When valuing a regular American
option, high resolution is most useful for the parts of the tree close to the strike price at the end of the life of the option.
9 See S. Figlewski and B. Gao, āThe Adaptive Mesh Model: A New Approach to Efficient Option Pricing, ā
Journal of Financial Economics, 53 (1999): 313ā51.
10 The forward dividend yield and forward variance rate are calculated in the same way as the forward
interest rate. (The variance rate is the square of the volatility.)
11 For a sufficiently large number of time steps, these probabilities are always positive.Up to now we have assumed that r, q, rf, and s are constants. In practice, they are
usually assumed to be time dependent. The values of these variables between times t
and t+āt are assumed to be equal to their forward values.10
To make r and q (or rf) a function of time in a CoxāRossāRubinstein binomial tree,
we set
a=e3f1t2-g1t24āt (21.11)
for nodes at time t, where f 1t2 is the forward interest rate between times t and t+āt
and g(t) is the forward value of q (or rf) between these times. This does not change the
geometry of the tree because u and d do not depend on a. The probabilities on the
branches emanating from nodes at time t are:11
p=e3f1t2-g1t24ā t-d
u-d (21.12)
1-p=u-e3f1t2-g1t24ā t
u-d
The rest of the way that we use the tree is the same as before, except that when
discounting between times t and t+āt we use f1t2.
Making the volatility, s, a function of time in a binomial tree is more difficult. Suppose
s(t) is the volatility used to price an option with maturity t. One approach is to make the length of each time step inversely proportional to the average variance rate during the time step. The values of u and d are then the same everywhere and the tree recombines.
Define the
V=s1T22T, where T is the life of the tree, and define ti as the end of the ith
time step. For N time steps, we choose ti to satisfy s1ti22ti=iV>N and set u=e2V>N
with d=1>u. The parameter p is defined in terms of u, d, r, and q as for a constant
volatility. This procedure can be combined with the procedure just mentioned for dealing 21.5 TIME-DEPENDENT PARAMETERS
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Basic Numerical Procedures 489
with nonconstant interest rates so that both interest rates and volatilities are time-
dependent.Business Snapshot 21.1 Calculating Pi with Monte Carlo Simulation
Monte Carlo Simulation Fundamentals
- The text describes how to adjust binomial tree parameters to account for time-dependent volatility and interest rates.
- A practical example of Monte Carlo simulation is provided through a dart-throwing experiment to estimate the value of pi.
- Monte Carlo simulation values derivatives by sampling random paths for market variables in a risk-neutral world.
- The process involves calculating the mean of multiple sample payoffs and discounting that value at the risk-free rate.
- To simulate asset paths, the life of a derivative is divided into short intervals using a discrete approximation of a Wiener process.
Imagine that you fire darts randomly at the square and calculate the percentage that lie in the circle.
V=s1T22T, where T is the life of the tree, and define ti as the end of the ith
time step. For N time steps, we choose ti to satisfy s1ti22ti=iV>N and set u=e2V>N
with d=1>u. The parameter p is defined in terms of u, d, r, and q as for a constant
volatility. This procedure can be combined with the procedure just mentioned for dealing 21.5 TIME-DEPENDENT PARAMETERS
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 488 30/04/2021 17:37
Basic Numerical Procedures 489
with nonconstant interest rates so that both interest rates and volatilities are time-
dependent.Business Snapshot 21.1 Calculating Pi with Monte Carlo Simulation
Suppose the sides of the square in Figure 21.13 are one unit in length. Imagine that
you fire darts randomly at the square and calculate the percentage that lie in the circle. What should you find? The square has an area of 1.0 and the circle has a radius of 0.5 The area of the circle is
p times the radius squared or p>4. It follows that
the proportion of darts that lie in the circle should be p>4. We can estimate p by
multiplying the proportion that lie in the circle by 4.
We can use an Excel spreadsheet to simulate the dart throwing as illustrated in
Table 21.1. We define both cell A1 and cell B1 as =RAND( ). A1 and B1 are random
numbers between 0 and 1 and define how far to the right and how high up the dart lands in the square in Figure 21. 13. We then define cell C1 as
=IF1(A1-0.52n2+1B1-0.52n260.5n2,4,02
This has the effect of setting C1 equal to 4 if the dart lies in the circle and 0 otherwise.
Define the next 99 rows of the spreadsheet similarly to the first one. (This is a
āselect and dragā operation in Excel.) Define C102 as =AVERAGE(C1:C100) and
C103 as =STDEV(C1:C100). C102 (which is 3.04 in Table 21. 1) is an estimate of p
calculated from 100 random trials. C103 is the standard deviation of our results and as we will see in Example 21. 7 can be used to assess the accuracy of the estimate.
Increasing the number of trials improves accuracyābut convergence to the correct value of 3.14159 is slow.
We now explain Monte Carlo simulation, a quite different approach for valuing
derivatives from binomial trees. Business Snapshot 21.1 illustrates the random sampling
idea underlying Monte Carlo simulation by showing how a simple Excel program can be constructed to estimate
p.
When used to value an option, Monte Carlo simulation uses the risk-neutral
valuation result. We sample paths to obtain the expected payoff in a risk-neutral world 21.6 MONTE CARLO SIMULATION
Figure 21.13 Calculation of p by throwing darts.
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490 CHAPTER 21
and then discount this payoff at the risk-free rate. Consider a derivative dependent on a
single market variable S that provides a payoff at time T. Assuming that interest rates are constant, we can value the derivative as follows:
1. Sample a random path for S in a risk-neutral world.
2. Calculate the payoff from the derivative.
3. Repeat steps 1 and 2 to get many sample values of the payoff from the derivative
in a risk-neutral world.
4. Calculate the mean of the sample payoffs to get an estimate of the expected payoff in a risk-neutral world.
5. Discount this expected payoff at the risk-free rate to get an estimate of the value of
the derivative.
This is illustrated by the Monte Carlo worksheet in DerivaGem.
Suppose that the process followed by the underlying market variable in a risk-neutral
world is
dS=mnS dt+sS dz (21.13)
where dz is a Wiener process, mn is the expected return in a risk-neutral world, and s is
the volatility.12 To simulate the path followed by S, we can divide the life of the
derivative into N short intervals of length āt and approximate equation (21.13) as
S1t+āt2-S1t2=mnS1t2āt+sS1t2P2āt (21.14)
Monte Carlo Simulation Mechanics
- Monte Carlo simulation estimates derivative values by calculating expected payoffs in a risk-neutral world and discounting them at the risk-free rate.
- Simulating the natural logarithm of the underlying variable is preferred over simulating the price directly because it provides greater mathematical accuracy.
- The primary advantage of this method is its flexibility in handling path-dependent payoffs, such as those based on the average price of an asset over time.
- The procedure can be extended to complex derivatives that depend on multiple correlated market variables by simulating their joint stochastic processes.
- Despite its versatility, the method is computationally intensive and struggles to value options with early exercise opportunities, such as American options.
The key advantage of Monte Carlo simulation is that it can be used when the payoff depends on the path followed by the underlying variable S as well as when it depends only on the final value of S.
5. Discount this expected payoff at the risk-free rate to get an estimate of the value of
the derivative.
This is illustrated by the Monte Carlo worksheet in DerivaGem.
Suppose that the process followed by the underlying market variable in a risk-neutral
world is
dS=mnS dt+sS dz (21.13)
where dz is a Wiener process, mn is the expected return in a risk-neutral world, and s is
the volatility.12 To simulate the path followed by S, we can divide the life of the
derivative into N short intervals of length āt and approximate equation (21.13) as
S1t+āt2-S1t2=mnS1t2āt+sS1t2P2āt (21.14)
where S1t2 denotes the value of S at time t, P is a random sample from a normal
distribution with mean zero and standard deviation of 1.0. This enables the value of S
at time āt to be calculated from the initial value of S, the value at time 2 āt to be
calculated from the value at time āt, and so on. An illustration of the procedure is in
Section 14.3. One simulation trial involves constructing a complete path for S using N
random samples from a normal distribution.A B C
1 0.207 0.690 4
2 0.271 0.520 4
3 0.007 0.221 0
f f f f
100 0.198 0.403 4
101
102 Mean: 3.04
103 SD: 1.69Table 21.1 Sample spreadsheet calculations in
Business Snapshot 21. 1.
12 If S is the price of a non-dividend-paying stock then mn=r, if it is an exchange rate then mn=r-rf, and
so on. Note that the volatility is the same in a risk-neutral world as in the real world, as explained in
Section 13.7.
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Basic Numerical Procedures 491
In practice, it is usually more accurate to simulate ln S rather than S. From ItĆās
lemma the process followed by ln S is
d ln S=amn-s2
2bdt+s dz (21.15)
so that
ln S1t+āt2-ln S1t2=amn-s2
2bāt+sP2āt
or equivalently
S1t+āt2=S1t2expcamn-s2
2bāt+sP2ātd (21.16)
This equation is used to construct a path for S.
Working with ln S rather than S gives more accuracy. Also, if mn and s are constant,
then
ln S1T2-ln S102=amn-s2
2bT+sP2T
is true for all T.13 It follows that
S1T2=S102expcamn-s2
2bT+sP2Td (21.17)
This equation can be used to value derivatives that provide a nonstandard payoff at
time T. As shown in Business Snapshot 21.2, it can also be used to check the Blackā
ScholesāMerton formulas.
The key advantage of Monte Carlo simulation is that it can be used when the
payoff depends on the path followed by the underlying variable S as well as when it
depends only on the final value of S. (For example, it can be used when payoffs
depend on the average value of S between time 0 and time T.) Payoffs can occur at
several times during the life of the derivative rather than all at the end. Any stochastic
process for S can be accommodated. As will be shown shortly, the procedure can also be extended to accommodate situations where the payoff from the derivative depends on several underlying market variables. The drawbacks of Monte Carlo simulation are
that it is computationally very time consuming and cannot easily handle situations where there are early exercise opportunities.
14
Derivatives Dependent on More than One Market Variable
We discussed correlated stochastic processes in Section 14.5. Consider the situation where the payoff from a derivative depends on n variables
ui 11ā¦iā¦n2. Define si as the
volatility of ui, mni as the expected growth rate of ui in a risk-neutral world, and rik as the
correlation between the Wiener processes driving ui and uk.15 As in the single-variable
case, the life of the derivative must be divided into N subintervals of length āt. The
13 By contrast, equation (21. 14) is exactly true only in the limit as āt tends to zero.
14 As discussed in Chapter 27 , a number of researchers have suggested ways Monte Carlo simulation can be
extended to value American options.
15 Note that si, mni, and rik are not necessarily constant; they may depend on the ui.
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492 CHAPTER 21
Monte Carlo Simulation Procedures
- The text outlines the discrete version of stochastic processes used to simulate the paths of multiple correlated variables in a risk-neutral world.
- A practical application is demonstrated through an Excel spreadsheet model that uses the NORMSINV and RAND functions to estimate European call option prices.
- The accuracy of Monte Carlo estimates can be assessed by comparing the mean of simulated payoffs to the theoretical Black-Scholes-Merton price and calculating the standard deviation.
- A specific mathematical procedure is provided for transforming independent normal samples into correlated samples using a series of linear combinations.
- The simulation requires dividing the life of a derivative into small subintervals to approximate continuous Wiener processes.
This corresponds to equation (21.17) and is a random sample from the set of all stock prices at time T.
volatility of ui, mni as the expected growth rate of ui in a risk-neutral world, and rik as the
correlation between the Wiener processes driving ui and uk.15 As in the single-variable
case, the life of the derivative must be divided into N subintervals of length āt. The
13 By contrast, equation (21. 14) is exactly true only in the limit as āt tends to zero.
14 As discussed in Chapter 27 , a number of researchers have suggested ways Monte Carlo simulation can be
extended to value American options.
15 Note that si, mni, and rik are not necessarily constant; they may depend on the ui.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 491 30/04/2021 17:37
492 CHAPTER 21
discrete version of the process for ui is then
ui1t+āt2-ui1t2=mniui1t2 āt+siui1t2Pi2āt (21.18)
where Pi is a random sample from a standard normal distribution. The coefficient of
correlation between Pi and Pk is rik 11ā¦i; kā¦n2. One simulation trial involves obtain-
ing N samples of the Pi 11ā¦iā¦n2 from a multivariate standardized normal distribu-
tion. These are substituted into equation (21.18) to produce simulated paths for each ui,
thereby enabling a sample value for the derivative to be calculated.Business Snapshot 21.2 Checking BlackāScholesāMerton in Excel
The BlackāScholesāMerton formula for a European call option can be checked by
using a binomial tree with a very large number of time steps. An alternative way of checking it is to use Monte Carlo simulation. Table 21. 2 shows a spreadsheet that can
be constructed. The cells C2, D2, E2, F2, and G2 contain
S0, K, r, s, and T , respectively.
Cells D4, E4, and F4 calculate d1, d2, and the BlackāScholesāMerton price, respec-
tively. (The BlackāScholesāMerton price is 4.817 in the sample spreadsheet.)
NORMSINV is the inverse cumulative function for the standard normal distribu-
tion. It follows that NORMSINV(RAND()) gives a random sample from a standard normal distribution. We set cell A1 as
=$C$2*EXP(($E$2 -$F$2*$F$2/2)*$G$2 +$F$2*NORMSINV(RAND( ))*SQRT($G$2))
This corresponds to equation (21.17) and is a random sample from the set of all stock
prices at time T. We set cell B1 as
=EXP1-+E+2*+G+22*MAX1A1-+D+2,02
This is the present value of the payoff from a call option. We define the next 999 rows of the spreadsheet similarly to the first one. (This is a āselect and dragā operation in Excel.) Define B1002 as A VERAGE(B1:B1000), which is 4.98 in the sample spread-sheet. This is an estimate of the value of the option and should be not too far from the BlackāScholesāMerton price. B1003 is defined as STDEV(B1:B1000). As we shall see in Example 21. 8, it can be used to assess the accuracy of the estimate.
A B C D E F G
1 45.95 0 S0 K r s T
2 54.49 4.38 50 50 0.05 0.3 0.5
3 50.09 0.09 d1 d2 BSM price
4 47.46 0 0.2239 0.0118 4.817
5 44.93 0
f f f
1000 68.27 17.82
1001
1002 Mean: 4.98
1003 SD: 7.68Table 21.2 Monte Carlo simulation to check BlackāScholesāMerton.
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Basic Numerical Procedures 493
Generating the Random Samples from Normal Distributions
The instruction =NORMSINV1RAND1 22 in Excel can be used to generate a random
sample from a standard normal distribution, as in Business Snapshot 21.2. When two
correlated samples P1 and P2 from standard normal distributions are required, an
appropriate procedure is as follows. Independent samples x1 and x2 from a univariate
standardized normal distribution are obtained as just described. The required samples
P1 and P2 are then calculated as follows:
P1=x1
P2=rx1+x221-r2
where r is the coefficient of correlation.
More generally, consider the situation where we require n correlated samples from
normal distributions with the correlation between sample i and sample j being rij. We
first sample n independent variables xi 11ā¦iā¦n2, from univariate standardized
normal distributions. The required samples, Pi 11ā¦iā¦n2, are then defined as follows:
P1=a11x1
P2=a21x1+a22x2
P3=a31x1+a32x2+a33x3 (21.19)
Monte Carlo Simulation Techniques
- The Cholesky decomposition is used to generate correlated samples from independent univariate standardized normal distributions.
- The accuracy of a Monte Carlo simulation is determined by the standard error, which is calculated as the standard deviation divided by the square root of the number of trials.
- To increase the accuracy of a simulation by a factor of ten, the number of trials must be increased by a factor of one hundred.
- Monte Carlo simulations can be implemented by sampling random paths through an N-step binomial tree based on defined movement probabilities.
- If the equations for the Cholesky coefficients do not have real solutions, the assumed correlation structure is considered internally inconsistent.
To double the accuracy of a simulation, we must quadruple the number of trials; to increase the accuracy by a factor of 10, the number of trials must increase by a factor of 100; and so on.
standardized normal distribution are obtained as just described. The required samples
P1 and P2 are then calculated as follows:
P1=x1
P2=rx1+x221-r2
where r is the coefficient of correlation.
More generally, consider the situation where we require n correlated samples from
normal distributions with the correlation between sample i and sample j being rij. We
first sample n independent variables xi 11ā¦iā¦n2, from univariate standardized
normal distributions. The required samples, Pi 11ā¦iā¦n2, are then defined as follows:
P1=a11x1
P2=a21x1+a22x2
P3=a31x1+a32x2+a33x3 (21.19)
and so on. We choose the coefficients aij so that the correlations and variances are
correct. This can be done step by step as follows. Set a11=1; choose a21 so that
a21a11=r21; choose a22 so that a2
21+a222=1; choose a31 so that a31a11=r31; choose
a32 so that a31a21+a32a22=r32; choose a33 so that a2
31+a232+a233=1; and so on.16
This procedure is known as the Cholesky decomposition.
Number of Trials
The accuracy of the result given by Monte Carlo simulation depends on the number of
trials. It is usual to calculate the standard deviation as well as the mean of the
discounted payoffs given by the simulation trials. Denote the mean by m and the
standard deviation by v. The variable m is the simulationās estimate of the value of
the derivative. The standard error of the estimate is
v
2M
where M is the number of trials. A 95% confidence interval for the price f of the
derivative is therefore given by
m-1.96v
2M6f6m+1.96v
2M
This shows that uncertainty about the value of the derivative is inversely proportional to the square root of the number of trials. To double the accuracy of a simulation, we
16 If the equations for the aās do not have real solutions, the assumed correlation structure is internally
inconsistent This will be discussed further in Section 23.7.
(+)+*
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494 CHAPTER 21
must quadruple the number of trials; to increase the accuracy by a factor of 10, the
number of trials must increase by a factor of 100; and so on.
Example 21.7
In Table 21.1, p is calculated as the average of 100 numbers. The standard
deviation of the numbers is 1.69. In this case, v=1.69 and M=100, so that
the standard error of the estimate is 1.69>2100=0.169. The spreadsheet
therefore gives a 95% confidence interval for p as 13.04-1.96*0.1692 to
13.04+1.96*0.1692 or 2.71 to 3.37. (The correct value of 3.14159 lies within
this confidence interval.)
Example 21.8
In Table 21.2, the value of the option is calculated as the average of 1000
numbers. The standard deviation of the numbers is 7.68. In this case, v=7.68
and M=1000. The standard error of the estimate is 7.68>21000=0.24. The
spreadsheet therefore gives a 95% confidence interval for the option value as
14.98-1.96*0.242 to 14.98+1.96*0.242, or 4.51 to 5.45. (The BlackāScholesā
Merton price, 4.817, lies within this confidence interval.)
Sampling through a Tree
Instead of implementing Monte Carlo simulation by randomly sampling from the
stochastic process for an underlying variable, we can use an N-step binomial tree and
sample from the 2N paths that are possible. Suppose we have a binomial tree where the
probability of an āupā movement is 0.6. The procedure for sampling a random path
through the tree is as follows. At each node, we sample a random number between 0 and 1. If the number is less than 0.4, we take the down branch. If it is greater than 0.4, we take the up branch. Once we have a complete path from the initial node to the end of the tree, we can calculate a payoff. This completes the first trial. A similar procedure is
used to complete more trials. The mean of the payoffs is discounted at the risk-free rate to get an estimate of the value of the derivative.
17
Example 21.9
Monte Carlo Simulation Methods
- Monte Carlo simulation values derivatives by sampling random paths through a binomial tree and averaging the resulting discounted payoffs.
- The method is particularly effective for Asian options, where the payoff depends on the average stock price over a specific duration rather than just the final price.
- Greek letters and hedge parameters can be estimated by recalculating the simulation with a small incremental change in the underlying variable while keeping other parameters constant.
- This approach is numerically superior to other procedures when dealing with three or more stochastic variables because its computational time increases linearly rather than exponentially.
This is because the time taken to carry out a Monte Carlo simulation increases approximately linearly with the number of variables, whereas the time taken for most other procedures increases exponentially with the number of variables.
stochastic process for an underlying variable, we can use an N-step binomial tree and
sample from the 2N paths that are possible. Suppose we have a binomial tree where the
probability of an āupā movement is 0.6. The procedure for sampling a random path
through the tree is as follows. At each node, we sample a random number between 0 and 1. If the number is less than 0.4, we take the down branch. If it is greater than 0.4, we take the up branch. Once we have a complete path from the initial node to the end of the tree, we can calculate a payoff. This completes the first trial. A similar procedure is
used to complete more trials. The mean of the payoffs is discounted at the risk-free rate to get an estimate of the value of the derivative.
17
Example 21.9
Suppose that the tree in Figure 21.3 is used to value an option that pays off
max 1Save-50, 02, where Save is the average stock price during the 5 months (with
the first and last stock price being included in the average). This is known as an Asian option. When ten simulation trials are used one possible result is shown in Table 21.3. The value of the option is calculated as the average payoff discounted at
the risk-free rate. In this case, the average payoff is $7.08 and the risk-free rate is
10% and so the calculated value is
7.08e-0.1*5>12=6.79. (This illustrates the
methodology. In practice, we would have to use more time steps on the tree and many more simulation trials to get an accurate answer.)
Calculating the Greek Letters
The Greek letters discussed in Chapter 19 can be calculated using Monte Carlo
simulation. Suppose that we are interested in the partial derivative of f with respect
17 See D. Mintz, āLess is More, ā Risk, July 1997: 42ā45, for a discussion of how sampling through a tree can
be made efficient.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 494 30/04/2021 17:37
Basic Numerical Procedures 495
to x, where f is the value of the derivative and x is the value of an underlying variable
or a parameter. First, Monte Carlo simulation is used in the usual way to calculate an
estimate fn for the value of the derivative. A small increase āx is then made in the value
of x, and a new value for the derivative, fn*, is calculated in the same way as fn. An
estimate for the hedge parameter is given by
fn*-fn
āx
In order to minimize the standard error of the estimate, the number of time intervals, N ,
the random samples that are used, and the number of trials, M, should be the same for calculating both
fn and fn*.
Applications
Monte Carlo simulation tends to be numerically more efficient than other procedures when there are three or more stochastic variables. This is because the time taken to
carry out a Monte Carlo simulation increases approximately linearly with the number of variables, whereas the time taken for most other procedures increases exponentially
with the number of variables. One advantage of Monte Carlo simulation is that it can
provide a standard error for the estimates that it makes. Another is that it is an
approach that can accommodate complex payoffs and complex stochastic processes. Also, it can be used when the payoff depends on some function of the whole path
followed by a variable, not just its terminal value.Trial Path Average stock price Option payoff
1 UUUUD 64.98 14.98
2 UUUDD 59.82 9.82
3 DDDUU 42.31 0.00
4 UUUUU 68.04 18.04
5 UUDDU 55.22 5.22
6 UDUUD 55.22 5.22
7 DDUDD 42.31 0.00
8 UUDDU 55.22 5.22
9 UUUDU 62.25 12.25
10 DDUUD 45.56 0.00
Average 7.08Table 21.3 Monte Carlo simulation to value Asian option from
the tree in Figure 21. 3. Payoff is amount by which average stock
price exceeds $50. U=up movement; D=down movement.
If the stochastic processes for the variables underlying a derivative are simulated as
indicated in equations (21.13) to (21.18), a very large number of trials is usually 21.7 VARIANCE REDUCTION PROCEDURES
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496 CHAPTER 21
Variance Reduction in Simulations
- Monte Carlo simulations for derivative pricing often require a massive number of trials to achieve accuracy, making them computationally expensive.
- The antithetic variable technique reduces variance by pairing each simulation trial with a second calculation that uses the opposite sign for all random samples.
- The control variate technique improves estimates by simulating a similar derivative with a known analytic solution alongside the target derivative.
- Importance sampling focuses computational resources on 'important' paths, such as those where deep-out-of-the-money options actually result in a payoff.
- These procedures collectively aim to provide dramatic savings in computation time while maintaining or improving the standard error of the estimate.
This works well because when f1 is above the true value, f2 tends to be below, and vice versa.
9 UUUDU 62.25 12.25
10 DDUUD 45.56 0.00
Average 7.08Table 21.3 Monte Carlo simulation to value Asian option from
the tree in Figure 21. 3. Payoff is amount by which average stock
price exceeds $50. U=up movement; D=down movement.
If the stochastic processes for the variables underlying a derivative are simulated as
indicated in equations (21.13) to (21.18), a very large number of trials is usually 21.7 VARIANCE REDUCTION PROCEDURES
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 495 30/04/2021 17:37
496 CHAPTER 21
necessary to estimate the value of the derivative with reasonable accuracy. This is very
expensive in terms of computation time. In this section, we examine a number of
variance reduction procedures that can lead to dramatic savings in computation time.
Antithetic Variable Technique
In the antithetic variable technique, a simulation trial involves calculating two values of
the derivative. The first value f1 is calculated in the usual way; the second value f2 is
calculated by changing the sign of all the random samples from standard normal
distributions. (If P is a sample used to calculate f1, then -P is the corresponding sample
used to calculate f2.) The sample value of the derivative calculated from a simulation
trial is the average of f1 and f2. This works well because when f1 is above the true
value, f2 tends to be below, and vice versa.
Denote f as the average of f1 and f2:
f=f1+f2
2
The final estimate of the value of the derivative is the average of the fās. If v- is the
standard deviation of the fās, and M is the number of simulation trials (i.e., the number
of pairs of values calculated), then the standard error of the estimate is
v->2M
This is usually much less than the standard error calculated using 2M random trials.
Control Variate Technique
We have already given one example of the control variate technique in connection with
the use of trees to value American options (see Section 21.3). The control variate
technique is applicable when there are two similar derivatives, A and B. Derivative A is
the one being valued; derivative B is similar to derivative A and has an analytic solution available. Two simulations using the same random number streams and the same
āt are
carried out in parallel. The first is used to obtain an estimate f*
A of the value of A; the
second is used to obtain an estimate f*
B, of the value of B. A better estimate fA of the
value of A is then obtained using the formula
fA=f*
A-f*
B+fB (21.20)
where fB is the known true value of B calculated analytically. Hull and White provide
an example of the use of the control variate technique when evaluating the effect of
stochastic volatility on the price of a European call option.18 In this case, A is the
option assuming stochastic volatility and B is the option assuming constant volatility.
Importance Sampling
Importance sampling is best explained with an example. Suppose that we wish to
calculate the price of a deep-out-of-the-money European call option with strike
18 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe Pricing of Options on Assets with Stochastic Volatilities, ā Journal of
Finance, 42 (June 1987): 281 ā300.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 496 30/04/2021 17:37
Basic Numerical Procedures 497
price K and maturity T . If we sample values for the underlying asset price at time T in the
usual way, most of the paths will lead to zero payoff. This is a waste of computation time
because the zero-payoff paths contribute very little to the determination of the value of the option. We therefore try to choose only important paths, that is, paths where the stock price is above K at maturity.
Suppose F is the unconditional probability distribution function for the stock price
at time T and q, the probability of the stock price being greater than K at maturity, is
known analytically. Then
G=F>q is the probability distribution of the stock price
conditional on the stock price being greater than K. To implement importance
Advanced Monte Carlo Sampling Techniques
- Importance sampling focuses computation on paths where the stock price exceeds the strike price, avoiding the waste of calculating zero-payoff scenarios.
- Stratified sampling improves accuracy by dividing a probability distribution into equally likely intervals and selecting representative values from each.
- Moment matching, or quadratic resampling, adjusts samples to ensure they possess the exact mean and standard deviation required by the theoretical distribution.
- Quasi-random sequences, such as Sobol' sequences, fill gaps in probability space more efficiently than random sampling, potentially reducing standard error at a faster rate.
This is a waste of computation time because the zero-payoff paths contribute very little to the determination of the value of the option.
price K and maturity T . If we sample values for the underlying asset price at time T in the
usual way, most of the paths will lead to zero payoff. This is a waste of computation time
because the zero-payoff paths contribute very little to the determination of the value of the option. We therefore try to choose only important paths, that is, paths where the stock price is above K at maturity.
Suppose F is the unconditional probability distribution function for the stock price
at time T and q, the probability of the stock price being greater than K at maturity, is
known analytically. Then
G=F>q is the probability distribution of the stock price
conditional on the stock price being greater than K. To implement importance
sampling, we sample from G rather than F. The estimate of the value of the option
is the average discounted payoff multiplied by q.
Stratified Sampling
Sampling representative values rather than random values from a probability distribu -
tion usually gives more accuracy. Stratified sampling is a way of doing this. Suppose we
wish to take 1000 samples from a probability distribution. We would divide the
distribution into 1000 equally likely intervals and choose a representative value
(typically the mean or median) for each interval.
In the case of a standard normal distribution when there are n intervals, we can
calculate the representative value for the ith interval as
N-1 ai-0.5
nb
where N-1 is the inverse cumulative normal distribution. For example, when n=4 the
representative values corresponding to the four intervals are N-110.1252, N-110.3752,
N-110.6252, N-110.8752. The function N-1 can be calculated using the NORMSINV
function in Excel.
Moment Matching
Moment matching involves adjusting the samples taken from a standardized normal
distribution so that the first, second, and possibly higher moments are matched.
Suppose that we sample from a normal distribution with mean 0 and standard
deviation 1 to calculate the change in the value of a particular variable over a particular
time period. Suppose that the samples are Pi 11ā¦iā¦n2. To match the first two
moments, we calculate the mean of the samples, m, and the standard deviation of
the samples, s. We then define adjusted samples P*i 11ā¦iā¦n2 as
P*i=Pi-m
s
These adjusted samples have the correct mean of 0 and the correct standard deviation of 1.0. We use the adjusted samples for all calculations.
Moment matching saves computation time, but can lead to memory problems
because every number sampled must be stored until the end of the simulation. Moment matching is sometimes termed quadratic resampling. It is often used in conjunction with
the antithetic variable technique. Because the latter automatically matches all odd
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 497 30/04/2021 17:37
498 CHAPTER 21
moments, the goal of moment matching then becomes that of matching the second
moment and, possibly, the fourth moment.
Using Quasi-Random Sequences
A quasi-random sequence (also called a low-discrepancy sequence) is a sequence of representative samples from a probability distribution.
19 Descriptions of the use of
quasi-random sequences appear in Brotherton-Ratcliffe, and Press et al.20 Quasi-random
sequences can have the desirable property that they lead to the standard error of an estimate being proportional to
1>M rather than 1>2M, where M is the sample size.
Quasi-random sampling is similar to stratified sampling. The objective is to sample
representative values for the underlying variables. In stratified sampling, it is assumed that we know in advance how many samples will be taken. A quasi-random sampling procedure is more flexible. The samples are taken in such a way that we are always āfilling inā gaps between existing samples. At each stage of the simulation, the sampled points are roughly evenly spaced throughout the probability space.
Figure 21.14 shows points generated in two dimensions using a procedure by Sobolā.
21
Quasi-Random Sampling and Finite Differences
- Quasi-random sampling, such as the Sobolā sequence, improves upon stratified sampling by flexibly filling gaps in probability space as new points are added.
- Despite the name, quasi-random sequences are entirely deterministic and designed to maintain roughly even spacing throughout a simulation.
- Finite difference methods value derivatives by converting continuous differential equations into discrete difference equations solved over a grid.
- The implicit finite difference method utilizes forward, backward, and central difference approximations to estimate price changes over time and stock price intervals.
The term quasi-random is a misnomer. A quasi-random sequence is totally deterministic.
Quasi-random sampling is similar to stratified sampling. The objective is to sample
representative values for the underlying variables. In stratified sampling, it is assumed that we know in advance how many samples will be taken. A quasi-random sampling procedure is more flexible. The samples are taken in such a way that we are always āfilling inā gaps between existing samples. At each stage of the simulation, the sampled points are roughly evenly spaced throughout the probability space.
Figure 21.14 shows points generated in two dimensions using a procedure by Sobolā.
21
It can be seen that successive points do tend to fill in the gaps left by previous points.
19 The term quasi-random is a misnomer. A quasi-random sequence is totally deterministic.
20 See R. Brotherton-Ratcliffe, āMonte Carlo Motoring, ā Risk, December 1994: 53ā58; W. H. Press, S. A.
Teukolsky, W. T. Vetterling, and B. P . Flannery, Numerical Recipes in C: The Art of Scientific Computing,
2nd edn. Cambridge University Press, 1992.
21 See I. M. Sobolā , USSR Computational Mathematics and Mathematical Physics, 7 , 4 (1967): 86ā112. A
description of Sobolās procedure is in W. H. Press, S. A. Teukolsky, W. T. Vetterling, and B. P . Flannery,
Numerical Recipes in C: The Art of Scientific Computing, 2nd edn. Cambridge University Press, 1992.Finite difference methods value a derivative by solving the differential equation that the
derivative satisfies. The differential equation is converted into a set of difference
equations, and the difference equations are solved iteratively.
To illustrate the approach, we consider how it might be used to value an American
put option on a stock paying a dividend yield of q. The differential equation that the option must satisfy is, from equation (17.6),
0f
0t+1r-q2S 0f
0S+1
2s2S2 02f
0S2=rf (21.21)
Suppose that the life of the option is T. We divide this into N equally spaced intervals
of length āt=T>N. A total of N+1 times are therefore considered
0, āt, 2 āt, c, T
Suppose that Smax is a stock price sufficiently high that, when it is reached, the put has
virtually no value. We define āS=Smax>M and consider a total of M+1 equally
spaced stock prices:
0, āS, 2 āS, c, Smax
The level Smax is chosen so that one of these is the current stock price.21.8 FINITE DIFFERENCE METHODS
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 498 30/04/2021 17:37
Basic Numerical Procedures 499
The time points and stock price points define a grid consisting of a total of
1M+121N+12 points, as shown in Figure 21.15. We define the 1i, j2 point on the grid
as the point that corresponds to time i āt and stock price j āS. We will use the variable
fi, j to denote the value of the option at the 1i, j2 point.
Implicit Finite Difference Method
For an interior point 1i, j2 on the grid, 0f>0S can be approximated as
0f
0S=fi, j+1-fi,j
āS (21.22)
or as
0f
0S=fi, j-fi, j-1
āS (21.23)
Equation (21.22) is known as the forward difference approximation; equation (21.23)
is known as the backward difference approximation. We use a more symmetrical Figure 21.14 First 1,024 points of a Sobolā sequence... ..1.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0 0.2 0.4
Points 1 to 128 Points 129 to 512
Points 513 to 1024 Points 1 to 10240.6 0.8 1.01.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
1.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.01.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 499 30/04/2021 17:37
500 CHAPTER 21
approximation by averaging the two:
0f
0S=fi, j+1-fi, j-1
2 āS (21.24)
For 0f>0t, we will use a forward difference approximation so that the value at time i āt
is related to the value at time 1i+12 āt:
0f
0t=fi+1, j-fi, j
āt (21.25)
Consider next 02f>0S2. The backward difference approximation for 0f>0S at the 1i, j2
point is given by equation (21.23). The backward difference at the 1i, j+12 point is
fi, j+1-fi, j
āS
Hence a finite difference approximation for 02f>0S2 at the 1i, j2 point is
02f
Finite Difference Option Pricing
- The text outlines the mathematical process of approximating partial derivatives using forward, backward, and central difference methods on a discrete grid.
- These approximations are substituted into a differential equation to create a system of simultaneous equations that relate option values at different time steps.
- Boundary conditions are established for a put option, defining its value at the expiration time, at a stock price of zero, and at a maximum stock price.
- The model accounts for early exercise by comparing the calculated grid value against the immediate exercise value at each node, adjusting the price if necessary.
- The final option price is determined by working backward through the time steps until the initial time node is reached.
If fN-1, j < K-j āS, early exercise at time T-āt is optimal and fN-1, j is set equal to K-j āS.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 499 30/04/2021 17:37
500 CHAPTER 21
approximation by averaging the two:
0f
0S=fi, j+1-fi, j-1
2 āS (21.24)
For 0f>0t, we will use a forward difference approximation so that the value at time i āt
is related to the value at time 1i+12 āt:
0f
0t=fi+1, j-fi, j
āt (21.25)
Consider next 02f>0S2. The backward difference approximation for 0f>0S at the 1i, j2
point is given by equation (21.23). The backward difference at the 1i, j+12 point is
fi, j+1-fi, j
āS
Hence a finite difference approximation for 02f>0S2 at the 1i, j2 point is
02f
0S2=afi, j+1-fi, j
āS-fi, j-fi, j-1
āSbnāS
or
02f
0S2=fi, j+1+fi, j-1-2fi, j
āS2 (21.26)
Figure 21.15 Grid for finite difference approach.
Stock price, S
Time, tS
2DS
DS
DtT0max
0
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Basic Numerical Procedures 501
Substituting equations (21.24), (21.25), and (21.26) into the differential equation (21.21)
and noting that S=j āS gives
fi+1, j-fi, j
āt+1r-q2j āS fi, j+1-fi, j-1
2 āS+1
2s2j2 āS2 fi, j+1+fi, j-1-2fi, j
āS2=rfi, j
for j=1, 2, c, M-1 and i=0, 1, c, N-1. Rearranging terms, we obtain
ajfi, j-1+bjfi, j+cjfi, j+1=fi+1, j (21.27)
where
aj=1
21r-q2j āt-1
2s2j2āt
bj=1+s2j2āt+r āt
cj=-1
21r-q2j āt-1
2s2j2āt
The value of the put at time T is max1K-ST, 02, where ST is the stock price at time T.
Hence,
fN, j=max1K-j āS, 02, j=0, 1, c, M (21.28)
The value of the put option when the stock price is zero is K. Hence,
fi, 0=K, i=0, 1, c, N (21.29)
We assume that the put option is worth zero when S=Smax, so that
fi, M=0, i=0, 1, c, N (21.30)
Equations (21.28), (21.29), and (21.30) define the value of the put option along the
three edges of the grid in Figure 21.15, where S=0, S=Smax, and t=T. It remains to
use equation (21.27) to arrive at the value of f at all other points. First the points
corresponding to time T-āt are tackled. Equation (21.27) with i=N-1 gives
ajfN-1, j-1+bjfN-1, j+cjfN-1, j+1=fN, j (21.31)
for j=1, 2, c, M-1. The right-hand sides of these equations are known from
equation (21.28). Furthermore, from equations (21.29) and (21.30),
fN-1, 0=K (21.32)
fN-1, M=0 (21.33)
Equations (21.31) are therefore M-1 simultaneous equations that can be solved for the
M-1 unknowns: fN-1, 1, fN-1, 2, c, fN-1, M-1.22 After this has been done, each value
22 This does not involve inverting a matrix. The j=1 equation in (21.31) can be used to express fN-1, 2 in
terms of fN-1, 1; the j=2 equation, when combined with the j=1 equation, can be used to express fN-1, 3 in
terms of fN-1, 1; and so on. The j=M-2 equation, together with earlier equations, enables fN-1, M-1 to be
expressed in terms of fN-1, 1. The final j=M-1 equation can then be solved for fN-1, 1, which can then be
used to determine the other fN-1, j.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 501 30/04/2021 17:37
502 CHAPTER 21
of fN-1, j is compared with K-j āS. If fN-1, j6K-j āS, early exercise at time
T-āt is optimal and fN-1, j is set equal to K-j āS. The nodes corresponding to
time T-2 āt are handled in a similar way, and so on. Eventually, f0, 1, f0, 2, f0, 3, c,
f0, M-1 are obtained. One of these is the option price of interest.
The control variate technique can be used in conjunction with finite difference
methods. The same grid is used to value an option similar to the one under
consideration but for which an analytic valuation is available. Equation (21.20) is
then used.
Example 21.10
Finite Difference Pricing Methods
- The implicit finite difference method is used to price American options by checking for early exercise at each time step in the grid.
- Control variate techniques can improve accuracy by comparing grid results for European options against their known Black-Scholes-Merton analytic values.
- While the implicit method is robust and always converges, it requires solving multiple simultaneous equations for each time step.
- The explicit finite difference method simplifies calculations by assuming derivative values at one time point are the same as the subsequent point.
- The explicit method provides a direct relationship between one option value at a specific time and three values at the following time step.
The implicit finite difference method has the advantage of being very robust.
of fN-1, j is compared with K-j āS. If fN-1, j6K-j āS, early exercise at time
T-āt is optimal and fN-1, j is set equal to K-j āS. The nodes corresponding to
time T-2 āt are handled in a similar way, and so on. Eventually, f0, 1, f0, 2, f0, 3, c,
f0, M-1 are obtained. One of these is the option price of interest.
The control variate technique can be used in conjunction with finite difference
methods. The same grid is used to value an option similar to the one under
consideration but for which an analytic valuation is available. Equation (21.20) is
then used.
Example 21.10
Table 21.4 shows the result of using the implicit finite difference method as just
described for pricing the American put option in Example 21.1. Values of 20, 10,
and 5 were chosen for M, N, and āS, respectively. Thus, the option price is
evaluated at $5 stock price intervals between $0 and $100 and at half-month time
intervals throughout the life of the option. The option price given by the grid is $4.07. The same grid gives the price of the corresponding European option as $3.91. The true European price given by the BlackāScholesāMerton formula is $4.08. The control variate estimate of the American price is therefore
4.07+14.08-3.912=+4.24
Explicit Finite Difference Method
The implicit finite difference method has the advantage of being very robust. It always converges to the solution of the differential equation as
āS and āt approach zero.23 One
of the disadvantages of the implicit finite difference method is that M-1 simultaneous
equations have to be solved in order to calculate the fi, j from the fi+1, j. The method can
be simplified if the values of 0f>0S and 02f>0S2 at point 1i, j2 on the grid are assumed to
be the same as at point 1i+1, j2. Equations (21.24) and (21.26) then become
0f
0S=fi+1, j+1-fi+1, j-1
2 āS
02f
0S2=fi+1, j+1+fi+1, j-1-2fi+1, j
āS 2
The difference equation is
fi+1, j-fi, j
āt+1r-q2j āS fi+1, j+1-fi+1, j-1
2āS
+1
2s2j2āS2 fi+1, j+1+fi+1, j-1-2fi+1, j
āS2=rfi, j
or
fi, j=a*j fi+1, j-1+b*j fi+1, j+c*jfi+1, j+1 (21.34)
23 A general rule in finite difference methods is that āS should be kept proportional to 2āt as they approach
zero.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 502 30/04/2021 17:37
Basic Numerical Procedures 503
where
a*
j=1
1+r āt(-1
21r-q2j āt+1
2 s2j2 āt)
b*
j=1
1+r āt 11-s2j2 āt2
c*
j=1
1+r āt(1
21r-q2j āt+1
2 s2j2 āt)
This creates what is known as the explicit finite difference method.24 Figure 21.16 shows
the difference between the implicit and explicit methods. The implicit method leads to
equation (21.27), which gives a relationship between three different values of the option at time
i āt (i.e., fi, j-1, fi, j, and fi, j+1) and one value of the option at time 1i+12 āt
(i.e., fi+1, j). The explicit method leads to equation (21.34), which gives a relationship Stock
price
(dollars)Time to maturity (months)
5 4.5 4 3.5 3 2.5 2 1.5 1 0.5 0
100 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
95 0.02 0.02 0.01 0.01 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
90 0.05 0.04 0.03 0.02 0.01 0.01 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
85 0.09 0.07 0.05 0.03 0.02 0.01 0.01 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
80 0.16 0.12 0.09 0.07 0.04 0.03 0.02 0.01 0.00 0.00 0.00
75 0.27 0.22 0.17 0.13 0.09 0.06 0.03 0.02 0.01 0.00 0.00
70 0.47 0.39 0.32 0.25 0.18 0.13 0.08 0.04 0.02 0.00 0.00
65 0.82 0.71 0.60 0.49 0.38 0.28 0.19 0.11 0.05 0.02 0.00
60 1.42 1.27 1.11 0.95 0.78 0.62 0.45 0.30 0.16 0.05 0.00
55 2.43 2.24 2.05 1.83 1.61 1.36 1.09 0.81 0.51 0.22 0.00
50 4.07 3.88 3.67 3.45 3.19 2.91 2.57 2.17 1.66 0.99 0.00
45 6.58 6.44 6.29 6.13 5.96 5.77 5.57 5.36 5.17 5.02 5.00
40 10.15 10.10 10.05 10.01 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00
35 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00
30 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00
25 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00
20 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00
Finite Difference Pricing Methods
- The text compares implicit and explicit finite difference methods for valuing American options within a grid-based framework.
- Implicit methods relate one value at a specific time to three values at a later time, while explicit methods reverse this relationship.
- Computational efficiency is significantly improved by using a change of variable, substituting the natural log of the stock price for the stock price itself.
- The explicit method can sometimes produce negative numbers or inconsistencies in the grid, which are noted as requiring further explanation.
- Mathematical formulas are provided to transform the Black-Scholes-Merton differential equation into discrete difference equations for grid evaluation.
The negative numbers and other inconsistencies in the top left-hand part of the grid will be explained later.
55 2.43 2.24 2.05 1.83 1.61 1.36 1.09 0.81 0.51 0.22 0.00
50 4.07 3.88 3.67 3.45 3.19 2.91 2.57 2.17 1.66 0.99 0.00
45 6.58 6.44 6.29 6.13 5.96 5.77 5.57 5.36 5.17 5.02 5.00
40 10.15 10.10 10.05 10.01 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00
35 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00
30 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00
25 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00
20 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00
15 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00
10 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00
5 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00
0 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00Table 21.4 Grid to value American option in Example 21. 1 using implicit finite
difference methods.
24 We also obtain the explicit finite difference method if we use the backward difference approximation
instead of the forward difference approximation for 0f>0t.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 503 30/04/2021 17:37
504 CHAPTER 21
between one value of the option at time i āt (i.e., fi, j) and three different values of the
option at time 1i+12 āt (i.e., fi+1, j-1, fi+1, j, fi+1, j+1).
Example 21.11
Table 21.5 shows the result of using the explicit version of the finite difference
method for pricing the American put option described in Example 21.1. As in
Example 21.10, values of 20, 10, and 5 were chosen for M , N, and āS, respec-
tively. The option price given by the grid is $4.26.25
Change of Variable
When geometric Brownian motion is used for the underlying asset price, it is compu-tationally more efficient to use finite difference methods with ln S rather than S as the underlying variable. Define
Z=ln S. Equation (21.21) becomes
0f
0t+ar-q-s2
2b 0f
0Z+1
2s2 02f
0Z2=rf
The grid then evaluates the derivative for equally spaced values of Z rather than for equally spaced values of S. The difference equation for the implicit method becomes
fi+1, j-fi, j
āt+1r-q-s2>22 fi, j+1-fi, j-1
2āZ+1
2 s2 fi, j+1+fi, j-1-2fi, j
āZ2=r fi, j
or
aj fi, j-1+bj fi, j+gj fi, j+1=fi+1, j (21.35)Figure 21.16 Difference between implicit and explicit finite difference methods.
fi, j 11
fi, j 21
Implicit finite
difference methodExplicit finite
difference methodfi 11, j fi 11, j fi 11, j 1 1
fi 11, j 2 1 fi j fi j
25 The negative numbers and other inconsistencies in the top left-hand part of the grid will be explained later.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 504 30/04/2021 17:37
Basic Numerical Procedures 505
where
aj=āt
2 āZ 1r-q-s2>22-āt
2āZ2 s2
bj=1+āt
āZ2 s2+r āt
gj=-āt
2 āZ 1r-q-s2>22-āt
2āZ2 s2
The difference equation for the explicit method becomes
fi+1, j-fi, j
āt+1r-q-s2>22 fi+1, j+1-fi+1, j-1
2āZ+1
2s2 fi+1, j+1+fi+1, j-1-2fi+1, j
āZ2=rfi, j
or
a*j fi+1, j-1+b*
j fi+1, j+g*j fi+1, j+1=fi, j (21.36)Stock
price
(dollars)Time to maturity (months)
5 4.5 4 3.5 3 2.5 2 1.5 1 0.5 0
100 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
95 0.06 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
90 -0.110.05 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
85 0.28-0.050.05 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
80 -0.130.20 0.00 0.05 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
75 0.46 0.06 0.20 0.04 0.06 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
70 0.32 0.46 0.23 0.25 0.10 0.09 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
65 0.91 0.68 0.63 0.44 0.37 0.21 0.14 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
60 1.48 1.37 1.17 1.02 0.81 0.65 0.42 0.27 0.00 0.00 0.00
55 2.59 2.39 2.21 1.99 1.77 1.50 1.24 0.90 0.59 0.00 0.00
50 4.26 4.08 3.89 3.68 3.44 3.18 2.87 2.53 2.07 1.56 0.00
45 6.76 6.61 6.47 6.31 6.15 5.96 5.75 5.50 5.24 5.00 5.00
40 10.28 10.20 10.13 10.06 10.01 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00
35 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00
30 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00
Finite Difference Methods and Trees
- The explicit finite difference method is mathematically equivalent to a trinomial tree approach for valuing options.
- Option values are calculated by determining the expected value of future prices in a risk-neutral world, discounted at the risk-free rate.
- A critical weakness of the explicit method is that its underlying 'probabilities' can become negative, leading to inconsistent results and negative prices.
- Using a change-of-variable approach where Z equals the natural log of S can help stabilize the probabilities across different stock price levels.
Because the probabilities in the associated tree may be negative, it does not necessarily produce results that converge to the solution of the differential equation.
70 0.32 0.46 0.23 0.25 0.10 0.09 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
65 0.91 0.68 0.63 0.44 0.37 0.21 0.14 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
60 1.48 1.37 1.17 1.02 0.81 0.65 0.42 0.27 0.00 0.00 0.00
55 2.59 2.39 2.21 1.99 1.77 1.50 1.24 0.90 0.59 0.00 0.00
50 4.26 4.08 3.89 3.68 3.44 3.18 2.87 2.53 2.07 1.56 0.00
45 6.76 6.61 6.47 6.31 6.15 5.96 5.75 5.50 5.24 5.00 5.00
40 10.28 10.20 10.13 10.06 10.01 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00 10.00
35 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00 15.00
30 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00 20.00
25 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00 25.00
20 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00 30.00
15 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00 35.00
10 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00 40.00
5 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00 45.00
0 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00 50.00Table 21.5 Grid to value American option in Example 21. 1 using explicit finite
difference methods.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 505 30/04/2021 17:37
506 CHAPTER 21
where
a*
j=1
1+rāt c-āt
2āZ 1r-q-s2>22+āt
2āZ2 s2d (21.37)
b*
j=1
1+rāt a1-āt
āZ2 s2b (21.38)
g*
j=1
1+rāt cāt
2āZ 1r-q-s2>22+āt
2āZ2 s2d (21.39)
The change of variable approach has the property that aj, bj, and gj as well as a*j, b*j,
and g*j are independent of j. In most cases, a good choice for āZ is s23āt.
Relation to Trinomial Tree Approaches
The explicit finite difference method is equivalent to the trinomial tree approach.26 In
the expressions for a*
j, b*
j, and c*
j in equation (21.34), we can interpret terms as follows:
-1
21r-q2j āt+1
2 s2j2āt: Probability of stock price decreasing from
jāS to 1j-12āS in time āt.
1-s2j2āt: Probability of stock price remaining unchanged
at jāS in time āt.
1
21r-q2j āt+1
2 s2j2āt: Probability of stock price increasing from
jāS to 1j+12āS in time āt.
This interpretation is illustrated in Figure 21.17. The three probabilities sum to unity. They give the expected increase in the stock price in time
āt as 1r-q2j āS āt =
1r-q2S āt. This is the expected increase in a risk-neutral world. For small values
26 It can also be shown that the implicit finite difference method is equivalent to a multinomial tree approach
where there are M+1 branches emanating from each node.Figure 21.17 Interpretation of explicit finite difference method as a trinomial tree.
s j Dt221 āfi 1 1, j 1 1
fi 1 1, j 2 1fi 1 1, j fij1ā2(r 2 q) jDt 1 1ā2 s2j2Dt
ā1ā2(r ā q) jDt + 1ā2s2j2Dt
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 506 30/04/2021 17:37
Basic Numerical Procedures 507
of āt, they also give the variance of the change in the stock price in time āt as
s2j2āS2āt=s2S2āt. This corresponds to the stochastic process followed by S. The
value of f at time i āt is calculated as the expected value of f at time 1i+12 āt in a
risk-neutral world discounted at the risk-free rate.
For the explicit version of the finite difference method to work well, the three
āprobabilitiesā
-1
21r-q)j āt+1
2 s2j2āt,
1-s2j2āt
1
21r-q2j āt+1
2 s2j2āt
should all be positive. In Example 21.11, 1-s2j2āt is negative when jĆ13 (i.e., when
SĆ65). This explains the negative option prices and other inconsistencies in the top
left-hand part of Table 21.5. This example illustrates the main problem associated with
the explicit finite difference method. Because the probabilities in the associated tree may be negative, it does not necessarily produce results that converge to the solution of the differential equation.
27
When the change-of-variable approach is used (see equations (21.36) to (21.39)), the
probability that Z=ln S will decrease by āZ, stay the same, and increase by āZ are
-āt
2āZ 1r-q-s2>22+āt
2āZ2 s2
1-āt
āZ2 s2
āt
2āZ 1r-q-s2>22+āt
2āZ2 s2
Finite Difference Methods
- The explicit finite difference method can fail to converge when probabilities in the associated tree become negative, leading to inconsistent option prices.
- Using a change-of-variable approach, such as converting the grid to natural logarithms of the stock price, can ensure convergence and align the model with trinomial trees.
- Advanced techniques like the hopscotch method and the CrankāNicolson method offer improved computational efficiency by combining explicit and implicit calculations.
- Finite difference methods are versatile enough to price American-style derivatives and calculate Greek letters, though they struggle with path-dependent payoffs.
- While effective for multiple state variables, these methods require significantly more computer time as the grid becomes multidimensional.
Because the probabilities in the associated tree may be negative, it does not necessarily produce results that converge to the solution of the differential equation.
should all be positive. In Example 21.11, 1-s2j2āt is negative when jĆ13 (i.e., when
SĆ65). This explains the negative option prices and other inconsistencies in the top
left-hand part of Table 21.5. This example illustrates the main problem associated with
the explicit finite difference method. Because the probabilities in the associated tree may be negative, it does not necessarily produce results that converge to the solution of the differential equation.
27
When the change-of-variable approach is used (see equations (21.36) to (21.39)), the
probability that Z=ln S will decrease by āZ, stay the same, and increase by āZ are
-āt
2āZ 1r-q-s2>22+āt
2āZ2 s2
1-āt
āZ2 s2
āt
2āZ 1r-q-s2>22+āt
2āZ2 s2
respectively. These movements in Z correspond to the stock price changing from S to
Se-āZ, S, and SeāZ, respectively. If we set āZ=s23āt, then the tree and the
probabilities are identical to those for the trinomial tree approach discussed in
Section 21.4.
Other Finite Difference Methods
Researchers have proposed other finite difference methods which are in many circum-stances more computationally efficient than either the pure explicit or pure implicit method.
In what is known as the hopscotch method, we alternate between the explicit and
implicit calculations as we move from node to node. This is illustrated in Figure 21.18. At each time, we first do all the calculations at the āexplicit nodesā (E) in the usual way.
The āimplicit nodesā (I) can then be handled without solving a set of simultaneous equations because the values at the adjacent nodes have already been calculated.
27 J. C. Hull and A. White, āValuing Derivative Securities Using the Explicit Finite Difference Method, ā
Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 25 (March 1990): 87ā100, show how this problem can be
overcome. In the situation considered here it is sufficient to construct the grid in ln S rather than S to ensure
convergence.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 507 30/04/2021 17:37
508 CHAPTER 21
In the CrankāNicolson method, the estimate of
fi+1, j-fi, j
āt
is set equal to an average of that given by the implicit and the explicit methods.
Applications of Finite Difference Methods
Finite difference methods can be used for the same types of derivative pricing problems
as tree approaches. They can handle American-style as well as European-style deriva-tives but cannot easily be used in situations where the payoff from a derivative depends on the past history of the underlying variable. Finite difference methods can, at the expense of a considerable increase in computer time, be used when there are several state variables. The grid in Figure 21.15 then becomes multidimensional.
The method for calculating Greek letters is similar to that used for trees. Delta,
gamma, and theta can be calculated directly from the
fi, j values on the grid. For vega,
it is necessary to make a small change to volatility and recalculate the value of the derivative using the same grid.
SUMMARY
We have presented three different numerical procedures for valuing derivatives when no
analytic solution is available. These involve the use of trees, Monte Carlo simulation, and finite difference methods.
Binomial trees assume that, in each short interval of time
āt, a stock price either moves
up by a multiplicative amount u or down by a multiplicative amount d. The sizes of u Figure 21.18 The hopscotch method. I indicates node at which implicit calculations
are done; E indicates node at which explicit calculations are done.
Asset
price
Boundary
Boundary
Boundary TimeII
I
I I III E
EE
EEEE
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Basic Numerical Procedures 509
Basic Numerical Procedures
- Binomial trees model stock price movements as discrete up or down steps to calculate derivative prices by working backward from the expiration date.
- Monte Carlo simulation uses random sampling of potential asset paths in a risk-neutral world to estimate derivative values through averaged discounted payoffs.
- Finite difference methods convert differential equations into difference equations, with the implicit method offering superior convergence stability over the explicit method.
- The choice of numerical method depends on the derivative's complexity; Monte Carlo is better for high-dimensional variables, while trees and finite difference methods are preferred for American-style options.
- Tree and finite difference approaches struggle with path-dependent payoffs or scenarios involving three or more underlying variables due to computational intensity.
For an American option, the value at a node is the greater of (a) the value if it is exercised immediately and (b) the discounted expected value if it is held for a further period of time āt.
analytic solution is available. These involve the use of trees, Monte Carlo simulation, and finite difference methods.
Binomial trees assume that, in each short interval of time
āt, a stock price either moves
up by a multiplicative amount u or down by a multiplicative amount d. The sizes of u Figure 21.18 The hopscotch method. I indicates node at which implicit calculations
are done; E indicates node at which explicit calculations are done.
Asset
price
Boundary
Boundary
Boundary TimeII
I
I I III E
EE
EEEE
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 508 30/04/2021 17:37
Basic Numerical Procedures 509
and d and their associated probabilities are chosen so that the change in the stock price
has the correct mean and standard deviation in a risk-neutral world. Derivative prices are
calculated by starting at the end of the tree and working backward. For an American option, the value at a node is the greater of (a) the value if it is exercised immediately and (b) the discounted expected value if it is held for a further period of time
āt.
Monte Carlo simulation involves using random numbers to sample many different
paths that the variables underlying the derivative could follow in a risk-neutral world. For each path, the payoff is calculated and discounted at the risk-free interest rate. The arithmetic average of the discounted payoffs is the estimated value of the derivative.
Finite difference methods solve the underlying differential equation by converting it
to a difference equation. They are similar to tree approaches in that the computations work back from the end of the life of the derivative to the beginning. The explicit finite difference method is functionally the same as using a trinomial tree. The implicit finite difference method is more complicated but has the advantage that the user does not have to take any special precautions to ensure convergence.
In practice, the method that is chosen is likely to depend on the characteristics of the
derivative being evaluated and the accuracy required. Monte Carlo simulation works forward from the beginning to the end of the life of a derivative. It can be used for European-style derivatives and can cope with a great deal of complexity as far as the payoffs are concerned. It becomes relatively more efficient as the number of underlying variables increases. Tree approaches and finite difference methods work from the end of
the life of a security to the beginning and can accommodate American-style as well as
European-style derivatives. However, they are difficult to apply when the payoffs depend on the past history of the state variables as well as on their current values.
Also, they are liable to become computationally very time consuming when three or more variables are involved.
FURTHER READING
General
Clewlow, L., and C. Strickland, Implementing Derivatives Models. Chichester: Wiley, 1998.Press, W. H., S. A. Teukolsky, W. T. Vetterling, and B. P. Flannery, Numerical Recipes in C: The
Art of Scientific Computing, 3rd edn. Cambridge University Press, 2007.
On Tree ApproachesCox, J. C, S. A. Ross, and M. Rubinstein. āOption Pricing: A Simplified Approach,ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 7 (October 1979): 229ā64.
Figlewski, S., and B. Gao. āThe Adaptive Mesh Model: A New Approach to Efficient Option
Pricing,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 53 (1999): 313ā51.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āThe Use of the Control Variate Technique in Option Pricing,ā
Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 23 (September 1988): 237ā51.
Rendleman, R., and B. Bartter, āTwo State Option Pricing,ā Journal of Finance, 34 (1979):
1092ā1110.
On Monte Carlo SimulationBoyle, P. P., āOptions: A Monte Carlo Approach,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 4 (1977):
323ā38.
Boyle, P. P., M. Broadie, and P. Glasserman. āMonte Carlo Methods for Security Pricing,ā
Journal of Economic Dynamics and Control, 21 (1997): 1267ā1322.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 509 30/04/2021 17:37
510 CHAPTER 21
Quantitative Finance Literature Review
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of foundational research in derivative modeling and scientific computing.
- Key literature on tree-based approaches highlights the evolution of option pricing from simplified models to adaptive meshes.
- The references for Monte Carlo simulation trace the development of security pricing from its 1977 origins to enhanced estimates for American options.
- Finite difference methods are represented by seminal works focusing on explicit valuation techniques and the broader practice of financial engineering.
- The collection serves as a roadmap for the mathematical techniques used to value complex financial instruments.
Numerical Recipes in C: The Art of Scientific Computing, 3rd edn.
Clewlow, L., and C. Strickland, Implementing Derivatives Models. Chichester: Wiley, 1998.Press, W. H., S. A. Teukolsky, W. T. Vetterling, and B. P. Flannery, Numerical Recipes in C: The
Art of Scientific Computing, 3rd edn. Cambridge University Press, 2007.
On Tree ApproachesCox, J. C, S. A. Ross, and M. Rubinstein. āOption Pricing: A Simplified Approach,ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 7 (October 1979): 229ā64.
Figlewski, S., and B. Gao. āThe Adaptive Mesh Model: A New Approach to Efficient Option
Pricing,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 53 (1999): 313ā51.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āThe Use of the Control Variate Technique in Option Pricing,ā
Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 23 (September 1988): 237ā51.
Rendleman, R., and B. Bartter, āTwo State Option Pricing,ā Journal of Finance, 34 (1979):
1092ā1110.
On Monte Carlo SimulationBoyle, P. P., āOptions: A Monte Carlo Approach,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 4 (1977):
323ā38.
Boyle, P. P., M. Broadie, and P. Glasserman. āMonte Carlo Methods for Security Pricing,ā
Journal of Economic Dynamics and Control, 21 (1997): 1267ā1322.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 509 30/04/2021 17:37
510 CHAPTER 21
Broadie, M., P. Glasserman, and G. Jain. āEnhanced Monte Carlo Estimates for American
Option Prices,ā Journal of Derivatives, 5 (Fall 1997): 25ā44.
On Finite Difference Methods
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āValuing Derivative Securities Using the Explicit Finite Difference
Method,ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 25 (March 1990): 87ā100.
Wilmott, P., Derivatives: The Theory and Practice of Financial Engineering. Chichester: Wiley,
1998.
Practice Questions
Numerical Procedures for Options
- The text provides academic references for advanced Monte Carlo estimates and finite difference methods in option pricing.
- Practice questions focus on the application of binomial trees to value American options on stocks and futures.
- The material addresses technical challenges such as non-recombining trees for dividend-paying stocks and the limitations of Monte Carlo simulations for American-style derivatives.
- Specific exercises require calculating Greeks like delta and gamma using discrete time-step models.
- The section explores complex payoff structures, including options based on average stock prices and the use of control variate techniques.
For a dividend-paying stock, the tree for the stock price does not recombine; but the tree for the stock price less the present value of future dividends does recombine.
M21_HULL0654_11_GE_C21.indd 509 30/04/2021 17:37
510 CHAPTER 21
Broadie, M., P. Glasserman, and G. Jain. āEnhanced Monte Carlo Estimates for American
Option Prices,ā Journal of Derivatives, 5 (Fall 1997): 25ā44.
On Finite Difference Methods
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āValuing Derivative Securities Using the Explicit Finite Difference
Method,ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 25 (March 1990): 87ā100.
Wilmott, P., Derivatives: The Theory and Practice of Financial Engineering. Chichester: Wiley,
1998.
Practice Questions
21.1. Which of the following can be estimated for an American option by constructing a single
binomial tree: delta, gamma, vega, theta, rho?
21.2. Calculate the price of a 3-month American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $60, the strike price is $60, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, and the volatility is 45% per annum. Use a binomial tree with a time interval of
1 month.
21.3. Explain how the control variate technique is implemented when a tree is used to value American options.
21.4. Calculate the price of a 9-month American call option on corn futures when the current futures price is 198 cents, the strike price is 200 cents, the risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum, and the volatility is 30% per annum. Use a binomial tree with a time interval of
3 months.
21.5. Consider an option that pays off the amount by which the final stock price exceeds the average stock price achieved during the life of the option. Can this be valued using the binomial tree approach? Explain your answer.
21.6. āFor a dividend-paying stock, the tree for the stock price does not recombine; but the
tree for the stock price less the present value of future dividends does recombine.ā
Explain this statement.
21.7. Show that the probabilities in a Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein binomial tree are negative when the condition in footnote 8 holds.
21.8. Use stratified sampling with 100 trials to improve the estimate of p in Business Snap-
shot 21.1 and Table 21.1.
21.9. Explain why the Monte Carlo simulation approach cannot easily be used for American-
style derivatives.
21.10. A 9-month American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock has a strike price of
$49. The stock price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5% per annum, and the volatility is 30%
per annum. Use a three-step binomial tree to calculate the option price.
21.11. Use a three-time-step binomial tree to value a 9-month American call option on wheat
futures. The current futures price is 400 cents, the strike price is 420 cents, the risk-free rate
is 6%, and the volatility is 35% per annum. Estimate the delta of the option from your tree.
21.12. A 3-month American call option on a stock has a strike price of $20. The stock price is $20,
the risk-free rate is 3% per annum, and the volatility is 25% per annum. A dividend of $2 is
expected in 1.5 months. Use a three-step binomial tree to calculate the option price.
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Basic Numerical Procedures 511
Numerical Procedures for Option Valuation
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on valuing American options using binomial trees and finite difference methods.
- It explores the technical challenges of modeling dividend-paying stocks, noting that trees for stock prices less the present value of dividends are more likely to recombine.
- The exercises highlight the limitations of Monte Carlo simulations for American-style derivatives compared to European-style options.
- Advanced numerical efficiency techniques, such as control variates, antithetic variables, and stratified sampling, are introduced to refine option price estimates.
- Specific applications are provided for diverse underlying assets, including corn futures, wheat futures, stock indices, and currencies.
Explain why the Monte Carlo simulation approach cannot easily be used for American-style derivatives.
21.1. Which of the following can be estimated for an American option by constructing a single
binomial tree: delta, gamma, vega, theta, rho?
21.2. Calculate the price of a 3-month American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $60, the strike price is $60, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, and the volatility is 45% per annum. Use a binomial tree with a time interval of
1 month.
21.3. Explain how the control variate technique is implemented when a tree is used to value American options.
21.4. Calculate the price of a 9-month American call option on corn futures when the current futures price is 198 cents, the strike price is 200 cents, the risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum, and the volatility is 30% per annum. Use a binomial tree with a time interval of
3 months.
21.5. Consider an option that pays off the amount by which the final stock price exceeds the average stock price achieved during the life of the option. Can this be valued using the binomial tree approach? Explain your answer.
21.6. āFor a dividend-paying stock, the tree for the stock price does not recombine; but the
tree for the stock price less the present value of future dividends does recombine.ā
Explain this statement.
21.7. Show that the probabilities in a Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein binomial tree are negative when the condition in footnote 8 holds.
21.8. Use stratified sampling with 100 trials to improve the estimate of p in Business Snap-
shot 21.1 and Table 21.1.
21.9. Explain why the Monte Carlo simulation approach cannot easily be used for American-
style derivatives.
21.10. A 9-month American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock has a strike price of
$49. The stock price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5% per annum, and the volatility is 30%
per annum. Use a three-step binomial tree to calculate the option price.
21.11. Use a three-time-step binomial tree to value a 9-month American call option on wheat
futures. The current futures price is 400 cents, the strike price is 420 cents, the risk-free rate
is 6%, and the volatility is 35% per annum. Estimate the delta of the option from your tree.
21.12. A 3-month American call option on a stock has a strike price of $20. The stock price is $20,
the risk-free rate is 3% per annum, and the volatility is 25% per annum. A dividend of $2 is
expected in 1.5 months. Use a three-step binomial tree to calculate the option price.
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Basic Numerical Procedures 511
21.13. A 1-year American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock has an exercise price of
$18. The current stock price is $20, the risk-free interest rate is 15% per annum, and the
volatility of the stock price is 40% per annum. Use the DerivaGem software with four 3-month time steps to estimate the value of the option. Display the tree and verify that the option prices at the final and penultimate nodes are correct. Use DerivaGem to value
the European version of the option. Use the control variate technique to improve your estimate of the price of the American option.
21.14. A 2-month American put option on a stock index has an exercise price of 480. The
current level of the index is 484, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, the
dividend yield on the index is 3% per annum, and the volatility of the index is 25%
per annum. Divide the life of the option into four half-month periods and use the tree
approach to estimate the value of the option.
21.15. How can the control variate approach improve the estimate of the delta of an American
option when the tree approach is used?
21.16. Suppose that Monte Carlo simulation is being used to evaluate a European call option
on a non-dividend-paying stock when the volatility is stochastic. How could the control
variate and antithetic variable technique be used to improve numerical efficiency?
Explain why it is necessary to calculate six values of the option in each simulation trial
when both the control variate and the antithetic variable technique are used.
21.17. How do equations (21.27) to (21.30) change when the implicit finite difference method is
being used to evaluate an American call option on a currency?
21.18. An American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock has 4 months to maturity. The
exercise price is $21, the stock price is $20, the risk-free rate of interest is 10% per
annum, and the volatility is 30% per annum. Use the explicit version of the finite
difference approach to value the option. Use stock price intervals of $4 and time
intervals of 1 month.
21.19. The spot price of copper is $0.60 per pound. Suppose that the futures prices (dollars per
Numerical Methods in Option Pricing
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on valuing American and European options using binomial trees and finite difference methods.
- It explores the application of variance reduction techniques, such as control variates and antithetic variables, to improve the efficiency of Monte Carlo simulations.
- Specific exercises address the valuation of complex instruments including stock indices, commodity futures like copper, and convertible bonds.
- The problems require the determination of boundary conditions for derivative prices and the adjustment of formulas for stochastic volatility and dividend yields.
Explain why it is necessary to calculate six values of the option in each simulation trial when both the control variate and the antithetic variable technique are used.
21.13. A 1-year American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock has an exercise price of
$18. The current stock price is $20, the risk-free interest rate is 15% per annum, and the
volatility of the stock price is 40% per annum. Use the DerivaGem software with four 3-month time steps to estimate the value of the option. Display the tree and verify that the option prices at the final and penultimate nodes are correct. Use DerivaGem to value
the European version of the option. Use the control variate technique to improve your estimate of the price of the American option.
21.14. A 2-month American put option on a stock index has an exercise price of 480. The
current level of the index is 484, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, the
dividend yield on the index is 3% per annum, and the volatility of the index is 25%
per annum. Divide the life of the option into four half-month periods and use the tree
approach to estimate the value of the option.
21.15. How can the control variate approach improve the estimate of the delta of an American
option when the tree approach is used?
21.16. Suppose that Monte Carlo simulation is being used to evaluate a European call option
on a non-dividend-paying stock when the volatility is stochastic. How could the control
variate and antithetic variable technique be used to improve numerical efficiency?
Explain why it is necessary to calculate six values of the option in each simulation trial
when both the control variate and the antithetic variable technique are used.
21.17. How do equations (21.27) to (21.30) change when the implicit finite difference method is
being used to evaluate an American call option on a currency?
21.18. An American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock has 4 months to maturity. The
exercise price is $21, the stock price is $20, the risk-free rate of interest is 10% per
annum, and the volatility is 30% per annum. Use the explicit version of the finite
difference approach to value the option. Use stock price intervals of $4 and time
intervals of 1 month.
21.19. The spot price of copper is $0.60 per pound. Suppose that the futures prices (dollars per
pound) are as follows:
3 months 0.59
6 months 0.57
9 months 0.54
12 months 0.50
The volatility of the price of copper is 40% per annum and the risk-free rate is 6% per
annum. Use a binomial tree to value an American call option on copper with an
exercise price of $0.60 and a time to maturity of 1 year. Divide the life of the option
into four 3-month periods for the purposes of constructing the tree. (Hint : As explained in Section 18. 6, the futures price of a variable is its expected future price in a risk-
neutral world.)
21.20. Use the binomial tree in Problem 21.19 to value a security that pays off
x2 in 1 year
where x is the price of copper.
21.21. When do the boundary conditions for S=0 and SSā affect the estimates of
derivative prices in the explicit finite difference method?
21.22. How would you use the antithetic variable method to improve the estimate of the
European option in Business Snapshot 21.2 and Table 21.2?
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512 CHAPTER 21
21.23. A company has issued a 3-year convertible bond that has a face value of $25 and can be
exchanged for two of the companyās shares at any time. The company can call the issue, forcing conversion, when the share price is greater than or equal to $18. Assuming that
the company will force conversion at the earliest opportunity, what are the boundary conditions for the price of the convertible? Describe how you would use finite difference methods to value the convertible assuming constant interest rates. Assume there is no
risk of the company defaulting.
21.24. Provide formulas that can be used for obtaining three random samples from standard
normal distributions when the correlation between sample i and sample j is
Financial Derivatives Numerical Exercises
- The text presents complex problems for valuing convertible bonds using finite difference methods and boundary conditions.
- Several exercises focus on the application of binomial and trinomial trees to price American options on currencies and futures.
- The material explores the control variate technique as a method to improve the accuracy of American option price estimates.
- Practical software applications are discussed, specifically using DerivaGem to analyze how option prices converge as time steps increase.
- Mathematical proofs are required to show consistency between tree models and the mean and variance of stock price logarithms.
Use the control variate technique to improve your estimate of the price of the American option.
21.23. A company has issued a 3-year convertible bond that has a face value of $25 and can be
exchanged for two of the companyās shares at any time. The company can call the issue, forcing conversion, when the share price is greater than or equal to $18. Assuming that
the company will force conversion at the earliest opportunity, what are the boundary conditions for the price of the convertible? Describe how you would use finite difference methods to value the convertible assuming constant interest rates. Assume there is no
risk of the company defaulting.
21.24. Provide formulas that can be used for obtaining three random samples from standard
normal distributions when the correlation between sample i and sample j is
ri, j.
21.25. An American put option to sell a Swiss franc for dollars has a strike price of $0.80 and a
time to maturity of 1 year. The Swiss francās volatility is 10%, the dollar interest rate is
6%, the Swiss franc interest rate is 3%, and the current exchange rate is 0.81. Use a three-step binomial tree to value the option. Estimate the delta of the option from your tree.
21.26. A 1-year American call option on silver futures has an exercise price of $9.00. The
current futures price is $8.50, the risk-free rate of interest is 12% per annum, and the
volatility of the futures price is 25% per annum. Use the DerivaGem software with four
3-month time steps to estimate the value of the option. Display the tree and verify that
the option prices at the final and penultimate nodes are correct. Use DerivaGem to value the European version of the option. Use the control variate technique to improve your estimate of the price of the American option.
21.27. Answer the following questions concerned with the alternative procedures for construct-
ing trees in Section 21.4:
(a) Show that the binomial model in Section 21. 4 is exactly consistent with the mean
and variance of the change in the logarithm of the stock price in time
āt.
(b) Show that the trinomial model in Section 21. 4 is consistent with the mean and
variance of the change in the logarithm of the stock price in time āt when terms of
order 1āt22 and higher are ignored.
(c) Construct an alternative to the trinomial model in Section 21. 4 so that the prob-
abilities are 1/6, 2/3, and 1/6 on the upper, middle, and lower branches emanating
from each node. Assume that the branching is from S to Su, Sm, or Sd with m2=ud.
Match the mean and variance of the change in the logarithm of the stock price
exactly.
21.28. The DerivaGem Application Builder functions enable you to investigate how the prices
of options calculated from a binomial tree converge to the correct value as the number of
time steps increases. (See Figure 21.4 and Sample Application A in DerivaGem.)
Consider a put option on a stock index where the index level is 900, the strike price is
900, the risk-free rate is 5%, the dividend yield is 2%, and the time to maturity is 2 years.
(a) Produce results similar to Sample Application A on convergence for the situation
where the option is European and the volatility of the index is 20%.
(b) Produce results similar to Sample Application A on convergence for the situation where the option is American and the volatility of the index is 20%.
(c) Produce a chart showing the pricing of the American option when the volatility is
20% as a function of the number of time steps when the control variate technique is
used.
(d) Suppose that the price of the American option in the market is 85.0. Produce a chart showing the implied volatility estimate as a function of the number of time steps.
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Basic Numerical Procedures 513
21.29. Estimate delta, gamma, and theta from the tree in Example 21.3. Explain how each can
be interpreted.
21.30. How much is gained from exercising early at the lowest node at the 9-month point in
Example 21.4?
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514
Value at Risk and
Quantifying Risk with VaR and ES
- Financial institutions use Value at Risk (VaR) and Expected Shortfall (ES) to consolidate complex risk metrics like delta and gamma into a single, understandable number.
- Value at Risk represents the maximum loss level that is expected not to be exceeded over a specific time horizon at a given confidence level.
- While bank regulators have traditionally relied on VaR for capital requirements, there is a significant shift toward using Expected Shortfall for assessing market risks.
- The two primary methodologies for calculating these risk measures are the historical simulation approach and the model-building approach.
- VaR is highly valued by senior management because it provides a direct answer to the fundamental question of how bad potential losses could get.
In essence, it asks the simple question āHow bad can things get?ā This is the question all senior managers want answered.
Consider a put option on a stock index where the index level is 900, the strike price is
900, the risk-free rate is 5%, the dividend yield is 2%, and the time to maturity is 2 years.
(a) Produce results similar to Sample Application A on convergence for the situation
where the option is European and the volatility of the index is 20%.
(b) Produce results similar to Sample Application A on convergence for the situation where the option is American and the volatility of the index is 20%.
(c) Produce a chart showing the pricing of the American option when the volatility is
20% as a function of the number of time steps when the control variate technique is
used.
(d) Suppose that the price of the American option in the market is 85.0. Produce a chart showing the implied volatility estimate as a function of the number of time steps.
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Basic Numerical Procedures 513
21.29. Estimate delta, gamma, and theta from the tree in Example 21.3. Explain how each can
be interpreted.
21.30. How much is gained from exercising early at the lowest node at the 9-month point in
Example 21.4?
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514
Value at Risk and
Expected Shortfall
Chapter 19 examined measures such as delta, gamma, and vega for describing different
aspects of the risk in a portfolio of derivatives. A financial institution usually calculates each of these measures each day for every market variable to which it is exposed. Often there are hundreds, or even thousands, of these market variables. A deltaāgammaāvega
analysis, therefore, leads to a very large number of different risk measures being
produced each day. These risk measures provide valuable information for the financial institutionās traders. However, they do not provide a way of measuring the total risk to which the financial institution is exposed.
Value at risk (VaR) and expected shortfall (ES) are attempts to provide a single
number summarizing the total risk in a portfolio of financial assets. They have become widely used by corporate treasurers and fund managers as well as by financial institu-tions. Bank regulators have traditionally used VaR in determining the capital a bank is required to keep for the risks it is bearing, but they are switching to ES for market risks.
This chapter explains the VaR and ES measures and describes the two main
approaches for calculating them. These are known as the historical simulation approach
and the model-building approach.22 CHAPTER
22.1 THE V aR AND ES MEASURES
When using the value-at-risk measure, an analyst is interested in making a statement of
the following form: āI am X percent certain there will not be a loss of more than V dollars
in the next N days.ā The variable V is the VaR of the portfolio. It is a function of two parameters: the time horizon (N days) and the confidence level (X%). It is the loss level over N days that has a probability of only
1100-X2, of being exceeded.
Bank regulators have traditionally required banks to calculate VaR for market risk
with N=10 and X=99 (see the discussion in Business Snapshot 22.1). If VaR with
these parameters is $20 million for a bank, it is 99% certain that it will not lose more
than $20 million over the next 10 days. The 99th percentile of the 10-day loss
distribution is $20 million. Alternatively we can say that the first percentile of the gain distribution is
-+20 million. VaR is illustrated in Figures 22.1 and 22.2.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 515
VaR is an attractive measure because it is easy to understand. In essence, it asks
the simple question āHow bad can things get?ā This is the question all senior
managers want answered. They are very comfortable with the idea of compressing
Value at Risk and Regulation
- Value at Risk (VaR) provides a single numerical answer to the question of how bad a portfolio's losses can get over a specific time horizon and confidence level.
- The Basel Committee uses VaR to determine the minimum capital requirements for banks to cover market, credit, and operational risks.
- Regulators apply a multiplier, typically at least 3.0, to a bank's calculated VaR to establish the final amount of required regulatory capital.
- Critics argue that VaR can be misleading because it does not account for the severity of losses that occur beyond the specified confidence percentile.
- Evolution in banking standards, such as Basel IV, shows a shift from VaR toward Expected Shortfall to better capture extreme tail risks.
In essence, it asks the simple question āHow bad can things get?ā This is the question all senior managers want answered.
with N=10 and X=99 (see the discussion in Business Snapshot 22.1). If VaR with
these parameters is $20 million for a bank, it is 99% certain that it will not lose more
than $20 million over the next 10 days. The 99th percentile of the 10-day loss
distribution is $20 million. Alternatively we can say that the first percentile of the gain distribution is
-+20 million. VaR is illustrated in Figures 22.1 and 22.2.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 515
VaR is an attractive measure because it is easy to understand. In essence, it asks
the simple question āHow bad can things get?ā This is the question all senior
managers want answered. They are very comfortable with the idea of compressing
all the Greek letters for all the market variables underlying a portfolio into a single number.
If we accept that it is useful to have a single number to describe the risk of a
portfolio, an interesting question is whether VaR is the best alternative. Some research-ers have argued that VaR may tempt traders to choose a portfolio with a return
distribution similar to that in Figure 22.2. The portfolios in Figures 22.1 and 22.2 have the same VaR, but the portfolio in Figure 22.2 is much riskier because big losses are more likely.Business Snapshot 22.1 How Bank Regulators Use VaR
The Basel Committee on Bank Supervision is a committee of the worldās bank regulators that meets regularly in Basel, Switzerland. In 1988 it published what has become known as Basel I. This is an agreement between the regulators on how the capital a bank is required to hold for credit risk should be calculated. Later the Basel Committee published The 1996 Amendment which was implemented in 1998 and required banks to hold capital for market risk as well as credit risk. The Amendment distinguishes between a bankās trading book and its banking book. The banking book consists primarily of loans and is not usually revalued on a regular basis for managerial and accounting purposes. The trading book consists of the myriad of different instruments that are traded by the bank (stocks, bonds, swaps, forward contracts, options, etc.) and is normally revalued daily.
The 1996 Amendment calculates capital for the trading book using the VaR
measure with
N=10 and X=99. This means that it focuses on the revaluation loss
over a 10-day period that is expected to be exceeded only 1% of the time. The capital
the bank is required to hold is k times this VaR measure (with an adjustment for what
are termed specific risks). The multiplier k is chosen on a bank-by-bank basis by the
regulators and must be at least 3.0. For a bank with excellent well-tested VaR estimation procedures, it is likely that k will be set equal to the minimum value
of 3.0. For other banks it may be higher.
Basel I has been followed by Basel II, Basel II.5, Basel III, and Basel IV. Basel II
(which was implemented in most parts of the world in about 2007) uses VaR with a one-year time horizon and a 99.9% confidence level for calculating capital for credit risk and operational risk. Basel II.5 (which was implemented in 2012) revised the way
market risk capital is calculated. One of the changes involves what is known as stressed VaR. This is a VaR measure based on how market variables have moved during a particularly adverse time period. Basel III increased the amount of capital
that banks are required to hold and the proportion of that capital that must be
equity. Basel IV includes the Fundamental Review of the Trading Book, which involves
basing the capital for market risk on expected shortfall with a 97.5% confidence level
rather than VaR with a 99% confidence level. Basel IV also limits the extent to which
banks can use internal models for calculating required capital.
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516 CHAPTER 22
Evolution of Bank Risk Regulation
- The Basel Accords have evolved through multiple iterations to refine how banks calculate required capital for credit, operational, and market risks.
- Regulators apply a multiplier, typically at least 3.0, to a bank's Value at Risk (VaR) measure to determine the final capital requirement.
- Basel IV introduces a significant shift by replacing VaR with Expected Shortfall (ES) for market risk, using a 97.5% confidence level.
- Expected Shortfall addresses the limitations of VaR by calculating the average loss specifically when losses exceed the VaR threshold.
- Due to data limitations, analysts often estimate risk for a single day and then scale it to longer time horizons using the square root of time.
VaR asks the question: āHow bad can things get?ā ES asks: āIf things do get bad, how much can the company expect to lose?ā
over a 10-day period that is expected to be exceeded only 1% of the time. The capital
the bank is required to hold is k times this VaR measure (with an adjustment for what
are termed specific risks). The multiplier k is chosen on a bank-by-bank basis by the
regulators and must be at least 3.0. For a bank with excellent well-tested VaR estimation procedures, it is likely that k will be set equal to the minimum value
of 3.0. For other banks it may be higher.
Basel I has been followed by Basel II, Basel II.5, Basel III, and Basel IV. Basel II
(which was implemented in most parts of the world in about 2007) uses VaR with a one-year time horizon and a 99.9% confidence level for calculating capital for credit risk and operational risk. Basel II.5 (which was implemented in 2012) revised the way
market risk capital is calculated. One of the changes involves what is known as stressed VaR. This is a VaR measure based on how market variables have moved during a particularly adverse time period. Basel III increased the amount of capital
that banks are required to hold and the proportion of that capital that must be
equity. Basel IV includes the Fundamental Review of the Trading Book, which involves
basing the capital for market risk on expected shortfall with a 97.5% confidence level
rather than VaR with a 99% confidence level. Basel IV also limits the extent to which
banks can use internal models for calculating required capital.
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516 CHAPTER 22
A measure that deals with the problem we have just mentioned is expected shortfall
(ES).1 VaR asks the question: āHow bad can things get?ā ES asks: āIf things do get
bad, how much can the company expect to lose?ā ES is the expected loss during an
N-day period conditional on the loss being worse than the VaR loss. For example,
with X=99 and N=10, the expected shortfall is the average amount the company
loses over a 10-day period when the loss is worse than the 10-day 99% VaR. As
mentioned in Business Snapshot 22.1, bank regulation is changing so that the capital
for market risk is based on ES, not VaR. The confidence level is changing from 99% to 97.5%.
The Time Horizon
VaR and ES each have two parameters: the time horizon N, measured in days, and the confidence level X. In practice, analysts often set
N=1 in the first instance when VaR
or ES is estimated for market risk. This is because there is not usually enough data
1 This measure is also known as C-VaR or expected tail loss. In P. Artzner, F. Delbaen, J.-M. Eber, and
D. Heath, āCoherent Measures of Risk,ā Mathematical Finance, 9 (1999): 203ā28, the authors define certain
properties that a good risk measure should have and show that the standard VaR measure does not have all of
them whereas ES does. For more details, see J. C. Hull, Risk Management and Financial Institutions, 5th edn. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley, 2018.Figure 22.1 Calculation of VaR from the probability distribution of the change in the
portfolio value; confidence level is X%. Gains in portfolio value are positive; losses
are negative.
(100 2 X )%
VaR loss Gain (loss) over N days
Figure 22.2 Alternative situation to Figure 22.1. VaR is the same, but the potential
loss is larger.
(100 2 X )%
VaR loss Gain (loss) over N days
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 517
available to estimate directly the behavior of market variables over periods of time
longer than 1 day. The usual assumptions are
N@day VaR=1@day VaR*2N
N@day ES=1@day ES*2N
Risk Measurement and Historical Simulation
- Expected Shortfall (ES) is introduced as a more coherent risk measure than Value at Risk (VaR) because it accounts for the magnitude of losses beyond the confidence threshold.
- Time horizons for risk metrics are often scaled from one day to N days using the square root of time, though this assumes independent and identical normal distributions.
- Historical simulation utilizes past market data to create scenarios for future portfolio performance, assuming history is representative of immediate future volatility.
- The process involves calculating potential portfolio value changes across hundreds of scenarios to identify the specific percentile that represents the VaR limit.
- Algebraically, historical simulation adjusts current market variables by the percentage changes observed between consecutive days in the historical dataset.
The authors define certain properties that a good risk measure should have and show that the standard VaR measure does not have all of them whereas ES does.
or ES is estimated for market risk. This is because there is not usually enough data
1 This measure is also known as C-VaR or expected tail loss. In P. Artzner, F. Delbaen, J.-M. Eber, and
D. Heath, āCoherent Measures of Risk,ā Mathematical Finance, 9 (1999): 203ā28, the authors define certain
properties that a good risk measure should have and show that the standard VaR measure does not have all of
them whereas ES does. For more details, see J. C. Hull, Risk Management and Financial Institutions, 5th edn. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley, 2018.Figure 22.1 Calculation of VaR from the probability distribution of the change in the
portfolio value; confidence level is X%. Gains in portfolio value are positive; losses
are negative.
(100 2 X )%
VaR loss Gain (loss) over N days
Figure 22.2 Alternative situation to Figure 22.1. VaR is the same, but the potential
loss is larger.
(100 2 X )%
VaR loss Gain (loss) over N days
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 517
available to estimate directly the behavior of market variables over periods of time
longer than 1 day. The usual assumptions are
N@day VaR=1@day VaR*2N
N@day ES=1@day ES*2N
These formulas are exactly true when the changes in the value of the portfolio on
successive days have independent identical normal distributions with mean zero. In other cases they are approximations.
2 There are alternatives here. A case can be made for using the fifth-highest loss, the sixth-highest loss, or an
average of the two. In Excelās PERCENTILE function, when there are n observations and k is an integer, the
k>1n-12 percentile is the observation ranked k+1. Other percentiles are calculated using linear interpolation.22.2 HISTORICAL SIMULATION
Historical simulation is one popular way of estimating VaR or ES. It involves using past data as a guide to what will happen in the future. Suppose that we want to calculate VaR for a portfolio using a one-day time horizon, a 99% confidence level, and 501 days of data. The first step is to identify the market variables affecting the portfolio. These will typically be interest rates, equity prices, commodity prices, and so on. All prices are measured in the domestic currency. For example, one market variable for a German bank is likely to be the S&P 500 measured in euros.
Data are collected on movements in the market variables over the most recent 501 days.
This provides 500 alternative scenarios for what can happen between today and tomor-row. Denote the first day for which we have data as Day 0, the second day as Day 1, and so on. Scenario 1 is where the percentage changes in the values of all variables are the same as they were between Day 0 and Day 1, Scenario 2 is where they are the same as between Day 1 and Day 2, and so on. For each scenario, the dollar change in the value of
the portfolio between today and tomorrow is calculated. This defines a probability
distribution for daily loss (gains are negative losses) in the value of the portfolio. The 99th percentile of the distribution can be estimated as the fifth-highest loss.
2 The estimate
of VaR is this 99th percentile of the loss distribution. We are 99% certain that we will not take a loss greater than the VaR estimate if the changes in market variables in the last 501 days are representative of what will happen between today and tomorrow.
To express the approach algebraically, define
vi as the value of a market variable on
Day i and suppose that today is Day n. The ith scenario in the historical simulation
approach assumes that the value of the market variable tomorrow will be
Value under ith scenario=vnvi
vi-1
Illustration: Investment in Four Stock Indices
Historical Simulation for VaR
- Value at Risk (VaR) is defined as the 99th percentile of the loss distribution, assuming historical market changes represent future volatility.
- The historical simulation approach uses an algebraic formula to project tomorrow's market values based on percentage changes from the previous 501 days.
- A sample $10 million portfolio consisting of four global stock indices is used to demonstrate the complexity of cross-border risk assessment.
- For a U.S. investor, international index values must be converted into U.S. dollars using historical exchange rates to ensure consistency.
- The analysis uses July 8, 2020, as a case study, a period marked by extreme market uncertainty following the initial COVID-19 pandemic crash.
By July 2020, U.S. markets had largely recovered, but there was still a great deal of uncertainty about how long the pandemic would continue and when the economy would recover.
of VaR is this 99th percentile of the loss distribution. We are 99% certain that we will not take a loss greater than the VaR estimate if the changes in market variables in the last 501 days are representative of what will happen between today and tomorrow.
To express the approach algebraically, define
vi as the value of a market variable on
Day i and suppose that today is Day n. The ith scenario in the historical simulation
approach assumes that the value of the market variable tomorrow will be
Value under ith scenario=vnvi
vi-1
Illustration: Investment in Four Stock Indices
To illustrate the calculations underlying the approach, suppose that an investor in the
United States owns, on July 8, 2020, a portfolio worth $10 million consisting of
investments in four stock indices: the S&P 500 in the United States, the FTSE 100 in
the United Kingdom, the CAC 40 in France, and the Nikkei 225 in Japan. The value of
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518 CHAPTER 22
the investment in each index on July 8, 2020, is shown in Table 22.1. An Excel
spreadsheet containing 501 days of historical data on the closing prices of the four
indices, together with exchange rates and a complete set of VaR and ES calculations are
on the authorās website:3
www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/OFOD/VaRExample
The data we use are total return indices where it is assumed that dividends paid on the
stocks underlying the indices are reinvested in the indices. Because we are considering a
U.S. investor, the value of the FTSE 100, CAC 40, and Nikkei 225 must be measured in
U.S. dollars. For example, the FTSE 100 total return index was 6,515.12 on May 9, 2018
(the beginning of the 501-day period considered), when the exchange rate was 1.3553 USD per GBP. This means that, measured in U.S. dollars, it was
6,515.12*1.3553
=8,830.23. An extract from the data with all indices measured in U.S. dollars is in
Table 22.2.
July 8, 2020, is an interesting date to choose in evaluating an equity investment. The
COVID-19 pandemic had led to a big drop in equity markets in March 2020. By July 2020, U.S. markets had largely recovered, but there was still a great deal of uncertainty about how long the pandemic would continue and when the economy would recover.
Table 22.3 shows the values of the indices (measured in U.S. dollars) on July 9, 2020,
for the scenarios considered. Scenario 1 (the first row in Table 22.3) shows the values of
indices on July 9, 2020, assuming that their percentage changes between July 8 and Index Portfolio value ($000s)
S&P 500 4,000
FTSE 100 3,000
CAC 40 1,000
Nikkei 225 2,000
Total 10,000Table 22.1 Investment portfolio used for VaR calculations.
3 To keep the example as straightforward as possible, only days when all four indices traded were included in
the compilation of the data.Day Date S&P 500 FTSE 100 CAC 40 Nikkei 225
0 May 9, 2018 5,292.90 8,830.23 16,910.33 322.40
1 May 10, 2018 5,343.70 8,926.56 16,915.41 321.24
2 May 11, 2018 5,354.69 8,982.76 17,065.64 326.20
3 May 14, 2018 5,359.66 8,999.31 17,121.67 328.03
f f f f f f
499 July 7, 2020 6,445.59 7,269.36 15,784.97 345.40
500 July 8, 2020 6,496.14 7,255.04 15,540.44 342.01Table 22.2 U.S. dollar equivalent of total return stock indices for
historical simulation.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 519
Historical Simulation for VaR
- The text demonstrates how to calculate Value at Risk (VaR) using historical simulation based on a portfolio of four major global stock indices.
- Scenarios are generated by applying historical percentage changes from a 500-day look-back period to current market values.
- The one-day 99% VaR is determined by ranking the losses from all scenarios and identifying the fifth worst outcome.
- The model is dynamic, requiring daily updates where the oldest data point is dropped to incorporate the most recent market movements.
- Extreme market volatility, specifically from March 2020, is shown to significantly impact the risk estimates and identify the worst-case scenarios.
The worst scenario is number 427, where indices are assumed to change in the same way as between March 17 and March 18, 2020.
Total 10,000Table 22.1 Investment portfolio used for VaR calculations.
3 To keep the example as straightforward as possible, only days when all four indices traded were included in
the compilation of the data.Day Date S&P 500 FTSE 100 CAC 40 Nikkei 225
0 May 9, 2018 5,292.90 8,830.23 16,910.33 322.40
1 May 10, 2018 5,343.70 8,926.56 16,915.41 321.24
2 May 11, 2018 5,354.69 8,982.76 17,065.64 326.20
3 May 14, 2018 5,359.66 8,999.31 17,121.67 328.03
f f f f f f
499 July 7, 2020 6,445.59 7,269.36 15,784.97 345.40
500 July 8, 2020 6,496.14 7,255.04 15,540.44 342.01Table 22.2 U.S. dollar equivalent of total return stock indices for
historical simulation.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 519
July 9, 2020, are the same as they were between May 9 and May 10, 2018; Scenario 2
(the second row in Table 22.3) shows the values of market variables on July 9, 2020,
assuming these percentage changes are the same as those between May 10 and May 11,
2018; and so on. In general, Scenario i assumes that the percentage changes in the
indices between July 8 and July 9, 2020, are the same as they were between Day i-1
and Day i for 1ā¦iā¦500. The 500 rows in Table 22.3 are the 500 scenarios considered.
The S&P 500 total return index was 6,496.14 on July 8, 2020. On May 10, 2018, it
was 5,343.70 up from 5,292.90 on May 9, 2018. Therefore, the value of the S&P 500
total return index under Scenario 1 is
6,496.14*5,343.70
5,292.90=6,558.49
Similarly, the values of the FTSE 100, CAC 40, and Nikkei 225 total return indices are
7,334.19, 15,545.12, and 340.79, respectively. It follows that the total value of the
portfolio under Scenario 1 is (in $000s)
4,000*6,558.49
6,496.14+3,000*7,334.19
7,255.04+1,000*15,545.12
15,540.44+2,000*340.79
342.01
=10,064.257
The portfolio therefore has a gain of $64,257 under Scenario 1. A similar calculation is carried out for the other scenarios.
The losses for the 500 different scenarios are then ranked. An extract from the results
of doing this is shown in Table 22.4. The worst scenario is number 427, where indices
are assumed to change in the same way as between March 17 and March 18, 2020.
Other big losses are also as a result of changes observed in March 2020. The one-day 99% value at risk can be estimated as the fifth worst loss. This is $422,291.
As explained in Section 22.1, the ten-day 99% VaR is usually calculated as
210 times
the one-day 99% VaR. In this case the ten-day VaR would therefore be
210*422,291=1,335,401
or $1,335,401.
Each day the VaR estimate in our example would be updated using the most recent 501
days of data. Consider, for example, what happens on July 9, 2020 (Day 501). We find out
new values for all the market variables and are able to calculate a new value for the Scenario
numberS&P 500 FTSE 100 CAC 40 Nikkei 225 Portfolio value
($000s)Loss
($000s)
1 6,558.49 7,334.19 15,545.12 340.79 10,064.257 -64.257
2 6,509.50 7,300.72 15,678.46 347.28 10,066.822 -66.822
3 6,502.17 7,268.41 15,591.47 343.93 10,023.722 -23.722
f f f f f f
499 6,425.90 7,293.40 15,543.89 341.21 9,968.126 31.874
500 6,547.09 7,240.75 15,299.71 338.66 9,990.361 9.639Table 22.3 Scenarios generated for July 9, 2020, using data in Table 22.2.
(Negative losses are gains.)
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520 CHAPTER 22
portfolio. We then go through the procedure we have outlined to calculate a new VaR.
Data on the market variables from May 10, 2018, to July 9, 2020 (Day 1 to Day 501) are used in the calculation. (This gives us the required 500 observations on the percentage changes in market variables; the May 9, 2018, Day 0, values of the market variables are no longer used.) Similarly, on the next trading day, July 10, 2020 (Day 502), data from May 11, 2018, to July 10, 2020 (Day 2 to Day 502) are used to determine VaR, and so on.
In practice, a financial institutionās portfolio is, of course, considerably more
Historical Simulation and Risk Metrics
- Value at Risk (VaR) is calculated using a rolling window of historical market data, typically assuming the portfolio remains static over the next business day.
- Expected Shortfall (ES) provides a more comprehensive risk measure by averaging the losses in the tail of the distribution rather than identifying a single threshold.
- Weighting observations allows financial institutions to prioritize recent market volatility by assigning declining weights to older historical scenarios.
- Stressed VaR and Stressed ES utilize data from specific historical periods of high volatility to ensure risk models account for extreme market conditions.
- Complex institutional portfolios require managing thousands of variables, including zero-coupon interest rate structures across multiple currencies.
If a bankās trading leads to a riskier portfolio, VaR typically increases; if it leads to a less risky portfolio, VaR typically decreases.
portfolio. We then go through the procedure we have outlined to calculate a new VaR.
Data on the market variables from May 10, 2018, to July 9, 2020 (Day 1 to Day 501) are used in the calculation. (This gives us the required 500 observations on the percentage changes in market variables; the May 9, 2018, Day 0, values of the market variables are no longer used.) Similarly, on the next trading day, July 10, 2020 (Day 502), data from May 11, 2018, to July 10, 2020 (Day 2 to Day 502) are used to determine VaR, and so on.
In practice, a financial institutionās portfolio is, of course, considerably more
complicated than the one we have considered here. It is likely to consist of thousands or tens of thousands of positions (involving exchange rates, commodity prices, interest
rates, and so on). Some of the bankās positions are typically in forward contracts, options, and other derivatives. Also, the portfolio itself is likely to change from day to day. If a bankās trading leads to a riskier portfolio, VaR typically increases; if it leads to a less risky portfolio, VaR typically decreases. The VaR is calculated on any given day on the assumption that the portfolio will remain unchanged over the next business day.
In the case of interest rates, a bank typically needs several term structures of zero-
coupon interest rates in a number of different currencies to value its portfolio. The market
variables that are considered are the ones from which these term structures are calculated
(see Chapter 4 for the calculation of the term structure of zero rates). There might be as many as ten market variables for each zero curve to which the bank is exposed.
Expected Shortfall
To calculate expected shortfall using historical simulation we average the observations in the tail of the distribution of losses. In the case of our example, the five worst losses ($000s) are from scenarios 427, 429, 424, 415, and 482 (see Table 22.4). The average of the losses for these scenarios is $669,391. This is the expected shortfall estimate.Scenario number Loss ($000s)
427 922.484
429 858.423
424 653.541
415 490.215
482 422.291
440 362.733
426 360.532
431 353.788
417 323.505
433 305.216
452 245.151
418 241.561
140 231.269
289 230.626
152 229.683
f fTable 22.4 Losses ranked from highest to
lowest for 500 scenarios.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 521
Weighting Observations
In the calculations presented so far, the 500 scenarios were given equal weight. In some
situations, it might be considered appropriate to give more weight to recent scenarios. One way of doing this is to assign a weight to the ith scenario of
l
n-i11-l2
1-ln
where n is the number of scenarios and l is a parameter between zero and one. The
weights sum to one and decline at rate l. We rank the scenarios as before and calculate
cumulative weights. The 99% VaR is the loss for the first scenario which is such that the cumulative weight exceeds 0.01.
Suppose we use a value of
l equal to 0.995. The weights assigned to scenarios 427,
429, 424, and 415 are 0.003776, 0.003814, 0.003719, and 0.003555, respectively. The cumulative weights are 0.004833, 0.007590, 0.011309, and 0.014864. The VaR is the loss
given by the third scenario, or $653,541. The expected shortfall is calculated by using weights proportional to 0.003776, 0.003814, and
0.01-0.003776-0.003814 to the
losses from the first three scenarios. It is about $833,200.
Stressed VaR and Stressed ES
The calculations given so far assume that the most recent data is used for the historical
simulation on any given day. For example, when calculating VaR and ES for the four- index example, we used data from the immediately preceding 501 days. However,
historical simulations can be based on data from any period in the past. Periods of
high volatility will tend to give high values for VaR and ES, while periods of low
volatility will tend to give low values.
Stressed Risk Measures and Volatility
- Stressed VaR and Stressed ES require financial institutions to identify a 251-day period of extreme historical stress to evaluate current portfolio risk.
- Historical simulations are highly sensitive to the chosen data period, with high volatility windows yielding significantly higher risk values than recent data.
- The model-building approach serves as the primary alternative to historical simulation, relying on daily volatility and correlation estimates.
- Daily volatility is mathematically defined as approximately 6% of annual volatility, assuming a standard 252-day trading year.
- For risk management purposes, daily volatility is treated as exactly equal to the standard deviation of the percentage change in an asset's price over one day.
To calculate these measures, a financial institution must search for a 251-day period of extreme stress for their current portfolio.
losses from the first three scenarios. It is about $833,200.
Stressed VaR and Stressed ES
The calculations given so far assume that the most recent data is used for the historical
simulation on any given day. For example, when calculating VaR and ES for the four- index example, we used data from the immediately preceding 501 days. However,
historical simulations can be based on data from any period in the past. Periods of
high volatility will tend to give high values for VaR and ES, while periods of low
volatility will tend to give low values.
Regulators have introduced measures known as stressed VaR and stressed ES. To
calculate these measures, a financial institution must search for a 251-day period of extreme stress for their current portfolio. The data for that 251-day period then plays the same role as the 501-day period in our example. The changes in market variables between Day 0 and Day 1 of the 251-day period are used to create the first scenario; the
changes in market variables between Day 1 and Day 2 of the 251-day period are used to
create the second scenario; and so on. In total, 250 scenarios are created. The one-day 99% stressed VaR can be calculated as the loss that is midway between the loss for the
second worst scenario and the loss for the third worst scenario. The one-day 99% stressed ES can be calculated as
0.4c1+0.4c2+0.2c3, where c1, c2, and c3 are the three
worst losses with c17c27c3.4
4 Sometimes only losses that are worse than the VaR level are averaged in determining stressed ES. With 250
scenarios, stressed ES is then the average of the losses for the worst two scenarios.22.3 MODEL-BUILDING APPROACH
The main alternative to historical simulation is the model-building approach. Before
getting into the details of the approach, it is appropriate to mention one issue
concerned with the units for measuring volatility.
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522 CHAPTER 22
Daily Volatilities
In option pricing, time is usually measured in years, and the volatility of an asset is
usually quoted as a āvolatility per yearā. When using the model-building approach to calculate VaR or ES for market risk, time is usually measured in days and the volatility of an asset is usually quoted as a āvolatility per day.ā
What is the relationship between the volatility per year used in option pricing and the
volatility per day used in VaR or ES calculations? Let us define
syear as the volatility per
year of a certain asset and sday as the equivalent volatility per day of the asset. Assuming
252 trading days in a year, equation (15.2) gives the standard deviation of the con-tinuously compounded return on the asset in one year as either
syear or sday2252. It
follows that
syear=sday2252 or sday=syear>2252
so that daily volatility is about 6% of annual volatility.
As pointed out in Section 15.4, s day is approximately equal to the standard deviation of
the percentage change in the asset price in one day. For the purposes of calculating VaR
or ES we assume exact equality. The daily volatility of an asset price (or any other
variable) is therefore defined as equal to the standard deviation of the percentage change
in one day.
Our discussion in the next few sections assumes that estimates of daily volatilities and
correlations are available. Chapter 23 discusses how the estimates can be produced.
Single-Asset Case
Consider how VaR is calculated using the model-building approach in a very simple situation where the portfolio consists of a position in a single stock: $10 million in shares of Microsoft. We suppose that
N=10 and X=99, so that we are interested in the loss
Calculating Single-Asset VaR
- Daily volatility is defined as the standard deviation of the percentage change in an asset's price over a single day.
- The model-building approach typically assumes the expected change in a market variable is zero because the mean return is negligible compared to the standard deviation over short horizons.
- Value at Risk (VaR) is calculated by multiplying the position value by the daily volatility and the appropriate normal distribution z-score.
- To extend a 1-day VaR to an N-day horizon, the 1-day figure is multiplied by the square root of N.
- The assumption of normality for price changes over very short periods is used as a practical approximation of lognormal distributions.
The expected change in the price of a market variable over a short time period is generally small when compared with the standard deviation of the change.
so that daily volatility is about 6% of annual volatility.
As pointed out in Section 15.4, s day is approximately equal to the standard deviation of
the percentage change in the asset price in one day. For the purposes of calculating VaR
or ES we assume exact equality. The daily volatility of an asset price (or any other
variable) is therefore defined as equal to the standard deviation of the percentage change
in one day.
Our discussion in the next few sections assumes that estimates of daily volatilities and
correlations are available. Chapter 23 discusses how the estimates can be produced.
Single-Asset Case
Consider how VaR is calculated using the model-building approach in a very simple situation where the portfolio consists of a position in a single stock: $10 million in shares of Microsoft. We suppose that
N=10 and X=99, so that we are interested in the loss
level over 10 days that we are 99% confident will not be exceeded. Initially, we consider a
1-day time horizon.
Assume that the volatility of Microsoft is 2% per day (corresponding to about 32%
per year). Because the size of the position is $10 million, the standard deviation of daily changes in the value of the position is 2% of $10 million, or $200,000.
It is customary in the model-building approach to assume that the expected change in
a market variable over the time period considered is zero. This is not exactly true, but it
is a reasonable assumption. The expected change in the price of a market variable over a short time period is generally small when compared with the standard deviation of the
change. Suppose, for example, that Microsoft has an expected return of 20% per annum. Over a 1-day period, the expected return is
0.20>252, or about 0.08%, whereas
the standard deviation of the return is 2%. Over a 10-day period, the expected return is
0.08*10, or about 0.8%, whereas the standard deviation of the return is 2210, or
about 6.3%.
So far, we have established that the change in the value of the portfolio of Microsoft
shares over a 1-day period has a standard deviation of $200,000 and (at least approxi-mately) a mean of zero. We assume that the change is normally distributed.
5 From the
5 To be consistent with the option pricing assumption in Chapter 15, we could assume that the price of
Microsoft is lognormal tomorrow. Because 1 day is such a short period of time, this is almost
indistinguishable from the assumption we do makeāthat the change in the stock price between today and
tomorrow is normal.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 523
Excel NORMSINV function, N-110.012=-2.326. This means that there is a 1%
probability that a normally distributed variable will decrease in value by more than
2.326 standard deviations. Equivalently, it means that we are 99% certain that a
normally distributed variable will not decrease in value by more than 2.326 standard deviations. The 1-day 99% VaR for our portfolio consisting of a $10 million position in
Microsoft is therefore
2.326*200,000=+465,300
As discussed earlier, the N-day VaR is calculated as 2N times the 1-day VaR. The
10-day 99% VaR for Microsoft is therefore
465,300*210=+1,471,300
Consider next a portfolio consisting of a $5 million position in AT&T, and suppose
the daily volatility of AT&T is 1% (approximately 16% per year). A similar calculation to that for Microsoft shows that the standard deviation of the change in the value of the
portfolio in 1 day is
5,000,000*0.01=50,000
Assuming the change is normally distributed, the 1-day 99% VaR is
50,000*2.326=+116,300
and the 10-day 99% VaR is
116,300*210=+367,800
Two-Asset Case
Calculating Portfolio Diversification Benefits
- The text demonstrates how to calculate Value at Risk (VaR) for individual stock positions using daily volatility and normal distribution assumptions.
- A two-asset case illustrates that the standard deviation of a combined portfolio depends on the correlation between the individual assets.
- Diversification benefits are quantified by showing that the combined VaR of Microsoft and AT&T is lower than the sum of their individual VaRs.
- The linear model is introduced as a method to calculate the dollar change in a portfolio's value based on the weighted returns of its constituent assets.
- Expected Shortfall (ES) is presented as an alternative risk measure that, like VaR, remains proportional to the standard deviation when the mean change is zero.
Less than perfect correlation leads to some of the risk being ādiversified away.ā
10-day 99% VaR for Microsoft is therefore
465,300*210=+1,471,300
Consider next a portfolio consisting of a $5 million position in AT&T, and suppose
the daily volatility of AT&T is 1% (approximately 16% per year). A similar calculation to that for Microsoft shows that the standard deviation of the change in the value of the
portfolio in 1 day is
5,000,000*0.01=50,000
Assuming the change is normally distributed, the 1-day 99% VaR is
50,000*2.326=+116,300
and the 10-day 99% VaR is
116,300*210=+367,800
Two-Asset Case
Now consider a portfolio consisting of both $10 million of Microsoft shares and
$5 million of AT&T shares. We suppose that the returns on the two shares have a bivariate normal distribution with a correlation of 0.3. A standard result in statistics tells us that, if two variables X and Y have standard deviations equal to
sX and sY with
the coefficient of correlation between them equal to r, the standard deviation of X+Y
is given by
sX+Y=2s2
X+s2Y+2rsXsY
To apply this result, we set X equal to the change in the value of the position in
Microsoft over a 1-day period and Y equal to the change in the value of the position in AT&T over a 1-day period, so that
sX=200,000 and sY=50,000
The standard deviation of the change in the value of the portfolio consisting of both stocks over a 1-day period is therefore
2200,0002+50,0002+2*0.3*200,000*50,000=220,200
The mean change is assumed to be zero and the change is normally distributed. So the 1-day 99% VaR is therefore
220,200*2.326=+512,300
The 10-day 99% VaR is 210 times this, or $1,620,100.
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524 CHAPTER 22
The examples we have just considered are simple illustrations of the use of the linear
model for calculating VaR or ES. Suppose that we have a portfolio worth P consisting of n assets with an amount
ai being invested in asset i 11ā¦iā¦n2. Define āxi as the
return on asset i in one day. The dollar change in the value of the investment in asset i
in one day is ai āxi and
āP=an
i=1ai āxi (22.2)
where āP is the dollar change in the value of the whole portfolio in one day.The Benefits of Diversification
In the example we have just considered:
1. The 10-day 99% VaR for the portfolio of Microsoft shares is $1,471,300.
2. The 10-day 99% VaR for the portfolio of AT&T shares is $367,800.
3. The 10-day 99% VaR for the portfolio of both Microsoft and AT&T shares is $1,620,100.
The amount
11,471,300+367,8002-1,620,100=+219,000
represents the benefits of diversification. If Microsoft and AT&T were perfectly
correlated, the VaR for the portfolio of both Microsoft and AT&T would equal the VaR for the Microsoft portfolio plus the VaR for the AT&T portfolio. Less than
perfect correlation leads to some of the risk being ādiversified away.ā
6
ES Calculation
When the loss is normally distributed with mean m, and standard deviation s, it can be
shown that ES with a confidence level of X is given by
ES=m+s e-Y2>2
22p11-X2 (22.1)
where Y is the Xth percentile point of the standard normal distribution (i.e., it is the
point on a normal distribution with mean zero and standard deviation one that has a
probability 1-X of being exceeded). This shows that, when m is assumed to be zero,
ES like VaR is proportional to s.
The formula shows that in our example the ten-day ES for the Microsoft portfolio
with 99% confidence 1X=0.99 and Y=2.3262 is $1,687,000; the ten-day ES for the
AT&T portfolio with 99% confidence is $421,400; and the ten-day ES for the combined portfolio with 99% confidence is $1,856,100.
22.4 THE LINEAR MODEL
6 Harry Markowitz was one of the first researchers to study the benefits of diversification to a portfolio
manager. He was awarded a Nobel prize for this research in 1990. See H. Markowitz, āPortfolio Selection,ā
Journal of Finance, 7, 1 (March 1952): 77ā91.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 525
The Linear Model for Risk
- Expected Shortfall (ES) and Value at Risk (VaR) are both proportional to the standard deviation of a portfolio when the mean change is assumed to be zero.
- The linear model assumes that changes in asset prices follow a multivariate normal distribution, allowing portfolio risk to be calculated from mean and variance.
- Portfolio variance is determined by the weights of individual assets, their daily volatilities, and the correlation coefficients between them.
- Analysts utilize correlation and covariance matrices to systematically calculate the total risk of complex portfolios with multiple investments.
- The benefits of diversification are mathematically captured through the interaction of asset correlations within the variance formula.
Harry Markowitz was one of the first researchers to study the benefits of diversification to a portfolio manager.
where Y is the Xth percentile point of the standard normal distribution (i.e., it is the
point on a normal distribution with mean zero and standard deviation one that has a
probability 1-X of being exceeded). This shows that, when m is assumed to be zero,
ES like VaR is proportional to s.
The formula shows that in our example the ten-day ES for the Microsoft portfolio
with 99% confidence 1X=0.99 and Y=2.3262 is $1,687,000; the ten-day ES for the
AT&T portfolio with 99% confidence is $421,400; and the ten-day ES for the combined portfolio with 99% confidence is $1,856,100.
22.4 THE LINEAR MODEL
6 Harry Markowitz was one of the first researchers to study the benefits of diversification to a portfolio
manager. He was awarded a Nobel prize for this research in 1990. See H. Markowitz, āPortfolio Selection,ā
Journal of Finance, 7, 1 (March 1952): 77ā91.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 525
In the example considered in the previous section, $10 million was invested in the first
asset (Microsoft) and $5 million was invested in the second asset (AT&T), so that (in
millions of dollars) a1=10, a2=5, and
āP=10 āx1+5 āx2
If we assume that the āxi in equation (22.2) are multivariate normal, then āP is
normally distributed. To calculate VaR or ES, we therefore need to calculate only
the mean and standard deviation of āP. We assume, as discussed in the previous
section, that the expected value of each āxi is zero. This implies that the mean of
āP is zero.
To calculate the standard deviation of āP, we define si as the daily volatility of the
ith asset and rij as the coefficient of correlation between returns on asset i and asset j .
This means that si is the standard deviation of āxi, and rij is the coefficient of
correlation between āxi and āxj. The variance of āP, which we will denote by s2
P,
is given by
s2
P=an
i=1an
j=1rijaiajsisj (22.3)
This equation can also be written as
s2P=an
i=1a2is2
i+2an
i=1a
j6irijaiajsisj
The standard deviation of the change over N days is sP2N, and the 99% VaR for an
N-day time horizon is 2.326sP2N.
The portfolio return in one day is āP>P. From equation (22.3), the variance of this is
an
i=1an
j=1rij wi wj si sj
where wi=ai>P is the weight of the ith investment in the portfolio. This version of
equation (22.3) is the one usually used by portfolio managers.
In the example considered in the previous section, s1=0.02, s2=0.01, and
r12=0.3. As already noted, a1=10 and a2=5, so that from equation (22.3)
s2P=102*0.022+52*0.012+2*10*5*0.3*0.02*0.01=0.0485
and sP=0.2202. This is the standard deviation of the change in the portfolio value per
day (in millions of dollars). The ten-day 99% VaR is 2.326*0.2202*210=
+1.62 million. This agrees with the calculation in the previous section.
Correlation and Covariance Matrices
A correlation matrix is a matrix where the entry in the ith row and jth column is the
correlation rij between variable i and j. It is shown in Table 22.5. Since a variable is
always perfectly correlated with itself, the diagonal elements of the correlation matrix
are 1. Furthermore, because rij=rji, the correlation matrix is symmetric. The
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526 CHAPTER 22
correlation matrix, together with the daily standard deviations of the variables,
enables the portfolio variance to be calculated using equation (22.3).
Instead of working with correlations and volatilities, analysts often use variances and
covariances. The daily variance vari of variable i is the square of its daily volatility:
vari=s2
i
The covariance covij between variable i and variable j is the product of the daily
volatility of variable i, the daily volatility of variable j, and the correlation between i
and j:
covij=si sj rij
The equation for the variance of the portfolio in equation (22.3) can be written
s2
P=an
i=1an
j=1covijaiaj (22.4)
Covariance Matrices and Risk
- The text explains how to calculate portfolio variance using a covariance matrix, where diagonal entries represent individual variances and off-diagonal entries represent correlations between variables.
- Matrix notation simplifies the calculation of portfolio risk by multiplying the transpose of the weight vector by the covariance matrix and the original weight vector.
- A practical example using four global stock indices demonstrates that the model-building approach can yield significantly lower Value at Risk (VaR) than historical simulations.
- The discrepancy in risk estimates is attributed to historical simulation being more sensitive to extreme outliers, such as the market volatility seen in March 2020.
- To manage complex interest rate exposures, the model-building approach often simplifies the yield curve by assuming parallel shifts rather than tracking every individual bond price.
These values are much lower than the values given by the historical simulation approach. This is because the latter are greatly affected by a handful of large losses occurring in March 2020.
enables the portfolio variance to be calculated using equation (22.3).
Instead of working with correlations and volatilities, analysts often use variances and
covariances. The daily variance vari of variable i is the square of its daily volatility:
vari=s2
i
The covariance covij between variable i and variable j is the product of the daily
volatility of variable i, the daily volatility of variable j, and the correlation between i
and j:
covij=si sj rij
The equation for the variance of the portfolio in equation (22.3) can be written
s2
P=an
i=1an
j=1covijaiaj (22.4)
In a covariance matrix, the entry in the ith row and jth column is the covariance
between variable i and variable j. As just mentioned, the covariance between a
variable and itself is its variance. The diagonal entries in the matrix are therefore
variances (see Table 22.6). For this reason, the covariance matrix is sometimes called
the varianceācovariance matrix. (Like the correlation matrix, it is symmetric.) Using
matrix notation, the equation for the variance of the portfolio just given becomes
s2
P=aTCaEā”1r12r13g r1n
r21 1r23g r2n
r31r32 1g r3n
fffff
rn1rn2rn3g 1ā”UTable 22.5 A correlation matrix: rij is the correlation between variable i and
variable j.
Eā”var1cov12cov13g cov1n
cov21var2cov23g cov2n
cov31cov32var3g cov3n
fffff
covn1covn2covn3g varnā”UTable 22.6 A varianceācovariance matrix: covij is the covariance between variable i
and variable j. Diagonal entries are variance: covii=vari
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 526 30/04/2021 17:38
Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 527
where a is the (column) vector whose ith element is ai, C is the varianceācovariance
matrix, and αT is the transpose of a.
The Four-Index Example
We now return to the four-index example in Section 22.2. This involved the portfolio in
Table 22.1. Data and calculations presented here can be found on the authorās website.
The correlations that would be calculated on July 8, 2020, from the previous 500
returns are shown in Table 22.7 and the covariance matrix is shown in Table 22.8. From
equation (22.4), the covariance matrix gives the variance of portfolio gains/losses ($000s)
as 14,406.193. The standard deviation of portfolio gains/losses is the square root of this, or 120.03. The 1-day 99% VaR in $000s is therefore
2.326*120.03=279.222 and the
1-day 99% ES in $000s is, from equation (22.1), 319.894. These values are much lower than the values given by the historical simulation approach. This is because the latter are
greatly affected by a handful of large losses occurring in March 2020.
In the next chapter we will see how the weights given to observations can decline as
the observations become older when the volatilities and correlations are calculated in the model-building approach.
Handling Interest Rates
It is out of the question in the model-building approach to define a separate market variable for every single bond price or interest rate to which a company is exposed. Some simplifications are necessary when the model-building approach is used. One possibility is to assume that only parallel shifts in the yield curve occur. It is then
necessary to define only one market variable: the size of the parallel shift. The
ā„1 0.4150.6940.368
0.415 1 0.6560.566
0.6940.656 1 0.482
0.3680.5660.482 1„Table 22.7 Correlation matrix on July 8, 2020: variable 1 is S&P500; variable 2 is
FTSE 100; variable 3 is CAC 40; variable 4 is Nikkei 225. All indices are total return indices.
ā„0.0002750.0000940.0001770.000080
0.0000940.0001870.0001380.000102
0.0001770.0001380.0002370.000097
0.0000800.0001020.0000970.000173„Table 22.8 Covariance matrix on July 8, 2020: variable 1 is S&P500; variable 2 is
FTSE 100; variable 3 is CAC 40; variable 4 is Nikkei 225. All indices are total return indices.
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528 CHAPTER 22
changes in the value of a bond portfolio can then be calculated using the duration
relationship
Cash-Flow Mapping and Risk
- The text provides correlation and covariance matrices for major global indices including the S&P 500, FTSE 100, CAC 40, and Nikkei 225.
- Standard duration relationships are often insufficient for calculating accurate changes in bond portfolio values for risk management.
- Cash-flow mapping involves decomposing complex bond positions into equivalent positions in zero-coupon bonds with standard maturities.
- This mapping technique allows for more precise Value at Risk (VaR) and Expected Shortfall (ES) calculations across a standardized term structure.
- While essential for linear models, cash-flow mapping is unnecessary when using historical simulation because the full term structure is calculated per scenario.
The result is that the position in the 1.2-year coupon-bearing bond is regarded as a position in zero-coupon bonds having maturities of 1 month, 3 months, 6 months, 1 year, and 2 years.
0.3680.5660.482 1„Table 22.7 Correlation matrix on July 8, 2020: variable 1 is S&P500; variable 2 is
FTSE 100; variable 3 is CAC 40; variable 4 is Nikkei 225. All indices are total return indices.
ā„0.0002750.0000940.0001770.000080
0.0000940.0001870.0001380.000102
0.0001770.0001380.0002370.000097
0.0000800.0001020.0000970.000173„Table 22.8 Covariance matrix on July 8, 2020: variable 1 is S&P500; variable 2 is
FTSE 100; variable 3 is CAC 40; variable 4 is Nikkei 225. All indices are total return indices.
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528 CHAPTER 22
changes in the value of a bond portfolio can then be calculated using the duration
relationship
āP=-DP āy
where P is the value of the portfolio, āP is the change in P in one day, D is the
modified duration of the portfolio, and āy is the parallel shift in 1 day.
This approach does not usually give enough accuracy. The procedure usually
followed is to choose as market variables the prices of zero-coupon bonds with standard maturities: 1 month, 3 months, 6 months, 1 year, 2 years, 5 years, 7 years, 10 years, and 30 years. For the purposes of calculating VaR or ES, the cash flows from instruments in
the portfolio are mapped into cash flows occurring on the standard maturity dates. Consider a $1 million position in a Treasury bond lasting 1.2 years that pays a coupon
of 6% semiannually. Coupons are paid in 0.2, 0.7, and 1.2 years, and the principal is
paid in 1.2 years. This bond is, therefore, in the first instance regarded as a $30,000 position in 0.2-year zero-coupon bond plus a $30,000 position in a 0.7-year zero- coupon bond plus a $1.03 million position in a 1.2-year zero-coupon bond. The
position in the 0.2-year bond is then replaced by an approximately equivalent position
in 1-month and 3-month zero-coupon bonds; the position in the 0.7-year bond is replaced by an approximately equivalent position in 6-month and 1-year zero-coupon bonds; and the position in the 1.2-year bond is replaced by an approximately equivalent position in 1-year and 2-year zero-coupon bonds. The result is that the position in the 1.2-year coupon-bearing bond is regarded as a position in zero-coupon bonds having maturities of 1 month, 3 months, 6 months, 1 year, and 2 years.
This procedure is known as cash-flow mapping. One way of doing it is explained in
Technical Note 25 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes. Note that cash-flow mapping is not necessary when the historical simulation approach is used. This is because the complete term structure of interest rates can be calculated from the variables that are considered for each of the scenarios generated by using the bootstrap method in Chapter 4.
Applications of the Linear Model
Cash-Flow Mapping and Linear Models
- Cash-flow mapping simplifies complex bond portfolios by decomposing them into standard-maturity zero-coupon bonds for risk calculation.
- The linear model applies to diverse instruments like stocks, bonds, and foreign currency forward contracts by treating them as combinations of zero-coupon bonds.
- Overnight indexed swaps (OIS) are integrated into the linear model by viewing them as an exchange between a fixed-rate bond and a known-value floating-rate bond.
- When options are involved, the linear model utilizes the delta of the position to approximate the relationship between portfolio value changes and stock price movements.
- Historical simulation approaches bypass the need for cash-flow mapping because they can calculate the complete term structure from bootstrapped scenarios.
The contract can be regarded as the exchange of a foreign zero-coupon bond maturing at time T for a domestic zero-coupon bond maturing at time T.
followed is to choose as market variables the prices of zero-coupon bonds with standard maturities: 1 month, 3 months, 6 months, 1 year, 2 years, 5 years, 7 years, 10 years, and 30 years. For the purposes of calculating VaR or ES, the cash flows from instruments in
the portfolio are mapped into cash flows occurring on the standard maturity dates. Consider a $1 million position in a Treasury bond lasting 1.2 years that pays a coupon
of 6% semiannually. Coupons are paid in 0.2, 0.7, and 1.2 years, and the principal is
paid in 1.2 years. This bond is, therefore, in the first instance regarded as a $30,000 position in 0.2-year zero-coupon bond plus a $30,000 position in a 0.7-year zero- coupon bond plus a $1.03 million position in a 1.2-year zero-coupon bond. The
position in the 0.2-year bond is then replaced by an approximately equivalent position
in 1-month and 3-month zero-coupon bonds; the position in the 0.7-year bond is replaced by an approximately equivalent position in 6-month and 1-year zero-coupon bonds; and the position in the 1.2-year bond is replaced by an approximately equivalent position in 1-year and 2-year zero-coupon bonds. The result is that the position in the 1.2-year coupon-bearing bond is regarded as a position in zero-coupon bonds having maturities of 1 month, 3 months, 6 months, 1 year, and 2 years.
This procedure is known as cash-flow mapping. One way of doing it is explained in
Technical Note 25 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes. Note that cash-flow mapping is not necessary when the historical simulation approach is used. This is because the complete term structure of interest rates can be calculated from the variables that are considered for each of the scenarios generated by using the bootstrap method in Chapter 4.
Applications of the Linear Model
The simplest application of the linear model is to a portfolio with no derivatives
consisting of positions in stocks and bonds. Cash-flow mapping converts the bonds to zero-coupon bonds with standard maturities. The change in the value of the portfolio is
linearly dependent on the returns on the stocks and these zero-coupon bonds.
Another instrument that can be handled by the linear model is a forward contract to
buy or sell foreign currency at a future time T. The contract can be regarded as the exchange of a foreign zero-coupon bond maturing at time T for a domestic zero-coupon
bond maturing at time T. For the purposes of calculating VaR or ES, the forward contract is therefore treated as a long position in the foreign bond combined with a short position in the domestic bond. Each bond is handled using a cash-flow mapping procedure.
An overnight indexed swap (OIS) can also be handled using the linear model. It can
be regarded as the exchange of a fixed-rate bond for a floating-rate bond. The floating- rate bond has a known value, which is the amount the notional principal would become if it were invested at overnight rates for a period of time starting at the last reset date. The fixed-rate bond can be handled using cash-flow mapping procedures.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 529
The Linear Model and Options
We now consider how we might try to use the linear model when there are options.
Consider first a portfolio consisting of options on a single stock whose current price
is S. Suppose that the delta of the position (calculated in the way described in Chapter
19) is d.7 Since d is the rate of change of the value of the portfolio with S, it is
approximately true that
d=āP
āS
or
āP=d āS (22.5)
where āS is the dollar change in the stock price in 1 day and āP is, as usual, the dollar
change in the portfolio in 1 day. Define āx as the percentage change in the stock price
in 1 day, so that
āx=āS
S
It follows that an approximate relationship between āP and āx is
āP=Sd āx
Linear and Quadratic Option Models
- The linear model approximates portfolio value changes by multiplying the asset's delta by the dollar change in the underlying stock price.
- By defining delta as the rate of change, a portfolio of multiple options can be treated as a weighted sum of the returns of the underlying market variables.
- The linear approach is limited because it fails to account for gamma, which measures the curvature of the relationship between portfolio value and market variables.
- Positive gamma in a portfolio leads to a positively skewed probability distribution, while negative gamma results in negative skewness.
- A long call option serves as a primary example of a positive gamma position where normal underlying price distributions result in skewed option price outcomes.
When gamma is positive, the probability distribution tends to be positively skewed; when gamma is negative, it tends to be negatively skewed.
We now consider how we might try to use the linear model when there are options.
Consider first a portfolio consisting of options on a single stock whose current price
is S. Suppose that the delta of the position (calculated in the way described in Chapter
19) is d.7 Since d is the rate of change of the value of the portfolio with S, it is
approximately true that
d=āP
āS
or
āP=d āS (22.5)
where āS is the dollar change in the stock price in 1 day and āP is, as usual, the dollar
change in the portfolio in 1 day. Define āx as the percentage change in the stock price
in 1 day, so that
āx=āS
S
It follows that an approximate relationship between āP and āx is
āP=Sd āx
When we have a position in several underlying market variables that includes options,
we can derive an approximate linear relationship between āP and the āxi similarly.
This relationship is
āP=an
i=1Sidiāxi (22.6)
where Si is the value of the ith market variable and di is the delta of the portfolio with
respect to the ith market variable. This corresponds to equation (22.2):
āP=an
i=1ai āxi
with ai=Sidi. Equation (22.3) or (22.4) can therefore be used to calculate the standard
deviation of āP.
Example 22.1
A portfolio consists of options on Microsoft and AT&T. The options on Microsoft
have a delta of 1,000, and the options on AT&T have a delta of 20,000. The
Microsoft share price is $120, and the AT&T share price is $30. From equa-
tion (22.6), it is approximately true that
āP=120*1,000*āx1+30*20,000*āx2
or
āP=120,000 āx1+600,000 āx2
where āx1 and āx2 are the returns from Microsoft and AT&T in 1 day and āP is
the resultant change in the value of the portfolio. (The portfolio is assumed to be
7 Normally we denote the delta and gamma of a portfolio by ā and Ī. In this section and the next, we use the
lower case Greek letters d and g to avoid overworking ā.
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530 CHAPTER 22
equivalent to an investment of $120,000 in Microsoft and $600,000 in AT&T.)
Assuming that the daily volatility of Microsoft is 2% and the daily volatility of AT&T is 1% and the correlation between the daily changes is 0.3, the standard deviation of
āP (in thousands of dollars) is
21120*0.0222+1600*0.0122+2*120*0.02*600*0.01*0.3=7.099
22.5 THE QUADRATIC MODEL
When a portfolio includes options, the linear model is an approximation. It does not
take account of the gamma of the portfolio. As discussed in Chapter 19, delta is defined as the rate of change of the portfolio value with respect to an underlying market
variable and gamma is defined as the rate of change of the delta with respect to the
market variable. Gamma measures the curvature of the relationship between the
portfolio value and an underlying market variable.
Figure 22.3 shows the impact of a nonzero gamma on the probability distribution of
the value of the portfolio. When gamma is positive, the probability distribution tends to
be positively skewed; when gamma is negative, it tends to be negatively skewed.
Figures 22.4 and 22.5 illustrate the reason for this result. Figure 22.4 shows the relation-
ship between the value of a long call option and the price of the underlying asset. A long
call is an example of an option position with positive gamma. The figure shows that, when the probability distribution for the price of the underlying asset at the end of 1 day
is normal, the probability distribution for the option price is positively skewed.
8
Gamma and Portfolio Risk
- The presence of a nonzero gamma significantly alters the probability distribution of a portfolio's value, causing it to deviate from a normal distribution.
- Positive gamma positions, such as long calls, create positively skewed distributions with lighter left tails, often resulting in overly conservative Value at Risk (VaR) estimates.
- Negative gamma positions, such as short calls, lead to negatively skewed distributions with heavier left tails, which can cause standard VaR models to dangerously underestimate risk.
- To improve accuracy, the quadratic model incorporates both delta and gamma to better capture the non-linear relationship between asset price changes and portfolio value.
- The general form of the risk equation accounts for cross-gamma effects when instruments in a portfolio are dependent on multiple interacting market variables.
If the distribution of ĪP is normal, the calculated VaR tends to be too low.
portfolio value and an underlying market variable.
Figure 22.3 shows the impact of a nonzero gamma on the probability distribution of
the value of the portfolio. When gamma is positive, the probability distribution tends to
be positively skewed; when gamma is negative, it tends to be negatively skewed.
Figures 22.4 and 22.5 illustrate the reason for this result. Figure 22.4 shows the relation-
ship between the value of a long call option and the price of the underlying asset. A long
call is an example of an option position with positive gamma. The figure shows that, when the probability distribution for the price of the underlying asset at the end of 1 day
is normal, the probability distribution for the option price is positively skewed.
8
Figure 22.5 shows the relationship between the value of a short call position and the
price of the underlying asset. A short call position has a negative gamma. In this case, we
see that a normal distribution for the price of the underlying asset at the end of 1 day gets
mapped into a negatively skewed distribution for the value of the option position.
The VaR or ES for a portfolio is critically dependent on the left tail of the probability
distribution of the portfolio value. For example, when the confidence level used is 99%, the VaR is the value in the left tail below which there is only 1% of the distribution. As
indicated in Figures 22.3a and 22.4, a positive gamma portfolio tends to have a less
8 As mentioned in footnote 5, we can use the normal distribution as an approximation to the lognormal
distribution in VaR calculations.Figure 22.3 Probability distribution for value of portfolio: (a) positive gamma;
(b) negative gamma.
(a) (b)
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 531
Figure 22.4 Translation of normal probability distribution for asset into probability
distribution for value of a long call on asset.
Value of
long call
Underlying asset
Figure 22.5 Translation of normal probability distribution for asset into probability
distribution for value of a short call on asset.
Value of
short call
Underlying asset
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532 CHAPTER 22
heavy left tail than the normal distribution. If the distribution of āP is normal, the
calculated VaR tends to be too high. Similarly, as indicated in Figures 22.3b and 22.5, a
negative gamma portfolio tends to have a heavier left tail than the normal distribution.
If the distribution of āP is normal, the calculated VaR tends to be too low.
For a more accurate estimate of VaR than that given by the linear model, both delta
and gamma measures can be used to relate āP to the āxi. Consider a portfolio
dependent on a single asset whose price is S. Suppose d and g are the delta and gamma
of the portfolio. From the appendix to Chapter 19, the equation
āP=d āS+1
2g1āS22
is an improvement over the approximation in equation (22.5).9 Setting
āx=āS
S
reduces this to
āP=Sd āx+1
2S2g1āx22 (22.7)
More generally for a portfolio with n underlying market variables, with each instrument
in the portfolio being dependent on only one of the market variables, equation (22.7) becomes
āP=an
i=1Sidi āxi+an
i=11
2S2
igi1āxi22
where Si is the value of the ith market variable, and di and gi are the delta and gamma of
the portfolio with respect to the ith market variable. When individual instruments in the
portfolio may be dependent on more than one market variable, this equation takes the
more general form
āP=an
i=1Sidiāxi+an
i=1an
j=11
2SiSjgij āxi āxj (22.8)
where gij is a ācross gammaā defined as
gij=02P
0Si0Sj
Portfolio Valuation and Risk Simulation
- The text defines a general formula for portfolio value changes (ĪP) using delta, gamma, and cross-gamma terms for multiple market variables.
- Because ĪP is not normally distributed when gamma is present, the CornishāFisher expansion can be used to estimate distribution percentiles from statistical moments.
- Monte Carlo simulation offers an alternative model-building approach by sampling from multivariate normal distributions to generate a probability distribution for ĪP.
- While Monte Carlo simulation provides a flexible way to calculate Value at Risk (VaR), its primary drawback is the significant computational time required for large portfolios.
The drawback of Monte Carlo simulation is that it tends to be slow because a companyās complete portfolio (which might consist of hundreds of thousands of instruments) must be revalued many times.
More generally for a portfolio with n underlying market variables, with each instrument
in the portfolio being dependent on only one of the market variables, equation (22.7) becomes
āP=an
i=1Sidi āxi+an
i=11
2S2
igi1āxi22
where Si is the value of the ith market variable, and di and gi are the delta and gamma of
the portfolio with respect to the ith market variable. When individual instruments in the
portfolio may be dependent on more than one market variable, this equation takes the
more general form
āP=an
i=1Sidiāxi+an
i=1an
j=11
2SiSjgij āxi āxj (22.8)
where gij is a ācross gammaā defined as
gij=02P
0Si0Sj
Equation (22.8) is not as easy to work with as equation (22.2) because āP is not normally
distributed. If there are only a small number of variables, equation (22.8) can be used to
calculate moments for āP. A result in statistics known as the CornishāFisher expansion
can be used to estimate percentiles of the probability distribution from the moments.10
9 The Taylor series expansion in the appendix to Chapter 19 suggests the approximation āP=
Ī āt+d āS+1
2g1āS22 when terms of higher order than āt are ignored. In practice, the Ī āt term is
much smaller than the others when āS is large, as it usually is when the āworst caseā movements in P are
being considered.
10 See Technical Note 10 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for details of the calculation
of moments and the use of CornishāFisher expansions. When there is a single underlying variable, E1āP2=
0.5S2gs2, E1āP22=S2d2s2+0.75S4g2s4, and E1āP32=4.5S4d2gs4+1.875S6g3s6, where S is the
value of the variable and s is its daily volatility. Sample Application E in the DerivaGem Applications
implements the CornishāFisher expansion method for this case.
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Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 533
As an alternative to the procedure described so far, the model-building approach can be
implemented using Monte Carlo simulation to generate the probability distribution
for āP. Suppose we wish to calculate a 1-day VaR for a portfolio. The procedure is
as follows:
1. Value the portfolio today in the usual way using the current values of market variables.
2. Sample once from the multivariate normal probability distribution of the
āxi.11
3. Use the values of the āxi that are sampled to determine the value of each market
variable at the end of one day.
4. Revalue the portfolio at the end of the day in the usual way.
5. Subtract the value calculated in Step 1 from the value in Step 4 to determine a
sample āP.
6. Repeat Steps 2 to 5 many times to build up a probability distribution for āP.
The VaR is calculated as the appropriate percentile of the probability distribution of
āP. Suppose, for example, that we calculate 5,000 different sample values of āP in the
way just described. The 1-day 99% VaR is the value of āP for the 50th worst outcome;
the 1-day VaR 95% is the value of āP for the 250th worst outcome; and so on.12 The
N-day VaR is usually assumed to be the 1-day VaR multiplied by 2N.13
The drawback of Monte Carlo simulation is that it tends to be slow because a
companyās complete portfolio (which might consist of hundreds of thousands of
VaR Methodologies and Back Testing
- Monte Carlo simulation calculates Value at Risk (VaR) by revaluing portfolios across thousands of sample outcomes, though it is computationally slow for large portfolios.
- The model-building approach offers speed by assuming linear relationships between variables, but it struggles with nonlinear derivatives and assumes a normal distribution.
- Historical simulation uses actual past data to determine probability distributions, avoiding the need for complex mapping but making volatility updates difficult.
- Back testing serves as a critical reality check by comparing historical losses against predicted VaR to verify the accuracy of the risk model.
- Expected Shortfall (ES) is noted as being significantly more difficult to back test than the standard VaR metric.
If this happened on about 1% of the days, we can feel reasonably comfortable with the methodology for calculating VaR. If it happened on, say, 7% of days, the methodology is suspect.
The VaR is calculated as the appropriate percentile of the probability distribution of
āP. Suppose, for example, that we calculate 5,000 different sample values of āP in the
way just described. The 1-day 99% VaR is the value of āP for the 50th worst outcome;
the 1-day VaR 95% is the value of āP for the 250th worst outcome; and so on.12 The
N-day VaR is usually assumed to be the 1-day VaR multiplied by 2N.13
The drawback of Monte Carlo simulation is that it tends to be slow because a
companyās complete portfolio (which might consist of hundreds of thousands of
different instruments) has to be revalued many times.14 One way of speeding things up
is to assume that equation (22.8) describes the relationship between āP and the āxi. We
can then jump straight from Step 2 to Step 5 in the Monte Carlo simulation and avoid the
need for a complete revaluation of the portfolio. This is sometimes referred to as the
partial simulation approach. A similar approach is sometimes used when implementing historical simulation.22.6 MONTE CARLO SIMULATION
11 One way of doing so is given in Section 21.6.
12 A technique known as extreme value theory can be used to āsmooth the tailsā so that better estimates of
extreme percentiles are obtained in both Monte Carlo and historical simulation.
13 This is only approximately true when the portfolio includes options, but it is the assumption that is made
in practice for most VaR calculation methods.
14 An approach for limiting the number of portfolio revaluations is proposed in F. Jamshidian and Y. Zhu,
āScenario Simulation Model: Theory and Methodology,ā Finance and Stochastics, 1 (1997), 43ā67.22.7 COMPARISON OF APPROACHES
We have discussed two methods for estimating VaR: the historical simulation approach and the model-building approach. The basic model-building approach in Sections 22.3 and 22.4 assumes that changes in the portfolioās value are linearly dependent on the underlying market variables. This means that it is not accurate when the portfolio
contains nonlinear derivatives. Monte Carlo simulation can be used to avoid the
linearity assumption, but the speed advantages of the model-building approach are
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 533 30/04/2021 17:38
534 CHAPTER 22
Once a model for calculating VaR has been developed, an important reality check is
back testing. This involves testing how well the VaR estimates would have performed in
the past. Suppose that we are calculating a 1-day 99% VaR. Back testing would involve looking at how often the loss in a day exceeded the 1-day 99% VaR that would have been calculated for that day. If this happened on about 1% of the days, we can feel reasonably comfortable with the methodology for calculating VaR. If it happened on, say, 7% of days, the methodology is suspect. Unfortunately ES is more difficult to back test than VaR.then lost. The model-building approach is most appropriate for portfolios consisting of
long and short positions in assets without any nonlinear derivatives. Results can be
produced speedily and it can be used in conjunction with volatility updating procedures
such as those we will describe in the next chapter. It has the disadvantage that it assumes a multivariate normal distribution for the asset returns. (Often these returns have heavier tails than the normal distribution, as illustrated in Table 20.1.)
The historical simulation approach has the advantage that historical data determine
the joint probability distribution of the market variables. It also avoids the need for cash-flow mapping. The main disadvantages of historical simulation are that it is
computationally slow and does not easily allow volatility updating schemes to be
used.
15
15 For a way of adapting the historical simulation approach to incorporate volatility updating, see J. C. Hull
and A. White, āIncorporating Volatility Updating into the Historical Simulation Method for Value-at-Risk,ā
Journal of Risk 1, No. 1 (1998): 5ā19.22.8 BACK TESTING
Principal Components Analysis in Risk
- Principal components analysis (PCA) is a statistical tool used to manage risk by defining factors that explain movements in highly correlated market variables.
- In the context of U.S. Treasury rates, the first factor typically represents a parallel shift where all rates move in the same direction.
- The second and third factors describe more complex movements, such as a 'twist' in the yield curve slope or a 'bowing' effect across different maturities.
- Factor loadings represent the specific rate changes for each component, while factor scores quantify the amount of a factor present on a given day.
- The importance of each factor is determined by the standard deviation of its factor score, allowing risk managers to prioritize the most impactful market movements.
The second factor is shown in the column labeled PC2. It corresponds to a ātwistā or change of slope of the yield curve.
the joint probability distribution of the market variables. It also avoids the need for cash-flow mapping. The main disadvantages of historical simulation are that it is
computationally slow and does not easily allow volatility updating schemes to be
used.
15
15 For a way of adapting the historical simulation approach to incorporate volatility updating, see J. C. Hull
and A. White, āIncorporating Volatility Updating into the Historical Simulation Method for Value-at-Risk,ā
Journal of Risk 1, No. 1 (1998): 5ā19.22.8 BACK TESTING
22.9 PRINCIPAL COMPONENTS ANALYSIS
One approach to handling the risk arising from groups of highly correlated market
variables is principal components analysis. This is a standard statistical tool with many applications in risk management. It takes historical data on movements in the market
variables and attempts to define a set of components or factors that explain the
movements.
The approach is best illustrated with an example. The market variables we will
consider are U.S. Treasury rates with maturities 1 year, 2 years, 3 years, 5 years, 7 years,
10 years, 20 years, and 30 years. Tables 22.9 and 22.10 show results produced for these
market variables using 2,631 daily observations between 2010 and 2020. The first
column in Table 22.9 shows the maturities of the rates that were considered. The remaining eight columns in the table show the eight factors (or principal components) describing the rate moves. The first factor, shown in the column labeled PC1, corres-
ponds to a shift in the yield curve where all rates move in the same direction. When we have one unit of that factor, the 1-year rate increases by 0.083 basis points, the 2-year rate increases by 0.210 basis points, and so on. The second factor is shown in the column labeled PC2. It corresponds to a ātwistā or change of slope of the yield curve. Rates with
maturities between 1 year and 7 years move in one direction; rates with maturities
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 534 30/04/2021 17:38
Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 535
between 10 years and 30 years move in the other direction. The third factor corresponds
to a ābowingā of the yield curve. Relatively short rates and relatively long rates move in
one direction; the intermediate rates move in the other direction. The interest rate move
for a particular factor is known as factor loading. In our example, the first factorās
loading for the 1-year rate is 0.083.16 (Note that the signs for factor loadings are
somewhat arbitrary. We can change the signs for all factor loadings corresponding to
a particular factor without changing the model. For example, if we did so for the first factor,
-1 unit of that factor would result in the same yield curve changes as + 1 unit
does in Table 22.9.)
Because there are eight rates and eight factors, the interest rate changes observed on
any given day can always be expressed as a linear sum of the factors by solving a set of
eight simultaneous equations. The quantity of a particular factor in the interest rate changes on a particular day is known as the factor score for that day.
The importance of a factor is measured by the standard deviation of its factor score.
The standard deviations of the factor scores in our example are shown in Table 22.10 and the factors are listed in order of their importance. The numbers in Table 22.10 are
measured in basis points. A quantity of the first factor equal to 1 standard deviation, therefore, corresponds to the 1-year rate moving by
0.083*11.54=0.96 basis points,
the 2-year rate moving by 0.210*11.54=2.42 basis points, and so on.
Software for carrying out the calculations underlying Tables 22.9 and 22.10 is on the
authorās website (www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/ā hull/ofod). The factors have the prop-
Principal Components of Interest Rates
- Interest rate changes across different maturities can be decomposed into a linear sum of eight distinct factors using simultaneous equations.
- The importance of each factor is determined by its factor score's standard deviation, with the first factor representing a parallel shift in the yield curve.
- Statistical analysis reveals that the first two factors alone account for 95.6% of the total variance in the original interest rate data.
- By focusing on the most significant factors, analysts can simplify complex portfolio risk assessments and calculate Value at Risk (VaR) more efficiently.
- The factors are mathematically designed to be uncorrelated, meaning the movement of one factor, such as a 'twist,' does not predict the movement of another.
This shows that most of the risk in interest rate moves is accounted for by the first two or three factors.
Because there are eight rates and eight factors, the interest rate changes observed on
any given day can always be expressed as a linear sum of the factors by solving a set of
eight simultaneous equations. The quantity of a particular factor in the interest rate changes on a particular day is known as the factor score for that day.
The importance of a factor is measured by the standard deviation of its factor score.
The standard deviations of the factor scores in our example are shown in Table 22.10 and the factors are listed in order of their importance. The numbers in Table 22.10 are
measured in basis points. A quantity of the first factor equal to 1 standard deviation, therefore, corresponds to the 1-year rate moving by
0.083*11.54=0.96 basis points,
the 2-year rate moving by 0.210*11.54=2.42 basis points, and so on.
Software for carrying out the calculations underlying Tables 22.9 and 22.10 is on the
authorās website (www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/ā hull/ofod). The factors have the prop-
erty that the factor scores are uncorrelated across the data. For instance, in our
example, the first factor score (amount of parallel shift) is uncorrelated with the second factor score (amount of twist) across the 2,631 days. The variances of the factor scores have the property that they add up to the total variance of the data. From Table 22.10,
PC1 PC2 PC3 PC4 PC5 PC6 PC7 PC8
11.54 3.55 1.78 1.25 0.91 0.69 0.62 0.57Table 22.10 Standard deviation of factor scores (basis points).PC1 PC2 PC3 PC4 PC5 PC6 PC7 PC8
1yr 0.083 -0.242 0.685 -0.682-0.006-0.025-0.021-0.004
2yr 0.210 -0.465 0.376 0.574 -0.517-0.031 0.011 -0.008
3yr 0.286 -0.467 0.006 0.185 0.728 0.347 0.106 -0.074
5yr 0.386 -0.315-0.332-0.145 0.061 -0.604-0.348 0.361
7yr 0.430 -0.099-0.349-0.265-0.266-0.008 0.263 -0.688
10yr 0.428 0.119 -0.153-0.172-0.269 0.515 0.254 0.589
20yr 0.426 0.394 0.172 0.099 0.027 0.244 -0.722-0.205
30yr 0.411 0.478 0.323 0.204 0.234 -0.434 0.461 0.036Table 22.9 Factor loadings for U.S. Treasury rates.
16 The factor loadings have the property that the sum of their squares for each factor is 1.0. Also, note that a
factor is not changed if the signs of all its factor loadings are reversed.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 535 30/04/2021 17:38
536 CHAPTER 22
the total variance of the original data (that is, sum of the variance of the observations
on the 1-year rate, the variance of the observations on the 2-year rate, and so on) is
11.542+3.552+1.782+g+0.572=152.5
From this it can be seen that the first factor accounts for 11.542>152.5=87.3, of the
variance in the original data; the first two factors account for
111.542+3.5522>152.5=95.6,
of the variance in the data; the third factor accounts for a further 2.1% of the variance. This shows that most of the risk in interest rate moves is accounted for by the first two or three factors. It suggests that we can relate the risks in a portfolio of interest rate dependent instruments to movements in these factors instead of considering all eight interest rates.
The three most important factors from Table 22.9 are plotted in Figure 22.6.
17
Using Principal Components Analysis to Calculate VaR
To illustrate how a principal components analysis can be used to calculate VaR, consider
a portfolio with the exposures to interest rate moves shown in Table 22.11. A 1-basis-point change in the 2-year rate causes the portfolio value to increase by $10 million, a
1-basis-point change in the 3-year rate causes it to increase by $4 million, and so on. Suppose the first two factors are used to model rate moves. (As mentioned above, this Figure 22.6 The three most important factors driving movements in U.S.
Treasury rates.
20.620.420.20.20.6
0.40.8
0
0 51 01 52 02 53 0Maturity (years)Factor loading
PC1
PC2
PC3
Principal Components in VaR
- Principal components analysis (PCA) simplifies Value at Risk calculations by reducing numerous interest rate exposures into a few dominant factors.
- The first two factors of a yield curve analysis typically capture over 95% of the variance in rate movements across different maturities.
- Portfolio sensitivity is calculated by multiplying specific rate exposures by factor loadings to determine the standard deviation of the total value change.
- While primarily used for interest rates, PCA can also be applied to stock indices and other highly correlated market variables to streamline risk modeling.
- For maximum accuracy in VaR calculations, it is often more appropriate to perform PCA on percentage changes rather than absolute changes in market variables.
Results similar to those described here, concerning the nature of the factors and the amount of the total risk they account for, are obtained when a principal components analysis is used to explain the movements in almost any yield curve in any country.
To illustrate how a principal components analysis can be used to calculate VaR, consider
a portfolio with the exposures to interest rate moves shown in Table 22.11. A 1-basis-point change in the 2-year rate causes the portfolio value to increase by $10 million, a
1-basis-point change in the 3-year rate causes it to increase by $4 million, and so on. Suppose the first two factors are used to model rate moves. (As mentioned above, this Figure 22.6 The three most important factors driving movements in U.S.
Treasury rates.
20.620.420.20.20.6
0.40.8
0
0 51 01 52 02 53 0Maturity (years)Factor loading
PC1
PC2
PC3
17 Results similar to those described here, concerning the nature of the factors and the amount of the total
risk they account for, are obtained when a principal components analysis is used to explain the movements in
almost any yield curve in any country.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 536 30/04/2021 17:38
Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 537
captures 95.6% of the variance in rate moves.) Using the data in Table 22.9, the exposure
to the first factor (measured in millions of dollars per factor score basis point) is
10*0.210+4*0.286-8*0.386-7*0.430+2*0.428=-1.99
and the exposure to the second factor is
10*1-0.4652+4*1-0.4672-8*1-0.3152-7*1-0.0992+2*0.119=-3.06
Suppose that f1 and f2 are the factor scores (measured in basis points). The change in
the portfolio value is, to a good approximation, given by
āP=-1.99f1-3.06f2
The factor scores are uncorrelated and have the standard deviations given in Table 22.10.
The standard deviation of āP is therefore
21.992*11.542+3.062*3.552=25.45
Assuming normally distributed factors, the 1-day 99% VaR is 25.45*2.326=59.2.
A principal components analysis can in theory be used for market variables other
than interest rates. Suppose that a financial institution has exposures to a number of
different stock indices. A principal components analysis can be used to identify factors describing movements in the indices and the most important of these can be used to replace the market indices in a VaR analysis. How effective a principal components analysis is for a group of market variables depends on how closely correlated they are.
As explained earlier in the chapter, VaR is usually calculated by relating the actual
changes in a portfolio to percentage changes in market variables (the
āxi). For a VaR
calculation, it may therefore be most appropriate to carry out a principal components analysis on percentage changes in market variables rather than actual changes.
SUMMARY
A value at risk (VaR) calculation is aimed at making a statement of the form: āWe are
X percent certain that we will not lose more than V dollars in the next N days. ā The variable V is the VaR, X% is the confidence level, and N days is the time horizon.
Expected shortfall (ES) is the expected loss conditional on the loss being greater than the VaR level.
One approach to calculating VaR or ES is historical simulation. This involves
creating a database consisting of the daily movements in all market variables over a 2-year
rate3-year
rate5-year
rate7-year
rate10-year
rate
+10 +4 -8 -7 +2Table 22.11 Change in portfolio value for a 1 -basis-point
rate move ($ millions).
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 537 30/04/2021 17:38
538 CHAPTER 22
period of time. The first simulation trial assumes that the percentage changes in each
market variable are the same as those on the first day covered by the database; the second simulation trial assumes that the percentage changes are the same as those on
the second day; and so on. The change in the portfolio value,
āP, is calculated for each
simulation trial, and the VaR is calculated as the appropriate percentile of the
probability distribution of āP. ES is the average of the observations in the VaR tail.
An alternative is the model-building approach. This is relatively straightforward if
two assumptions can be made:
Risk Measurement Methodologies
- Historical simulation calculates Value at Risk (VaR) by applying past market variable changes directly to the current portfolio.
- The model-building approach relies on the assumptions of linear portfolio dependence and multivariate normal distributions of market variables.
- Expected Shortfall (ES) is determined by averaging the observations found within the tail of the VaR distribution.
- Portfolios containing options require more complex quadratic approximations or Monte Carlo simulations due to non-linear relationships.
- The gamma of a portfolio is a critical metric for deriving the relationship between market changes and portfolio value in non-linear scenarios.
When a portfolio includes options, āP is not linearly related to the percentage changes in market variables.
period of time. The first simulation trial assumes that the percentage changes in each
market variable are the same as those on the first day covered by the database; the second simulation trial assumes that the percentage changes are the same as those on
the second day; and so on. The change in the portfolio value,
āP, is calculated for each
simulation trial, and the VaR is calculated as the appropriate percentile of the
probability distribution of āP. ES is the average of the observations in the VaR tail.
An alternative is the model-building approach. This is relatively straightforward if
two assumptions can be made:
1. The change in the value of the portfolio 1āP2 is linearly dependent on percentage
changes in market variables.
2. The percentage changes in market variables are multivariate normally distributed.
The probability distribution of āP is then normal, and there are analytic formulas for
relating the standard deviation of āP to the volatilities and correlations of the under -
lying market variables. The VaR or ES can be calculated from well-known properties of
the normal distribution.
When a portfolio includes options, āP is not linearly related to the percentage
changes in market variables. From knowledge of the gamma of the portfolio, we can derive an approximate quadratic relationship between
āP and percentage changes in
market variables. Monte Carlo simulation can then be used to estimate VaR.
In the next chapter we discuss how volatilities and correlations can be estimated and
monitored.
FURTHER READING
Artzner P., F. Delbaen, J.-M. Eber, and D. Heath. āCoherent Measures of Risk,ā Mathematical
Finance, 9 (1999): 203ā28.
Basak, S., and A. Shapiro. āValue-at-Risk-Based Risk Management: Optimal Policies and Asset
Prices,ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 2 (2001): 371ā405.
Boudoukh, J., M. Richardson, and R. Whitelaw. āThe Best of Both Worlds,ā Risk, May 1998:
64ā67.
Dowd, K. Beyond Value at Risk: The New Science of Risk Management. New York: Wiley, 1998.
Duffie, D., and J. Pan. āAn Overview of Value at Risk,ā Journal of Derivatives, 4, 3 (Spring
1997): 7ā49.
Embrechts, P., C. Kluppelberg, and T. Mikosch. Modeling Extremal Events for Insurance and
Finance. New York: Springer, 1997.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āValue at Risk When Daily Changes in Market Variables Are Not
Normally Distributed,ā Journal of Derivatives, 5 (Spring 1998): 9ā19.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āIncorporating Volatility Updating into the Historical Simulation
Method for Value at Risk,ā Journal of Risk, 1, 1 (1998): 5ā19.
Jackson, P., D. J. Maude, and W. Perraudin. āBank Capital and Value at Risk.ā Journal of
Derivatives, 4, 3 (Spring 1997): 73ā90.
Jamshidian, F., and Y. Zhu. āScenario Simulation Model: Theory and Methodology,ā Finance
and Stochastics, 1 (1997): 43ā67.
Jorion, P. Value at Risk, 3rd edn. McGraw-Hill, 2007.Longin, F. M. āBeyond the VaR,ā Journal of Derivatives, 8, 4 (Summer 2001): 36ā48.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 538 30/04/2021 17:38
Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 539
Marshall, C., and M. Siegel. āValue at Risk: Implementing a Risk Measurement Standard,ā
Journal of Derivatives 4, 3 (Spring 1997): 91ā111.
Neftci, S. āValue at Risk Calculations, Extreme Events and Tail Estimation,ā Journal of
Derivatives, 7, 3 (Spring 2000): 23ā38.
Rich, D. āSecond Generation VaR and Risk-Adjusted Return on Capital,ā Journal of
Derivatives, 10, 4 (Summer 2003): 51ā61.
Practice Questions
Risk Measurement and Practice
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of academic research focused on Value at Risk (VaR), Extreme Value Theory, and Expected Shortfall.
- Practical exercises challenge students to calculate VaR and Expected Shortfall for portfolios involving multiple assets and correlation coefficients.
- The material explores the complexities of modeling derivative portfolios, specifically focusing on how delta and gamma affect risk estimates.
- Methodological comparisons are drawn between the model-building approach, which often assumes normal distributions, and historical simulation techniques.
- Specific financial instruments, such as forward contracts and zero-coupon bonds, are used to demonstrate the mapping of risk factors in a portfolio.
Explain why the linear model can provide only approximate estimates of VaR for a portfolio containing options.
and Stochastics, 1 (1997): 43ā67.
Jorion, P. Value at Risk, 3rd edn. McGraw-Hill, 2007.Longin, F. M. āBeyond the VaR,ā Journal of Derivatives, 8, 4 (Summer 2001): 36ā48.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 538 30/04/2021 17:38
Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 539
Marshall, C., and M. Siegel. āValue at Risk: Implementing a Risk Measurement Standard,ā
Journal of Derivatives 4, 3 (Spring 1997): 91ā111.
Neftci, S. āValue at Risk Calculations, Extreme Events and Tail Estimation,ā Journal of
Derivatives, 7, 3 (Spring 2000): 23ā38.
Rich, D. āSecond Generation VaR and Risk-Adjusted Return on Capital,ā Journal of
Derivatives, 10, 4 (Summer 2003): 51ā61.
Practice Questions
22.1. Consider a position consisting of a $100,000 investment in asset A and a $100,000
investment in asset B. Assume that the daily volatilities of both assets are 1% and that
the coefficient of correlation between their returns is 0.3. Estimate the 5-day 99% VaR and ES for the portfolio assuming normally distributed returns.
22.2. Describe three ways of handling instruments that are dependent on interest rates when the model-building approach is used to calculate VaR. How would you handle these instruments when historical simulation is used to calculate VaR?
22.3. A financial institution owns a portfolio of options on the U.S. dollarāsterling exchange rate. The delta of the portfolio is 56.0. The current exchange rate is 1.5000. Derive an approximate linear relationship between the change in the portfolio value and the
percentage change in the exchange rate. If the daily volatility of the exchange rate is 0.7%, estimate the 10-day 99% VaR.
22.4. Suppose you know that the gamma of the portfolio in the previous question is 16.2. How does this change your estimate of the relationship between the change in the portfolio value and the percentage change in the exchange rate?
22.5. Suppose that the daily change in the value of a portfolio is, to a good approximation, linearly dependent on two factors, calculated from a principal components analysis. The delta of a portfolio with respect to the first factor is 6 and the delta with respect to the second factor is
-4. The standard deviations of the factors are 20 and 8, respectively.
What is the 5-day 90% VaR?
22.6 Suppose that a company has a portfolio consisting of positions in stocks and bonds. Assume that there are no derivatives. Explain the assumptions underlying (a) the linear model and (b) the historical simulation model for calculating VaR.
22.7. Explain how a forward contract to sell foreign currency is mapped into a portfolio of zero-coupon bonds with standard maturities for the purposes of a VaR calculation.
22.8. Explain the difference between value at risk and expected shortfall.
22.9. Explain why the linear model can provide only approximate estimates of VaR for a portfolio containing options.
22.10. Some time ago a company entered into a forward contract to buy £1 million for
$1.5 million. The contract now has 6 months to maturity. The daily volatility of a
6-month zero-coupon sterling bond (when its price is translated to dollars) is 0.06% and
the daily volatility of a 6-month zero-coupon dollar bond is 0.05%. The correlation
between returns from the two bonds is 0.8. The current exchange rate is 1.53. Calculate the standard deviation of the change in the dollar value of the forward contract in 1 day. What is the 10-day 99% VaR? Assume that the 6-month interest rate in both sterling and
dollars is 5% per annum with continuous compounding.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 539 30/04/2021 17:38
540 CHAPTER 22
Risk Measurement and VaR Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating Value at Risk (VaR) and Expected Shortfall (ES) for diverse financial portfolios.
- It explores the application of linear models, historical simulations, and principal components analysis to estimate potential losses in assets like stocks, bonds, and options.
- Specific exercises address the impact of Greek lettersādelta, gamma, and vegaāon the sensitivity of option portfolios to market fluctuations.
- The problems require mapping complex instruments, such as forward contracts, into simpler components like zero-coupon bonds for standardized risk assessment.
- The material emphasizes the distinction between model-building approaches and historical simulation when handling interest-rate-dependent instruments.
Explain why the linear model can provide only approximate estimates of VaR for a portfolio containing options.
22.1. Consider a position consisting of a $100,000 investment in asset A and a $100,000
investment in asset B. Assume that the daily volatilities of both assets are 1% and that
the coefficient of correlation between their returns is 0.3. Estimate the 5-day 99% VaR and ES for the portfolio assuming normally distributed returns.
22.2. Describe three ways of handling instruments that are dependent on interest rates when the model-building approach is used to calculate VaR. How would you handle these instruments when historical simulation is used to calculate VaR?
22.3. A financial institution owns a portfolio of options on the U.S. dollarāsterling exchange rate. The delta of the portfolio is 56.0. The current exchange rate is 1.5000. Derive an approximate linear relationship between the change in the portfolio value and the
percentage change in the exchange rate. If the daily volatility of the exchange rate is 0.7%, estimate the 10-day 99% VaR.
22.4. Suppose you know that the gamma of the portfolio in the previous question is 16.2. How does this change your estimate of the relationship between the change in the portfolio value and the percentage change in the exchange rate?
22.5. Suppose that the daily change in the value of a portfolio is, to a good approximation, linearly dependent on two factors, calculated from a principal components analysis. The delta of a portfolio with respect to the first factor is 6 and the delta with respect to the second factor is
-4. The standard deviations of the factors are 20 and 8, respectively.
What is the 5-day 90% VaR?
22.6 Suppose that a company has a portfolio consisting of positions in stocks and bonds. Assume that there are no derivatives. Explain the assumptions underlying (a) the linear model and (b) the historical simulation model for calculating VaR.
22.7. Explain how a forward contract to sell foreign currency is mapped into a portfolio of zero-coupon bonds with standard maturities for the purposes of a VaR calculation.
22.8. Explain the difference between value at risk and expected shortfall.
22.9. Explain why the linear model can provide only approximate estimates of VaR for a portfolio containing options.
22.10. Some time ago a company entered into a forward contract to buy £1 million for
$1.5 million. The contract now has 6 months to maturity. The daily volatility of a
6-month zero-coupon sterling bond (when its price is translated to dollars) is 0.06% and
the daily volatility of a 6-month zero-coupon dollar bond is 0.05%. The correlation
between returns from the two bonds is 0.8. The current exchange rate is 1.53. Calculate the standard deviation of the change in the dollar value of the forward contract in 1 day. What is the 10-day 99% VaR? Assume that the 6-month interest rate in both sterling and
dollars is 5% per annum with continuous compounding.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 539 30/04/2021 17:38
540 CHAPTER 22
22.11. The text calculates a VaR estimate for the example in Table 22.11 assuming two factors.
How does the estimate change if you assume (a) one factor and (b) three factors.
22.12. A bank has a portfolio of options on an asset. The delta of the options is -30 and the
gamma is -5. Explain how these numbers can be interpreted. The asset price is 20 and
its volatility is 1% per day. Adapt Sample Application E in the DerivaGem Application
Builder software to calculate VaR.
22.13. Suppose that in Problem 22.12 the vega of the portfolio is -2 per 1% change in the
annual volatility. Derive a model relating the change in the portfolio value in 1 day to
delta, gamma, and vega. Explain without doing detailed calculations how you would use the model to calculate a VaR estimate.
22.14. The 1-day 99% VaR is calculated using historical simulation for the four-index example
in Section 22.2 as $422,291. Look at the underlying spreadsheets on the authorās website and calculate using historical simulation: (a) the 1-day 95% VaR, (b) the 1-day 95% ES, (c) the 1-day 97% VaR, and (d) the 1-day 97% ES. Repeat your calculations using the model-building approach.
22.15. Use the spreadsheets on the authorās website to calculate the 1-day 99% VaR and ES,
employing the basic methodology in Section 22.2, if the four-index portfolio considered in
VaR and ES Problem Sets
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating Value at Risk (VaR) and Expected Shortfall (ES) using various financial models.
- Exercises require the application of delta, gamma, and vega Greeks to estimate portfolio value changes and risk exposure.
- Different methodologies are compared, including historical simulation, model-building approaches, and Monte Carlo simulations.
- Specific scenarios involve complex instruments such as bond portfolios with modified durations and options on multiple underlying assets.
- The problems challenge the reader to evaluate how factor assumptions and confidence levels impact the accuracy of risk estimates.
Explain carefully the weaknesses of this approach to calculating VaR.
22.11. The text calculates a VaR estimate for the example in Table 22.11 assuming two factors.
How does the estimate change if you assume (a) one factor and (b) three factors.
22.12. A bank has a portfolio of options on an asset. The delta of the options is -30 and the
gamma is -5. Explain how these numbers can be interpreted. The asset price is 20 and
its volatility is 1% per day. Adapt Sample Application E in the DerivaGem Application
Builder software to calculate VaR.
22.13. Suppose that in Problem 22.12 the vega of the portfolio is -2 per 1% change in the
annual volatility. Derive a model relating the change in the portfolio value in 1 day to
delta, gamma, and vega. Explain without doing detailed calculations how you would use the model to calculate a VaR estimate.
22.14. The 1-day 99% VaR is calculated using historical simulation for the four-index example
in Section 22.2 as $422,291. Look at the underlying spreadsheets on the authorās website and calculate using historical simulation: (a) the 1-day 95% VaR, (b) the 1-day 95% ES, (c) the 1-day 97% VaR, and (d) the 1-day 97% ES. Repeat your calculations using the model-building approach.
22.15. Use the spreadsheets on the authorās website to calculate the 1-day 99% VaR and ES,
employing the basic methodology in Section 22.2, if the four-index portfolio considered in
Section 22.2 is equally divided between the four indices. Repeat your calculations using
the model-building approach.
22.16. A company has a position in bonds worth $6 million. The modified duration of the
portfolio is 5.2 years. Assume that only parallel shifts in the yield curve can take place
and that the standard deviation of the daily yield change (when yield is measured in
percent) is 0.09. Use the duration model to estimate the 20-day 90% VaR for the
portfolio. Explain carefully the weaknesses of this approach to calculating VaR. Explain two alternatives that give more accuracy.
22.17. Consider a portfolio of options on a single asset. Suppose that the delta of the portfolio
is 12, the value of the asset is $10, and the daily volatility of the asset is 2%. Estimate the 1-day 95% VaR for the portfolio from the delta. Suppose next that the gamma of the portfolio is
-2.6. Derive a quadratic relationship between the change in the portfolio
value and the percentage change in the underlying asset price in one day. How would you use this in a Monte Carlo simulation?
22.18. A company has a long position in a 2-year bond and a 3-year bond, as well as a short
position in a 5-year bond. Each bond has a principal of $100 and pays a 5% coupon
annually. Calculate the companyās exposure to the 1-year, 2-year, 3-year, 4-year, and 5-year rates. Use the data in Tables 22.9 and 22.10 to calculate a 20-day 95% VaR on the
assumption that rate changes are explained by (a) one factor, (b) two factors,
and (c) three factors. Assume that the zero-coupon yield curve is flat at 5%.
22.19. A bank has written a call option on one stock and a put option on another stock. For
the first option the stock price is 50, the strike price is 51, the volatility is 28% per
annum, and the time to maturity is 9 months. For the second option the stock price is
20, the strike price is 19, the volatility is 25% per annum, and the time to maturity is
1 year. Neither stock pays a dividend, the risk-free rate is 6% per annum, and the
correlation between stock price returns is 0.4. Calculate a 10-day 99% VaR: (a) using
only deltas, (b) using the partial simulation approach, and (c) using the full simulation approach.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 540 30/04/2021 17:38
Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 541
22.20. Use equation (22.1) to show that when the loss distribution is normal, VaR with 99%
confidence is almost exactly the same as ES with 97.5% confidence.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 541 30/04/2021 17:38
542
Estimating
Volatilities and
Correlations23 CHAPTER
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations
- The text provides quantitative exercises for calculating Value at Risk (VaR) using factor analysis and simulation approaches for bond and option portfolios.
- A mathematical proof is suggested to show that under a normal distribution, 99% VaR is nearly identical to 97.5% Expected Shortfall.
- Chapter 23 introduces advanced statistical models like EWMA, ARCH, and GARCH to track non-constant market fluctuations.
- The authors emphasize that volatilities and correlations are dynamic, requiring models that monitor variations over time rather than assuming stability.
- Standard variance rate estimation is often simplified for daily monitoring by assuming a mean return of zero and using percentage changes.
The chapter considers models with imposing names such as exponentially weighted moving average (EWMA), autoregressive conditional heteroscedasticity (ARCH), and generalized autoregressive conditional heteroscedasticity (GARCH).
value and the percentage change in the underlying asset price in one day. How would you use this in a Monte Carlo simulation?
22.18. A company has a long position in a 2-year bond and a 3-year bond, as well as a short
position in a 5-year bond. Each bond has a principal of $100 and pays a 5% coupon
annually. Calculate the companyās exposure to the 1-year, 2-year, 3-year, 4-year, and 5-year rates. Use the data in Tables 22.9 and 22.10 to calculate a 20-day 95% VaR on the
assumption that rate changes are explained by (a) one factor, (b) two factors,
and (c) three factors. Assume that the zero-coupon yield curve is flat at 5%.
22.19. A bank has written a call option on one stock and a put option on another stock. For
the first option the stock price is 50, the strike price is 51, the volatility is 28% per
annum, and the time to maturity is 9 months. For the second option the stock price is
20, the strike price is 19, the volatility is 25% per annum, and the time to maturity is
1 year. Neither stock pays a dividend, the risk-free rate is 6% per annum, and the
correlation between stock price returns is 0.4. Calculate a 10-day 99% VaR: (a) using
only deltas, (b) using the partial simulation approach, and (c) using the full simulation approach.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 540 30/04/2021 17:38
Value at Risk and Expected Shortfall 541
22.20. Use equation (22.1) to show that when the loss distribution is normal, VaR with 99%
confidence is almost exactly the same as ES with 97.5% confidence.
M22_HULL0654_11_GE_C22.indd 541 30/04/2021 17:38
542
Estimating
Volatilities and
Correlations23 CHAPTER
In this chapter we explain how historical data can be used to produce estimates of the
current and future levels of volatilities and correlations. The chapter is relevant both to the calculation of value at risk using the model-building approach and to the valuation of derivatives. When calculating value at risk, we are most interested in the current levels of volatilities and correlations because we are assessing possible changes in the value of a portfolio over a very short period of time. When valuing derivatives, forecasts of volatilities and correlations over the whole life of the derivative are usually required.
The chapter considers models with imposing names such as exponentially weighted
moving average (EWMA), autoregressive conditional heteroscedasticity (ARCH), and generalized autoregressive conditional heteroscedasticity (GARCH). The distinctive feature of the models is that they recognize that volatilities and correlations are not constant. During some periods, a particular volatility or correlation may be relatively low, whereas during other periods it may be relatively high. The models attempt to keep track of the variations in the volatility or correlation through time.
23.1 ESTIMATING VOLATILITY
Define sn as the volatility of a market variable on day n , as estimated at the end of
day n-1. The square of the volatility, s2
n, on day n is the variance rate. We described
the standard approach to estimating sn from historical data in Section 15.4. Suppose
that the value of the market variable at the end of day i is Si. The variable ui is defined
as the continuously compounded return during day i (between the end of day i-1 and
the end of day i):
ui=ln Si
Si-1
An unbiased estimate of the variance rate per day, s2
n, using the most recent m
observations on the ui is
s2
n=1
m-1am
i=11un-i-u22 (23.1)
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Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 543
where u is the mean of the uiās:
u=1
m am
i=1un-i
For the purposes of monitoring daily volatility, the formula in equation (23.1) is
usually changed in a number of ways:
1. ui is defined as the percentage change in the market variable between the end of
day i-1 and the end of day i, so that:1
ui=Si-Si-1
Si-1 (23.2)
2. u is assumed to be zero.2
3. m-1 is replaced by m.3
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations
- Standard variance formulas are simplified for daily volatility monitoring by assuming the mean change is zero and using maximum likelihood estimates.
- Weighting schemes are introduced to prioritize recent market data over older observations when calculating current volatility levels.
- The ARCH(m) model incorporates a long-run average variance rate alongside weighted historical observations to improve predictive accuracy.
- The Exponentially Weighted Moving Average (EWMA) model offers a simplified recursive formula where weights decrease exponentially over time.
- These mathematical models allow financial analysts to update volatility estimates efficiently as new market data becomes available each day.
It therefore makes sense to give more weight to recent data.
observations on the ui is
s2
n=1
m-1am
i=11un-i-u22 (23.1)
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Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 543
where u is the mean of the uiās:
u=1
m am
i=1un-i
For the purposes of monitoring daily volatility, the formula in equation (23.1) is
usually changed in a number of ways:
1. ui is defined as the percentage change in the market variable between the end of
day i-1 and the end of day i, so that:1
ui=Si-Si-1
Si-1 (23.2)
2. u is assumed to be zero.2
3. m-1 is replaced by m.3
These three changes make very little difference to the estimates that are calculated, but
they allow us to simplify the formula for the variance rate to
s2
n=1
mam
i=1u2n-i (23.3)
where u i is given by equation (23.2).4
Weighting Schemes
Equation (23.3) gives equal weight to u2n-1, u2n-2, c, u2n-m. Our objective is to estimate
the current level of volatility, sn. It therefore makes sense to give more weight to recent
data. A model that does this is
s2
n=am
i=1aiu2n-i (23.4)
The variable ai is the amount of weight given to the observation i days ago. The aās are
positive. If we choose them so that ai6aj when i7j, less weight is given to older
observations. The weights must sum to unity, so that
am
i=1ai=1
An extension of the idea in equation (23.4) is to assume that there is a long-run average
1 This is consistent with the point made in Section 22.3 about the way that volatility is defined for the
purposes of VaR calculations.
2 As explained in Section 22.3, this assumption is reasonable because the expected change in a variable in one
day is very small when compared with the standard deviation of changes.
3 Replacing m-1 by m moves us from an unbiased estimate of the variance to a maximum likelihood
estimate. Maximum likelihood estimates are discussed later in this chapter.
4 Note that the uās in this chapter play the same role as the āxās in Chapter 22. Both are daily percentage
changes in market variables. In the case of the u ās, the subscripts count observations made on different days
on the same market variable. In the case of the āxās, they count observations made on the same day on
different market variables. The use of subscripts for s is similarly different between the two chapters. In this
chapter, the subscripts refer to days; in Chapter 22 they referred to market variables.
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 543 30/04/2021 17:39
544 CHAPTER 23
variance rate and that this should be given some weight. This leads to the model that
takes the form
s2
n=gVL+am
i=1aiu2n-i (23.5)
where VL is the long-run variance rate and g is the weight assigned to VL. Since the
weights must sum to unity, we have
g+am
i=1ai=1
This is known as an ARCH(m ) model. It was first suggested by Engle.5 The estimate of
the variance is based on a long-run average variance and m observations. The older an
observation, the less weight it is given. Defining v=gVL, the model in equation (23.5)
can be written
s2
n=v+am
i=1aiu2n-i (23.6)
In the next two sections we discuss two important approaches to monitoring volatility
using the ideas in equations (23.4) and (23.5).
5 See R. Engle ā Autoregressive Conditional Heteroscedasticity with Estimates of the Variance of U.K.
Inflation, ā Econometrica, 50 (1982): 987ā1008.23.2 THE EXPONENTIALLY WEIGHTED MOVING AVERAGE MODEL
The exponentially weighted moving average (EWMA) model is a particular case of the model in equation (23.4) where the weights
ai decrease exponentially as we move back
through time. Specifically, ai+1=lai, where l is a constant between 0 and 1.
It turns out that this weighting scheme leads to a particularly simple formula for
updating volatility estimates. The formula is
s2
n=ls2
n-1+11-l2u2
n-1 (23.7)
The EWMA Volatility Model
- The Exponentially Weighted Moving Average (EWMA) model updates volatility estimates by assigning weights that decrease exponentially as data points move further into the past.
- The model simplifies data management because it only requires the current variance estimate and the most recent market observation to calculate the next day's volatility.
- The parameter lambda determines the responsiveness of the model, where a lower value makes the estimate highly sensitive to recent market shocks.
- Historically, the RiskMetrics database popularized the use of EWMA by applying a lambda of 0.94 for daily volatility updates across various market variables.
At any given time, only the current estimate of the variance rate and the most recent observation on the value of the market variable need be remembered.
In the next two sections we discuss two important approaches to monitoring volatility
using the ideas in equations (23.4) and (23.5).
5 See R. Engle ā Autoregressive Conditional Heteroscedasticity with Estimates of the Variance of U.K.
Inflation, ā Econometrica, 50 (1982): 987ā1008.23.2 THE EXPONENTIALLY WEIGHTED MOVING AVERAGE MODEL
The exponentially weighted moving average (EWMA) model is a particular case of the model in equation (23.4) where the weights
ai decrease exponentially as we move back
through time. Specifically, ai+1=lai, where l is a constant between 0 and 1.
It turns out that this weighting scheme leads to a particularly simple formula for
updating volatility estimates. The formula is
s2
n=ls2
n-1+11-l2u2
n-1 (23.7)
The estimate, sn, of the volatility of a variable for day n (made at the end of day n-1) is
calculated from sn-1 (the estimate that was made at the end of day n-2 of the volatility
for day n-1) and un-1 (the most recent daily percentage change in the variable).
To understand why equation (23.7) corresponds to weights that decrease exponen-
tially, we substitute for s2
n-1 to get
s2
n=l3ls2n-2+11-l2u2n-24+11-l2u2n-1
or
s2
n=11-l21u2
n-1+lu2
n-22+l2s2
n-2
Substituting in a similar way for s2
n-2 gives
s2
n=11-l21u2n-1+lu2n-2+l2u2n-32+l3s2n-3
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Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 545
Continuing in this way gives
s2
n=11-l2am
i=1li-1u2n-i+lms2n-m
For large m, the term lms2n-m is sufficiently small to be ignored, so that equation (23.7)
is the same as equation (23.4) with ai=11-l2li-1. The weights for the ui decline at
rate l as we move back through time. Each weight is l times the previous weight.
Example 23.1
Suppose that l is 0.90, the volatility estimated for a market variable for day n-1
is 1% per day, and during day n-1 the market variable increased by 2%. This
means that s2n-1=0.012=0.0001 and u2n-1=0.022=0.0004. Equation (23.7)
gives
s2n=0.9*0.0001+0.1*0.0004=0.00013
The estimate of the volatility, sn, for day n is therefore 20.00013, or 1.14%, per
day. Note that the expected value of u2n-1 is s2n-1, or 0.0001. In this example, the
realized value of u2n-1 is greater than the expected value, and as a result our
volatility estimate increases. If the realized value of u2
n-1 had been less than its
expected value, our estimate of the volatility would have decreased.
The EWMA approach has the attractive feature that relatively little data need be
stored. At any given time, only the current estimate of the variance rate and the most
recent observation on the value of the market variable need be remembered. When a new observation on the market variable is obtained, a new daily percentage change is calculated and equation (23.7) is used to update the estimate of the variance rate. The old estimate of the variance rate and the old value of the market variable can then be discarded.
The EWMA approach is designed to track changes in the volatility. Suppose there
is a big move in the market variable on day
n-1, so that u2
n-1 is large. From
equation (23.7) this causes the estimate of the current volatility to move upward.
The value of l governs how responsive the estimate of the daily volatility is to the
most recent daily percentage change. A low value of l leads to a great deal of weight
being given to the u2
n-1 when sn is calculated. In this case, the estimates produced for
the volatility on successive days are themselves highly volatile. A high value of l (i.e.,
a value close to 1.0) produces estimates of the daily volatility that respond relatively
slowly to new information provided by the daily percentage change.
The RiskMetrics database, which was originally created by JP Morgan and made
publicly available in 1994, used the EWMA model with l=0.94 for updating daily
volatility estimates. This is because the company found that, across a range of different market variables, this value of
The GARCH(1,1) Volatility Model
- The EWMA model is a specific case of the GARCH(1,1) model where the weight assigned to the long-run average variance is zero.
- RiskMetrics popularized the EWMA model using a lambda value of 0.94, which JP Morgan found best matched realized variance across various markets.
- GARCH(1,1) improves upon EWMA by incorporating a long-run average variance rate, ensuring estimates eventually revert to a stable mean.
- For a GARCH(1,1) process to remain stable, the sum of the weights applied to the most recent observation and the previous variance must be less than one.
- While GARCH(1,1) is the most popular variant, more complex models exist to account for asymmetric news where negative returns impact volatility more than positive ones.
The difference between the GARCH(1,1) model and the EWMA model is analogous to the difference between equation (23.4) and equation (23.5).
the volatility on successive days are themselves highly volatile. A high value of l (i.e.,
a value close to 1.0) produces estimates of the daily volatility that respond relatively
slowly to new information provided by the daily percentage change.
The RiskMetrics database, which was originally created by JP Morgan and made
publicly available in 1994, used the EWMA model with l=0.94 for updating daily
volatility estimates. This is because the company found that, across a range of different market variables, this value of
l gives forecasts of the variance rate that come closest
to the realized variance rate.6 The realized variance rate on a particular day was
calculated as an equally weighted average of the u2
i on the subsequent 25 days (see
Problem 23.19).
6 See JP Morgan, RiskMetrics Monitor, Fourth Quarter, 1995. We will explain an alternative (maximum
likelihood) approach to estimating parameters later in the chapter.
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 545 30/04/2021 17:39
546 CHAPTER 23
We now move on to discuss what is known as the GARCH(1,1) model, proposed by
Bollerslev in 1986.7 The difference between the GARCH(1,1) model and the EWMA
model is analogous to the difference between equation (23.4) and equation (23.5). In GARCH(1,1),
s2
n is calculated from a long-run average variance rate, VL, as well as
from sn-1 and un-1. The equation for GARCH(1,1) is
s2
n=gVL+au2n-1+bs2n-1 (23.8)
where g is the weight assigned to VL, a is the weight assigned to u2
n-1, and b is the weight
assigned to s2
n-1. Since the weights must sum to unity, it follows that
g+a+b=1
The EWMA model is a particular case of GARCH(1,1) where g=0, a=1-l,
and b=l.
The ā(1,1)ā in GARCH(1,1) indicates that s2
n is based on the most recent observa-
tion of u2 and the most recent estimate of the variance rate. The more general
GARCH(p , q) model calculates s2
n from the most recent p observations on u2 and
the most recent q estimates of the variance rate.8 GARCH(1,1) is by far the most
popular of the GARCH models.
Setting v=gVL, the GARCH(1,1) model can also be written
s2
n=v+au2n-1+bs2n-1 (23.9)
This is the form of the model that is usually used for the purposes of estimating the
parameters. Once v, a, and b have been estimated, we can calculate g as 1-a-b. The
long-term variance VL can then be calculated as v>g. For a stable GARCH(1,1) process
we require a+b61. Otherwise the weight applied to the long-term variance is
negative.
Example 23.2
Suppose that a GARCH(1,1) model is estimated from daily data as
s2
n =0.000002+0.13u2n-1+0.86s2n-1
This corresponds to a=0.13, b=0.86, and v=0.000002. Because
g=1-a-b, it follows that g=0.01. Because v=gVL, it follows that
VL=0.0002. In other words, the long-run average variance per day implied by
the model is 0.0002. This corresponds to a volatility of 20.0002=0.014, or 1.4%,
per day.
7 See T. Bollerslev, āGeneralized Autoregressive Conditional Heteroscedasticity, ā Journal of Econometrics,
31 (1986): 307ā27 .
8 Other GARCH models have been proposed that incorporate asymmetric news. These models are designed
so that sn depends on the sign of un-1. Arguably, the models are more appropriate for equities than
GARCH(1,1). As mentioned in Chapter 20, the volatility of an equityās price tends to be inversely related to
the price so that a negative un-1 should have a bigger effect on sn than the same positive un-1. For a
discussion of models for handling asymmetric news, see D. Nelson, āConditional Heteroscedasticity and
Asset Returns: A New Approach, ā Econometrica, 59 (1990): 347ā70; R. F. Engle and V . Ng, āMeasuring and
Testing the Impact of News on Volatility, ā Journal of Finance, 48 (1993): 1749ā78.23.3 THE GARCH(1,1) MODEL
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Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 547
Suppose that the estimate of the volatility on day n-1 is 1.6% per day, so that
s2
GARCH(1,1) and Mean Reversion
- The GARCH(1,1) model improves upon EWMA by incorporating a long-run average volatility, making it theoretically more appealing for financial modeling.
- Weights in the GARCH model decline exponentially at a decay rate, where the relative importance of past observations diminishes over time.
- Unlike simpler models, GARCH(1,1) recognizes mean reversion, pulling the variance back toward a long-run average level when it deviates.
- Asymmetric news models are often more appropriate for equities because negative price shocks typically have a larger impact on volatility than positive ones.
- If the best-fit parameter for the long-run average is negative, the GARCH model becomes unstable, and practitioners often revert to the EWMA model.
The GARCH (1,1) model recognizes that over time the variance tends to get pulled back to a long-run average level of VL.
31 (1986): 307ā27 .
8 Other GARCH models have been proposed that incorporate asymmetric news. These models are designed
so that sn depends on the sign of un-1. Arguably, the models are more appropriate for equities than
GARCH(1,1). As mentioned in Chapter 20, the volatility of an equityās price tends to be inversely related to
the price so that a negative un-1 should have a bigger effect on sn than the same positive un-1. For a
discussion of models for handling asymmetric news, see D. Nelson, āConditional Heteroscedasticity and
Asset Returns: A New Approach, ā Econometrica, 59 (1990): 347ā70; R. F. Engle and V . Ng, āMeasuring and
Testing the Impact of News on Volatility, ā Journal of Finance, 48 (1993): 1749ā78.23.3 THE GARCH(1,1) MODEL
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Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 547
Suppose that the estimate of the volatility on day n-1 is 1.6% per day, so that
s2
n-1=0.0162=0.000256, and that on day n-1 the market variable decreased
by 1%, so that u2
n-1=0.012=0.0001. Then
s2
n=0.000002+0.13*0.0001+0.86*0.000256=0.00023516
The new estimate of the volatility is therefore 20.00023516=0.0153, or 1.53%,
per day.
The Weights
Substituting for s2
n-1 in equation (23.9) gives
s2
n=v+au2n-1+b1v+au2n-2+bs2n-22
or
s2
n=v+bv+au2n-1+abu2n-2+b2s2n-2
Substituting for s2
n-2 gives
s2
n=v+bv+b2v+au2n-1+abu2n-2+ab2 u2n-3+b3s2n-3
Continuing in this way, we see that the weight applied to u2
n-i is abi-1. The weights
decline exponentially at rate b. The parameter b can be interpreted as a ādecay rateā. It
is similar to l in the EWMA model. It defines the relative importance of the observa-
tions on the uās in determining the current variance rate. For example, if b=0.9, then
u2
n-2 is only 90% as important as u2
n-1; u2n-3 is 81% as important as u2
n-1; and so on.
The GARCH(1,1) model is similar to the EWMA model except that, in addition to
assigning weights that decline exponentially to past u2, it also assigns some weight to
the long-run average volatility.
Mean Reversion
The GARCH (1,1) model recognizes that over time the variance tends to get pulled back to a long-run average level of
VL. The amount of weight assigned to VL is g =
1 - a - b. The GARCH(1,1) is equivalent to a model where the variance V follows the
stochastic process
dV=a1VL-V2dt+jV dz
where time is measured in days, a=1-a-b, and j=a22 (see Problem 23.14). This
is a mean-reverting model. The variance has a drift that pulls it back to VL at rate a.
When V7VL, the variance has a negative drift; when V6VL, it has a positive drift.
Superimposed on the drift is a volatility j. Chapter 27 discusses this type of model
further.
23.4 CHOOSING BETWEEN THE MODELS
In practice, variance rates do tend to be mean reverting. The GARCH(1,1) model incorporates mean reversion, whereas the EWMA model does not. GARCH (1,1) is therefore theoretically more appealing than the EWMA model.
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548 CHAPTER 23
In the next section, we will discuss how best-fit parameters v, a, and b in GARCH(1,1)
can be estimated. When the parameter v is zero, the GARCH(1,1) reduces to EWMA. In
circumstances where the best-fit value of v turns out to be negative, the GARCH(1,1)
model is not stable and it makes sense to switch to the EWMA model.
23.5 MAXIMUM LIKELIHOOD METHODS
It is now appropriate to discuss how the parameters in the models we have been
considering are estimated from historical data. The approach used is known as the
maximum likelihood method. It involves choosing values for the parameters that
Maximum Likelihood Parameter Estimation
- The maximum likelihood method identifies parameter values that maximize the mathematical probability of observed historical data occurring.
- GARCH(1,1) models can be reduced to EWMA models if the long-term variance parameter is zero or negative, ensuring model stability.
- Estimating constant variance involves maximizing a probability density function, which simplifies to finding the average of squared observations.
- For dynamic models like EWMA and GARCH, the method requires maximizing the sum of logarithmic terms that account for time-varying variance.
- The approach assumes a normal probability distribution of observations conditional on the estimated variance for each specific day.
In circumstances where the best-fit value of v turns out to be negative, the GARCH(1,1) model is not stable and it makes sense to switch to the EWMA model.
In the next section, we will discuss how best-fit parameters v, a, and b in GARCH(1,1)
can be estimated. When the parameter v is zero, the GARCH(1,1) reduces to EWMA. In
circumstances where the best-fit value of v turns out to be negative, the GARCH(1,1)
model is not stable and it makes sense to switch to the EWMA model.
23.5 MAXIMUM LIKELIHOOD METHODS
It is now appropriate to discuss how the parameters in the models we have been
considering are estimated from historical data. The approach used is known as the
maximum likelihood method. It involves choosing values for the parameters that
maximize the chance (or likelihood) of the data occurring.
To illustrate the method, we start with a very simple example. Suppose that we
sample 10 stocks at random on a certain day and find that the price of one of them
declined on that day and the prices of the other nine either remained the same or increased. What is the best estimate of the probability of a randomly chosen stockās price declining on the day? The natural answer is 0.1. Let us see if this is what the maximum likelihood method gives.
Suppose that the probability of a price decline is p . The probability that one
particular stock declines in price and the other nine do not is
p11-p29. Using the
maximum likelihood approach, the best estimate of p is the one that maximizes
p11-p29. Differentiating this expression with respect to p and setting the result equal
to zero, we find that p=0.1 maximizes the expression. This shows that the maximum
likelihood estimate of p is 0.1, as expected.
Estimating a Constant Variance
Our next example of maximum likelihood methods considers the problem of estimating
the variance of a variable X from m observations on X when the underlying distribution is normal with zero mean. Assume that the observations are
u1, u2, c, um. Denote the
variance by v. The likelihood of ui being observed is defined as the probability density
function for X when X=ui. This is
1
22pvexpa-u2
i
2vb
The likelihood of m observations occurring in the order in which they are observed is
qm
i=1c1
22pvexpa-u2
i
2vbd (23.10)
Using the maximum likelihood method, the best estimate of v is the value that
maximizes this expression.
Maximizing an expression is equivalent to maximizing the logarithm of the expres-
sion. Taking logarithms of the expression in equation (23.10) and ignoring constant
multiplicative factors, it can be seen that we wish to maximize
am
i=1c-ln1v2-u2
i
vd (23.11)
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 548 30/04/2021 17:39
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 549
or
-m ln1v2-am
i=1u2
i
v
Differentiating this expression with respect to v and setting the resulting equation to
zero, we see that the maximum likelihood estimator of v is9
1
mam
i=1u2
i
Estimating EWMA or GARCH (1,1) Parameters
We now consider how the maximum likelihood method can be used to estimate the parameters when EWMA, GARCH (1,1), or some other volatility updating scheme is used. Define
vi=s2
i as the variance estimated for day i. Assume that the probability
distribution of ui conditional on the variance is normal. A similar analysis to the one
just given shows the best parameters are the ones that maximize
qm
i=1c1
22pviexpa-u2
i
2vibd
Taking logarithms, we see that this is equivalent to maximizing
am
i=1c-ln1vi2-u2
i
vid (23.12)
Maximum Likelihood Volatility Estimation
- The maximum likelihood method is used to estimate parameters for volatility models like EWMA and GARCH (1,1) by maximizing a specific probability function.
- The estimation process assumes that the probability distribution of daily returns, conditional on the variance, follows a normal distribution.
- An iterative search procedure, such as Excel's Solver or the LevenbergāMarquardt algorithm, is required to find the optimal values for the model parameters.
- Applying GARCH (1,1) to S&P 500 data from 2015 to 2020 revealed a long-term daily volatility of approximately 1.179%.
- While volatility usually remained below 2% per day, the model captured extreme spikes as high as 8% during the market stress of March 2020.
Most of the time, the volatility was less than 2% per day, but volatilities as high as 8% per day were experienced in March 2020.
We now consider how the maximum likelihood method can be used to estimate the parameters when EWMA, GARCH (1,1), or some other volatility updating scheme is used. Define
vi=s2
i as the variance estimated for day i. Assume that the probability
distribution of ui conditional on the variance is normal. A similar analysis to the one
just given shows the best parameters are the ones that maximize
qm
i=1c1
22pviexpa-u2
i
2vibd
Taking logarithms, we see that this is equivalent to maximizing
am
i=1c-ln1vi2-u2
i
vid (23.12)
This is the same as the expression in equation (23.11), except that v is replaced by vi. It is
necessary to search iteratively to find the parameters in the model that maximize the
expression in equation (23.12).
The spreadsheet in Table 23.1 indicates how the calculations could be organized for
the GARCH(1,1) model. The table analyzes data on the S&P 500 between July 10, 2015, and July 9, 2020.
10 The first column in the table records the date. The second column
counts the days. The third column shows the S&P 500, Si, at the end of day i. The fourth
column shows the proportional change in the S&P 500 between the end of day i-1 and
the end of day i. This is ui=1Si-Si-12>Si-1.
We start by storing trial values for v, a, and b in cells of the spreadsheet. We use an
iterative procedure to move from these values to optimal values. The fifth column shows the estimate of the variance rate,
vi=s2
i, for day i made at the end of day i-1. On day 3,
we start things off by setting the variance equal to u2
2. On subsequent days, equation (23.9)
is used with the current values of v, a, and b. The sixth column tabulates the likelihood
measure, -ln1vi2-u2
i>vi. The iterative search procedure chooses v, a, and b to maximize
the sum of the numbers in the sixth column.11
9 This confirms the point made in footnote 3.
10 The data and calculations can be found at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/OFOD/GarchExample.
11 As discussed later, a general purpose algorithm such as Solver in Microsoftās Excel can be used.
Alternatively, a special purpose algorithm, such as LevenbergāMarquardt, can be used. See, e.g., W. H. Press,
B. P . Flannery, S. A. Teukolsky, and W. T. Vetterling. Numerical Recipes in C: The Art of Scientific
Computing, Cambridge University Press, 1988.
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 549 30/04/2021 17:39
550 CHAPTER 23
In our example, the optimal values of the parameters turn out to be
v=0.0000039818, a=0.223793, b=0.747577
and the maximum value of the function in equation (23.12) is 10,837.4227. The
numbers shown in Table 23.1 were calculated on the final iteration of the search for
the optimal v, a, and b.
The long-term variance rate, VL, in our example is
v
1-a-b=0.0000039818
0.02863=0.0001391
The long-term volatility is 20.0001391, or 1.179%, per day.
Figures 23.1 and 23.2 show the S&P 500 index and its GARCH(1,1) volatility during
the 5-year period covered by the data. Most of the time, the volatility was less than 2% per day, but volatilities as high as 8% per day were experienced in March 2020.
An alternative approach to estimating parameters in GARCH(1,1), which is some-
times more robust, is known as variance targeting.
12 This involves setting the long-run
Estimating GARCH Model Parameters
- The GARCH(1,1) model is used to estimate the long-term volatility of the S&P 500, which averaged approximately 1.179% per day over a five-year period.
- Variance targeting offers a robust alternative for parameter estimation by setting the long-run average variance equal to the sample variance of the data.
- The EWMA model provides a simplified estimation procedure by reducing the problem to a single parameter, though it may yield different objective function values than GARCH.
- Practical implementation of these models often involves using optimization tools like Excel's Solver to maximize the likelihood function through parameter scaling.
- A successful GARCH model should effectively remove autocorrelation from the squared returns, indicating that it has captured the time-varying nature of volatility.
Most of the time, the volatility was less than 2% per day, but volatilities as high as 8% per day were experienced in March 2020.
1-a-b=0.0000039818
0.02863=0.0001391
The long-term volatility is 20.0001391, or 1.179%, per day.
Figures 23.1 and 23.2 show the S&P 500 index and its GARCH(1,1) volatility during
the 5-year period covered by the data. Most of the time, the volatility was less than 2% per day, but volatilities as high as 8% per day were experienced in March 2020.
An alternative approach to estimating parameters in GARCH(1,1), which is some-
times more robust, is known as variance targeting.
12 This involves setting the long-run
average variance rate, VL, equal to the sample variance calculated from the data (or to
some other value that is believed to be reasonable). The value of v then equals
VL11-a-b2 and only two parameters ( a and b) have to be estimated. For the data
in Table 23.1, the sample variance is 0.0001490, which gives a daily volatility of 1.2208%. Setting
VL equal to the sample variance, the values of a and b that maximize the objective
function in equation (23.12) are 0.22636 and 0.74704, respectively. The value of the objective function is 10,837.4047, only marginally below the value of 10,837.4227 obtained using the earlier procedure.
When the EWMA model is used, the estimation procedure is relatively simple. We set
v=0, a=1-l, and b=l, and only one parameter has to be estimated. In the data in
Table 23.1, the value of l that maximizes the objective function in equation (23.12) is
0.9182 and the value of the objective function is 10,692.6213.Date Day i Si ui vi=s2
i -ln1vi2-u2
i>vi
10-Jul-2015 1 2076.62
13-Jul-2015 2 2099.60 0.011066
14-Jul-2015 3 2108.95 0.004453 0.00012246 8.8458
15-Jul-2015 4 2107.40 -0.000735 0.00009997 9.2053
16-Jul-2015 5 2124.29 0.008015 0.00007884 8.6333
17-Jul-2015 6 2126.64 0.001106 0.00007729 9.4521
f f f f f f
8-Jul-2020 1258 3169.94 0.007827 0.00016729 8.3295
9-Jul-2020 1259 3152.05 -0.005644 0.00014276 8.6313Table 23.1 Estimation of Parameters in GARCH(1,1) Model for S&P 500 between
July 10, 2015, and July 9, 2020.
12 See R. Engle and J. Mezrich, āGARCH for Groups, ā Risk, August 1996: 36ā40.
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Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 551
For both GARCH (1,1) and EWMA, we can use the Solver routine in Excel to search
for the values of the parameters that maximize the likelihood function. The routine
works well provided that the spreadsheet is structured so that the parameters being searched for have roughly equal values. For example, in GARCH (1,1) we could let cells
A1, A2, and A3 contain
v*105, 10a, and b. We could then set B1=A1>100,000,
B2=A2>10, and B3=A3. We would use B1, B2, and B3 to calculate the likelihood
function. We would ask Solver to calculate the values of A1, A2, and A3 that maximize the likelihood function. Occasionally Solver gives a local maximum, so testing a number of different starting values for parameters is a good idea.Figure 23.1 S&P 500 index: July 10, 2015, to July 9, 2020.
01000200030004000
Jul-20 Jul-19 Jul-18 Jul-17 Jul-16 Jul-15
Figure 23.2 Volatility (% per day) of S&P 500 index: July 10, 2015, to July 9, 2020.
0123456789
Jul-20 Jul-19 Jul-18 Jul-17 Jul-16 Jul-15
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552 CHAPTER 23
How Good Is the Model?
The assumption underlying a GARCH model is that volatility changes with the passage
of time. During some periods volatility is relatively high; during other periods it is
relatively low. To put this another way, when u2
i is high, there is a tendency for u2
i+1,
u2
i+2, cto be high; when u2
i is low, there is a tendency for u2
i+1, u2i+2, cto be low. We
can test how true this is by examining the autocorrelation structure of the u2
i.
Let us assume the u2
i do exhibit autocorrelation. If a GARCH model is working well, it
should remove the autocorrelation. We can test whether it has done so by considering the
autocorrelation structure for the variables u2
i >s2
i. If these show very little autocorrelation,
Validating GARCH Model Performance
- The text explains that financial data often exhibits autocorrelation, where high or low volatility tends to persist over time.
- A successful GARCH model should effectively remove this autocorrelation by explaining the variance structure of the underlying data.
- Empirical results from S&P 500 data show that while raw squared returns have high autocorrelation, the GARCH-adjusted variables show almost none.
- The LjungāBox statistic provides a formal scientific test to determine if the remaining autocorrelation in a series is statistically significant.
- GARCH(1,1) can be used to forecast future volatility by calculating the expected reversion of the variance rate toward a long-run average.
The table shows that the autocorrelations are positive for u2i for all lags between 1 and 15. In the case of u2i/s2i, some of the autocorrelations are positive and some are negative.
relatively low. To put this another way, when u2
i is high, there is a tendency for u2
i+1,
u2
i+2, cto be high; when u2
i is low, there is a tendency for u2
i+1, u2i+2, cto be low. We
can test how true this is by examining the autocorrelation structure of the u2
i.
Let us assume the u2
i do exhibit autocorrelation. If a GARCH model is working well, it
should remove the autocorrelation. We can test whether it has done so by considering the
autocorrelation structure for the variables u2
i >s2
i. If these show very little autocorrelation,
our model for si has succeeded in explaining autocorrelations in the u2
i.
Table 23.2 shows results for the S&P 500 data used above. The first column shows the
lags considered when the autocorrelation is calculated. The second shows autocorrela-
tions for u2
i; the third shows autocorrelations for u2
i>s2
i.13 The table shows that the
autocorrelations are positive for u2
i for all lags between 1 and 15. In the case of u2
i>s2i,
some of the autocorrelations are positive and some are negative. They are all much smaller in magnitude than the autocorrelations for
u2
i.
The GARCH model appears to have done a good job in explaining the data. For a
more scientific test, we can use what is known as the LjungāBox statistic.14 If a certain
series has m observations the LjungāBox statistic is
maK
k=1wkh2
k
Time lag Autocorrelation
for u2
iAutocorrelation
for u2
i>s2i
1 0.537 0.022
2 0.556 -0.014
3 0.352 -0.001
4 0.351 0.046
5 0.334 -0.025
6 0.413 -0.005
7 0.326 -0.035
8 0.353 -0.023
9 0.295 0.000
10 0.259 0.064
11 0.233 -0.012
12 0.168 -0.024
13 0.169 -0.009
14 0.168 0.010
15 0.200 -0.005Table 23.2 Autocorrelations before and after the use of
a GARCH model for S&P 500 data.
13 For a series x i, the autocorrelation with a lag of k is the coefficient of correlation between xi and xi+k.
14 See G. M. Ljung and G. E. P . Box, āOn a Measure of Lack of Fit in Time Series Models, ā Biometrica, 65
(1978): 297ā303.
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Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 553
where hk is the autocorrelation for a lag of k, K is the number of lags considered, and
wk=m+2
m-k
For K=15, zero autocorrelation can be rejected with 95% confidence when the Ljungā
Box statistic is greater than 25.
From Table 23.2, the LjungāBox statistic for the u2
i series is about 2,170. This is
strong evidence of autocorrelation. For the u2
i>s2i series, the LjungāBox statistic is 13.2,
suggesting that the autocorrelation has been largely removed by the GARCH model.
23.6 USING GARCH(1,1) TO FORECAST FUTURE VOLATILITY
The variance rate estimated at the end of day n-1 for day n, when GARCH(1,1) is
used, is
s2
n=11-a-b2VL+au2n-1+bs2n-1
so that
s2
n-VL=a1u2
n-1-VL2+b1s2
n-1-VL2
On day n+t in the future,
s2
n+t-VL=a1u2n+t-1-VL2+b1s2n+t-1-VL2
The expected value of u2
n+t-1 is s2
n+t-1. Hence,
E3s2
n+t-VL4=1a+b2E3s2
n+t-1-VL4
where E denotes expected value. Using this equation repeatedly yields
E3s2
n+t-VL4=1a+b2t1s2n-VL2
or
E3s2
n+t4=VL+1a+b2t1s2
n-VL2 (23.13)
Forecasting Volatility with GARCH(1,1)
- The GARCH(1,1) model provides a mathematical framework for forecasting future variance rates based on current data and long-term averages.
- A critical feature of the model is mean reversion, where future volatility estimates tend to move back toward a long-term average level over time.
- For a GARCH(1,1) process to remain stable, the sum of the parameters alpha and beta must be less than one; otherwise, the process becomes 'mean fleeing'.
- The model can be used to derive a volatility term structure, showing how expected volatility changes across different option maturities.
- When current volatility is higher than the long-term average, the model predicts a downward-sloping term structure, and vice versa.
When a+b>1, the weight given to the long-term average variance is negative and the process is āmean fleeingā rather than āmean revertingā.
suggesting that the autocorrelation has been largely removed by the GARCH model.
23.6 USING GARCH(1,1) TO FORECAST FUTURE VOLATILITY
The variance rate estimated at the end of day n-1 for day n, when GARCH(1,1) is
used, is
s2
n=11-a-b2VL+au2n-1+bs2n-1
so that
s2
n-VL=a1u2
n-1-VL2+b1s2
n-1-VL2
On day n+t in the future,
s2
n+t-VL=a1u2n+t-1-VL2+b1s2n+t-1-VL2
The expected value of u2
n+t-1 is s2
n+t-1. Hence,
E3s2
n+t-VL4=1a+b2E3s2
n+t-1-VL4
where E denotes expected value. Using this equation repeatedly yields
E3s2
n+t-VL4=1a+b2t1s2n-VL2
or
E3s2
n+t4=VL+1a+b2t1s2
n-VL2 (23.13)
This equation forecasts the volatility on day n+t using the information available at the
end of day n-1. In the EWMA model, a+b=1 and equation (23.13) shows that the
expected future variance rate equals the current variance rate. When a+b61, the final
term in the equation becomes progressively smaller as t increases. Figure 23.3 shows the
expected path followed by the variance rate for situations where the current variance
rate is different from VL. As mentioned earlier, the variance rate exhibits mean reversion
with a reversion level of VL and a reversion rate of 1-a-b. Our forecast of the future
variance rate tends towards VL as we look further and further ahead. This analysis
emphasizes the point that we must have a+b61 for a stable GARCH(1,1) process.
When a+b71, the weight given to the long-term average variance is negative and the
process is āmean fleeingā rather than āmean revertingā.
For the S&P 500 data considered earlier, a+b=0.9714 and VL=0.0001391.
Suppose that the estimate of the current variance rate per day is 0.0003. (This
corresponds to a volatility of 1.732% per day.) In 10 days, the expected variance rate is
0.0001391+0.97141010.0003-0.00013912=0.0002594
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554 CHAPTER 23
The expected volatility per day is 1.61%, still well above the long-term volatility of
1.18% per day. However, the expected variance rate in 100 days is
0.0001391+0.971410010.0003-0.00013912=0.0001479
and the expected volatility per day is 1.22%, much closer to the long-term volatility.
Volatility Term Structures
Suppose it is day n. Define:
V1t2=E1s2
n+t2
and
a=ln1
a+b
so that equation (23.13) becomes
V1t2=VL+e-at3V102-VL4
Here, V1t2 is an estimate of the instantaneous variance rate in t days. The average
variance rate per day between today and time T is given by
1
T3T
0V1t2 dt=VL+1-e-aT
aT3V102-VL4
The larger T is, the closer this is to VL. Define s1T2 as the volatility per annum that
should be used to price a T-day option under GARCH(1,1). Assuming 252 days per Figure 23.3 Expected path for the variance rate when (a) current variance rate is
above long-term variance rate and (b) current variance rate is below long-term
variance rate.
Variance
rate
Time
(a)VLVariance
rate
Time
(b)VL
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 554 30/04/2021 17:39
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 555
year, s1T22 is 252 times the average variance rate per day, so that
s1T22=252aVL+1-e-aT
aT3V102-VL4b (23.14)
As discussed in Chapter 20, the market prices of different options on the same asset are
often used to calculate a volatility term structure. This is the relationship between the implied volatilities of the options and their maturities. Equation (23.14) can be used to estimate a volatility term structure based on the GARCH(1,1) model. The estimated volatility term structure is not usually the same as the implied volatility term structure. However, as we will show, it is often used to predict the way that the implied volatility term structure will respond to volatility changes.
When the current volatility is above the long-term volatility, the GARCH(1,1)
model estimates a downward-sloping volatility term structure. When the current volatility is below the long-term volatility, it estimates an upward-sloping volatility term structure. In the case of the S&P 500 data,
GARCH Volatility Term Structures
- The GARCH(1,1) model is used to estimate a volatility term structure, which describes the relationship between implied volatilities and option maturities.
- When current volatility is higher than long-term volatility, the model predicts a downward-sloping term structure, whereas the opposite creates an upward slope.
- Financial institutions use these models to calculate vega by adjusting volatility increases based on option maturity rather than applying a flat rate.
- The text transitions into correlation estimation, noting that while correlation is more intuitive, covariance is the fundamental variable for analysis.
Rather than consider an across-the-board increase of 1% in implied volatilities when calculating vega, they relate the size of the volatility increase that is considered to the maturity of the option.
As discussed in Chapter 20, the market prices of different options on the same asset are
often used to calculate a volatility term structure. This is the relationship between the implied volatilities of the options and their maturities. Equation (23.14) can be used to estimate a volatility term structure based on the GARCH(1,1) model. The estimated volatility term structure is not usually the same as the implied volatility term structure. However, as we will show, it is often used to predict the way that the implied volatility term structure will respond to volatility changes.
When the current volatility is above the long-term volatility, the GARCH(1,1)
model estimates a downward-sloping volatility term structure. When the current volatility is below the long-term volatility, it estimates an upward-sloping volatility term structure. In the case of the S&P 500 data,
a=ln11>0.971372=0.02905 and
VL=0.0001391. Suppose that the current variance rate per day, V(0), is estimated as
0.0003 per day. It follows from equation (23.14) that
s1T22=252a0.0001391+1-e-0.02905T
0.02905T10.0003-0.00013912b
where T is measured in days. Table 23.3 shows the volatility per year for different values
of T.
Impact of Volatility Changes
Equation (23.14) can be written
s1T22=252cVL+1-e-aT
aTas1022
252-VLbd
When s102 changes by ās102, s1T2 changes by approximately
1-e-aT
aT s102
s1T2 ās102 (23.15)
Table 23.4 shows the effect of a volatility change on options of varying maturities for
the S&P 500 data considered above. We assume as before that V102=0.0003, so that
s102=2252*20.0003=27.50,. The table considers a 100-basis-point change in the
instantaneous volatility from 27.50% per year to 28.50% per year. This means that
ās102=0.01, or 1%.Option life (days) 10 30 50 100 500
Option volatility (% per annum) 26.5 24.9 23.8 22.0 19.5Table 23.3 S&P 500 volatility term structure predicted from GARCH(1,1).
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 555 30/04/2021 17:39
556 CHAPTER 23
15 An analogy here is that variance rates were the fundamental variables for the EWMA and GARCH
procedures in the first part of this chapter, even though volatilities are easier to understand.Many financial institutions use analyses such as this when determining the exposure
of their books to volatility changes. Rather than consider an across-the-board increase
of 1% in implied volatilities when calculating vega, they relate the size of the volatility increase that is considered to the maturity of the option. Based on Table 23.4, a 0.90% volatility increase would be considered for a 10-day option, a 0.74% increase for a 30-day option, a 0.61% increase for a 50-day option, and so on.Option life (days) 10 30 50 100 500
Increase in volatility (%) 0.90 0.74 0.61 0.41 0.10Table 23.4 Impact of 1% change in the instantaneous volatility predicted
from GARCH(1,1).
23.7 CORRELATIONS
The discussion so far has centered on the estimation and forecasting of volatility. As explained in Chapter 22, correlations also play a key role in the calculation of VaR. In
this section, we show how correlation estimates can be updated in a similar way to volatility estimates.
The correlation between two variables X and Y can be defined as
cov1X, Y2
sXsY
where sX and sY are the standard deviations of X and Y and cov 1X, Y2 is the covariance
between X and Y. The covariance between X and Y is defined as
E31X-mX21Y-mY24
where mX and mY are the means of X and Y , and E denotes the expected value.
Although it is easier to develop intuition about the meaning of a correlation than it
is for a covariance, it is covariances that are the fundamental variables of our analysis.15
Define xi and yi as the percentage changes in X and Y between the end of day i-1
and the end of day i:
xi=Xi-Xi-1
Xi-1, yi=Yi-Yi-1
Yi-1
where Xi and Yi are the values of X and Y at the end of day i. We also define the
following:
sx,n : Daily volatility of variable X, estimated for day n
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations
- Covariances are identified as the fundamental variables of financial analysis, serving as the basis for calculating correlation coefficients between assets.
- The Exponentially Weighted Moving Average (EWMA) model allows for dynamic updating of covariance estimates by giving more weight to recent price changes.
- GARCH(1,1) models provide an alternative framework for forecasting future covariances and establishing long-term average covariance levels.
- A variance-covariance matrix must be positive-semidefinite to ensure internal consistency, meaning the variance of any portfolio cannot be negative.
Although it is easier to develop intuition about the meaning of a correlation than it is for a covariance, it is covariances that are the fundamental variables of our analysis.
where mX and mY are the means of X and Y , and E denotes the expected value.
Although it is easier to develop intuition about the meaning of a correlation than it
is for a covariance, it is covariances that are the fundamental variables of our analysis.15
Define xi and yi as the percentage changes in X and Y between the end of day i-1
and the end of day i:
xi=Xi-Xi-1
Xi-1, yi=Yi-Yi-1
Yi-1
where Xi and Yi are the values of X and Y at the end of day i. We also define the
following:
sx,n : Daily volatility of variable X, estimated for day n
sy,n : Daily volatility of variable Y, estimated for day n
covn : Estimate of covariance between daily changes in X and Y , calculated on day n .
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 556 30/04/2021 17:39
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 557
The estimate of the correlation between X and Y on day n is
covn
sx,n sy,n
Using equal weighting and assuming that the means of xi and yi are zero, equation (23.3)
shows that the variance rates of X and Y can be estimated from the most recent m
observations as
s2
x,n=1
mam
i=1x2n-i, s2y,n=1
mam
i=1y2n-i
A similar estimate for the covariance between X and Y is
covn=1
mam
i=1xn-iyn-i (23.16)
One alternative for updating covariances is an EWMA model similar to equation (23.7).
The formula for updating the covariance estimate is then
covn=l covn-1+11-l2xn-1yn-1
A similar analysis to that presented for the EWMA volatility model shows that the weights given to observations on the
xi yi decline as we move back through time. The
lower the value of l, the greater the weight that is given to recent observations.
Example 23.3
Suppose that l=0.95 and that the estimate of the correlation between two
variables X and Y on day n-1 is 0.6. Suppose further that the estimate of the
volatilities for the X and Y on day n-1 are 1% and 2%, respectively. From the
relationship between correlation and covariance, the estimate of the covariance between the X and Y on day
n-1 is
0.6*0.01*0.02=0.00012
Suppose that the percentage changes in X and Y on day n-1 are 0.5% and 2.5%,
respectively. The variance and covariance for day n would be updated as follows:
s2
x,n=0.95*0.012+0.05*0.0052=0.00009625
s2
y,n=0.95*0.022+0.05*0.0252=0.00041125
covn=0.95*0.00012+0.05*0.005*0.025=0.00012025
The new volatility of X is 20.00009625=0.981, and the new volatility of Y is
20.00041125=2.028,. The new coefficient of correlation between X and Y is
0.00012025
0.00981*0.02028=0.6044
GARCH models can also be used for updating covariance estimates and forecasting the
future level of covariances. For example, the GARCH(1,1) model for updating a covariance is
covn=v+axn-1yn-1+b covn-1
and the long-term average covariance is v>11-a-b2. Formulas similar to those in
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 557 30/04/2021 17:39
558 CHAPTER 23
equations (23.13) and (23.14) can be developed for forecasting future covariances and
calculating the average covariance during the life of an option.16
Consistency Condition for Covariances
Once all the variances and covariances have been calculated, a varianceācovariance matrix can be constructed. As explained in Section 22.4, when
i/notequal.alt1j, the 1i, j2th element
of this matrix shows the covariance between variable i and variable j. When i=j, it
shows the variance of variable i.
Not all symmetric varianceācovariance matrices are internally consistent. The con-
dition for an N*N varianceācovariance matrix ⦠to be internally consistent is
wTā¦wĆ0 (23.17)
for all N*1 vectors w, where wT is the transpose of w. A matrix that satisfies this
property is known as positive-semidefinite.
To understand why the condition in equation (23.17) must hold, suppose that wT is
3w1, w2, c, wn4. The expression wT ā¦w is the variance of w1x1+w2x2+g+wnxn,
where xi is the value of variable i. As such, it cannot be negative.
To ensure that a positive-semidefinite matrix is produced, variances and covariances
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations
- A variance-covariance matrix must be positive-semidefinite to ensure that the calculated variance of a portfolio is never negative.
- Internal consistency in financial modeling requires that variances and covariances be calculated using the same weighting schemes, such as EWMA or GARCH models.
- The GARCH(1,1) model improves upon the EWMA model by incorporating a long-run average variance rate, allowing for more robust future volatility forecasts.
- Maximum likelihood methods are the standard iterative procedures used to determine the parameters that best fit historical data in these stochastic models.
- Tracking the complete variance-covariance matrix is essential for accurate Value at Risk (VaR) calculations in modern risk management.
The first variable is highly correlated with the third variable and the second variable is highly correlated with the third variable. However, there is no correlation at all between the first and second variables. This seems strange.
dition for an N*N varianceācovariance matrix ⦠to be internally consistent is
wTā¦wĆ0 (23.17)
for all N*1 vectors w, where wT is the transpose of w. A matrix that satisfies this
property is known as positive-semidefinite.
To understand why the condition in equation (23.17) must hold, suppose that wT is
3w1, w2, c, wn4. The expression wT ā¦w is the variance of w1x1+w2x2+g+wnxn,
where xi is the value of variable i. As such, it cannot be negative.
To ensure that a positive-semidefinite matrix is produced, variances and covariances
should be calculated consistently. For example, if variances are calculated by giving equal weight to the last m data items, the same should be done for covariances. If variances are
updated using an EWMA model with
l=0.94, the same should be done for covariances.
An example of a varianceācovariance matrix that is not internally consistent is
Ā£1 0 0.9
0 1 0.9
0.9 0.9 1§
The variance of each variable is 1.0, and so the covariances are also coefficients of correlation. The first variable is highly correlated with the third variable and the second
variable is highly correlated with the third variable. However, there is no correlation at all between the first and second variables. This seems strange. When w is set equal to
11, 1, -12, the condition in equation (23.17) is not satisfied, proving that the matrix is
not positive-semidefinite.17
SUMMARY
Most popular option pricing models, such as BlackāScholesāMerton, assume that the volatility of the underlying asset is constant. This assumption is far from perfect. In practice, the volatility of an asset, like the assetās price, is a stochastic variable. Unlike
16 The ideas in this chapter can be extended to multivariate GARCH models, where an entire varianceā
covariance matrix is updated in a consistent way. For a discussion of alternative approaches, see R. Engle and
J. Mezrich, āGARCH for Groups, ā Risk, August 1996: 36ā40.
17 It can be shown that the condition for a 3*3 matrix of correlations to be internally consistent is
r2
12+r213+r223-2r12 r13 r23ā¦1
where rij is the coefficient of correlation between variables i and j.
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 558 30/04/2021 17:39
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 559
the asset price, it is not directly observable. This chapter has discussed procedures for
attempting to keep track of the current level of volatility.
We define ui as the percentage change in a market variable between the end of
day i-1 and the end of day i. The variance rate of the market variable (that is, the
square of its volatility) is calculated as a weighted average of the ui2. The key feature of
the procedures that have been discussed here is that they do not give equal weight to
the observations on the ui2. The more recent an observation, the greater the weight
assigned to it. In the EWMA and the GARCH(1,1) models, the weights assigned to
observations decrease exponentially as the observations become older. The
GARCH(1,1) model differs from the EWMA model in that some weight is also
assigned to the long-run average variance rate. It has a structure that enables forecasts of the future level of variance rate to be produced relatively easily.
Maximum likelihood methods are usually used to estimate parameters from historical
data in the EWMA, GARCH(1,1), and similar models. These methods involve using an
iterative procedure to determine the parameter values that maximize the chance or
likelihood that the historical data will occur. Once its parameters have been determined, a GARCH(1,1) model can be judged by how well it removes autocorrelation from the
ui2.
For every model that is developed to track variances, there is a corresponding model
that can be developed to track covariances. The procedures described here can therefore
be used to update the complete varianceācovariance matrix used in value at risk calculations.
FURTHER READING
Volatility and Covariance Modeling
- GARCH(1,1) models utilize iterative procedures to determine parameter values that maximize the likelihood of historical data occurring.
- The effectiveness of a GARCH model is often evaluated by its ability to remove autocorrelation from squared returns.
- Every variance-tracking model has a corresponding version for tracking covariances, allowing for the update of entire variance-covariance matrices.
- The exponentially weighted moving average (EWMA) model serves as a common alternative to GARCH for updating daily volatility estimates.
- Financial risk management relies on these models to calculate Value at Risk by adjusting to recent market price fluctuations.
For every model that is developed to track variances, there is a corresponding model that can be developed to track covariances.
iterative procedure to determine the parameter values that maximize the chance or
likelihood that the historical data will occur. Once its parameters have been determined, a GARCH(1,1) model can be judged by how well it removes autocorrelation from the
ui2.
For every model that is developed to track variances, there is a corresponding model
that can be developed to track covariances. The procedures described here can therefore
be used to update the complete varianceācovariance matrix used in value at risk calculations.
FURTHER READING
Bollerslev, T. āGeneralized Autoregressive Conditional Heteroscedasticity,ā Journal of
Econometrics, 31 (1986): 307ā27.
Cumby, R., S. Figlewski, and J. Hasbrook. āForecasting Volatilities and Correlations with
EGARCH Models,ā Journal of Derivatives, 1, 2 (Winter 1993): 51ā63.
Engle, R. F. āAutoregressive Conditional Heteroscedasticity with Estimates of the Variance of
U.K. Inflation,ā Econometrica 50 (1982): 987ā1008.
Engle R. F., and J. Mezrich. āGrappling with GARCH,ā Risk, September 1995: 112ā117.
Engle, R. F., and J. Mezrich, āGARCH for Groups,ā Risk, August 1996: 36ā40.Engle, R. F., and V. Ng, āMeasuring and Testing the Impact of News on Volatility,ā Journal of
Finance, 48 (1993): 1749ā78.
Noh, J., R. F. Engle, and A. Kane. āForecasting Volatility and Option Prices of the S&P 500
Index,ā Journal of Derivatives, 2 (1994): 17ā30.
Practice Questions
23.1. Explain the exponentially weighted moving average (EWMA) model for estimating
volatility from historical data.
23.2. What is the difference between the exponentially weighted moving average model and
the GARCH(1,1) model for updating volatilities?
23.3. The most recent estimate of the daily volatility of an asset is 1.5% and the price of the asset at the close of trading yesterday was $30.00. The parameter
l in the EWMA model
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 559 30/04/2021 17:39
560 CHAPTER 23
is 0.94. Suppose that the price of the asset at the close of trading today is $30.50. How
will this cause the volatility to be updated by the EWMA model?
23.4. A company uses an EWMA model for forecasting volatility. It decides to change the parameter
l from 0.95 to 0.85. Explain the likely impact on the forecasts.
23.5. The volatility of a certain market variable is 30% per annum. Calculate a 99% confidence interval for the size of the percentage daily change in the variable.
23.6. A company uses the GARCH(1,1) model for updating volatility. The three parameters
are
v, a, and b. Describe the impact of making a small increase in each of the parameters
while keeping the others fixed.
23.7. The most recent estimate of the daily volatility of the U.S. dollar/sterling exchange rate is
0.6% and the exchange rate at 4 p.m. yesterday was 1.5000. The parameter l in the
EWMA model is 0.9. Suppose that the exchange rate at 4 p.m. today proves to be 1.4950. How would the estimate of the daily volatility be updated?
23.8. Assume that S&P 500 at close of trading yesterday was 3,040 and the daily volatility of the index was estimated as 1% per day at that time. The parameters in a GARCH(1,1) model are
v=0.000002, a=0.06, and b=0.92. If the level of the index at close of
trading today is 3,060, what is the new volatility estimate?
23.9. Suppose that the daily volatilities of asset A and asset B, calculated at the close of trading yesterday, are 1.6% and 2.5%, respectively. The prices of the assets at close of trading yesterday were $20 and $40 and the estimate of the coefficient of correlation between the returns on the two assets was 0.25. The parameter
l used in the EWMA model is 0.95.
(a) Calculate the current estimate of the covariance between the assets.
(b) On the assumption that the prices of the assets at close of trading today are $20.5 and $40.5, update the correlation estimate.
23.10. The parameters of a GARCH(1,1) model are estimated as
v=0.000004, a=0.05, and
Estimating Volatilities and Correlations
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on updating daily volatility estimates using EWMA and GARCH(1,1) models.
- Mathematical exercises demonstrate how to calculate covariance and correlation updates based on daily price fluctuations of assets and exchange rates.
- The problems explore the concept of mean reversion in variance rates and the calculation of long-run average volatility.
- Advanced scenarios involve translating stock index volatilities across different currencies by accounting for exchange rate correlations.
- The final problem establishes a mathematical equivalence between the discrete GARCH(1,1) model and a continuous-time stochastic volatility model.
What is the long-run average volatility and what is the equation describing the way that the variance rate reverts to its long-run average?
v, a, and b. Describe the impact of making a small increase in each of the parameters
while keeping the others fixed.
23.7. The most recent estimate of the daily volatility of the U.S. dollar/sterling exchange rate is
0.6% and the exchange rate at 4 p.m. yesterday was 1.5000. The parameter l in the
EWMA model is 0.9. Suppose that the exchange rate at 4 p.m. today proves to be 1.4950. How would the estimate of the daily volatility be updated?
23.8. Assume that S&P 500 at close of trading yesterday was 3,040 and the daily volatility of the index was estimated as 1% per day at that time. The parameters in a GARCH(1,1) model are
v=0.000002, a=0.06, and b=0.92. If the level of the index at close of
trading today is 3,060, what is the new volatility estimate?
23.9. Suppose that the daily volatilities of asset A and asset B, calculated at the close of trading yesterday, are 1.6% and 2.5%, respectively. The prices of the assets at close of trading yesterday were $20 and $40 and the estimate of the coefficient of correlation between the returns on the two assets was 0.25. The parameter
l used in the EWMA model is 0.95.
(a) Calculate the current estimate of the covariance between the assets.
(b) On the assumption that the prices of the assets at close of trading today are $20.5 and $40.5, update the correlation estimate.
23.10. The parameters of a GARCH(1,1) model are estimated as
v=0.000004, a=0.05, and
b=0.92. What is the long-run average volatility and what is the equation describing the
way that the variance rate reverts to its long-run average? If the current volatility is 20%
per year, what is the expected volatility in 20 days?
23.11. Suppose that the current daily volatilities of asset X and asset Y are 1.0% and 1.2%,
respectively. The prices of the assets at close of trading yesterday were $30 and $50 and the estimate of the coefficient of correlation between the returns on the two assets made at this time was 0.50. Correlations and volatilities are updated using a GARCH(1,1) model. The estimates of the modelās parameters are
a=0.04 and b=0.94. For the correlation
v=0.000001, and for the volatilities v=0.000003. If the prices of the two assets at close
of trading today are $31 and $51, how is the correlation estimate updated?
23.12. Suppose that the daily volatility of the FTSE 100 stock index (measured in pounds
sterling) is 1.8% and the daily volatility of the dollar/sterling exchange rate is 0.9%.
Suppose further that the correlation between the FTSE 100 and the dollar/sterling
exchange rate is 0.4. What is the volatility of the FTSE 100 when it is translated to U.S. dollars? Assume that the dollar/sterling exchange rate is expressed as the number of
U.S. dollars per pound sterling. (Hint: When
Z=XY, the percentage daily change in Z
is approximately equal to the percentage daily change in X plus the percentage daily change in Y.)
23.13. Suppose that in Problem 23.12 the correlation between the S&P 500 Index (measured in
dollars) and the FTSE 100 Index (measured in sterling) is 0.7, the correlation between
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Estimating Volatilities and Correlations 561
the S&P 500 Index (measured in dollars) and the dollar/sterling exchange rate is 0.3, and
the daily volatility of the S&P 500 index is 1.6%. What is the correlation between the S&P 500 index (measured in dollars) and the FTSE 100 index when it is translated to
dollars? (Hint: For three variables X, Y, and Z, the covariance between
X+Y and Z
equals the covariance between X and Z plus the covariance between Y and Z.)
23.14. Show that the GARCH (1,1) model s2
n=v+au2n-1+bs2n-1 in equation (23.9) is
equivalent to the stochastic volatility model dV=a1VL-V2dt+jV dz, where time is
measured in days, V is the square of the volatility of the asset price, and
a=1-a-b, VL=v
1-a-b, j=a22
Volatility Modeling and Credit Risk
- The text provides quantitative exercises for calculating correlations and updating volatility estimates using EWMA and GARCH(1,1) models.
- Mathematical proofs are required to show the equivalence between discrete GARCH models and continuous stochastic volatility models.
- Practical application is emphasized through the use of historical market data for exchange rates and stock indices to optimize model parameters.
- The focus shifts from market risk to credit risk, defined as the potential for loss due to borrower or counterparty default.
- Key concepts in credit risk management include the distinction between risk-neutral and real-world default probabilities and the use of Gaussian copula models.
Credit risk arises from the possibility that borrowers and counterparties in derivatives transactions may default.
the S&P 500 Index (measured in dollars) and the dollar/sterling exchange rate is 0.3, and
the daily volatility of the S&P 500 index is 1.6%. What is the correlation between the S&P 500 index (measured in dollars) and the FTSE 100 index when it is translated to
dollars? (Hint: For three variables X, Y, and Z, the covariance between
X+Y and Z
equals the covariance between X and Z plus the covariance between Y and Z.)
23.14. Show that the GARCH (1,1) model s2
n=v+au2n-1+bs2n-1 in equation (23.9) is
equivalent to the stochastic volatility model dV=a1VL-V2dt+jV dz, where time is
measured in days, V is the square of the volatility of the asset price, and
a=1-a-b, VL=v
1-a-b, j=a22
What is the stochastic volatility model when time is measured in years? (Hint: The
variable un-1 is the return on the asset price in time āt. It can be assumed to be normally
distributed with mean zero and standard deviation sn-1. It follows from the moments of
the normal distribution that the mean and variance of u2
n-1 are s2
n-1 and 2s4
n-1,
respectively.)
23.15. Use the model-building approach in conjunction with the EWMA model to calculate
VaR and ES for the four-index example in Chapter 22 when l=0.94.
23.16. What is the effect of changing l from 0.94 to 0.97 in Problem 23.15.
23.17. Suppose that the price of gold at close of trading yesterday was $600 and its volatility
was estimated as 1.3% per day. The price at the close of trading today is $596. Update the volatility estimate using
(a) The EWMA model with
l=0.94
(b) The GARCH(1,1) model with v=0.000002, a=0.04, and b=0.94.
23.18. Suppose that in Problem 23.17 the price of silver at the close of trading yesterday was $16,
its volatility was estimated as 1.5% per day, and its correlation with gold was estimated as
0.8. The price of silver at the close of trading today is unchanged at $16. Update the volatility of silver and the correlation between silver and gold using the two models in Problem 23.17. In practice, is the
v parameter likely to be the same for gold and silver?
23.19. An Excel spreadsheet containing over 900 days of daily data on a number of different
exchange rates and stock indices can be downloaded from the authorās website:
www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/data.
Choose one exchange rate and one stock index. Estimate the value of l in the EWMA
model that minimizes the value of Σi1vi-bi22, where vi is the variance forecast made at
the end of day i-1 and bi is the variance calculated from data between day i and day
i+25. Use the Solver tool in Excel. Set the variance forecast at the end of the first day
equal to the square of the return on that day to start the EWMA calculations.
23.20. Estimate parameters for EWMA and GARCH(1,1) from data on the euro/USD
exchange rate on the authorās website:
www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/data.
M23_HULL0654_11_GE_C23.indd 561 30/04/2021 17:39
562
Credit Risk
Most of the derivatives considered so far in this book have been concerned with market
risk. In this chapter we consider another important risk for financial institutions: credit risk. Most financial institutions devote considerable resources to the measurement and management of credit risk. Regulators have for many years required banks to keep capital to reflect the credit risks they are bearing.
Credit risk arises from the possibility that borrowers and counterparties in derivatives
transactions may default. This chapter discusses a number of different approaches to estimating the probability that a company will default and explains the key difference between risk-neutral and real-world probabilities of default. It examines the nature of the credit risk in over-the-counter derivatives transactions and discusses the clauses derivatives dealers write into their derivatives agreements to reduce credit risk. It also
covers default correlation, Gaussian copula models, and the estimation of credit
value at risk.
Estimating Default Probabilities
- The text outlines methodologies for estimating the probability of corporate default, distinguishing between risk-neutral and real-world probabilities.
- Credit rating agencies like Moodyās, S&P, and Fitch categorize bond creditworthiness, with 'investment grade' requiring a rating of Baa/BBB or higher.
- Historical data from rating agencies reveals that cumulative default rates increase significantly over time, especially for lower-rated 'junk' bonds.
- The hazard rate is introduced as a mathematical tool to define the probability of default within a specific short time window, conditional on prior survival.
- Derivatives dealers utilize specific contractual clauses and models like the Gaussian copula to mitigate and measure credit risk in over-the-counter transactions.
The hazard rate l(t) at time t is defined so that l(t) āt is the probability of default between time t and t+āt conditional on no earlier default.
transactions may default. This chapter discusses a number of different approaches to estimating the probability that a company will default and explains the key difference between risk-neutral and real-world probabilities of default. It examines the nature of the credit risk in over-the-counter derivatives transactions and discusses the clauses derivatives dealers write into their derivatives agreements to reduce credit risk. It also
covers default correlation, Gaussian copula models, and the estimation of credit
value at risk.
Chapter 25 will discuss credit derivatives and show how ideas introduced in this
chapter can be used to value these instruments.24 CHAPTER
24.1 CREDIT RATINGS
Rating agencies, such as Moodyās, S&P, and Fitch, are in the business of providing ratings describing the creditworthiness of corporate bonds. The best rating assigned by
Moodyās is Aaa. Bonds with this rating are considered to have almost no chance of
defaulting. The next best rating is Aa. Following that comes A, Baa, Ba, B, Caa, Ca,
and C. Only bonds with ratings of Baa or above are considered to be investment grade. The S&P and Fitch ratings corresponding to Moodyās Aaa, Aa, A, Baa, Ba, B, Caa,
Ca, and C are AAA, AA, A, BBB, BB, B, CCC, CC, and C, respectively. To create finer rating measures, Moodyās divides its Aa rating category into Aa1, Aa2, and Aa3, its A
category into A1, A2, and A3, and so on. Similarly, S&P and Fitch divide their AA rating category into AA+, AA, and AA-, their A rating category into A+, A, and A-,
and so on. Moodyās Aaa category and the S&P/Fitch AAA category are not sub-
divided, nor usually are the two lowest rating categories.
M24_HULL0654_11_GE_C24.indd 562 30/04/2021 17:40
Credit Risk 563
Table 24.1 is typical of the data produced by rating agencies. It shows the default
experience during a 15-year period of bonds that had a particular rating at the beginning
of the period. For example, a bond with a credit rating of BBB has a 0.16% chance of defaulting by the end of the first year, a 0.45% chance of defaulting by the end of the second year, and so on. The probability of a bond defaulting during a particular year can be calculated from the table. For example, the probability that a bond initially rated BBB will default during the second year is
0.45,-0.16,=0.29,.
Hazard Rates
From Table 24.1 we can calculate the probability of a bond rated CCC/C defaulting during the third year as
41.41,-36.64,=4.77,. We will refer to this as the
unconditional default probability. It is the probability of default during the third year as seen today. The probability that the bond will survive until the end of year 2 is
100,-36.64,=63.36,. The probability that it will default during the third year
conditional on no earlier default is therefore 0.0477>0.6336, or 7.53%.
The 7.53% we have just calculated is a conditional probability for a 1-year time
period. Suppose instead that we consider a short time period of length āt. The hazard
rate l1t2 at time t is defined so that l1t2 āt is the probability of default between time t
and t+āt conditional on no earlier default.
If V1t2 is the cumulative probability of the company surviving to time t (i.e., no
default by time t), the conditional probability of default between time t and t+āt
is 3V1t2-V1t+āt24>V1t2. Since this equals l1t2 āt, it follows that
V1t+āt2-V1t2=-l1t2V1t2 āt
Taking limits
dV1t2
dt=-l1t2V1t2
from which
V1t2=e-30t
l(t)dt
Rating Time (years)
1 2 3 4 5 7 10 15
AAA 0.00 0.03 0.13 0.24 0.35 0.51 0.70 0.91
AA 0.02 0.06 0.12 0.21 0.31 0.50 0.72 1.02
A 0.05 0.14 0.23 0.35 0.47 0.79 1.24 1.89
BBB 0.16 0.45 0.78 1.17 1.58 2.33 3.32 4.69
BB 0.61 1.92 3.48 5.05 6.52 9.01 11.78 14.67
B 3.33 7.71 11.55 14.58 16.93 20.36 23.74 27.12
CCC/C 27.08 36.64 41.41 44.10 46.19 48.26 50.38 52.59Table 24.1 Average cumulative default rates (%), 1981ā2019 (Source: S&P Global
Credit Risk and Recovery Rates
- Historical data from S&P Global shows that cumulative default rates increase significantly as credit ratings drop, with CCC/C rated bonds reaching over 50% default within 15 years.
- The recovery rate of a bond is defined as its market value shortly after default expressed as a percentage of its face value, with 40% being a common average assumption.
- There is a strong negative correlation between default rates and recovery rates, meaning that in years with high defaults, the amount recovered by creditors typically drops.
- Default probabilities can be estimated using bond yield spreads, where the excess yield over the risk-free rate serves as compensation for potential losses.
- The hazard rate, or default intensity, is a mathematical measure used to calculate the probability of default over a specific time horizon.
The result of the negative dependence is that a bad year for defaults is doubly bad for a lender because it is usually accompanied by a low recovery rate.
V1t+āt2-V1t2=-l1t2V1t2 āt
Taking limits
dV1t2
dt=-l1t2V1t2
from which
V1t2=e-30t
l(t)dt
Rating Time (years)
1 2 3 4 5 7 10 15
AAA 0.00 0.03 0.13 0.24 0.35 0.51 0.70 0.91
AA 0.02 0.06 0.12 0.21 0.31 0.50 0.72 1.02
A 0.05 0.14 0.23 0.35 0.47 0.79 1.24 1.89
BBB 0.16 0.45 0.78 1.17 1.58 2.33 3.32 4.69
BB 0.61 1.92 3.48 5.05 6.52 9.01 11.78 14.67
B 3.33 7.71 11.55 14.58 16.93 20.36 23.74 27.12
CCC/C 27.08 36.64 41.41 44.10 46.19 48.26 50.38 52.59Table 24.1 Average cumulative default rates (%), 1981ā2019 (Source: S&P Global
Ratings Research and S&P Global Market Intelligenceās CreditProĀ®).24.2 HISTORICAL DEFAULT PROBABILITIES
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564 CHAPTER 24
When a company goes bankrupt, those that are owed money by the company file claims
against the assets of the company.1 Sometimes there is a reorganization in which these
creditors agree to a partial payment of their claims. In other cases, the assets are sold by the liquidator and the proceeds are used to meet the claims as far as possible. Some claims typically have priority over other claims and are met more fully.
The recovery rate for a bond is normally defined as the bondās market value shortly
after default, as a percent of its face value. The recovery rate depends on the seniority of the bond (i.e., the extent to which it receives repayment before other creditors) and the security (i.e., the collateral, if any, that has been provided). An average recovery rate that is often assumed is 40%.
The Dependence of Recovery Rates on Default Rates
In Chapter 8, we saw that one of the lessons from the financial crisis of 2007ā8 is that the
average recovery rate on mortgages is negatively related to the mortgage default rate. As the mortgage default rate increases, foreclosures lead to more houses being offered for sale and a decline in house prices. This in turn results in a decline in recovery rates.
The average recovery rate on corporate bonds exhibits a similar negative dependence
on default rates.
2 In a year when the number of bonds defaulting is low, economic
conditions are usually good and the average recovery rate on those bonds that do default might be as high as 60%; in a year when the default rate on corporate bonds is high, economic conditions are usually poor and the average recovery rate on the defaulting bonds might be as low as 30%. The result of the negative dependence is that a bad year
for defaults is doubly bad for a lender because it is usually accompanied by a low recovery rate.Defining
Q1t2 as the probability of default by time t, so that Q1t2=1-V1t2, gives
Q1t2=1-e-30t
l(t)dt
or
Q1t2=1-e-l1t2t (24.1)
where l1t2 is the average hazard rate between time 0 and time t. Another term used for
the hazard rate is default intensity.
24.3 RECOVERY RATES
1 In the United States, the claim made by a bond holder is the bondās face value plus accrued interest.
2 See E. I. Altman, B. Brady, A. Resti, and A. Sironi, āThe Link between Default and Recovery Rates:
Theory, Empirical Evidence, and Implications,ā Journal of Business, 78, 6 (2005): 2203ā28.24.4 ESTIMATING DEFAULT PROBABILITIES FROM BOND
YIELD SPREADS
Tables such as Table 24.1 provide one way of estimating default probabilities. Another
approach is to look at bond yield spreads. A bondās yield spread is the excess of the
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Credit Risk 565
promised yield on the bond over the risk-free rate. The usual assumption is that the
excess yield is compensation for the possibility of default.3
Suppose that the bond yield spread for a T-year bond is s1T2 per annum. This means
that the average loss rate on the bond between time 0 and time T should be approxi-mately
s1T2 per annum. Suppose that the average hazard rate during this time is l1T2.
Another expression for the average loss rate is l1T211-R2, where R is the estimated
recovery rate. This means that it is approximately true that
l1T211-R2=s1T2
or
Estimating Default Hazard Rates
- The excess yield of a corporate bond over the risk-free rate is primarily viewed as compensation for the potential risk of default.
- A simple approximation for the average hazard rate can be calculated by dividing the bond yield spread by the loss given default.
- Hazard rates often increase over time, as shown by calculations where the rate for a third year is higher than for the first.
- A more precise method involves matching bond prices by bootstrapping hazard rates across different maturities to account for specific cash flows.
- Calculations for expected default losses must account for the present value of the difference between a bond's risk-free value and its recovery value.
The usual assumption is that the excess yield is compensation for the possibility of default.
promised yield on the bond over the risk-free rate. The usual assumption is that the
excess yield is compensation for the possibility of default.3
Suppose that the bond yield spread for a T-year bond is s1T2 per annum. This means
that the average loss rate on the bond between time 0 and time T should be approxi-mately
s1T2 per annum. Suppose that the average hazard rate during this time is l1T2.
Another expression for the average loss rate is l1T211-R2, where R is the estimated
recovery rate. This means that it is approximately true that
l1T211-R2=s1T2
or
l1T2=s1T2
1-R (24.2)
The approximation works very well in a wide range of situations.
Example 24.1
Suppose that 1-year, 2-year, and 3-year bonds issued by a corporation yield 150,
180, and 195 basis points more than the risk-free rate, respectively. If the recovery
rate is estimated at 40%, the average hazard rate for year 1 given by equa-tion ( 24.2) is
0.0150>11-0.42=0.025 or 2.5% per annum. Similarly, the average
hazard rate for years 1 and 2 is 0.0180>11-0.42=0.030 or 3.0% per annum, and
the average hazard rate for all three years is 0.0195>11-0.42=0.0325 or 3.25%.
These results imply that the average hazard rate for the second year is
2*0.03-1*0.025=0.035 or 3.5% and that the average hazard rate for the
third year is 3*0.0325-2*0.03=0.0375 or 3.75%.
Matching Bond Prices
For a more precise calculation we can choose hazard rates so that they match bond prices. The approach is similar to the bootstrap method for calculating a zero-coupon yield curve described in Section 4.7. Suppose that bonds with maturities
ti are used,
where t16t26t3g. The shortest maturity bond is used to calculate the hazard rate
out to time t1. The next shortest maturity bond is used to calculate the hazard rate
between times t1 and t2, and so on.
Example 24.2
Suppose that the risk-free rate is 5% per annum (continuously compounded) for all maturities and 1-year, 2-year, and 3-year bonds have yields of 6.5%, 6.8%, and
6.95%, respectively (also continuously compounded). (This is consistent with the data in Example 24.1.) We suppose that each bond has a face value of $100 and provides semiannual coupons at the rate of 8% per year (with a coupon having just been paid). The values of the bonds can be calculated from their yields as $101.33,
$101.99, and $102.47. If the bonds were risk-free the bond values (obtained by discounting cash flows at 5%) would be $102.83, $105.52, and $108.08, respect-
ively. This means that the present value of expected default losses on the 1-year bond must be
+102.83-+101.33=+1.50. Similarly, the present value of expected
default losses on the 2-year and 3-year bonds must be $3.53 and $5.61. Suppose that the hazard rate in year i is
li 11ā¦iā¦32 and the recovery rate is 40%.
3 This assumption is not perfect, as we discuss later. For example, the price of a corporate bond is affected by
its liquidity. The lower the liquidity, the lower its price.
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566 CHAPTER 24
Consider the 1-year bond. The probability of a default in the first 6 months is
1-e-0.5l1 and the probability of a default during the following 6 months is
e-0.5l1-e-l1. We assume that defaults can happen only at the midpoints of
these 6-month intervals. The possible default times are therefore in 3 months
and 9 months. The (forward) risk-free value of the bond at the 3-month point is
4e-0.05*0.25+104e-0.05*0.75=+104.12
Given the definition of recovery rate in the previous section, if there is a default
the bond will be worth $40. The present value of the loss if there is a default at the
3-month point is therefore
1104.12-402e-0.05*0.25=+63.33
The risk-free value of the bond at the 9-month point is 104e-0.05*0.25=+102.71.
If there is a default, the bond will be worth $40. The present value of a loss if there
is a default at the 9-month point is therefore
1102.71-402e-0.05*0.75=+60.40
The hazard rate l1 must therefore satisfy
Hazard Rates and Risk-Free Benchmarks
- The text demonstrates how to calculate hazard rates by solving for the present value of expected losses on bonds with different maturities.
- A critical challenge in credit risk modeling is the selection of an appropriate risk-free rate, as Treasury rates are often considered too low to be accurate proxies.
- Credit default swap (CDS) spreads offer an alternative method for estimating credit risk that avoids dependency on a specific risk-free rate benchmark.
- Historical default data often yields much lower probability estimates than those derived from market bond yield spreads, particularly during periods of financial stress.
- The 'flight to quality' during the 2007 financial crisis caused corporate bond prices to plummet and credit spreads to widen, resulting in inflated hazard rate estimates.
This is because there was what is termed a āflight to qualityā during the crisis, where all investors wanted to hold safe securities such as Treasury bonds.
Given the definition of recovery rate in the previous section, if there is a default
the bond will be worth $40. The present value of the loss if there is a default at the
3-month point is therefore
1104.12-402e-0.05*0.25=+63.33
The risk-free value of the bond at the 9-month point is 104e-0.05*0.25=+102.71.
If there is a default, the bond will be worth $40. The present value of a loss if there
is a default at the 9-month point is therefore
1102.71-402e-0.05*0.75=+60.40
The hazard rate l1 must therefore satisfy
11-e-0.5l12*63.33+1e-0.5l1-e-l12*60.40=1.50
The solution to this (e.g., by using Solver in Excel) is l1=2.46,.
The 2-year bond is considered next. Its default probabilities at times 3 months
and 9 months are known from the analysis of the 1-year bond. The hazard rate
for the second year is calculated so that the present value of the expected loss on
the bond is $3.53. The 3-year bond is treated similarly. The hazard rate for the
second and third years prove to be 3.48% and 3.74%. (Note that the three
estimated hazard rates are very similar to those calculated in Example 24.1 using equation (24.2).) A worksheet showing the calculations is on the authorās website: www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/ofod.
The Risk-Free Rate
The methods we have just presented for calculating default probabilities are critically dependent on the choice of a risk-free rate. The spreads in Example 24.1 are differences between bond yields and risk-free rates. The calculation of the expected losses from default implied by bond prices in Example 24.2 depends on calculating the prices of
risk-free bonds. The benchmark risk-free rate used by bond traders is usually a Treasury rate. For example, a bond trader might quote the yield on a bond as being
a spread of 250 basis points over Treasuries. However, as discussed in Section 4.3,
Treasury rates are too low to be useful proxies for risk-free rates.
Credit default swap (CDS) spreads, which were briefly explained in Section 7.11 and
will be discussed in more detail in Chapter 25, provide a credit spread estimate that does not depend on the risk-free rate. A number of researchers have attempted to imply risk- free rates by comparing bond yields to CDS spreads. The implied risk-free rate in normal market conditions seems to be close to the OIS rate.
4
4 See J. C. Hull, M. Predescu, and A. White, āThe Relationship between Credit Default Swap Spreads, Bond
Yields, and Credit Rating Announcements,ā Journal of Banking and Finance, 28 (November 2004): 2789ā2811.
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Credit Risk 567
The default probabilities estimated from historical data are usually much less than those
derived from bond yield spreads. The difference between the two was particularly large during the financial crisis which started in mid-2007. This is because there was what is termed a āflight to qualityā during the crisis, where all investors wanted to hold safe securities such as Treasury bonds. The prices of corporate bonds declined, thereby increasing their yields. The credit spread on these bonds increased and calculations such as the one in equation (24.2) gave very high hazard rate estimates.
Table 24.2 is taken from research published in 2005 which used Moodyās data.
5 It
Discrepancies in Default Probability Estimates
- Historical data consistently yields lower default probabilities than those derived from bond yield spreads, particularly during financial crises.
- The 'flight to quality' phenomenon drives investors toward safe Treasury bonds, causing corporate bond prices to drop and their implied hazard rates to spike.
- While the ratio between bond-implied and historical hazard rates is highest for top-rated bonds, the absolute difference between these rates grows as credit quality declines.
- Research indicates that the spread required to compensate for historical defaults is significantly lower than the actual market spread, resulting in an expected excess return.
- For high-quality Aaa-rated bonds, the bond-implied hazard rate can be over 16 times higher than the historical rate, yet this only translates to a small excess return in basis points.
This is because there was what is termed a āflight to qualityā during the crisis, where all investors wanted to hold safe securities such as Treasury bonds.
The default probabilities estimated from historical data are usually much less than those
derived from bond yield spreads. The difference between the two was particularly large during the financial crisis which started in mid-2007. This is because there was what is termed a āflight to qualityā during the crisis, where all investors wanted to hold safe securities such as Treasury bonds. The prices of corporate bonds declined, thereby increasing their yields. The credit spread on these bonds increased and calculations such as the one in equation (24.2) gave very high hazard rate estimates.
Table 24.2 is taken from research published in 2005 which used Moodyās data.
5 It
compares historical hazard rates with those implied by bond yields for bonds with different ratings and shows that the latter are much greater than the former. The
historical hazard rate was calculated using data similar to that in Table 24.1. The
hazard rate implied by bond yields was calculated using equation (24.2) with a recovery
rate of 40%. The bond yield spreads used were averages over a number of years. The risk-free rate was estimated from the credit default swap market to be 43 basis points higher than Treasuries. It can be seen that the ratio of the hazard rate calculated from
bonds to the historical hazard rate tends to decline as a bond becomes less credit- worthy, whereas the difference between the two tends to increase. (The B-rated bonds do not quite conform to this pattern.)
More recent data gives a similar result to that in Table 24.2. Consider, for example,
Baa-rated (or BBB-rated) bonds. The cumulative probability of default during a seven- year period, taken from Table 24.1, is 2.33%. Equation (24.10) gives
l172=-1
7 ln 31-Q1724
where l1t2 is the average hazard rate during t years and Q1t2 is the cumulative probability
of default by time t years. Setting Q172=0.0233, we obtain l172=0.0034 (i.e., 0.34%,
or 34 basis points). The spread of the Baa (or BBB) corporate bond yield over the risk-
free rate was about 1.8% for the years preceding 2019. Equation (24.2) gives an estimate
Rating Historical
hazard rateHazard rate
from bondsRatio Difference
Aaa 0.04 0.67 16.8 0.63
Aa 0.06 0.78 13.0 0.72
A 0.13 1.28 9.8 1.15
Baa 0.47 2.38 5.1 1.91
Ba 2.40 5.07 2.1 2.67
B 7.49 9.02 1.2 1.53
Caa and lower 16.90 21.30 1.3 4.40Table 24.2 Seven-year average hazard rates (% per annum).
5 See J. C. Hull, M. Predescu, and A. White, āBond Prices, Default Probabilities, and Risk Premiums,ā
Journal of Credit Risk, 1, 2 (Spring 2005): 53ā60.24.5 COMPARISON OF DEFAULT PROBABILITY ESTIMATES
M24_HULL0654_11_GE_C24.indd 567 30/04/2021 17:40
568 CHAPTER 24
for the hazard rate implied by bond yields as 0.018>11-0.42=0.03, or 3% (about nine
times the estimate from Table 24.1).
Table 24.3 shows another way of looking at the results in Table 24.2. The second
column shows the bond yield spread. The spread required to compensate for the
historical default rate is shown in the third column. (For example, in the case of the
Baa bond it is 0.47,*0.6=0.28,, or 28 basis points.) The expected excess return is
shown in the final column of the table.6
A large percentage difference between the two hazard rate estimates in Table 24.2
translates into a small expected excess return on the bond. For Aaa-rated bonds, the ratio of the two hazard rates is 16.8, but the expected excess return is only 38 basis points. The expected excess return tends to increase as credit quality declines.
Real-World vs. Risk-Neutral Probabilities
Risk-Neutral vs Real-World Probabilities
- The hazard rates implied by bond yields are significantly higher than those estimated from historical default data.
- Risk-neutral default probabilities are used to calculate expected cash flows, which are then discounted at the risk-free rate.
- The expected excess return on corporate bonds increases as credit quality declines, reflecting a premium for risk and illiquidity.
- The discrepancy between real-world and risk-neutral probabilities is equivalent to the excess return earned by bond traders over the risk-free rate.
- Illiquidity is a primary reason why corporate bond returns are higher than historical default rates alone would suggest.
As we have just argued, this is the same as asking why corporate bond traders earn more than the risk-free rate on average.
for the hazard rate implied by bond yields as 0.018>11-0.42=0.03, or 3% (about nine
times the estimate from Table 24.1).
Table 24.3 shows another way of looking at the results in Table 24.2. The second
column shows the bond yield spread. The spread required to compensate for the
historical default rate is shown in the third column. (For example, in the case of the
Baa bond it is 0.47,*0.6=0.28,, or 28 basis points.) The expected excess return is
shown in the final column of the table.6
A large percentage difference between the two hazard rate estimates in Table 24.2
translates into a small expected excess return on the bond. For Aaa-rated bonds, the ratio of the two hazard rates is 16.8, but the expected excess return is only 38 basis points. The expected excess return tends to increase as credit quality declines.
Real-World vs. Risk-Neutral Probabilities
The default probabilities or hazard rates implied from credit spreads are risk-neutral estimates. They can be used to calculate expected cash flows in a risk-neutral world when there is credit risk. The value of the cash flows is obtained using risk-neutral valuation by discounting the expected cash flows at a risk-free rate. Example 24.2 shows
an application of this to the calculation of the cost of defaults. We will see more
applications in the next chapter.
Default probabilities or hazard rates calculated from historical data are real-world
(sometimes termed physical) default probabilities. Table 24.2 shows that risk-neutral
default probabilities are much higher than real-world default probabilities. The expected excess return in Table 24.3 arises directly from the difference between real-world and risk-neutral default probabilities. If there were no expected excess return, then the real-world and risk-neutral default probabilities would be the same, and vice versa.
Why do we see such big differences between real-world and risk-neutral default
probabilities? As we have just argued, this is the same as asking why corporate bond traders earn more than the risk-free rate on average.
One reason often advanced for the results is that corporate bonds are relatively
illiquid and the returns on bonds are higher than they would otherwise be to Rating Bond yield spread
over risk-free rateSpread for
historical defaultsExcess
return
Aaa 40 2 38
Aa 47 4 43
A 77 8 69
Baa 143 28 115
Ba 304 144 160
B 542 449 93
Caa 1278 1014 264Table 24.3 Expected excess return on bonds (basis points).
6 To keep calculations as intuitive as possible, no adjustments have been made for the impact of
compounding frequency issues on spreads, returns, and hazard rates.
M24_HULL0654_11_GE_C24.indd 568 30/04/2021 17:40
Credit Risk 569
Corporate Bond Excess Returns
- Corporate bonds consistently yield higher returns than the risk-free rate, even after accounting for historical default rates.
- While illiquidity and conservative trader estimates play a role, they do not fully explain the significant excess returns observed in the market.
- The primary driver of excess returns is systematic risk, as defaults tend to cluster during economic downturns or through credit contagion.
- Unlike stocks, the highly skewed nature of bond returns makes idiosyncratic risk exceptionally difficult to diversify away, even with a large portfolio.
Bond returns are highly skewed with limited upside. (For example, on an individual bond, there might be a 99.75% chance of a 4% return in a year, and a 0.25% chance of a - 60% return in the year, the first outcome corresponding to no default and the second to default.)
probabilities? As we have just argued, this is the same as asking why corporate bond traders earn more than the risk-free rate on average.
One reason often advanced for the results is that corporate bonds are relatively
illiquid and the returns on bonds are higher than they would otherwise be to Rating Bond yield spread
over risk-free rateSpread for
historical defaultsExcess
return
Aaa 40 2 38
Aa 47 4 43
A 77 8 69
Baa 143 28 115
Ba 304 144 160
B 542 449 93
Caa 1278 1014 264Table 24.3 Expected excess return on bonds (basis points).
6 To keep calculations as intuitive as possible, no adjustments have been made for the impact of
compounding frequency issues on spreads, returns, and hazard rates.
M24_HULL0654_11_GE_C24.indd 568 30/04/2021 17:40
Credit Risk 569
compensate for this. This is true, but research shows that it does not fully explain the
results in Table 24.3.7 Another possible reason for the results is that the subjective
default probabilities of bond traders may be much higher than the those given in
Table 24.1. Bond traders may be allowing for depression scenarios much worse than
anything seen during the period covered by historical data. However, it is difficult to see how this can explain a large part of the excess return that is observed.
By far the most important reason for the results in Tables 24.2 and 24.3 is that
bonds do not default independently of each other. There are periods of time when default rates are very low and periods of time when they are very high. Evidence for this can be obtained by looking at the default rates in different years. S&P statistics show that since 1981 the default rate per year in the U.S. for non-investment-grade rated companies has ranged from a low of 0.63% in 1981 to a high of 11.81% in 2009, respectively. The year-to-year variation in default rates gives rise to systematic risk (i.e.,
risk that cannot be diversified away) and bond traders earn an excess expected return for bearing the risk. (This is similar to the excess expected return earned by equity holders that is calculated by the capital asset pricing modelāsee the appendix to
Chapter 3.) The variation in default rates from year to year may be because of overall
economic conditions and it may be because a default by one company has a ripple effect resulting in defaults by other companies. (The latter is referred to by researchers as credit contagion.)
In addition to the systematic risk we have just talked about, there is nonsystematic (or
idiosyncratic) risk associated with each bond. If we were talking about stocks, we would argue that investors can to a large extent diversify away the nonsystematic risk by choosing a portfolio of, say, 30 stocks. They should not therefore demand a risk premium for bearing nonsystematic risk. For bonds, the arguments are not so clear-cut. Bond
returns are highly skewed with limited upside. (For example, on an individual bond, there
might be a 99.75% chance of a 4% return in a year, and a 0.25% chance of a - 60%
return in the year, the first outcome corresponding to no default and the second to default.) This type of risk is difficult to ādiversify awayā.
8 It would require tens of
Credit Risk and Merton's Model
- Credit risk consists of systematic risk from economic conditions and nonsystematic risk specific to individual bonds.
- Unlike stocks, bond returns are highly skewed with limited upside, making nonsystematic risk difficult to diversify without holding tens of thousands of bonds.
- Risk-neutral default probabilities are appropriate for valuation and pricing, while real-world probabilities are used for scenario analysis and loss forecasting.
- Merton's model treats a company's equity as a call option on its total assets, where default occurs if asset value falls below the debt repayment amount.
Bond returns are highly skewed with limited upside. (For example, on an individual bond, there might be a 99.75% chance of a 4% return in a year, and a 0.25% chance of a - 60% return in the year...)
economic conditions and it may be because a default by one company has a ripple effect resulting in defaults by other companies. (The latter is referred to by researchers as credit contagion.)
In addition to the systematic risk we have just talked about, there is nonsystematic (or
idiosyncratic) risk associated with each bond. If we were talking about stocks, we would argue that investors can to a large extent diversify away the nonsystematic risk by choosing a portfolio of, say, 30 stocks. They should not therefore demand a risk premium for bearing nonsystematic risk. For bonds, the arguments are not so clear-cut. Bond
returns are highly skewed with limited upside. (For example, on an individual bond, there
might be a 99.75% chance of a 4% return in a year, and a 0.25% chance of a - 60%
return in the year, the first outcome corresponding to no default and the second to default.) This type of risk is difficult to ādiversify awayā.
8 It would require tens of
thousands of different bonds. In practice, many bond portfolios are far from fully
diversified. As a result, bond traders may earn an extra return for bearing nonsystematic
risk as well as for bearing the systematic risk mentioned in the previous paragraph.
Which Default Probability Estimate Should Be Used?
At this stage it is natural to ask whether we should use real-world or risk-neutral default probabilities in the analysis of credit risk. The answer depends on the purpose of the analysis. When valuing credit derivatives or estimating the impact of default risk on the pricing of instruments, risk-neutral default probabilities should be used. This is because the analysis calculates the present value of expected future cash flows and almost
invariably (implicitly or explicitly) involves using risk-neutral valuation. When carrying out scenario analyses to calculate potential future losses from defaults, real-world default probabilities should be used.
7 For example, J. Dick-Nielsen, P. Feldhütter, and D. Lando, āCorporate Bond Liquidity before and after the
Onset of the Subprime Crisis,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 103, 3 (2012), 471ā92, uses a number of different
liquidity measures and a large database of bond trades. It shows that the liquidity component of credit spreads is relatively small.
8 See J. D. Amato and E. M. Remolona, āThe Credit Spread Puzzle,ā BIS Quarterly Review, 5 (Dec. 2003): 51ā63.
M24_HULL0654_11_GE_C24.indd 569 30/04/2021 17:40
570 CHAPTER 24
When we use a table such as Table 24.1 to estimate a companyās real-world probability
of default, we are relying on the companyās credit rating. Unfortunately, credit ratings are revised relatively infrequently. This has led some analysts to argue that equity prices can provide more up-to-date information for estimating default probabilities.
In 1974, Merton proposed a model where a companyās equity is an option on the
assets of the company.
9 Suppose, for simplicity, that a firm has one zero-coupon bond
outstanding and that the bond matures at time T. Define:
V0: Value of companyās assets today
VT: Value of companyās assets at time T
E0: Value of companyās equity today
ET: Value of companyās equity at time T
D : Debt repayment due at time T
sV: Volatility of assets (assumed constant)
sE: Instantaneous volatility of equity.
If VT6D, it is (at least in theory) rational for the company to default on the debt at
time T. The value of the equity is then zero. If VT7D, the company should make the
debt repayment at time T and the value of the equity at this time is VT-D. Mertonās
model, therefore, gives the value of the firmās equity at time T as
ET=max1VT-D, 02
This shows that the equity is a call option on the value of the assets with a strike price equal to the repayment required on the debt. The BlackāScholesāMerton formula gives the value of the equity today as
E0=V0N1d12-De-rT N1d22 (24.3)
where
d1=ln1V0>D2+1r+s2
V>22T
sV2T and d2=d1-sV2T
Merton's Model of Default
- Mertonās model conceptualizes a company's equity as a call option on the total value of its assets, with the debt repayment amount serving as the strike price.
- Because asset value and asset volatility are not directly observable, the model uses observable equity prices and equity volatility to solve for these hidden variables.
- The risk-neutral probability of default is calculated using the BlackāScholesāMerton framework, specifically through the N(-d2) term.
- While the model requires solving complex nonlinear equations, it provides a highly effective ranking system for actual default risk when compared to real-world data.
- Extensions of the model have been developed to account for barrier-level asset drops and multiple debt payment schedules over time.
This shows that the equity is a call option on the value of the assets with a strike price equal to the repayment required on the debt.
sE: Instantaneous volatility of equity.
If VT6D, it is (at least in theory) rational for the company to default on the debt at
time T. The value of the equity is then zero. If VT7D, the company should make the
debt repayment at time T and the value of the equity at this time is VT-D. Mertonās
model, therefore, gives the value of the firmās equity at time T as
ET=max1VT-D, 02
This shows that the equity is a call option on the value of the assets with a strike price equal to the repayment required on the debt. The BlackāScholesāMerton formula gives the value of the equity today as
E0=V0N1d12-De-rT N1d22 (24.3)
where
d1=ln1V0>D2+1r+s2
V>22T
sV2T and d2=d1-sV2T
The value of the debt today is V0-E0.
The risk-neutral probability that the company will default on the debt is N1-d22. To
calculate this, we require V0 and sV. Neither of these are directly observable. However,
if the company is publicly traded, we can observe E0. This means that equation (24.3)
provides one condition that must be satisfied by V0 and sV. We can also estimate sE
from historical data or options. From ItĆās lemma,
sE E0=0E
0V sV V0=N1d12sV V0 (24.4)
This provides another equation that must be satisfied by V0 and sV. Equations (24.3)
and (24.4) provide a pair of simultaneous equations that can be solved for V0 and sV.1024.6 USING EQUITY PRICES TO ESTIMATE DEFAULT PROBABILITIES
9 See R. Merton āOn the Pricing of Corporate Debt: The Risk Structure of Interest Rates,ā Journal of
Finance, 29 (1974): 449ā70.
10 To solve two nonlinear equations of the form F1x, y2=0 and G1x, y2=0, the Solver routine in Excel can
be asked to find the values of x and y that minimize 3F1x, y242+3G1x, y242.
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Example 24.3
The value of a companyās equity is $3 million and the volatility of the equity is
80%. The debt that will have to be paid in 1 year is $10 million. The risk-free rate is
5% per annum. In this case E0=3, sE=0.80, r=0.05, T=1, and D=10.
Solving equations (24.3) and (24.4) as indicated in footnote 10 yields V0=12.40
and sV=0.2123. The parameter d2 is 1.1408, so that the probability of default is
N1-d22=0.127, or 12.7%. The market value of the debt is V0-E0, or 9.40. The
present value of the promised payment on the debt is 10e-0.05*1=9.51. The
expected loss on the debt is therefore 19.51-9.402>9.51, or about 1.2% of its
no-default value.
The basic Merton model we have just presented has been extended in a number of ways. For example, one version of the model assumes that a default occurs whenever the
value of the assets falls below a barrier level. Another allows payments on debt instruments to be required at more than one time.
How well do the default probabilities produced by Mertonās model and its extensions
correspond to actual default experience? The answer is that Mertonās model and its
extensions produce a good ranking of default probabilities (risk-neutral or real-world). This means that a monotonic transformation can be used to convert the probability of default output from Mertonās model into a good estimate of either the real-world or
risk-neutral default probability.
11 It may seem strange to take a default probability
Merton Model and Credit Risk
- The basic Merton model calculates default probability by treating equity as a call option on a company's assets.
- While the model produces risk-neutral probabilities, it can be transformed to estimate real-world default frequencies through calibration.
- Bilateral derivatives transactions are governed by ISDA Master Agreements which mandate margin requirements to mitigate credit risk.
- Losses occur if a defaulting party owes more than the collateral posted or if a nondefaulting party has excess collateral held by the defaulter.
It may seem strange to take a default probability that is in theory a risk-neutral default probability and use it to estimate a real-world default probability.
expected loss on the debt is therefore 19.51-9.402>9.51, or about 1.2% of its
no-default value.
The basic Merton model we have just presented has been extended in a number of ways. For example, one version of the model assumes that a default occurs whenever the
value of the assets falls below a barrier level. Another allows payments on debt instruments to be required at more than one time.
How well do the default probabilities produced by Mertonās model and its extensions
correspond to actual default experience? The answer is that Mertonās model and its
extensions produce a good ranking of default probabilities (risk-neutral or real-world). This means that a monotonic transformation can be used to convert the probability of default output from Mertonās model into a good estimate of either the real-world or
risk-neutral default probability.
11 It may seem strange to take a default probability
N1-d22 that is in theory a risk-neutral default probability (because it is calculated from
an option-pricing model) and use it to estimate a real-world default probability. Given the nature of the calibration process we have just described, the underlying assumption is that the ranking of the risk-neutral default probabilities of different companies is the same as the ranking of their real-world default probabilities.
11 Moodyās KMV provides a service that transforms a default probability produced by Mertonās model into a
real-world default probability (which it refers to as an expected default frequency, or EDF). CreditGrades use
Mertonās model to estimate credit spreads, which are closely linked to risk-neutral default probabilities.24.7 CREDIT RISK IN DERIVATIVES TRANSACTIONS
In this section we consider how credit risk is quantified for bilaterally cleared derivatives
transactions. This topic was introduced in Chapter 9. Typically, bilaterally cleared
derivatives between two companies are governed by an International Swaps and
Derivatives Association (ISDA) Master Agreement. For transactions between financial
institutions, regulations require that variation margin be exchanged and initial margin
be posted with third parties. Initial margin is calculated so that it covers losses over a 10-day period with 99% confidence.
The Master Agreement defines the circumstances when an event of default occurs. For
example, when one side fails to make payments on outstanding derivatives transactions as required or fails to post margin (i.e., collateral) as required or declares bankruptcy,
there is an event of default. The other side then has the right to terminate all out-standing transactions. There are two circumstances when this is likely to lead to a loss for the nondefaulting party:
1. The total value of the transactions to the nondefaulting party is positive and greater than the collateral (if any) posted by the defaulting party. The nondefaulting party
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572 CHAPTER 24
is then an unsecured creditor for the value of the transactions minus the value of the
collateral.
2. The total value of the transactions is positive to the defaulting party and the collateral posted by the nondefaulting party is greater than this value. The
nondefaulting party is then an unsecured creditor for the return of the excess
collateral it has posted.
For the purposes of our discussion, we ignore the bidāask spread costs incurred by the nondefaulting party when it replaces the transactions it had with the defaulting party.
CVA and DVA
Valuing Counterparty Credit Risk
- The value of a derivatives portfolio is adjusted for credit risk by subtracting the Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) and adding the Debit Valuation Adjustment (DVA).
- DVA represents a benefit to the bank because it accounts for the possibility that the bank may not have to fulfill its payment obligations if it defaults.
- Risk-neutral default probabilities are calculated using credit spreads and recovery rates to estimate the likelihood of default within specific time intervals.
- Calculating expected losses often requires computationally intensive Monte Carlo simulations to model market variables and bank exposure over time.
- Unsecured creditors face risks not only from transaction values but also from the potential loss of excess collateral posted to a defaulting party.
The possibility of the bank defaulting is a benefit to the bank because it means that there is some possibility that the bank will not have to make payments as required on its derivatives.
is then an unsecured creditor for the value of the transactions minus the value of the
collateral.
2. The total value of the transactions is positive to the defaulting party and the collateral posted by the nondefaulting party is greater than this value. The
nondefaulting party is then an unsecured creditor for the return of the excess
collateral it has posted.
For the purposes of our discussion, we ignore the bidāask spread costs incurred by the nondefaulting party when it replaces the transactions it had with the defaulting party.
CVA and DVA
CVA and DVA were introduced in Chapter 9. A bankās credit valuation adjustment (CVA) for a counterparty is the present value of the expected cost to the bank of a default
by the counterparty. Its debit (or debt) valuation adjustment (DVA) is the present value of the expected cost to the counterparty of a default by the bank. The possibility of the bank defaulting is a benefit to the bank because it means that there is some possibility that the bank will not have to make payments as required on its derivatives. DVA, a cost to the counterparty, therefore increases the value of its derivatives portfolio to the bank.
The no-default value of outstanding transactions is their value assuming neither side
will default. (Derivatives pricing models such as BlackāScholesāMerton provide no-
default values.) If f
nd is the no-default value to the bank of its outstanding derivatives
transactions with the counterparty, the value the outstanding transactions when possible defaults are taken into account is
fnd-CVA+DVA
Suppose that the life of the longest outstanding derivative between the bank and the
counterparty is T years. As explained in Chapter 9, the interval between time 0 and
time T is divided into N subintervals and CVA and DVA are estimated as
CVA=aN
i=1qivi, DVA=aN
i=1qi*vi*
Here qi is the risk-neutral probability of the counterparty defaulting during the ith
interval, vi is the present value of the expected loss to the bank if the counterparty
defaults at the midpoint of the ith interval, qi* is the risk-neutral probability of the bank
defaulting during the ith interval, and vi* is the present value of the expected loss to the
counterparty (gain to the bank) if the bank defaults at the midpoint of the ith interval.
Consider first the calculation of qi. Note that qi should be a risk-neutral default
probability because we are valuing future cash flows and (implicitly) using risk-neutral
valuation (see Section 24.5). Suppose that ti is the end point of the ith interval, so that
qi is the risk-neutral probability of a counterparty default between times ti-1 and ti. We
first estimate credit spreads for the counterparty for a number of different maturities. Using interpolation, we then obtain an estimate,
s1ti2, of the counterpartyās credit
spread for maturity ti 11ā¦iā¦N2. From equation (24.2), an estimate of the counter-
partyās average hazard rate between times 0 and ti is s1ti2>11-R2, where R is the
recovery rate expected in the event of a counterparty default. From equation (24.1), the
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Credit Risk 573
probability that the counterparty will not default by time ti is
exp a-s1ti2ti
1-Rb
This means that
qi=exp a-s1ti-12ti-1
1-Rb-expa-s1ti2ti
1-Rb
is the probability of the counterparty defaulting during the ith interval. The probability
qi* is similarly calculated from the bankās credit spreads.
Consider next the calculation of the vi assuming that no collateral is posted. This
usually requires a computationally very time consuming Monte Carlo simulation. The
market variables determining the no-default value of the outstanding transactions between the bank and the counterparty are simulated in a risk-neutral world between time 0 and time T. On each simulation trial, the exposure of the bank to the counterparty
at the midpoint of each interval is calculated. The exposure is equal to
max1V, 02, where
Calculating Counterparty Credit Exposure
- Calculating credit exposure without collateral requires computationally intensive Monte Carlo simulations to model transaction values in a risk-neutral world.
- The exposure for a bank is defined as the maximum of the total transaction value or zero, representing the potential loss if a counterparty defaults.
- Collateral agreements introduce complexity by requiring an estimation of the assets held at the time of default, adjusted for a specific 'cure period'.
- The cure period, or margin period of risk, accounts for the time lag between a counterparty's last collateral post and the actual moment of default.
- In a two-way zero-threshold agreement, exposure is the uncollateralized difference between the current transaction value and the value at the start of the cure period.
In this calculation, it is usually assumed that the counterparty stops posting collateral and stops returning any excess collateral held c days before a default.
is the probability of the counterparty defaulting during the ith interval. The probability
qi* is similarly calculated from the bankās credit spreads.
Consider next the calculation of the vi assuming that no collateral is posted. This
usually requires a computationally very time consuming Monte Carlo simulation. The
market variables determining the no-default value of the outstanding transactions between the bank and the counterparty are simulated in a risk-neutral world between time 0 and time T. On each simulation trial, the exposure of the bank to the counterparty
at the midpoint of each interval is calculated. The exposure is equal to
max1V, 02, where
V is the total value of the transactions to the bank. (If the transactions in total have a
negative value to the bank, there is no exposure; if they have a positive value, the exposure is equal to this positive value.) The variable
vi is set equal to the present value of the
average exposure across all simulation trials multiplied by one minus the recovery rate. The variable
vi* is calculated similarly from the counterpartyās exposure to the bank.
When there is a collateral agreement between the bank and the counterparty, the
calculation of vi is more complicated. It is necessary to estimate on each simulation trial
the amount of collateral held by each side at the midpoint of the ith interval in the event
of a default. In this calculation, it is usually assumed that the counterparty stops posting collateral and stops returning any excess collateral held c days before a default.
The parameter c, which is typically 10 or 20 days, is referred to as the cure period or margin period of risk. In order to know what collateral is held at the midpoint of an interval in the event of a default, it is necessary to calculate the value of transactions c days earlier. The way exposure is calculated is illustrated with the following example. The present value of the expected loss
vi is calculated from the average exposure across
all simulation trials as in the no-collateral case. A similar analysis of the average exposure of the counterparty to the bank leads to
vi*.
Example 24.4
There is a two-way zero-threshold collateral agreement between a bank and its
(nonfinancial) counterparty. This means that each side is required to post collateral worth
max1V, 02 with the other side, where V is the value of the outstanding
transactions to the other side. The cure period is 20 days. Suppose that time t is the midpoint of one of the intervals used in the bankās CVA calculation.
1. On a particular simulation trial, the value of outstanding transactions to the
bank at time
t is 50 and their value 20 days earlier is 45. In this case, the
calculation assumes that the bank has collateral worth 45 in the event of a
default at time t. The bankās exposure is the uncollateralized value it has in
the derivatives transactions, or 5.
2. On a particular simulation trial the value of outstanding transactions to the bank at time
t is 50 and their value 20 days earlier is 55. In this case, it is
assumed that the bank will have adequate collateral and its exposure is zero.
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574 CHAPTER 24
3. On a particular simulation trial the value of outstanding transactions to the
bank at time t is -50 and the value 20 days earlier is -45. In this case, the
bank is assumed to have posted less than 50 of collateral in the event of a default at time
t and its exposure is zero.
4. On a particular simulation trial the value of outstanding transactions to the bank at time
CVA and Credit Risk Mitigation
- Banks utilize Monte Carlo simulations to calculate Credit Value Adjustment (CVA) and peak exposure, accounting for collateral posting and potential defaults.
- The incremental impact of new transactions on CVA and DVA depends heavily on their correlation with the bank's existing portfolio.
- Wrong-way risk occurs when a counterparty's probability of default is positively correlated with the bank's exposure, complicating risk assessments.
- Netting serves as a primary credit risk mitigation tool by treating multiple transactions as a single net value rather than independent exposures.
- CVA and DVA are managed as derivatives, with risks monitored through Greek letter calculations and scenario analyses.
Traders use the term wrong-way risk to describe the situation where the probability of default is positively correlated with exposure.
t is 50 and their value 20 days earlier is 55. In this case, it is
assumed that the bank will have adequate collateral and its exposure is zero.
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574 CHAPTER 24
3. On a particular simulation trial the value of outstanding transactions to the
bank at time t is -50 and the value 20 days earlier is -45. In this case, the
bank is assumed to have posted less than 50 of collateral in the event of a default at time
t and its exposure is zero.
4. On a particular simulation trial the value of outstanding transactions to the bank at time
t is -50 and the value 20 days earlier is -55. In this case, it is
assumed that 55 of collateral is held by the counterparty 20 days before time
t and, in the event of a default at time t, none of it is returned. The bankās
exposure is therefore 5, the excess collateral it has posted.
In addition to calculating CVA, banks usually calculate peak exposure at the midpoint of each interval. This is a high percentile of the exposures given by the Monte Carlo simulation trials. For example, if the percentile is 97.5% and there are 10,000 Monte Carlo trials, the peak exposure at a particular midpoint is the 250th highest exposure at that point. The maximum peak exposure is the maximum of the peak exposures at all midpoints.
12
Banks usually store all the paths sampled for all market variables and all the
valuations calculated on each path. This enables the impact of a new transaction on
CVA and DVA to be calculated relatively quickly. Only the value of the new transaction for each sample path needs to be calculated in order to determine its incremental effect on CVA and DVA. If the value of the new transaction is positively correlated to existing
transactions, it is likely to increase CVA and DVA. If it is negatively correlated to
existing transactions (e.g., because it is wholly or partially unwinding those trans-actions), it is likely to decrease CVA and DVA.
The method for calculating CVA that we have presented assumes that the probability
of default by the counterparty is independent of the bankās exposure. This is a reason-able assumption in many situations. Traders use the term wrong-way risk to describe the
situation where the probability of default is positively correlated with exposure and the
term right-way risk to describe the situation where the probability of default is
negatively correlated with exposure. More complicated models than those we describe
have been developed to describe dependence between default probability and exposure.
A bank has one CVA and one DVA for each of its counterparties. The CVAs and
DVAs can be regarded as derivatives which change in value as market variables change, counterparty credit spreads change, and bank credit spreads change. The risks in CVA (and occasionally DVA) are managed in the same way as the risks in other derivatives using Greek letter calculations, scenario analyses, etc.
Credit Risk Mitigation
There are a number of ways banks try to reduce credit risk in bilaterally cleared trans-actions. One, which we have already mentioned, is netting. Suppose a bank has three uncollateralized transactions with a counterparty worth +$10 million, +$30 million, and - $25 million. If they are regarded as independent transactions, the bankās exposure on
the transactions is $10 million, $30 million, and $0 for a total exposure of $40 million. With netting, the transactions are regarded as a single transaction worth $15 million and the exposure is reduced from $40 million to $15 million.
12 There is a theoretical issue here (which is usually ignored). The peak exposure is a scenario analysis
measure and should be calculated using real-world default estimates rather than risk-neutral estimates.
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Credit Risk 575
Business Snapshot 24.1 Downgrade Triggers and AIG
Mitigating Bilateral Credit Risk
- Netting reduces a bank's total credit exposure by treating multiple transactions with a single counterparty as one consolidated value rather than independent risks.
- Collateral agreements allow non-defaulting parties to keep posted cash or securities, bypassing lengthy legal proceedings during a default.
- Downgrade triggers provide banks the option to close out transactions or demand collateral if a counterparty's credit rating falls below a specific threshold.
- The 2008 AIG crisis illustrates the systemic danger of downgrade triggers, as simultaneous collateral calls from multiple dealers can lead to a liquidity collapse.
- Credit Value Adjustment (CVA) can be simplified for single uncollateralized derivatives by using the no-default value and the probability of default.
The tranches it had guaranteed were performing badly and it immediately received collateral calls from many counterparties.
There are a number of ways banks try to reduce credit risk in bilaterally cleared trans-actions. One, which we have already mentioned, is netting. Suppose a bank has three uncollateralized transactions with a counterparty worth +$10 million, +$30 million, and - $25 million. If they are regarded as independent transactions, the bankās exposure on
the transactions is $10 million, $30 million, and $0 for a total exposure of $40 million. With netting, the transactions are regarded as a single transaction worth $15 million and the exposure is reduced from $40 million to $15 million.
12 There is a theoretical issue here (which is usually ignored). The peak exposure is a scenario analysis
measure and should be calculated using real-world default estimates rather than risk-neutral estimates.
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Credit Risk 575
Business Snapshot 24.1 Downgrade Triggers and AIG
AIG provides an example of the operation of downgrade triggers. By 2008, AIG had
entered into many derivatives transactions where it guaranteed the performance of the AAA-rated tranches of ABS CDOs. (See Chapter 8 for a description of ABS CDOs.) Many of AIGās transactions had downgrade triggers stating that AIG did
not have to post collateral provided its credit rating remained above AA. On September 15, 2008, it was downgraded below AA by Moodyās, S&P , and Fitch.
The tranches it had guaranteed were performing badly and it immediately received collateral calls from many counterparties. It was unable to meet the collateral calls and bankruptcy was avoided only by a massive government bailout.
Collateral agreements are an important way of reducing credit risk. Collateral can be
either cash (which usually earns interest) or marketable securities. (The latter may be subject to a haircut to calculate their cash equivalent for collateral purposes.) Collateral agreements between financial institutions are now determined by regulation. Derivatives transactions receive favorable treatment in the event of a default. The nondefaulting
party is entitled to keep any collateral posted by the other side. Expensive and time-
consuming legal proceedings are not usually necessary.
Another credit risk mitigation technique used by financial institutions is known as a
downgrade trigger. This is a clause in the Master Agreement between a bank and a nonfinancial counterparty stating that if the credit rating of the counterparty falls below a certain level, say BBB, the bank has the option to require collateral or close out all outstanding derivatives transactions at market value. Downgrade triggers do not provide protection against a relatively big jump in a counterpartyās credit rating (e.g., from A to
default). Moreover, they work well only if relatively little use is made of them. If the counterparty has many downgrade triggers with different derivatives dealers, they are likely to provide little protection to those dealers (see Business Snapshot 24.1).
Special Cases
In this section we consider two special cases where CVA can be calculated without Monte Carlo simulation.
The first special case is where the portfolio between the bank and the counterparty
consists of a single uncollateralized derivative that provides a payoff to the bank at time T. (The bank could for instance have bought a European option with remaining
life T from the counterparty.) The bankās exposure at a future time is the no-default
value of the derivative at that time. The present value of the exposure is therefore the
present value of the derivativeās future value. This is the no-default value of the derivative today. Hence
vi=fnd11-R2
for all i, where fnd is the no-default value of the derivative today and R is the recovery
rate. This implies
CVA=11-R2fndaN
i=1qi
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576 CHAPTER 24
In this case DVA=0, so that the value f of the derivative today after allowing for
credit risk is
f=fnd-11-R2fndaN
i=1qi (24.5)
Special Cases for CVA Calculation
- The text outlines two specific scenarios where Credit Value Adjustment (CVA) can be calculated analytically without the need for complex Monte Carlo simulations.
- For a single uncollateralized derivative with a payoff at time T, the risk-adjusted value can be found by simply increasing the discount rate by the counterparty's credit spread.
- In the case of uncollateralized forward contracts, the bank's exposure is modeled as a call option on the forward price of the underlying asset.
- The calculation for forward contracts utilizes Black-Scholes-style formulas to determine expected exposure at specific time intervals based on asset volatility and default probabilities.
- These simplified models demonstrate that credit risk is fundamentally linked to the yield of zero-coupon bonds issued by the counterparty.
This shows that the derivative can be valued by increasing the discount rate that is applied to the expected payoff in a risk-neutral world by the counterpartyās T-year credit spread.
In this section we consider two special cases where CVA can be calculated without Monte Carlo simulation.
The first special case is where the portfolio between the bank and the counterparty
consists of a single uncollateralized derivative that provides a payoff to the bank at time T. (The bank could for instance have bought a European option with remaining
life T from the counterparty.) The bankās exposure at a future time is the no-default
value of the derivative at that time. The present value of the exposure is therefore the
present value of the derivativeās future value. This is the no-default value of the derivative today. Hence
vi=fnd11-R2
for all i, where fnd is the no-default value of the derivative today and R is the recovery
rate. This implies
CVA=11-R2fndaN
i=1qi
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576 CHAPTER 24
In this case DVA=0, so that the value f of the derivative today after allowing for
credit risk is
f=fnd-11-R2fndaN
i=1qi (24.5)
One particular derivative of the type we are considering is a T-year zero-coupon bond
issued by the counterparty. Assuming recoveries on the bond and the derivative are the same, the value of the bond, B, is
B=Bnd-11-R2BndaN
i=1qi (24.6)
where Bnd is the no-default value of the bond. From equations (24.5) and (24.6),
f
fnd=B
Bnd
If y is the yield on the T-year bond issued by the counterparty and ynd is the yield on a
similar riskless bond, B=e-yT and Bnd=e-yndT, so that this equation gives
f=fnde-1y-ynd2T
This shows that the derivative can be valued by increasing the discount rate that is
applied to the expected payoff in a risk-neutral world by the counterpartyās T-year credit spread.
Example 24.5
The BlackāScholesāMerton price of a 2-year uncollateralized option is $3. Two-
year zero-coupon bonds issued by the company selling the option have a yield 1.5% greater than the risk-free rate. The value of the option after default risk is considered is
3e-0.015*2=+2.91. (This assumes that the option stands alone and
is not netted with other derivatives in the event of default.)
For the second special case, we consider a bank that has entered into an uncollateral-ized forward transaction with a counterparty where it has agreed to buy an asset for price K at time T. The bank has no other transactions with the counterparty. Define
Ft
as the forward price at time t for delivery of the asset at time T. The value of the
transaction at time t is, from Section 5.7,
1Ft-K2e-r1T-t2
where r is the risk-free interest rate (assumed constant).
The bankās exposure at time t is therefore
max31Ft-K2e-r1T-t2, 04=e-r1T-t2 max3Ft-K, 04
The expected value of Ft in a risk-neutral world is F0. The standard deviation of ln Ft is
s2t, where s is the volatility of Ft. From equation (15A.1) the expected exposure at
time t is therefore
w1t2=e-r1T-t23F0N1d11t22-K N1d21t224
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Credit Risk 577
where
d11t2=ln1F0>K2+s2t>2
s2t, d21t2=d11t2-s2t
It follows that
vi=w1ti2e-rti 11-R2=e-rT 11-R23F0N1d11ti22-K N1d21ti224
Example 24.6
A bank has entered into a forward contract to buy 1 million ounces of gold from a
mining company in 2 years for $1,500 per ounce. The current 2-year forward price
is $1,600 per ounce. We suppose that only two intervals each 1-year long are considered in the calculation of CVA. The probability of the company defaulting
during the first year is 2% and the probability that it will default during the second year is 3%. The risk-free rate is 5% per annum. A 30% recovery in the
event of default is anticipated. The volatility of the forward price of gold is 20%.
In this case,
q1=0.02, q2=0.03, F0=1,600, K=1,500, s=0.2, r=0.05,
R=0.3, t1=0.5, and t2=1.5.
d11t12=ln11600>15002+0.22*0.5>2
0.220.5=0.5271
d21t12=d1-0.220.5=0.3856
so that
v1=e-0.05*2.0*11-0.3231600N10.52712-1500N10.385624=92.67
Similarly v2=130.65.
The expected cost of defaults is
q1v1+q2v2=0.02*92.67+0.03*130.65=5.77
CVA and Default Correlation
- The Credit Value Adjustment (CVA) is calculated for a gold forward contract by estimating the expected cost of defaults over specific time intervals.
- Accounting for counterparty default risk significantly reduces the value of a derivative compared to its no-default theoretical price.
- Default correlation describes the tendency for companies to fail simultaneously due to shared industry factors, geographic regions, or economic conditions.
- Credit contagion and systemic economic shifts prevent credit risk from being fully diversified, leading to higher risk-neutral default probabilities.
- Financial models like reduced form and structural models are used to quantify how stochastic hazard rates and macroeconomic variables influence these correlations.
Default correlation means that credit risk cannot be completely diversified away and is the major reason why risk-neutral default probabilities are greater than real-world default probabilities.
A bank has entered into a forward contract to buy 1 million ounces of gold from a
mining company in 2 years for $1,500 per ounce. The current 2-year forward price
is $1,600 per ounce. We suppose that only two intervals each 1-year long are considered in the calculation of CVA. The probability of the company defaulting
during the first year is 2% and the probability that it will default during the second year is 3%. The risk-free rate is 5% per annum. A 30% recovery in the
event of default is anticipated. The volatility of the forward price of gold is 20%.
In this case,
q1=0.02, q2=0.03, F0=1,600, K=1,500, s=0.2, r=0.05,
R=0.3, t1=0.5, and t2=1.5.
d11t12=ln11600>15002+0.22*0.5>2
0.220.5=0.5271
d21t12=d1-0.220.5=0.3856
so that
v1=e-0.05*2.0*11-0.3231600N10.52712-1500N10.385624=92.67
Similarly v2=130.65.
The expected cost of defaults is
q1v1+q2v2=0.02*92.67+0.03*130.65=5.77
The no-default value of the forward contract is 11600-15002e-0.05*2=90.48.
When counterparty defaults are considered, the value drops to 90.48 - 5.77 =
84.71. The calculation can be extended to allow the times when the mining company can default to be more frequent (see Problem 24.28). DVA, which
increases the value of the derivative, can be calculated in a similar way to CVA (see Problem 24.29).
24.8 DEFAULT CORRELATION
The term default correlation is used to describe the tendency for two companies to
default at about the same time. There are a number of reasons why default correlation exists. Companies in the same industry or the same geographic region tend to be
affected similarly by external events and as a result may experience financial difficulties
at the same time. Economic conditions generally cause average default rates to be higher in some years than in other years. A default by one company may cause a default by anotherāthe credit contagion effect. Default correlation means that credit risk cannot be completely diversified away and is the major reason why risk-neutral default
probabilities are greater than real-world default probabilities (see Section 24.5).
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578 CHAPTER 24
Default correlation is important in the determination of probability distributions for
default losses from a portfolio of exposures to different counterparties.13 Two types of
default correlation models that have been suggested by researchers are referred to as
reduced form models and structural models.
Reduced form models assume that the hazard rates for different companies follow
stochastic processes and are correlated with macroeconomic variables. When the hazard
rate for company A is high there is a tendency for the hazard rate for company B to be high. This induces a default correlation between the two companies.
Reduced form models are mathematically attractive and reflect the tendency for
Modeling Default Correlations
- Reduced form models link default correlations to macroeconomic variables but struggle to produce high correlation levels even when hazard rates are perfectly aligned.
- Structural models, based on Merton's framework, allow for higher correlations by linking the stochastic processes of different companies' asset values.
- The Gaussian copula model has emerged as a popular practical tool by quantifying the correlation between the probability distributions of times to default.
- A key technical challenge is that time-to-default distributions are not normal, requiring a percentile-to-percentile transformation into standard normal variables.
- The model is versatile enough to be applied to both real-world data from rating agencies and risk-neutral probabilities derived from bond prices.
Even when there is a perfect correlation between the hazard rates of the two companies, the probability that they will both default during the same short period of time is usually very low.
default losses from a portfolio of exposures to different counterparties.13 Two types of
default correlation models that have been suggested by researchers are referred to as
reduced form models and structural models.
Reduced form models assume that the hazard rates for different companies follow
stochastic processes and are correlated with macroeconomic variables. When the hazard
rate for company A is high there is a tendency for the hazard rate for company B to be high. This induces a default correlation between the two companies.
Reduced form models are mathematically attractive and reflect the tendency for
economic cycles to generate default correlations. Their main disadvantage is that the range of default correlations that can be achieved is limited. Even when there is a perfect correlation between the hazard rates of the two companies, the probability that they will both default during the same short period of time is usually very low. This is liable to be a problem in some circumstances. For example, when two companies operate in the same
industry and the same country or when the financial health of one company is for some reason heavily dependent on the financial health of another company, a relatively high default correlation may be warranted. One approach to solving this problem is by extending the model so that the hazard rate exhibits large jumps.
Structural models are based on a model similar to Mertonās model (see Section 24.6).
A company defaults if the value of its assets is below a certain level. Default correlation
between companies A and B is introduced into the model by assuming that the
stochastic process followed by the assets of company A is correlated with the stochastic process followed by the assets of company B. Structural models have the advantage over reduced form models that the correlation can be made as high as desired. Their main disadvantage is that they are liable to be computationally quite slow.
The Gaussian Copula Model for Time to Default
A model that has become a popular practical tool is the Gaussian copula model for the time to default. It can be shown to be similar to Mertonās structural model. It assumes that all companies will default eventually and attempts to quantify the correlation between the
probability distributions of the times to default for two or more different companies.
The model can be used in conjunction with either real-world or risk-neutral default
probabilities. The left tail of the real-world probability distribution for the time to default of a company can be estimated from data produced by rating agencies such as that in Table 24.1. The left tail of the risk-neutral probability distribution of the time to
default can be estimated from bond prices using the approach in Section 24.4.
Define
t1 as the time to default of company 1 and t2 as the time to default of
company 2. If the probability distributions of t1 and t2 were normal, we could assume
that the joint probability distribution of t1 and t2 is bivariate normal. As it happens, the
probability distribution of a companyās time to default is not even approximately normal. This is where a Gaussian copula model comes in. We transform
t1 and t2 into
new variables x1 and x2 using
x1=N-13Q11t124, x2=N-13Q21t224
13 A binomial correlation measure that has been used by rating agencies is described in Technical Note 26 at
www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
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Credit Risk 579
where Q1 and Q2 are the cumulative probability distributions for t1 and t2, and N-1 is the
inverse of the cumulative normal distribution ( u=N-11v2 when v=N1u2). These are
āpercentile-to-percentileā transformations. The 5-percentile point in the probability
distribution for t1 is transformed to x1=-1.645, which is the 5-percentile point in the
standard normal distribution; the 10-percentile point in the probability distribution for t1
The Gaussian Copula Model
- The Gaussian copula uses percentile-to-percentile transformations to map non-normal time-to-default variables into standard normal distributions.
- This model allows the correlation structure between different companies to be estimated independently of their individual marginal probability distributions.
- A single correlation parameter, known as the copula correlation, defines the joint probability distribution of default times for multiple entities.
- In practice, the copula correlation between two companies is often approximated using the correlation between their respective equity returns.
- To simplify complex systems, a one-factor model is frequently employed to avoid the need for unique pairwise correlation definitions across many companies.
The Gaussian copula is a useful way of representing the correlation structure between variables that are not normally distributed.
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Credit Risk 579
where Q1 and Q2 are the cumulative probability distributions for t1 and t2, and N-1 is the
inverse of the cumulative normal distribution ( u=N-11v2 when v=N1u2). These are
āpercentile-to-percentileā transformations. The 5-percentile point in the probability
distribution for t1 is transformed to x1=-1.645, which is the 5-percentile point in the
standard normal distribution; the 10-percentile point in the probability distribution for t1
is transformed to x1=-1.282, which is the 10-percentile point in the standard normal
distribution; and so on. The t2-to-x2 transformation is similar.
By construction, x1 and x2 have normal distributions with mean zero and unit
standard deviation. The model assumes that the joint distribution of x1 and x2 is
bivariate normal. This assumption is referred to as using a Gaussian copula. The
assumption is convenient because it means that the joint probability distribution of
t1 and t2 is fully defined by the cumulative default probability distributions Q1 and Q2
for t1 and t2, together with a single correlation parameter that defines the correlation
between x1 and x2.
The attraction of the Gaussian copula model is that it can be extended to many
companies. Suppose that we are considering n companies and that ti is the time to default
of the i th company. We transform each ti into a new variable, xi, that has a standard
normal distribution. The transformation is the percentile-to-percentile transformation
xi=N-13Qi1ti24
where Qi is the cumulative probability distribution for ti. It is then assumed that the xi
are multivariate normal. The default correlation between ti and tj is measured as the
correlation between xi and xj. This is referred to as the copula correlation.14
The Gaussian copula is a useful way of representing the correlation structure
between variables that are not normally distributed. It allows the correlation structure
of the variables to be estimated separately from their marginal (unconditional)
distributions. Although the variables themselves are not multivariate normal, the
approach assumes that after a transformation is applied to each variable they are
multivariate normal.
Example 24.7
Suppose that we wish to simulate defaults during the next 5 years in 10 com-
panies. The copula default correlations between each pair of companies is 0.2. For each company the cumulative probability of a default during the next 1, 2, 3, 4,
5 years is 1%, 3%, 6%, 10%, 15%, respectively. When a Gaussian copula is used we sample from a multivariate normal distribution to obtain the
xi 11ā¦iā¦102
with the pairwise correlation between the xi being 0.2. We then convert the xi
to ti, a time to default. When the sample from the normal distribution is less than
N-110.012=-2.33, a default takes place within the first year; when the sample is
between -2.33 and N-110.032=-1.88, a default takes place during the second
year; when the sample is between -1.88 and N-110.062=-1.55, a default takes
place during the third year; when the sample is between -1.55 and N -1(0.10) =
-1.28, a default takes place during the fourth year; when the sample is between
-1.28 and N-110.152=-1.04, a default takes place during the fifth year. When
the sample is greater than -1.04, there is no default during the 5 years.
14 As an approximation, the copula correlation between ti and tj is often assumed to be the correlation
between the equity returns for companies i and j.
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580 CHAPTER 24
A Factor-Based Correlation Structure
To avoid defining a different correlation between xi and xj for each pair of companies i
and j in the Gaussian copula model, a one-factor model is often used. The assumption
is that
xi=aiF+21-a2
i Zi (24.7)
Factor-Based Credit Risk Models
- The one-factor Gaussian copula model simplifies credit risk by assuming defaults are driven by a single common factor and an independent idiosyncratic factor.
- Conditional on the common factor, the probability of default for a company can be calculated using the standard normal distribution and correlation parameters.
- Vasicek's formula allows for the estimation of the percentage of defaults in a large portfolio of similar loans based on a specific confidence level.
- Credit Value at Risk (VaR) is determined by combining the worst-case default rate with the total portfolio size and the expected recovery rate.
- This mathematical framework is significant because it underlies many of the formulas used by global regulators to determine credit risk capital requirements.
This model underlies some of the formulas that regulators use for credit risk capital.
the sample is greater than -1.04, there is no default during the 5 years.
14 As an approximation, the copula correlation between ti and tj is often assumed to be the correlation
between the equity returns for companies i and j.
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580 CHAPTER 24
A Factor-Based Correlation Structure
To avoid defining a different correlation between xi and xj for each pair of companies i
and j in the Gaussian copula model, a one-factor model is often used. The assumption
is that
xi=aiF+21-a2
i Zi (24.7)
In this equation, F is a common factor affecting defaults for all companies and Zi is a
factor affecting only company i. The variable F and the variables Zi have independent
standard normal distributions. The ai are constant parameters between -1 and +1. The
correlation between xi and xj is ai aj.15
Suppose that the probability that company i will default by a particular time T
is Qi1T2. Under the Gaussian copula model, a default happens by time T when
N1xi26Qi1T2 or xi6N-13Qi1T24. From equation (24.7), this condition is
aiF+21-a2
i Zi6N-13Qi1T24
or
Zi6N-13Qi1T24-aiF
21-a2
i
Conditional on the value of the factor F, the probability of default is therefore
Qi1T /H20841 F2=NaN-13Qi1T24-aiF
21-a2
ib (24.8)
A particular case of the one-factor Gaussian copula model is where the probability
distributions of default are the same for all i and the correlation between xi and xj is the
same for all i and j . Suppose that Qi1T2=Q1T2 for all i and that the common
correlation is r, so that ai=2r for all i. Equation (24.8) becomes
Q1T /H20841 F2=N aN-13Q1T24-2r F
21-rb (24.9)
15 The parameter ai is sometimes approximated as the correlation of company iās equity returns with a well-
diversified market index.24.9 CREDIT V aR
Credit value at risk can be defined analogously to the way value at risk is defined for market risks (see Chapter 22). For example, a credit VaR with a confidence level of 99.9% and a 1-year time horizon is the credit loss that we are 99.9% confident will not be exceeded over 1 year.
Consider a bank with a very large portfolio of similar loans. As an approximation,
assume that the probability of default is the same for each loan and the correlation between each pair of loans is the same. When the Gaussian copula model for time to
default is used, the right-hand side of equation (24.9) is to a good approximation equal to the percentage of defaults by time T as a function of F. The factor F has a standard
normal distribution. We are X% certain that its value will be greater than
N-111-X2=-N-11X2. We are therefore X% certain that the percentage of losses
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Credit Risk 581
over T years on a large portfolio will be less than V1X, T2, where
V1X, T2=NaN-13Q1T24+2r N-11X2
21-rb (24.10)
This result was first produced by Vasicek.16 As in equation (24.9), Q1T2 is the
probability of default by time T and r is the copula correlation between any pair of
loans.
A rough estimate of the credit VaR when an X% confidence level is used and the time
horizon is T is therefore L11-R2V1X, T2, where L is the size of the loan portfolio and
R is the recovery rate. The contribution of a particular loan of size Li to the credit VaR
is Li11-R2V1X, T2. This model underlies some of the formulas that regulators use for
credit risk capital.17
Example 24.8
Suppose that a bank has a total of $100 million of retail exposures. The 1-year
probability of default averages 2% and the recovery rate averages 60%. The
copula correlation parameter is estimated as 0.1. In this case,
V10.999, 12=N aN-110.022+20.1N-110.9992
21-0.1b=0.128
showing that the 99.9% worst case default rate is 12.8%. The 1-year 99.9% credit VaR is therefore
100*0.128*11-0.62 or $5.13 million.
CreditMetrics
Credit VaR and CreditMetrics
- The Vasicek model provides a mathematical framework for estimating credit Value at Risk (VaR) based on default probabilities and copula correlations.
- CreditMetrics is a popular alternative approach that uses Monte Carlo simulations to estimate the probability distribution of credit losses.
- Unlike simpler models, CreditMetrics accounts for losses resulting from credit downgrades as well as actual defaults.
- The simulation process incorporates historical rating transition matrices to determine the likelihood of a counterparty moving between credit categories.
- Correlations between different counterparties are typically modeled using a Gaussian copula based on equity return correlations.
This approach is liable to be computationally quite time intensive; however, it has the advantage that credit losses are defined as those arising from credit downgrades as well as defaults.
This result was first produced by Vasicek.16 As in equation (24.9), Q1T2 is the
probability of default by time T and r is the copula correlation between any pair of
loans.
A rough estimate of the credit VaR when an X% confidence level is used and the time
horizon is T is therefore L11-R2V1X, T2, where L is the size of the loan portfolio and
R is the recovery rate. The contribution of a particular loan of size Li to the credit VaR
is Li11-R2V1X, T2. This model underlies some of the formulas that regulators use for
credit risk capital.17
Example 24.8
Suppose that a bank has a total of $100 million of retail exposures. The 1-year
probability of default averages 2% and the recovery rate averages 60%. The
copula correlation parameter is estimated as 0.1. In this case,
V10.999, 12=N aN-110.022+20.1N-110.9992
21-0.1b=0.128
showing that the 99.9% worst case default rate is 12.8%. The 1-year 99.9% credit VaR is therefore
100*0.128*11-0.62 or $5.13 million.
CreditMetrics
Many banks have developed other procedures for calculating credit VaR. One popular approach is known as CreditMetrics. This involves estimating a probability distribution of credit losses by carrying out a Monte Carlo simulation of the credit rating changes of
all counterparties. Suppose we are interested in determining the probability distribution
of losses over a 1-year period. On each simulation trial, we sample to determine the credit
rating changes and defaults of all counterparties during the year. We then revalue our outstanding contracts to determine the total of credit losses for the year. After a large number of simulation trials, a probability distribution for credit losses is obtained. This can be used to calculate credit VaR.
This approach is liable to be computationally quite time intensive. However, it has the
advantage that credit losses are defined as those arising from credit downgrades as well as defaults (with credit upgrades being counted as negative losses). Also the impact of credit mitigation clauses such as those described in Section 24.7 can be approximately incorporated into the analysis.
Table 24.4 is typical of the historical data provided by rating agencies on credit rating
changes and could be used as a basis for a CreditMetrics Monte Carlo simulation. It shows the percentage probability of a bond moving from one rating category to another during a 1-year period. For example, a bond that starts with an A credit rating has
17 For further details, see J. C. Hull, Risk Management and Financial Institutions, 5th edn. Hoboken, NJ:
Wiley, 2018.16 See O. Vasicek, āProbability of Loss on a Loan Portfolio,ā Working Paper, KMV, 1987. Vasicekās results
were published in Risk magazine in December 2002 under the title āLoan Portfolio Valueā.
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582 CHAPTER 24
a 92.49% chance of still having an A rating at the end of 1 year. It has a 0.05% chance
of defaulting during the year, a 5.27% chance of dropping to BBB, and so on.18
In sampling to determine credit losses, the credit rating changes for different counter-
parties should not be assumed to be independent. A Gaussian copula model is typically
used to construct a joint probability distribution of rating changes similarly to the way
it is used in the model in the previous section to describe the joint probability
distribution of times to default. The copula correlation between the rating transitions for two companies is usually set equal to the correlation between their equity returns using a factor model similar to that in Section 24.8.
As an illustration of the CreditMetrics approach suppose that we are simulating
the rating change of a AAA and a BBB company over a 1-year period using the transition
matrix in Table 24.4. Suppose that the correlation between the equities of the two
companies is 0.2. On each simulation trial, we would sample two variables
xA and xB
Modeling Credit Rating Transitions
- CreditMetrics uses transition matrices to estimate the probability of a company's credit rating changing or defaulting over a specific timeframe.
- The model assumes that rating changes between different counterparties are not independent and must be modeled using joint probability distributions.
- A Gaussian copula model is typically employed to link these transitions, often using equity return correlations as a proxy for credit correlation.
- Simulation trials involve sampling correlated variables from normal distributions to determine specific rating outcomes based on calculated thresholds.
- Historical data from S&P shows that while high-rated companies like AAA have near-zero default rates in a year, CCC/C rated entities face a 32.03% default probability.
The copula correlation between the rating transitions for two companies is usually set equal to the correlation between their equity returns using a factor model.
a 92.49% chance of still having an A rating at the end of 1 year. It has a 0.05% chance
of defaulting during the year, a 5.27% chance of dropping to BBB, and so on.18
In sampling to determine credit losses, the credit rating changes for different counter-
parties should not be assumed to be independent. A Gaussian copula model is typically
used to construct a joint probability distribution of rating changes similarly to the way
it is used in the model in the previous section to describe the joint probability
distribution of times to default. The copula correlation between the rating transitions for two companies is usually set equal to the correlation between their equity returns using a factor model similar to that in Section 24.8.
As an illustration of the CreditMetrics approach suppose that we are simulating
the rating change of a AAA and a BBB company over a 1-year period using the transition
matrix in Table 24.4. Suppose that the correlation between the equities of the two
companies is 0.2. On each simulation trial, we would sample two variables
xA and xB
from normal distributions so that their correlation is 0.2. The variable xA determines
the new rating of the AAA company and the variable xB determines the new rating of
the BBB company. Since N-110.89832=1.2719, the AAA company stays AAA if
xA61.2719; since N-110.8983+0.09372=2.4089, it becomes AA if 1.2719ā¦xA6
2.4089; since N-110.8983+0.0937+0.00552=2.8070, it becomes A if 2.4089ā¦xA6
2.8070; and so on. Consider next the BBB company. Since N-110.00012=-3.7190, the
BBB company becomes AAA if xB6-3.7190; since N-110.0001+0.00102=-3.0618,
it becomes AA if -3.7190ā¦xB6-3.0618; since N-110.0001+0.0010+0.03592=
-1.7866, it becomes A if -1.7866ā¦xB6-3.0618; and so on. The AAA never defaults
during the year. The BBB defaults when xB7N-110.99832, that is, when xB72.9290.
SUMMARY
The probability that a company will default during a particular period of time in the future can be estimated from historical data, bond prices, or equity prices. The default probabilities calculated from bond prices are risk-neutral probabilities; those calculated Initial ratingRating at year-end
AAA AA A BBB BB B CCC/C Default
AAA 89.83 9.37 0.55 0.05 0.11 0.03 0.05 0.00
AA 0.51 90.77 8.06 0.50 0.05 0.06 0.02 0.02
A 0.03 1.74 92.49 5.27 0.28 0.12 0.02 0.05
BBB 0.01 0.10 3.59 91.83 3.73 0.47 0.11 0.17
BB 0.01 0.03 0.12 5.23 86.06 7.27 0.60 0.67
B 0.00 0.02 0.08 0.18 5.43 85.38 5.10 3.80
CCC/C 0.00 0.00 0.13 0.22 0.69 15.33 51.61 32.03Table 24.4 One-year ratings transition matrix, 1981ā2019, with probabilities
expressed as percentages and transitions to the WR (without rating) category being allocated proportionally to other categories, calculated from S&P data.
18 Technical Note 11 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes explains how a table such as
Table 24.4 can be used to calculate transition matrices for periods other than 1 year.
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Credit Risk 583
Credit Risk and Valuation Adjustments
- Real-world probabilities derived from historical data are essential for scenario analysis and credit VaR, while risk-neutral probabilities are required for valuing credit-sensitive instruments.
- Risk-neutral default probabilities are frequently observed to be significantly higher than real-world default probabilities.
- Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) and Debt Valuation Adjustment (DVA) account for the potential default of a counterparty or the bank itself within a derivatives portfolio.
- Calculating CVA and DVA typically requires intensive Monte Carlo simulations to project expected future exposures over time.
- Credit VaR can be estimated using the Gaussian copula model, which is a standard approach for regulatory capital calculations and credit rating transitions.
Risk-neutral default probabilities are often significantly higher than real-world default probabilities.
CCC/C 0.00 0.00 0.13 0.22 0.69 15.33 51.61 32.03Table 24.4 One-year ratings transition matrix, 1981ā2019, with probabilities
expressed as percentages and transitions to the WR (without rating) category being allocated proportionally to other categories, calculated from S&P data.
18 Technical Note 11 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes explains how a table such as
Table 24.4 can be used to calculate transition matrices for periods other than 1 year.
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Credit Risk 583
from historical data are real-world probabilities; equity prices can be used to estimate
either real-world or risk-neutral probabilities. Real-world probabilities should be used for scenario analysis and the calculation of credit VaR. Risk-neutral probabilities
should be used for valuing credit-sensitive instruments. Risk-neutral default probabil-ities are often significantly higher than real-world default probabilities.
The credit valuation adjustment (CVA) is the amount by which a bank reduces the
value of a derivatives portfolio with a counterparty because of the possibility of the
counterparty defaulting. The debt (or debit) valuation adjustment (DVA) is the amount by
which it increases the value of a portfolio because it might itself default. The calculation of CVA and DVA involves a time-consuming Monte Carlo simulation to determine the expected future exposures of the two sides of the portfolio.
Credit VaR can be defined similarly to the way VaR is defined for market risk. One
approach to calculating it is the Gaussian copula model of time to default. This is used by regulators in the calculation of capital for credit risk. Another popular approach for calculating credit VaR is CreditMetrics. This uses a Gaussian copula model for credit rating changes.
FURTHER READING
Altman, E. I. āMeasuring Corporate Bond Mortality and Performance,ā Journal of Finance, 44
(1989): 902ā22.
Altman, E. I., B. Brady, A. Resti, and A. Sironi. āThe Link Between Default and Recovery Rates:
Theory, Empirical Evidence, and Implications,ā Journal of Business, 78, 6 (2005), 2203ā28.
Duffie, D., and K. Singleton āModeling Term Structures of Defaultable Bonds,ā Review of
Financial Studies, 12 (1999): 687ā720.
Finger, C. C. āA Comparison of Stochastic Default Rate Models,ā RiskMetrics Journal, 1
(November 2000): 49ā73.
Gregory, J. The xVA Challenge: Counterparty Risk, Funding Collateral, Capital and Initial
Margin, 4th edn. Chichester, U.K.: Wiley, 2020.
Hull, J. C., M. Predescu, and A. White. āRelationship between Credit Default Swap Spreads,
Bond Yields, and Credit Rating Announcements,ā Journal of Banking and Finance, 28
(November 2004): 2789ā2811.
Kealhofer, S. āQuantifying Credit Risk I: Default Prediction,ā Financial Analysts Journal, 59, 1
(2003a): 30ā44.
Kealhofer, S. āQuantifying Credit Risk II: Debt Valuation,ā Financial Analysts Journal, 59, 3
(2003b): 78ā92.
Li, D. X. āOn Default Correlation: A Copula Approach,ā Journal of Fixed Income, March 2000:
43ā54.
Merton, R. C. āOn the Pricing of Corporate Debt: The Risk Structure of Interest Rates,ā Journal
of Finance, 29 (1974): 449ā70.
Vasicek, O. āLoan Portfolio Value,ā Risk (December 2002), 160ā62.
Practice Questions
24.1. The spread between the yield on a 3-year corporate bond and the yield on a similar risk-
free bond is 50 basis points. The recovery rate is 30%. Estimate the average hazard rate per year over the 3-year period.
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584 CHAPTER 24
Credit Risk Analysis Fundamentals
- The text provides a bibliography of seminal academic works on credit risk, including Merton's structural model and Li's copula approach to default correlation.
- Practical exercises require calculating the average hazard rate based on corporate bond yield spreads and recovery rates.
- The material distinguishes between the application of real-world and risk-neutral default probabilities in financial modeling.
- Quantitative problems explore the term structure of credit risk by comparing hazard rates across different bond maturities.
- The section addresses the fundamental definitions of recovery rates and the nuances of default probability density.
Estimate the average hazard rate per year over the 3-year period.
(November 2004): 2789ā2811.
Kealhofer, S. āQuantifying Credit Risk I: Default Prediction,ā Financial Analysts Journal, 59, 1
(2003a): 30ā44.
Kealhofer, S. āQuantifying Credit Risk II: Debt Valuation,ā Financial Analysts Journal, 59, 3
(2003b): 78ā92.
Li, D. X. āOn Default Correlation: A Copula Approach,ā Journal of Fixed Income, March 2000:
43ā54.
Merton, R. C. āOn the Pricing of Corporate Debt: The Risk Structure of Interest Rates,ā Journal
of Finance, 29 (1974): 449ā70.
Vasicek, O. āLoan Portfolio Value,ā Risk (December 2002), 160ā62.
Practice Questions
24.1. The spread between the yield on a 3-year corporate bond and the yield on a similar risk-
free bond is 50 basis points. The recovery rate is 30%. Estimate the average hazard rate per year over the 3-year period.
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584 CHAPTER 24
24.2. Suppose that in Problem 24.1 the spread between the yield on a 5-year bond issued by
the same company and the yield on a similar risk-free bond is 60 basis points. Assume the same recovery rate of 30%. Estimate the average hazard rate per year over the
5-year period. What do your results indicate about the average hazard rate in years 4 and 5?
24.3. Should researchers use real-world or risk-neutral default probabilities for (a) calculating credit value at risk and (b) adjusting the price of a derivative for defaults?
24.4. How are recovery rates usually defined?
24.5. Explain the difference between an unconditional default probability density and a
Credit Risk Assessment Problems
- The text presents quantitative problems focused on estimating hazard rates and risk-neutral default probabilities from bond yields and credit spreads.
- It explores the conceptual differences between real-world and risk-neutral default probabilities in the context of credit value at risk and derivative pricing.
- The material addresses the counterintuitive nature of Debt Value Adjustment (DVA), noting how a bank's financial distress can technically improve its bottom line.
- Technical distinctions are made between various credit models, specifically comparing Gaussian copula models and CreditMetrics regarding default correlation and loss definitions.
- The problems examine the mechanics of netting and how new transactions can either mitigate or exacerbate a bank's total credit exposure to a counterparty.
āDVA can improve the bottom line when a bank is experiencing financial difficulties.ā Explain why this statement is true.
24.2. Suppose that in Problem 24.1 the spread between the yield on a 5-year bond issued by
the same company and the yield on a similar risk-free bond is 60 basis points. Assume the same recovery rate of 30%. Estimate the average hazard rate per year over the
5-year period. What do your results indicate about the average hazard rate in years 4 and 5?
24.3. Should researchers use real-world or risk-neutral default probabilities for (a) calculating credit value at risk and (b) adjusting the price of a derivative for defaults?
24.4. How are recovery rates usually defined?
24.5. Explain the difference between an unconditional default probability density and a
hazard rate.
24.6. What are the seven-year historical hazard rates that would be calculated from Table 24.1 for companies with different credit ratings? Assuming a 40% recovery rate, what credit spread is necessary to compensate for these hazard rates?
24.7. Describe how netting works. A bank already has one transaction with a counterparty on
its books. Explain why a new transaction by a bank with a counterparty can have the effect of increasing or reducing the bankās credit exposure to the counterparty.
24.8. āDVA can improve the bottom line when a bank is experiencing financial difficulties.ā Explain why this statement is true.
24.9. Explain the difference between the Gaussian copula model for the time to default and CreditMetrics as far as the following are concerned: (a) the definition of a credit loss and (b) the way in which default correlation is modeled.
24.10. Show that the value of a coupon-bearing corporate bond is the sum of the values of its
constituent zero-coupon bonds when the amount claimed in the event of default is the no-default value of the bond, but that this is not so when the claim amount is the face value of the bond plus accrued interest.
24.11. A 4-year corporate bond provides a coupon of 4% per year payable semiannually and
has a yield of 5% expressed with continuous compounding. The risk-free yield curve is flat at 3% with continuous compounding. Assume that defaults can take place at the end of each year (immediately before a coupon or principal payment) and that the recovery rate is 30%. Estimate the risk-neutral default probability on the assumption that it is the same each year.
24.12. A company has issued 3- and 5-year bonds with a coupon of 4% per annum payable
annually. The yields on the bonds (expressed with continuous compounding) are 4.5% and 4.75%, respectively. Risk-free rates are 3.5% with continuous compounding for all maturities. The recovery rate is 40%. Defaults can take place halfway through each year. The risk-neutral default rates per year are
Q1 for years 1 to 3 and Q2 for years 4 and 5.
Estimate Q1 and Q2.
24.13. Suppose that a financial institution has entered into a swap dependent on the sterling
interest rate with counterparty X and an exactly offsetting swap with counterparty Y. Which of the following statements are true and which are false? Explain your answers.
(a) The total present value of the cost of defaults is the sum of the present value of the cost
of defaults on the contract with X plus the present value of the cost of defaults on the
contract with Y.
(b) The expected exposure in 1 year on both contracts is the sum of the expected exposure
on the contract with X and the expected exposure on the contract with Y.
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Credit Risk 585
Credit Risk Assessment Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on calculating hazard rates, credit spreads, and risk-neutral default probabilities.
- It explores the mechanics of netting and how new transactions can paradoxically increase or decrease a bank's total credit exposure.
- The problems address the counterintuitive nature of Debt Value Adjustment (DVA), which can improve a bank's bottom line during financial distress.
- Comparative analysis is required between the Gaussian copula model and CreditMetrics regarding default correlation and loss definitions.
- The exercises examine the structural differences in credit risk between interest rate swaps and currency swaps.
- Theoretical questions challenge the validity of put-call parity and asset swap spreads in the presence of default risk.
āDVA can improve the bottom line when a bank is experiencing financial difficulties.ā Explain why this statement is true.
hazard rate.
24.6. What are the seven-year historical hazard rates that would be calculated from Table 24.1 for companies with different credit ratings? Assuming a 40% recovery rate, what credit spread is necessary to compensate for these hazard rates?
24.7. Describe how netting works. A bank already has one transaction with a counterparty on
its books. Explain why a new transaction by a bank with a counterparty can have the effect of increasing or reducing the bankās credit exposure to the counterparty.
24.8. āDVA can improve the bottom line when a bank is experiencing financial difficulties.ā Explain why this statement is true.
24.9. Explain the difference between the Gaussian copula model for the time to default and CreditMetrics as far as the following are concerned: (a) the definition of a credit loss and (b) the way in which default correlation is modeled.
24.10. Show that the value of a coupon-bearing corporate bond is the sum of the values of its
constituent zero-coupon bonds when the amount claimed in the event of default is the no-default value of the bond, but that this is not so when the claim amount is the face value of the bond plus accrued interest.
24.11. A 4-year corporate bond provides a coupon of 4% per year payable semiannually and
has a yield of 5% expressed with continuous compounding. The risk-free yield curve is flat at 3% with continuous compounding. Assume that defaults can take place at the end of each year (immediately before a coupon or principal payment) and that the recovery rate is 30%. Estimate the risk-neutral default probability on the assumption that it is the same each year.
24.12. A company has issued 3- and 5-year bonds with a coupon of 4% per annum payable
annually. The yields on the bonds (expressed with continuous compounding) are 4.5% and 4.75%, respectively. Risk-free rates are 3.5% with continuous compounding for all maturities. The recovery rate is 40%. Defaults can take place halfway through each year. The risk-neutral default rates per year are
Q1 for years 1 to 3 and Q2 for years 4 and 5.
Estimate Q1 and Q2.
24.13. Suppose that a financial institution has entered into a swap dependent on the sterling
interest rate with counterparty X and an exactly offsetting swap with counterparty Y. Which of the following statements are true and which are false? Explain your answers.
(a) The total present value of the cost of defaults is the sum of the present value of the cost
of defaults on the contract with X plus the present value of the cost of defaults on the
contract with Y.
(b) The expected exposure in 1 year on both contracts is the sum of the expected exposure
on the contract with X and the expected exposure on the contract with Y.
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Credit Risk 585
(c) The 95% upper confidence limit for the exposure in 1 year on both contracts is the sum
of the 95% upper confidence limit for the exposure in 1 year on the contract with X
and the 95% upper confidence limit for the exposure in 1 year on the contract with Y.
24.14. āA long forward contract subject to credit risk is a combination of a short position in a
no-default put and a long position in a call subject to credit risk.ā Explain this statement.
24.15. Why does the credit exposure on a matched pair of forward contracts resemble a straddle?
24.16. Explain why the impact of credit risk on a matched pair of interest rate swaps tends to be
less than that on a matched pair of currency swaps.
24.17. āWhen a bank is negotiating currency swaps, it should try to ensure that it is receiving
the lower interest rate currency from companies with low credit risk.ā Explain why.
24.18. Does putācall parity hold when there is default risk? Explain your answer.
24.19. In what is known as an asset swap, the promised coupons on a bond that is worth par are
exchanged for a floating rate plus a spread. Show that the cost of default on the bond is the present value of the spread payments.
24.20. Show that under Mertonās model in Section 24.6 the credit spread on a T-year zero-
Credit Risk and Derivatives Analysis
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on modeling credit risk, including the application of Merton's model to estimate default probabilities and recovery rates.
- It explores the structural differences in credit exposure between various financial instruments, such as interest rate swaps versus currency swaps.
- The distinction between real-world and risk-neutral default probabilities is highlighted as a critical factor in valuing credit derivatives.
- Advanced concepts like right-way and wrong-way risk are introduced to illustrate how correlation between exposure and counterparty creditworthiness affects risk profiles.
- Calculations for credit Value at Risk (VaR) and hazard rates demonstrate the practical application of copula correlation and credit spreads in risk management.
Give an example of (a) right-way risk and (b) wrong-way risk.
(c) The 95% upper confidence limit for the exposure in 1 year on both contracts is the sum
of the 95% upper confidence limit for the exposure in 1 year on the contract with X
and the 95% upper confidence limit for the exposure in 1 year on the contract with Y.
24.14. āA long forward contract subject to credit risk is a combination of a short position in a
no-default put and a long position in a call subject to credit risk.ā Explain this statement.
24.15. Why does the credit exposure on a matched pair of forward contracts resemble a straddle?
24.16. Explain why the impact of credit risk on a matched pair of interest rate swaps tends to be
less than that on a matched pair of currency swaps.
24.17. āWhen a bank is negotiating currency swaps, it should try to ensure that it is receiving
the lower interest rate currency from companies with low credit risk.ā Explain why.
24.18. Does putācall parity hold when there is default risk? Explain your answer.
24.19. In what is known as an asset swap, the promised coupons on a bond that is worth par are
exchanged for a floating rate plus a spread. Show that the cost of default on the bond is the present value of the spread payments.
24.20. Show that under Mertonās model in Section 24.6 the credit spread on a T-year zero-
coupon bond is
-ln3N1d22+N1-d12>L4>T, where L=De-rT>V0.
24.21. Suppose that the spread between the yield on a 3-year zero-coupon riskless bond and a
3-year zero-coupon bond issued by a corporation is 1%. By how much does Blackā
ScholesāMerton overstate the value of a 3-year European option sold by the corporation.
24.22. Give an example of (a) right-way risk and (b) wrong-way risk.
24.23. The credit spreads for 1-, 2-, 3-, 4-, and 5-year zero-coupon bonds are 50, 60, 70, 80, and
87 basis points, respectively. The recovery rate is 35%. Estimate the average hazard rate each year.
24.24. Suppose a 3-year corporate bond provides a coupon of 7% per year payable semiannually
and has a yield of 5% (expressed with semiannual compounding). The yields for all
maturities on risk-free bonds is 4% per annum (expressed with semiannual compound-
ing). Assume that defaults can take place every 6 months (immediately before a coupon payment) and the recovery rate is 45%. Estimate the hazard rate (assumed constant) for
the three years. Assume that the probability of default immediately before a coupon payment is the default probability given by the hazard rate for the previous six months.
24.25. Explain carefully the distinction between real-world and risk-neutral default probabil-
ities. Which is higher? A bank enters into a credit derivative where it agrees to pay $100 at the end of 1 year if a certain companyās credit rating falls from A to BBB or lower during the year. The 1-year risk-free rate is 5%. Using Table 24.4, estimate a value for
the derivative. What assumptions are you making? Do they tend to overstate or under-state the value of the derivative.
24.26. The value of a companyās equity is $4 million and the volatility of its equity is 60%. The
debt that will have to be repaid in 2 years is $15 million. The risk-free interest rate is 6%
per annum. Use Mertonās model to estimate the expected loss from default, the
probability of default, and the recovery rate in the event of default. (Hint: The Solver
function in Excel can be used for this question, as indicated in footnote 10.)
24.27. Suppose that a bank has a total of $10 million of exposures of a certain type. The 1-year
probability of default averages 1% and the recovery rate averages 40%. The copula correlation parameter is 0.2. Estimate the 99.5% 1-year credit VaR.
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586 CHAPTER 24
Evolution of Credit Derivatives
- The credit derivatives market experienced explosive growth from $800 billion in 2000 to a peak of $50 trillion just before the 2007 financial crisis.
- Following the global financial crisis, the market significantly contracted, stabilizing at a total notional principal of approximately $7.5 trillion by late 2019.
- These financial instruments allow institutions to trade and manage credit risks actively rather than simply holding risky debt until maturity.
- The market is divided into single-name products like credit default swaps and multi-name products such as collateralized debt obligations.
- Historically, banks have acted as the primary buyers of credit protection, while insurance companies have served as the primary sellers.
Banks and other financial institutions used to be in the position where they could do little once they had assumed a credit risk except wait (and hope for the best).
ities. Which is higher? A bank enters into a credit derivative where it agrees to pay $100 at the end of 1 year if a certain companyās credit rating falls from A to BBB or lower during the year. The 1-year risk-free rate is 5%. Using Table 24.4, estimate a value for
the derivative. What assumptions are you making? Do they tend to overstate or under-state the value of the derivative.
24.26. The value of a companyās equity is $4 million and the volatility of its equity is 60%. The
debt that will have to be repaid in 2 years is $15 million. The risk-free interest rate is 6%
per annum. Use Mertonās model to estimate the expected loss from default, the
probability of default, and the recovery rate in the event of default. (Hint: The Solver
function in Excel can be used for this question, as indicated in footnote 10.)
24.27. Suppose that a bank has a total of $10 million of exposures of a certain type. The 1-year
probability of default averages 1% and the recovery rate averages 40%. The copula correlation parameter is 0.2. Estimate the 99.5% 1-year credit VaR.
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586 CHAPTER 24
24.28. Extend Example 24.6 to calculate CVA when default can happen in the middle of each
month. Assume that the default probability per month during the first year is 0.001667 and the default probability per month during the second year is 0.0025.
24.29. Calculate DVA in Example 24.6. Assume that default can happen in the middle of each
month. The default probability of the bank is 0.001 per month for the two years and the
recovery rate in the event of a bank default is 30%.
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587
Credit Derivatives
Credit derivatives began trading in the over-the-counter market in the late 1990s. In
2000, the total notional principal for outstanding credit derivatives contracts was about $800 billion. By the financial crisis of 2007, this had become $50 trillion. After the crisis,
the size of the market declined. The total notional principal was about $7.5 trillion in
December 2019. Credit derivatives are contracts where the payoff depends on the
creditworthiness of one or more companies or countries. This chapter explains how credit derivatives work and how they are valued.
Credit derivatives allow companies to trade credit risks in much the same way that they
trade market risks. Banks and other financial institutions used to be in the position where
they could do little once they had assumed a credit risk except wait (and hope for the best). Now they can actively manage their portfolios of credit risks, keeping some and entering into credit derivative contracts to protect themselves from others (see Business
Snapshot 25.1). Banks have historically been the biggest buyers of credit protection and
insurance companies have been the biggest sellers.
Credit derivatives can be categorized as āsingle-nameā or āmulti-name.ā The most
popular single-name credit derivative is a credit default swap. The payoff from this instrument depends on the creditworthiness of one company or country. There are two
sides to the contract: the buyer and seller of protection. There is a payoff from the
seller of protection to the buyer of protection if the specified entity (company or
country) defaults on its obligations. One multi-name credit derivative is a collateralized
debt obligation. In this, a portfolio of debt instruments is specified and a complex s tructure is created where the cash flows from the portfolio are channelled to different
categories of investors. Chapter 8 describes how multi-name credit derivatives were
Credit Derivatives and Risk Transfer
- Credit default swaps (CDS) function as insurance contracts where a buyer pays periodic premiums to a seller for protection against a reference entity's default.
- Multi-name credit derivatives like collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) bundle portfolios of debt into complex structures for different investor categories.
- Banks have shifted from holding loans on their balance sheets to using asset-backed securities and derivatives to transfer credit risk to other investors.
- The separation of the institution performing credit checks from the institution bearing the ultimate risk can negatively impact the health of the financial system.
- Standard CDS contracts involve quarterly payments in arrears, with settlement typically occurring through cash payments rather than physical delivery of bonds.
The result of all this is that the financial institution bearing the credit risk of a loan is often different from the financial institution that did the original credit checks.
popular single-name credit derivative is a credit default swap. The payoff from this instrument depends on the creditworthiness of one company or country. There are two
sides to the contract: the buyer and seller of protection. There is a payoff from the
seller of protection to the buyer of protection if the specified entity (company or
country) defaults on its obligations. One multi-name credit derivative is a collateralized
debt obligation. In this, a portfolio of debt instruments is specified and a complex s tructure is created where the cash flows from the portfolio are channelled to different
categories of investors. Chapter 8 describes how multi-name credit derivatives were
created from residential mortgages during the period leading up to the financial crisis. This chapter focuses on the situation where the underlying credit risks are those of corporations or countries.
The chapter starts by explaining how credit default swaps work and how they are
valued. It then explains credit indices and the way in which traders can use them to buy protection on a portfolio. After that it moves on to cover basket credit default swaps, asset-backed securities, and collateralized debt obligations. It expands on the material in Chapter 24 to show how the Gaussian copula model of default correlation can be used to value tranches of collateralized debt obligations.25 CHAPTER
587
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588 CHAPTER 25
Business Snapshot 25.1 Who Bears the Credit Risk?
Traditionally banks have been in the business of making loans and then bearing the
credit risk that the borrower will default. However, banks have for some time been reluctant to keep loans on their balance sheets. This is because, after the capital required by regulators has been accounted for, the average return earned on loans is
often less attractive than that on other assets. As discussed in Section 8.1 , banks
created asset-backed securities to pass loans (and their credit risk) on to investors. In
the late 1990s and early 2000s, banks also made extensive use of credit derivatives to shift the credit risk in their loans to other parts of the financial system.
The result of all this is that the financial institution bearing the credit risk of a loan
is often different from the financial institution that did the original credit checks. As the financial crisis starting in 2007 has shown, this is not always good for the overall health of the financial system.
The most popular credit derivative is a credit default swap (CDS). This was introduced
in Section 7.11. It is a contract that provides insurance against the risk of a default by particular company. The company is known as the reference entity and a default by the company is known as a credit event. The buyer of the insurance obtains the right to sell bonds issued by the company for their face value when a credit event occurs and the seller of the insurance agrees to buy the bonds for their face value when a credit event occurs.
1 The total face value of the bonds that can be sold is known as the credit default
swapās notional principal.
The buyer of the CDS makes periodic payments to the seller until the end of the life of
the CDS or until a credit event occurs. In a standard contract, payments are made in arrears every quarter, but deals where payments are made every month, 6 months, or
12 months or where payments are made in advance occasionally also occur. The settle-ment in the event of a default usually involves a cash payment.
An example will help to illustrate how a typical deal is structured. Suppose that two
parties enter into a 5-year credit default swap on March 20, 2020. Assume that the notional principal is $100 million and the buyer agrees to pay 90 basis points per annum
for protection against default by the reference entity, with payments being made
Evolution of Credit Risk
- Banks have shifted from holding loans on their balance sheets to transferring credit risk to investors through asset-backed securities and credit derivatives.
- Regulatory capital requirements often make the average return on held loans less attractive than other assets, driving the push for risk transfer.
- The decoupling of the institution performing credit checks from the institution bearing the risk contributed to the 2007 financial crisis.
- Credit Default Swaps (CDS) act as insurance contracts where a buyer pays periodic premiums to a seller for protection against a reference entity's default.
- In the event of a credit event, the CDS seller typically provides a substantial payoff, often settled via cash or the purchase of bonds at face value.
The result of all this is that the financial institution bearing the credit risk of a loan is often different from the financial institution that did the original credit checks.
Business Snapshot 25.1 Who Bears the Credit Risk?
Traditionally banks have been in the business of making loans and then bearing the
credit risk that the borrower will default. However, banks have for some time been reluctant to keep loans on their balance sheets. This is because, after the capital required by regulators has been accounted for, the average return earned on loans is
often less attractive than that on other assets. As discussed in Section 8.1 , banks
created asset-backed securities to pass loans (and their credit risk) on to investors. In
the late 1990s and early 2000s, banks also made extensive use of credit derivatives to shift the credit risk in their loans to other parts of the financial system.
The result of all this is that the financial institution bearing the credit risk of a loan
is often different from the financial institution that did the original credit checks. As the financial crisis starting in 2007 has shown, this is not always good for the overall health of the financial system.
The most popular credit derivative is a credit default swap (CDS). This was introduced
in Section 7.11. It is a contract that provides insurance against the risk of a default by particular company. The company is known as the reference entity and a default by the company is known as a credit event. The buyer of the insurance obtains the right to sell bonds issued by the company for their face value when a credit event occurs and the seller of the insurance agrees to buy the bonds for their face value when a credit event occurs.
1 The total face value of the bonds that can be sold is known as the credit default
swapās notional principal.
The buyer of the CDS makes periodic payments to the seller until the end of the life of
the CDS or until a credit event occurs. In a standard contract, payments are made in arrears every quarter, but deals where payments are made every month, 6 months, or
12 months or where payments are made in advance occasionally also occur. The settle-ment in the event of a default usually involves a cash payment.
An example will help to illustrate how a typical deal is structured. Suppose that two
parties enter into a 5-year credit default swap on March 20, 2020. Assume that the notional principal is $100 million and the buyer agrees to pay 90 basis points per annum
for protection against default by the reference entity, with payments being made
quarterly in arrears.
The CDS is shown in Figure 25.1. If the reference entity does not default (i.e., there is
no credit event), the buyer receives no payoff and pays 22.5 basis points (a quarter of 90 basis points) on $100 million on June 20, 2020, and every quarter thereafter until March 20, 2025. The amount paid each quarter is
0.00225*100,000,000, or $225,000.2
If there is a credit event, a substantial payoff is likely. Suppose that the buyer notifies the
seller of a credit event on May 20, 2023 (2 months into the fourth year). If the contract 25.1 CREDIT DEFAULT SWAPS
1 The face value (or par value) of a coupon-bearing bond is the principal amount that the issuer repays at
maturity if it does not default.
2 The quarterly payments are liable to be slightly different from $225,000 because of the application of the
day count conventions described in Chapter 6.
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Credit Derivatives 589
Credit Default Swap Mechanics
- Credit default swaps (CDS) provide a substantial payoff to the protection buyer if a credit event, such as bankruptcy or failure to pay, occurs.
- Settlement can be physical, involving the sale of bonds at face value, or cash-based, where an auction determines the mid-market value of the cheapest deliverable bond.
- The cost of protection is defined by the CDS spread, which is quoted in basis points and paid quarterly in arrears until a credit event or contract maturity.
- Standardized maturity dates and accrual payments ensure market liquidity, with 5-year contracts being the most popular duration for reference entities.
- A credit event typically triggers a final accrual payment from the buyer to the seller before all future payment obligations cease.
If, as is now usual, there is cash settlement, an ISDA-organized auction process is used to determine the mid-market value of the cheapest deliverable bond several days after the credit event.
If there is a credit event, a substantial payoff is likely. Suppose that the buyer notifies the
seller of a credit event on May 20, 2023 (2 months into the fourth year). If the contract 25.1 CREDIT DEFAULT SWAPS
1 The face value (or par value) of a coupon-bearing bond is the principal amount that the issuer repays at
maturity if it does not default.
2 The quarterly payments are liable to be slightly different from $225,000 because of the application of the
day count conventions described in Chapter 6.
M25_HULL0654_11_GE_C25.indd 588 30/04/2021 17:41
Credit Derivatives 589
specifies physical settlement, the buyer has the right to sell bonds issued by the reference
entity with a face value of $100 million for $100 million. If, as is now usual, there is cash
settlement, an ISDA-organized auction process is used to determine the mid-market value of the cheapest deliverable bond several days after the credit event. Suppose the auction indicates that the bond is worth $35 per $100 of face value. The cash payoff would be $65 million.
The regular payments from the buyer of protection to the seller of protection cease
when there is a credit event. However, because these payments are made in arrears, a final accrual payment by the buyer is usually required. In our example, where there is a
default on May 20, 2023, the buyer would be required to pay to the seller the amount of
the annual payment accrued between March 20, 2023, and May 20, 2023 (approxi-mately $150,000), but no further payments would be required.
The total amount paid per year, as a percent of the notional principal, to buy
protection (90 basis points in our example) is known as the CDS spread. Several large
banks are market makers in the credit default swap market. When quoting on a new 5-year credit default swap on a company, a market maker might bid 250 basis points
and ask 260 basis points. This means that the market maker is prepared to buy
protection by paying 250 basis points per year (i.e., 2.5% of the principal per year)
and to sell protection for 260 basis points per year (i.e., 2.6% of the principal per
year).
Many different companies and countries are reference entities for the CDS contracts
that trade. As mentioned, payments are usually made quarterly in arrears. Contracts with maturities of 5 years are most popular, but other maturities such as 1, 2, 3, 7, and 10 years are also sometimes used. Usually contracts mature on one of the following standard dates: March 20, June 20, September 20, and December 20. The effect of this is that the actual time to maturity of a contract when it is initiated is close to, but not necessarily the same as, the number of years to maturity that is specified. Suppose you
call a dealer on November 18, 2021, to buy 5-year protection on a company. The
contract would probably last until December 20, 2026. Your first payment would be
due on December 20, 2021, and would equal an amount covering the November 18, 2021, to December 20, 2021, period.
3 A key aspect of a CDS contract is the definition of
a credit event (i.e., a default). Usually a credit event is defined as a failure to make a payment as it becomes due, a restructuring of debt, or a bankruptcy. Restructuring is sometimes excluded in North American contracts, particularly in situations where the yield on the reference entityās debt is high. More information on the CDS market is given in Business Snapshot 25.2.Figure 25.1 Credit default swap.
Default
protection
buyerDefault
protection
seller90 basis points per year
Payment if default by
reference entity
3 If the time to the first standard date is less than 1 month, then the first payment is typically made on the
second standard payment date; otherwise it is made on the first standard payment date.
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590 CHAPTER 25
Credit Default Swaps and Bond Yields
Credit Default Swap Mechanics
- A Credit Default Swap (CDS) functions as a contract where a protection buyer pays a periodic fee to a seller in exchange for a payout if a specific credit event occurs.
- Unlike traditional insurance, a CDS does not require the protection buyer to actually own the underlying debt or asset being insured.
- The 2008 financial crisis highlighted systemic risks associated with CDSs, exemplified by the government bailout of AIG after it incurred massive losses on protection sales.
- The volume of CDS contracts often exceeds the actual debt of a company, necessitating cash settlements determined by an auction process rather than physical delivery.
- Information asymmetry is a unique factor in the CDS market, as financial institutions with close ties to a company may have superior knowledge of its default probability.
It is not uncommon for the volume of CDSs on a company to be greater than its debt.
a credit event (i.e., a default). Usually a credit event is defined as a failure to make a payment as it becomes due, a restructuring of debt, or a bankruptcy. Restructuring is sometimes excluded in North American contracts, particularly in situations where the yield on the reference entityās debt is high. More information on the CDS market is given in Business Snapshot 25.2.Figure 25.1 Credit default swap.
Default
protection
buyerDefault
protection
seller90 basis points per year
Payment if default by
reference entity
3 If the time to the first standard date is less than 1 month, then the first payment is typically made on the
second standard payment date; otherwise it is made on the first standard payment date.
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590 CHAPTER 25
Credit Default Swaps and Bond Yields
A CDS can be used to hedge a position in a corporate bond. Suppose that an investor
buys a 5-year corporate bond yielding 7% per year for its face value and at the same Business Snapshot 25.2 The CDS Market
In 1998 and 1999, the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA)
developed a standard contract for trading credit default swaps in the over-the- counter market. Since then the market has grown in popularity. A CDS contract is
like an insurance contract in many ways, but there is one key difference. An insurance
contract provides protection against losses on an asset that is owned by the protec-
tion buyer. In the case of a CDS, the underlying asset does not have to be owned.
During the credit turmoil of 2007 and 2008, regulators became very concerned
about systemic risk (see Business Snapshot 1.2 ). They felt that credit default swaps
were a source of vulnerability for financial markets. The danger is that a default by one
financial institution might lead to big losses by its counterparties in CDS transactions
and further defaults by other financial institutions. Regulatory concerns were fueled
by troubles at insurance giant AIG. This was a big seller of protection on the AAA-
rated tranches created from mortgages (see Business Snapshot 24.1). The protection
proved very costly to AIG and the company was bailed out by the U.S. government.
During 2007 and 2008, trading ceased in many types of credit derivatives, but CDSs
continued to trade actively (although the cost of protection increased dramatically). The advantage of CDSs over some other credit derivatives is that the way they work is
straightforward. Other credit derivatives, such as those created from the securitization
of household mortgages (see Chapter 8 ), lack this transparency.
It is not uncommon for the volume of CDSs on a company to be greater than its
debt. Cash settlement of contracts is then clearly necessary. When Lehman defaulted in September 2008, there was about $400 billion of CDS contracts and $155 billion of
Lehman debt outstanding. The cash payout to the buyers of protection (determined by
an ISDA auction process) was 91.375% of principal.
There is one important difference between credit default swaps and the other over-
the-counter derivatives that we have considered in this book. The other over-the- counter derivatives depend on interest rates, exchange rates, equity indices, commodity
prices, and so on. There is no reason to assume that any one market participant has
better information than any other market participant about these variables.
Credit default swaps spreads depend on the probability that a particular company
will default during a particular period of time. Arguably some market participants
have more information to estimate this probability than others. A financial institu-
tion that works closely with a particular company by providing advice, making
loans, and handling new issues of securities is likely to have more information about
the creditworthiness of the company than another financial institution that has no
Credit Default Swap Dynamics
- The volume of credit default swaps (CDS) on a company can exceed its actual debt, necessitating cash settlements as seen in the Lehman Brothers default.
- Unlike other derivatives, CDS markets suffer from asymmetric information because institutions working closely with a company may have superior knowledge of its default risk.
- In theory, the spread of a corporate bond over the risk-free rate should approximately equal the CDS spread to prevent arbitrage opportunities.
- The CDSābond basis, which measures the difference between these spreads, fluctuated significantly during and after the 2007ā2009 financial crisis.
- Investors can effectively convert a corporate bond into a risk-free asset by purchasing a corresponding CDS, netting the yield against the protection cost.
It is not uncommon for the volume of CDSs on a company to be greater than its debt.
of household mortgages (see Chapter 8 ), lack this transparency.
It is not uncommon for the volume of CDSs on a company to be greater than its
debt. Cash settlement of contracts is then clearly necessary. When Lehman defaulted in September 2008, there was about $400 billion of CDS contracts and $155 billion of
Lehman debt outstanding. The cash payout to the buyers of protection (determined by
an ISDA auction process) was 91.375% of principal.
There is one important difference between credit default swaps and the other over-
the-counter derivatives that we have considered in this book. The other over-the- counter derivatives depend on interest rates, exchange rates, equity indices, commodity
prices, and so on. There is no reason to assume that any one market participant has
better information than any other market participant about these variables.
Credit default swaps spreads depend on the probability that a particular company
will default during a particular period of time. Arguably some market participants
have more information to estimate this probability than others. A financial institu-
tion that works closely with a particular company by providing advice, making
loans, and handling new issues of securities is likely to have more information about
the creditworthiness of the company than another financial institution that has no
dealings with the company. Economists refer to this as an asymmetric information
problem. Financial institutions emphasize that the decision to buy protection against
the risk of default by a company is normally made by a risk manager and is not
based on any special information that may exist elsewhere in the financial institution about the company.
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Credit Derivatives 591
time enters into a 5-year CDS to buy protection against the issuer of the bond
defaulting. Suppose that the CDS spread is 200 basis points, or 2%, per annum. The
effect of the CDS is to convert the corporate bond to a risk-free bond (at least
approximately). If the bond issuer does not default, the investor earns 5% per year
when the CDS spread is netted against the corporate bond yield. If the bond does default, the investor earns 5% up to the time of the default. Under the terms of the CDS, the investor is then able to exchange the bond for its face value. This face value can be invested at the risk-free rate for the remainder of the 5 years.
This shows that the spread of the yield on an n -year bond issued by a company over the
risk-free rate should approximately equal the companyās n-year CDS spread. If it is
markedly more than this, an investor can earn more than the risk-free rate by buying the corporate bond and buying protection. If it is markedly less than this, an investor can
borrow at less than the risk-free rate by shorting the bond and selling CDS protection.
The CDSābond basis is defined as
CDSā
bond basis=CDS spread-Bond yield spread
The bond yield spread has traditionally been calculated as the excess of the bond yield over the relevant LIBOR/swap rate.
The arbitrage argument given above suggests that the CDSābond basis should be
close to zero. In fact it tends to be positive during some periods (e.g., pre-2007) and negative during other periods (e.g., the 2007ā2009 financial crisis). The sign of the
CDSābond basis since the financial crisis has depended on the reference entity and has been sometimes positive and sometimes negative.
The Cheapest-to-Deliver Bond
CDS Valuation and Basis Dynamics
- The CDSābond basis, which theoretically should be zero due to arbitrage, fluctuated significantly during and after the 2007ā2009 financial crisis.
- Credit Default Swaps often include a 'cheapest-to-deliver' option, allowing the protection buyer to deliver any bond of the same seniority in the event of default.
- ISDA typically organizes an auction process to determine the value of the cheapest-to-deliver bond, which ultimately dictates the final CDS payoff.
- The valuation of a CDS involves calculating the present value of expected premium payments versus the present value of the expected payoff based on hazard rates and recovery estimates.
- Hazard rates and survival probabilities are used to model the likelihood of default occurring at specific intervals throughout the life of the swap.
This gives the holder of a CDS a cheapest-to-deliver bond option.
The bond yield spread has traditionally been calculated as the excess of the bond yield over the relevant LIBOR/swap rate.
The arbitrage argument given above suggests that the CDSābond basis should be
close to zero. In fact it tends to be positive during some periods (e.g., pre-2007) and negative during other periods (e.g., the 2007ā2009 financial crisis). The sign of the
CDSābond basis since the financial crisis has depended on the reference entity and has been sometimes positive and sometimes negative.
The Cheapest-to-Deliver Bond
As explained in Section 24.3, the recovery rate on a bond is defined as the value of the bond immediately after default as a percent of face value. This means that the payoff from a CDS is
L11-R2, where L is the notional principal and R is the recovery rate.
Usually a CDS specifies that a number of different bonds can be delivered in the event
of a default. The bonds typically have the same seniority, but they may not sell for the same percentage of face value immediately after a default.
4 This gives the holder of a CDS
a cheapest-to-deliver bond option. As already mentioned, an auction process, organized
by ISDA, is usually used to determine the value of the cheapest-to-deliver bond and, therefore, the payoff to the buyer of protection.
The CDS spread for a particular reference entity can be calculated from default
probability estimates. We will illustrate how this is done for a 5-year CDS.
Suppose that the hazard rate of the reference entity is 2% per annum for the whole of
the 5-year life of the CDS. Table 25.1 shows survival probabilities and unconditional
probabilities of default. From equation (24.1), the probability of survival to time t 25.2 VALUATION OF CREDIT DEFAULT SWAPS
4 There are a number of reasons for this. The claim that is made in the event of a default is typically equal to
the bondās face value plus accrued interest. Bonds with high accrued interest at the time of default therefore
tend to have higher prices immediately after default. Also the market may judge that in the event of a
reorganization of the company some bond holders will fare better than others.
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592 CHAPTER 25
is e-0.02t. The probability of default during a year is the probability of survival to the
beginning of the year minus the probability of survival to the end of the year. For
example, the probability of survival to time 2 years is e-0.02*2=0.9608 and the
probability of survival to time 3 years is e-0.02*3=0.9418. The probability of default
during the third year is 0.9608-0.9418=0.0190.
We will assume that defaults always happen halfway through a year and that payments
on the credit default swap are made once a year, at the end of each year. We also assume that the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum with continuous compounding and the
recovery rate is 40%. There are three parts to the calculation. These are shown in
Tables 25.2, 25.3, and 25.4.
Table 25.2 shows the calculation of the present value of the expected payments made
on the CDS assuming that payments are made at the rate of s per year and the notional
principal is $1. For example, there is a 0.9418 probability that the third payment of s is
made. The expected payment is therefore 0.9418s and its present value is
0.9418se-0.05*3=0.8106s. The total present value of the expected payments is 4.0728s.
Table 25.3 shows the calculation of the present value of the expected payoff assuming
a notional principal of $1. As mentioned earlier, we are assuming that defaults always happen halfway through a year. For example, there is a 0.0190 probability of a payoff halfway through the third year. Given that the recovery rate is 40%, the expected payoff
at this time is
0.0190*0.6*1=0.0114. The present value of the expected payoff is
Valuing Credit Default Swaps
- The text details the mathematical process for calculating the mid-market spread of a 5-year Credit Default Swap (CDS).
- Valuation involves balancing the present value of expected premium payments against the present value of the potential default payoff.
- Calculations incorporate survival probabilities, recovery rates, and accrual payments made if a default occurs between payment dates.
- The example demonstrates that a CDS can be marked to market by comparing the original negotiated spread against current market values.
- A simplifying assumption is used where defaults are presumed to occur exactly halfway through each year to streamline the present value discounting.
The mid-market CDS spread for the 5-year deal we have considered should be 0.0123 times the principal or 123 basis points per year.
0.9418se-0.05*3=0.8106s. The total present value of the expected payments is 4.0728s.
Table 25.3 shows the calculation of the present value of the expected payoff assuming
a notional principal of $1. As mentioned earlier, we are assuming that defaults always happen halfway through a year. For example, there is a 0.0190 probability of a payoff halfway through the third year. Given that the recovery rate is 40%, the expected payoff
at this time is
0.0190*0.6*1=0.0114. The present value of the expected payoff is
0.0114e-0.05*2.5=0.0101. The total present value of the expected payoffs is $0.0506.Table 25.1 Unconditional default probabilities
and survival probabilities.
Year Probability of
surviving to year endProbability of
default during year
1 0.9802 0.0198
2 0.9608 0.0194
3 0.9418 0.0190
4 0.9231 0.0186
5 0.9048 0.0183
Table 25.2 Calculation of the present value of expected payments.
Payment=s per annum.
Time
(years)Probability
of survivalExpected
paymentDiscount
factorPV of expected
payment
1 0.9802 0.9802s 0.9512 0.9324s
2 0.9608 0.9608s 0.9048 0.8694s
3 0.9418 0.9418s 0.8607 0.8106s
4 0.9231 0.9231s 0.8187 0.7558s
5 0.9048 0.9048s 0.7788 0.7047s
Total 4.0728s
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Credit Derivatives 593
As a final step, Table 25.4 considers the accrual payment made in the event of a default.
For example, there is a 0.0190 probability that there will be a final accrual payment
halfway through the third year. The accrual payment is 0.5s. The expected accrual payment at this time is therefore
0.0190*0.5s=0.0095s. Its present value is
0.0095se-0.05*2.5=0.0084s. The total present value of the expected accrual payments
is 0.0422s.
From Tables 25.2 and 25.4, the present value of the expected payments is
4.0728s+0.0422s=4.1150s
From Table 25.3, the present value of the expected payoff is 0.0506. Equating the two gives
4.1150s=0.0506
or s=0.0123. The mid-market CDS spread for the 5-year deal we have considered
should be 0.0123 times the principal or 123 basis points per year. This result can also be produced using the DerivaGem CDS worksheet.
The calculations assume that defaults happen only at points midway between
payment dates. This simple assumption usually gives good results, but can easily be
relaxed so that more default times are considered.Table 25.3 Calculation of the present value of expected payoff.
Notional principal=+1.
Time
(years)Probability
of defaultRecovery
rateExpected
payoff ($)Discount
factorPV of expected
payoff ($)
0.5 0.0198 0.4 0.0119 0.9753 0.0116
1.5 0.0194 0.4 0.0116 0.9277 0.0108
2.5 0.0190 0.4 0.0114 0.8825 0.0101
3.5 0.0186 0.4 0.0112 0.8395 0.0094
4.5 0.0183 0.4 0.0110 0.7985 0.0088
Total 0.0506
Table 25.4 Calculation of the present value of accrual payment.
Time
(years)Probability
of defaultExpected
accrual paymentDiscount
factorPV of expected
accrual payment
0.5 0.0198 0.0099s 0.9753 0.0097s
1.5 0.0194 0.0097s 0.9277 0.0090s
2.5 0.0190 0.0095s 0.8825 0.0084s
3.5 0.0186 0.0093s 0.8395 0.0078s
4.5 0.0183 0.0091s 0.7985 0.0073s
Total 0.0422s
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594 CHAPTER 25
Marking to Market a CDS
A CDS, like most other derivatives, is revalued (i.e., marked to market) daily. It may have
a positive or negative value. Suppose, for example the credit default swap in our example
had been negotiated some time ago for a spread of 150 basis points, the present value of
the payments by the buyer would be 4.1150*0.0150=0.0617 and the present value of
the payoff would be 0.0506 as above. The value of swap to the seller would therefore be
0.0617-0.0506, or 0.0111 times the principal. Similarly the marked-to-market value of
the swap to the buyer of protection would be -0.0111 times the principal.
Estimating Default Probabilities
Valuing Credit Default Swaps
- Credit Default Swaps (CDS) are revalued daily through marking to market, resulting in positive or negative values based on the difference between the present value of payments and expected payoffs.
- Risk-neutral default probabilities can be reverse-engineered from market CDS quotes, similar to how implied volatilities are derived from option prices.
- Binary credit default swaps differ from standard ones by offering a fixed dollar payoff rather than a recovery-dependent amount.
- While standard CDS valuations are relatively insensitive to recovery rate assumptions, binary CDS valuations are highly sensitive because their payoffs do not scale with recovery.
- Market participants utilize standardized indices like CDX NA IG and iTraxx Europe to track the credit spreads of large portfolios of investment-grade companies.
This is because the implied probabilities of default are approximately proportional to 1/(1-R) and the payoffs from a CDS are proportional to 1-R.
A CDS, like most other derivatives, is revalued (i.e., marked to market) daily. It may have
a positive or negative value. Suppose, for example the credit default swap in our example
had been negotiated some time ago for a spread of 150 basis points, the present value of
the payments by the buyer would be 4.1150*0.0150=0.0617 and the present value of
the payoff would be 0.0506 as above. The value of swap to the seller would therefore be
0.0617-0.0506, or 0.0111 times the principal. Similarly the marked-to-market value of
the swap to the buyer of protection would be -0.0111 times the principal.
Estimating Default Probabilities
The default probabilities used to value a CDS should be risk-neutral default prob-abilities, not real-world default probabilities (see Section 24.5 for the difference between the two). Risk-neutral default probabilities can be estimated from bond prices as
explained in Chapter 24. An alternative is to imply them from CDS quotes. The latter
approach is similar to the practice in options markets of implying volatilities from the prices of actively traded options and using them to value other options.
Suppose we change the example in Tables 25.2, 25.3, and 25.4 so that we do not know
the default probabilities. Instead we know that the mid-market CDS spread for a newly issued 5-year CDS is 100 basis points per year. We can reverse-engineer our calculations
(using Excel in conjunction with Solver) to conclude that the implied hazard rate is 1.63% per year.
The DerivaGem software can be used to calculate a term structure of hazard rates from
a term structure of CDS spreads or vice versa.
Binary Credit Default Swaps
A binary credit default swap is structured similarly to a regular credit default swap except that the payoff is a fixed dollar amount. Suppose that, in the example we
considered in Tables 25.1 to 25.4, the payoff is $1 instead of
1-R dollars and the
swap spread is s. Tables 25.1, 25.2 and 25.4 are the same, but Table 25.3 is replaced by
Table 25.5. The CDS spread for a new binary CDS is given by 4.1150s=0.0844, so that
the CDS spread s is 0.0205, or 205 basis points.
Table 25.5 Calculation of the present value of expected payoff
from a binary credit default swap. Principal=+1.
Time
(years)Probability
of defaultExpected
payoff ($)Discount
factorPV of expected
payoff ($)
0.5 0.0198 0.0198 0.9753 0.0193
1.5 0.0194 0.0194 0.9277 0.0180
2.5 0.0190 0.0190 0.8825 0.0168
3.5 0.0186 0.0186 0.8395 0.0157
4.5 0.0183 0.0183 0.7985 0.0146
Total 0.0844
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Credit Derivatives 595
How Important Is the Recovery Rate?
Whether we use CDS spreads or bond prices to estimate default probabilities we need
an estimate of the recovery rate. However, provided that we use the same recovery rate for (a) estimating risk-neutral default probabilities and (b) valuing a CDS, the value of the CDS (or the estimate of the CDS spread) is not very sensitive to the recovery rate. This is because the implied probabilities of default are approximately proportional to
1>11-R2 and the payoffs from a CDS are proportional to 1-R.
This argument does not apply to the valuation of binary CDS. Implied probabilities of
default are still approximately proportional to 1>11-R2. However, for a binary CDS, the
payoffs from the CDS are independent of R. If we have a CDS spread for both a plain
vanilla CDS and a binary CDS, we can estimate both the recovery rate and the default probability (see Problem 25.25).
Participants in credit markets have developed indices to track credit default swap spreads.
In 2004 there were agreements between different producers of indices that led to some
consolidation. Two important standard portfolios used by index providers are:
1. CDX NA IG, a portfolio of 125 investment grade companies in North America
2. iTraxx Europe, a portfolio of 125 investment grade names in Europe
Recovery Rates and Credit Indices
- Standard CDS valuations are relatively insensitive to recovery rate estimates because the implied default probability and the payoff calculation effectively offset each other.
- Binary CDS contracts differ from plain vanilla versions because their payoffs are independent of the recovery rate, allowing for the estimation of both recovery and default probability when compared.
- Credit indices like CDX NA IG and iTraxx Europe provide standardized portfolios of 125 investment-grade companies that are updated semi-annually.
- The index spread is roughly the average of the individual CDS spreads, though it is technically slightly lower because higher-spread companies are expected to default sooner.
- Trading these indices allows market participants to buy or sell protection on a broad portfolio of companies with a single transaction and a fixed annual payment.
This is because the 1,000 basis points is not expected to be paid for as long as the 10 basis points and should therefore carry less weight.
How Important Is the Recovery Rate?
Whether we use CDS spreads or bond prices to estimate default probabilities we need
an estimate of the recovery rate. However, provided that we use the same recovery rate for (a) estimating risk-neutral default probabilities and (b) valuing a CDS, the value of the CDS (or the estimate of the CDS spread) is not very sensitive to the recovery rate. This is because the implied probabilities of default are approximately proportional to
1>11-R2 and the payoffs from a CDS are proportional to 1-R.
This argument does not apply to the valuation of binary CDS. Implied probabilities of
default are still approximately proportional to 1>11-R2. However, for a binary CDS, the
payoffs from the CDS are independent of R. If we have a CDS spread for both a plain
vanilla CDS and a binary CDS, we can estimate both the recovery rate and the default probability (see Problem 25.25).
Participants in credit markets have developed indices to track credit default swap spreads.
In 2004 there were agreements between different producers of indices that led to some
consolidation. Two important standard portfolios used by index providers are:
1. CDX NA IG, a portfolio of 125 investment grade companies in North America
2. iTraxx Europe, a portfolio of 125 investment grade names in Europe
These portfolios are updated on March 20 and September 20 each year. Companies that are no longer investment grade are dropped from the portfolios and new investment grade companies are added.
5
Suppose that the 5-year CDX NA IG index is quoted by a market maker as bid
65 basis points, ask 66 basis points per dollar of notional principal. (This is referred to as the index spread.) Roughly speaking, this means that a trader can buy CDS protection on all 125 companies in the index for 66 basis points per company. Suppose a trader wants $800,000 of protection on each company. The total cost is
0.0066*800,000*125, or
$660,000 per year. The trader can similarly sell $800,000 of protection on each of the 125
companies for a total of $650,000 per annum. When a company defaults, the protection
buyer receives the usual CDS payoff and the annual payment is reduced by
660,000>125=+5,280. The most common maturity for an index CDS is 5 years, but
contracts also trade with maturities of 3, 7, and 10 years. The maturity dates for these types of contracts on the index are usually December 20 and June 20. (This means that a
ā5-yearā contract actually lasts between
43
4 and 51
4 years.) Roughly speaking, the index is
the average of the CDS spreads on the companies in the underlying portfolio.625.3 CREDIT INDICES
5 On September 20, 2020, the Series 34 iTraxx Europe portfolio and the Series 35 CDX NA IG portfolio were
defined. The series numbers indicate that, by the end of September 2020, the iTraxx Europe portfolio had
been updated 33 times and the CDX NA IG portfolio had been updated 34 times.
6 More precisely, the index is slightly lower than the average of the credit default swap spreads for the
companies in the portfolio. To understand the reason for this consider a portfolio consisting of two companies, one with a spread of 1,000 basis points and the other with a spread of 10 basis points. To buy protection on the companies would cost slightly less than 505 basis points per company. This is because the 1,000 basis points is
not expected to be paid for as long as the 10 basis points and should therefore carry less weight. Another complication for CDX NA IG, but not iTraxx Europe, is that the definition of default applicable to the index includes restructuring, whereas the definition for CDS contracts on the underlying companies may not.
M25_HULL0654_11_GE_C25.indd 595 30/04/2021 17:42
596 CHAPTER 25
The precise way in which CDS and CDS index transactions work is a little more
complicated than has been described up to now. For each underlying and each
maturity, a coupon and a recovery rate are specified. A price is calculated from the
CDS Indices and Pricing
- Credit indices like iTraxx Europe and CDX NA IG are updated periodically to reflect current market portfolios, with series numbers indicating the frequency of these updates.
- The index spread is typically lower than the simple average of underlying spreads because high-spread entities carry less weight due to their shorter expected survival time.
- CDS and index transactions are priced using a standardized procedure that involves implying a hazard rate and calculating a payment duration to determine a bond-like price.
- To facilitate trading, protection buyers pay a fixed coupon, while the difference between the market spread and this coupon is settled as an upfront payment.
- The remaining notional of a CDS index decreases incrementally as individual companies within the portfolio default, affecting subsequent coupon payments.
This is because the 1,000 basis points is not expected to be paid for as long as the 10 basis points and should therefore carry less weight.
the average of the CDS spreads on the companies in the underlying portfolio.625.3 CREDIT INDICES
5 On September 20, 2020, the Series 34 iTraxx Europe portfolio and the Series 35 CDX NA IG portfolio were
defined. The series numbers indicate that, by the end of September 2020, the iTraxx Europe portfolio had
been updated 33 times and the CDX NA IG portfolio had been updated 34 times.
6 More precisely, the index is slightly lower than the average of the credit default swap spreads for the
companies in the portfolio. To understand the reason for this consider a portfolio consisting of two companies, one with a spread of 1,000 basis points and the other with a spread of 10 basis points. To buy protection on the companies would cost slightly less than 505 basis points per company. This is because the 1,000 basis points is
not expected to be paid for as long as the 10 basis points and should therefore carry less weight. Another complication for CDX NA IG, but not iTraxx Europe, is that the definition of default applicable to the index includes restructuring, whereas the definition for CDS contracts on the underlying companies may not.
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596 CHAPTER 25
The precise way in which CDS and CDS index transactions work is a little more
complicated than has been described up to now. For each underlying and each
maturity, a coupon and a recovery rate are specified. A price is calculated from the
quoted spread using the following procedure:
1. Assume four payments per year, made in arrears.
2. Imply a hazard rate from the quoted spread. This involves calculations similar to
those in Section 25.2. An iterative search is used to determine the hazard rate that leads to the quoted spread.
3. Calculate a ādurationā D for the CDS payments. This is the number that the
spread is multiplied by to get the present value of the spread payments. (In the example in Section 25.2, it is 4.1150.)
7
4. The price P is given by P=100-100*D*1s-c2, where s is the spread and c is
the coupon expressed in decimal form.
When a trader buys protection the trader pays 100-P per $100 of the total remaining
notional and the seller of protection receives this amount. (If 100-P is negative, the
buyer of protection receives money and the seller of protection pays money.) The buyer of
protection then pays the coupon times the remaining notional on each payment date. (On
a CDS, the remaining notional is the original notional until default and zero thereafter.
For a CDS index, the remaining notional is the number of names in the index that have not yet defaulted multiplied by the principal per name.) The payoff when there is a default is calculated in the usual way. This arrangement facilitates trading because the instruments trade like bonds. The regular quarterly payments made by the buyer of protection are independent of the spread at the time the buyer enters into the contract.
Example 25.1
Suppose that the iTraxx Europe index quote is 34 basis points and the coupon is
40 basis points for a contract lasting exactly 5 years, with both quotes being
expressed using an actualā360 day count. (This is the usual day count convention in CDS and CDS index markets.) The equivalent actual/actual quotes are 0.345% for the index and 0.406% for the coupon. Suppose that the yield curve is flat at
4% per year (actual/actual, continuously compounded). The specified recovery rate is 40%. With four payments per year in arrears, the implied hazard rate is 0.5717%. The duration is 4.447 years. The price is therefore
100-100*4.447*10.00345-0.004062=100.27
Consider a contract where protection is $1 million per name. Initially, the seller of
protection would pay the buyer +1,000,000*125*0.0027. Thereafter, the buyer
of protection would make quarterly payments in arrears at an annual rate of
+1,000,000*0.00406*n, where n is the number of companies that have not
CDS Index Pricing Mechanics
- The text illustrates the mathematical conversion between index quotes and fixed coupons using specific day count conventions like actual/360.
- A practical example demonstrates how to calculate the upfront payment and subsequent quarterly payments for an iTraxx Europe index contract.
- The valuation incorporates variables such as the implied hazard rate, recovery rates, and a flat yield curve to determine the contract price.
- As credit markets matured, financial institutions expanded into trading complex derivatives like forwards and options on credit default swap spreads.
Once the CDS market was well established, it was natural for derivatives dealers to trade forwards and options on credit default swap spreads.
Suppose that the iTraxx Europe index quote is 34 basis points and the coupon is
40 basis points for a contract lasting exactly 5 years, with both quotes being
expressed using an actualā360 day count. (This is the usual day count convention in CDS and CDS index markets.) The equivalent actual/actual quotes are 0.345% for the index and 0.406% for the coupon. Suppose that the yield curve is flat at
4% per year (actual/actual, continuously compounded). The specified recovery rate is 40%. With four payments per year in arrears, the implied hazard rate is 0.5717%. The duration is 4.447 years. The price is therefore
100-100*4.447*10.00345-0.004062=100.27
Consider a contract where protection is $1 million per name. Initially, the seller of
protection would pay the buyer +1,000,000*125*0.0027. Thereafter, the buyer
of protection would make quarterly payments in arrears at an annual rate of
+1,000,000*0.00406*n, where n is the number of companies that have not
defaulted. When a company defaults, the payoff is calculated in the usual way
and there is an accrual payment from the buyer to the seller calculated at the rate of 0.406% per year on $1 million.25.4 THE USE OF FIXED COUPONS
7 This use of the term ādurationā is different from that in Chapter 4.
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8 The valuation of these instruments is discussed in J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe Valuation of Credit
Default Swap Options, ā Journal of Derivatives, 10, 5 (Spring 2003): 40ā50.Once the CDS market was well established, it was natural for derivatives dealers to
trade forwards and options on credit default swap spreads.8
Advanced Credit Derivatives
- Forward credit default swaps obligate parties to trade protection at a future date, but the contract vanishes if the reference entity defaults before the start time.
- CDS options provide the right to buy or sell protection at a fixed spread, allowing traders to hedge against or speculate on future credit spread volatility.
- Basket credit default swaps offer payoffs based on the sequence of defaults within a group, such as first-to-default or kth-to-default structures.
- Total return swaps allow an investor to exchange the entire economic performance of a bond, including price changes and coupons, for a floating interest rate.
- These complex instruments enable financial institutions to isolate and trade specific layers of credit risk without owning the underlying physical assets.
If the reference entity defaults before time T, the forward contract ceases to exist.
defaulted. When a company defaults, the payoff is calculated in the usual way
and there is an accrual payment from the buyer to the seller calculated at the rate of 0.406% per year on $1 million.25.4 THE USE OF FIXED COUPONS
7 This use of the term ādurationā is different from that in Chapter 4.
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Credit Derivatives 597
8 The valuation of these instruments is discussed in J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe Valuation of Credit
Default Swap Options, ā Journal of Derivatives, 10, 5 (Spring 2003): 40ā50.Once the CDS market was well established, it was natural for derivatives dealers to
trade forwards and options on credit default swap spreads.8
A forward credit default swap is the obligation to buy or sell a particular credit
default swap on a particular reference entity at a particular future time T. If the
reference entity defaults before time T, the forward contract ceases to exist. Thus a
bank could enter into a forward contract to sell 5-year protection on a company for
280 basis points starting in 1 year. If the company defaulted before the 1-year point, the forward contract would cease to exist.
A credit default swap option is an option to buy or sell a particular credit default
swap on a particular reference entity at a particular future time T. For example, a trader could negotiate the right to buy 5-year protection on a company starting in 1 year for 280 basis points. This is a call option. If the 5-year CDS spread for the company in
1 year turns out to be more than 280 basis points, the option will be exercised;
otherwise it will not be exercised. The cost of the option would be paid up front.
Similarly an investor might negotiate the right to sell 5-year protection on a company for 280 basis points starting in 1 year. This is a put option. If the 5-year CDS spread for
the company in 1 year turns out to be less than 280 basis points, the option will be
exercised; otherwise it will not be exercised. Again the cost of the option would be paid up front. Like CDS forwards, CDS options are usually structured so that they cease to exist if the reference entity defaults before option maturity.25.5 CDS FORWARDS AND OPTIONS
In what is referred to as a basket credit default swap there are a number of reference entities. An add-up basket CDS provides a payoff when any of the reference entities default. A first-to-default CDS provides a payoff only when the first default occurs. A second-to-default CDS provides a payoff only when the second default occurs. More generally, a kth-to-default CDS provides a payoff only when the kth default occurs. Payoffs are calculated in the same way as for a regular CDS. After the relevant default has occurred, there is a settlement. The swap then terminates and there are no further payments by either party.25.6 BASKET CREDIT DEFAULT SWAPS
A total return swap is a type of credit derivative. It is an agreement to exchange the
total return on a bond (or any portfolio of assets) for a floating rate plus a spread. The total return includes coupons, interest, and the gain or loss on the asset over the life of the swap.
An example of a total return swap is a 5-year agreement with a notional principal of
$100 million to exchange the total return on a corporate bond for the floating rate plus 25 basis points. This is illustrated in Figure 25.2. On coupon payment dates the payer 25.7 TOTAL RETURN SWAPS
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Advanced Credit Derivatives
- Forward credit default swaps and CDS options allow traders to hedge or speculate on future credit spreads, though these contracts typically vanish if the reference entity defaults before the start date.
- Basket credit default swaps provide payoffs based on the sequence of defaults within a group of entities, such as first-to-default or kth-to-default structures.
- Total return swaps enable the exchange of an asset's entire economic performance, including capital gains and coupons, for a floating interest rate plus a spread.
- Financial institutions use total return swaps as efficient financing tools that minimize legal hurdles associated with collateral by maintaining ownership of the underlying bond.
- The spread in a total return swap is determined by the credit quality of both the receiver and the bond issuer, as well as the correlation between their potential defaults.
If the receiver defaults the payer does not have the legal problem of trying to realize on the collateral.
A forward credit default swap is the obligation to buy or sell a particular credit
default swap on a particular reference entity at a particular future time T. If the
reference entity defaults before time T, the forward contract ceases to exist. Thus a
bank could enter into a forward contract to sell 5-year protection on a company for
280 basis points starting in 1 year. If the company defaulted before the 1-year point, the forward contract would cease to exist.
A credit default swap option is an option to buy or sell a particular credit default
swap on a particular reference entity at a particular future time T. For example, a trader could negotiate the right to buy 5-year protection on a company starting in 1 year for 280 basis points. This is a call option. If the 5-year CDS spread for the company in
1 year turns out to be more than 280 basis points, the option will be exercised;
otherwise it will not be exercised. The cost of the option would be paid up front.
Similarly an investor might negotiate the right to sell 5-year protection on a company for 280 basis points starting in 1 year. This is a put option. If the 5-year CDS spread for
the company in 1 year turns out to be less than 280 basis points, the option will be
exercised; otherwise it will not be exercised. Again the cost of the option would be paid up front. Like CDS forwards, CDS options are usually structured so that they cease to exist if the reference entity defaults before option maturity.25.5 CDS FORWARDS AND OPTIONS
In what is referred to as a basket credit default swap there are a number of reference entities. An add-up basket CDS provides a payoff when any of the reference entities default. A first-to-default CDS provides a payoff only when the first default occurs. A second-to-default CDS provides a payoff only when the second default occurs. More generally, a kth-to-default CDS provides a payoff only when the kth default occurs. Payoffs are calculated in the same way as for a regular CDS. After the relevant default has occurred, there is a settlement. The swap then terminates and there are no further payments by either party.25.6 BASKET CREDIT DEFAULT SWAPS
A total return swap is a type of credit derivative. It is an agreement to exchange the
total return on a bond (or any portfolio of assets) for a floating rate plus a spread. The total return includes coupons, interest, and the gain or loss on the asset over the life of the swap.
An example of a total return swap is a 5-year agreement with a notional principal of
$100 million to exchange the total return on a corporate bond for the floating rate plus 25 basis points. This is illustrated in Figure 25.2. On coupon payment dates the payer 25.7 TOTAL RETURN SWAPS
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598 CHAPTER 25
pays the coupons earned on an investment of $100 million in the bond. The receiver
pays interest at the floating rate plus 25 basis points on a principal of $100 million. At the end of the life of the swap there is a payment reflecting the change in value of the bond. For example, if the bond increases in value by 10% over the life of the swap, the payer is required to pay $10 million (
= 10, of $100 million) at the end of the 5 years.
Similarly, if the bond decreases in value by 15%, the receiver is required to pay
$15 million at the end of the 5 years. If there is a default on the bond, the swap is
usually terminated and the receiver makes a final payment equal to the excess of $100 million over the market value of the bond.
If the notional principal is added to both sides at the end of the life of the swap, the
total return swap can be characterized as follows. The payer pays the cash flows on an investment of $100 million in the corporate bond. The receiver pays the cash flows on a
$100 million bond paying the floating rate plus 25 basis points. If the payer owns the corporate bond, the total return swap allows it to pass the credit risk on the bond to the
receiver. If it does not own the bond, the total return swap allows it to take a short position in the bond.
Total return swaps are often used as a financing tool. One scenario that could lead to
the swap in Figure 25.2 is as follows. The receiver wants financing to invest $100 million
in the reference bond. It approaches the payer (which is likely to be a financial
institution) and agrees to the swap. The payer then invests $100 million in the bond.
This leaves the receiver in the same position as it would have been if it had borrowed
money at the floating rate plus 25 basis points to buy the bond. The payer retains
ownership of the bond for the life of the swap and faces less credit risk than it would have done if it had lent money to the receiver to finance the purchase of the bond, with the bond being used as collateral for the loan. If the receiver defaults the payer does not
have the legal problem of trying to realize on the collateral. Total return swaps are
similar to repos (see Section 4.1) in that they are structured to minimize credit risk when
securities are being financed.
The spread over the floating rate received by the payer is compensation for bearing
the risk that the receiver will default. The payer will lose money if the receiver defaults at a time when the reference bondās price has declined. The spread therefore depends on
the credit quality of the receiver, the credit quality of the bond issuer, and the
correlation between the two.
There are a number of variations on the standard deal we have described. Sometimes,
instead of there being a cash payment for the change in value of the bond, there is
physical settlement where the payer exchanges the underlying asset for the notional principal at the end of the life of the swap. Sometimes the change-in-value payments are
made periodically rather than all at the end.Figure 25.2 Total return swap.
Total Return Swap Mechanics
- A total return swap allows a payer to transfer the total economic performance of a bond, including coupons and capital gains or losses, to a receiver.
- The receiver pays a floating interest rate plus a spread, effectively gaining synthetic exposure to the bond without owning it directly.
- Financial institutions use these swaps as financing tools, retaining legal ownership of the bond to avoid the legal complexities of collateral liquidation during a default.
- The spread over the floating rate is determined by the credit quality of both the receiver and the bond issuer, as well as the correlation between them.
- Collateralized Debt Obligations (CDOs) are introduced as structures that use waterfalls to prioritize payments among different tranches of bond-backed securities.
If the receiver defaults the payer does not have the legal problem of trying to realize on the collateral.
pays the coupons earned on an investment of $100 million in the bond. The receiver
pays interest at the floating rate plus 25 basis points on a principal of $100 million. At the end of the life of the swap there is a payment reflecting the change in value of the bond. For example, if the bond increases in value by 10% over the life of the swap, the payer is required to pay $10 million (
= 10, of $100 million) at the end of the 5 years.
Similarly, if the bond decreases in value by 15%, the receiver is required to pay
$15 million at the end of the 5 years. If there is a default on the bond, the swap is
usually terminated and the receiver makes a final payment equal to the excess of $100 million over the market value of the bond.
If the notional principal is added to both sides at the end of the life of the swap, the
total return swap can be characterized as follows. The payer pays the cash flows on an investment of $100 million in the corporate bond. The receiver pays the cash flows on a
$100 million bond paying the floating rate plus 25 basis points. If the payer owns the corporate bond, the total return swap allows it to pass the credit risk on the bond to the
receiver. If it does not own the bond, the total return swap allows it to take a short position in the bond.
Total return swaps are often used as a financing tool. One scenario that could lead to
the swap in Figure 25.2 is as follows. The receiver wants financing to invest $100 million
in the reference bond. It approaches the payer (which is likely to be a financial
institution) and agrees to the swap. The payer then invests $100 million in the bond.
This leaves the receiver in the same position as it would have been if it had borrowed
money at the floating rate plus 25 basis points to buy the bond. The payer retains
ownership of the bond for the life of the swap and faces less credit risk than it would have done if it had lent money to the receiver to finance the purchase of the bond, with the bond being used as collateral for the loan. If the receiver defaults the payer does not
have the legal problem of trying to realize on the collateral. Total return swaps are
similar to repos (see Section 4.1) in that they are structured to minimize credit risk when
securities are being financed.
The spread over the floating rate received by the payer is compensation for bearing
the risk that the receiver will default. The payer will lose money if the receiver defaults at a time when the reference bondās price has declined. The spread therefore depends on
the credit quality of the receiver, the credit quality of the bond issuer, and the
correlation between the two.
There are a number of variations on the standard deal we have described. Sometimes,
instead of there being a cash payment for the change in value of the bond, there is
physical settlement where the payer exchanges the underlying asset for the notional principal at the end of the life of the swap. Sometimes the change-in-value payments are
made periodically rather than all at the end.Figure 25.2 Total return swap.
Total
return
payerTotal
return
recei verTotal return on bond
Floating 1 25 basis points
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Credit Derivatives 599
We discussed asset-backed securities (ABSs) in Chapter 8. Figure 8.1 shows a simple
structure. An ABS where the underlying assets are bonds is known as a collateralized debt obligation, or CDO. A waterfall similar to that indicated in Figure 8.2 is defined for
the interest and principal payments on the bonds. The precise rules underlying the waterfall are complicated, but they are designed to ensure that, if one tranche is more
senior than another, it is more likely to receive promised interest payments and
repayments of principal.
Synthetic CDOs
Synthetic CDOs and Tranching
- Collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) are asset-backed securities where the underlying assets are bonds, organized into tranches via a payment waterfall.
- Synthetic CDOs differ from cash CDOs by using credit default swaps (CDSs) rather than physical bonds to create credit exposure.
- The structure uses an equity, mezzanine, and senior hierarchy to determine which investors absorb losses first when companies in the portfolio default.
- Unlike cash CDOs, synthetic CDO holders do not provide upfront funding for bond purchases but must typically post their principal as collateral.
- As defaults occur, the principal of the responsible tranche is reduced, which in turn decreases the interest spread earned by those investors.
The precise rules underlying the waterfall are complicated, but they are designed to ensure that, if one tranche is more senior than another, it is more likely to receive promised interest payments and repayments of principal.
We discussed asset-backed securities (ABSs) in Chapter 8. Figure 8.1 shows a simple
structure. An ABS where the underlying assets are bonds is known as a collateralized debt obligation, or CDO. A waterfall similar to that indicated in Figure 8.2 is defined for
the interest and principal payments on the bonds. The precise rules underlying the waterfall are complicated, but they are designed to ensure that, if one tranche is more
senior than another, it is more likely to receive promised interest payments and
repayments of principal.
Synthetic CDOs
When a CDO is created from a bond portfolio, as just described, the resulting structure is
known as a cash CDO. In an important market development, it was recognized that a
long position in a corporate bond has a similar risk to a short position in a CDS when the
reference entity in the CDS is the company issuing the bond. This led to an alternative structure known as a synthetic CDO.
The originator of a synthetic CDO chooses a portfolio of companies and a maturity
(e.g., 5 years) for the structure. It sells CDS protection on each company in the portfolio with the CDS maturities equaling the maturity of the structure. The synthetic CDO principal is the total of the notional principals underlying the CDSs. The originator has
cash inflows equal to the CDS spreads and cash outflows when companies in the
portfolio default. Tranches are formed and the cash inflows and outflows are distributed to tranches. The rules for determining the cash inflows and outflows of tranches are more straightforward for a synthetic CDO than for a cash CDO. Suppose that there are
only three tranches: equity, mezzanine, and senior. The rules might be as follows:
1. The equity tranche is responsible for the payouts on the CDSs until they reach 5% of the synthetic CDO principal. It earns a spread of 1,000 basis points per year on the outstanding tranche principal.
2. The mezzanine tranche is responsible for payouts in excess of 5% up to a
maximum of 20% of the synthetic CDO principal. It earns a spread of 100 basis
points per year on the outstanding tranche principal.
3. The senior tranche is responsible for payouts in excess of 20%. It earns a spread of
10 basis points per year on the outstanding tranche principal.
To understand how the synthetic CDO would work, suppose that its principal is
$100 million. The equity, mezzanine, and senior tranche principals are $5 million,
$15 million, and $80 million, respectively. The tranches initially earn the specified
spreads on these notional principals. Suppose that after 1 year defaults by companies in the portfolio lead to payouts of $2 million on the CDSs. The equity tranche holders are responsible for these payouts. The equity tranche principal reduces to $3 million and its spread (1,000 basis points) is then earned on $3 million instead of $5 million. If, later during the life of the CDO, there are further payouts of $4 million on the CDSs, the cumulative of the payments required by the equity tranche is $5 million, so that its
outstanding principal becomes zero. The mezzanine tranche holders have to pay
$1 million. This reduces their outstanding principal to $14 million.25.8 COLLATERALIZED DEBT OBLIGATIONS
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Cash CDOs require an initial investment by the tranche holders (to finance the
underlying bonds). By contrast, the holders of synthetic CDOs do not have to make
an initial investment. They just have to agree to the way cash inflows and outflows will
be calculated. In practice, they are almost invariably required to post the initial tranche principal as collateral. When the tranche becomes responsible for a payoff on a CDS, the money is taken out of the collateral. The balance in the collateral account usually earns interest.
Standard Portfolios and Single-Tranche Trading
Synthetic CDOs and Market Volatility
- Synthetic CDOs differ from cash CDOs by using credit default swaps and collateral accounts rather than requiring an initial investment to purchase physical bonds.
- Single-tranche trading allows investors to trade specific risk layers based on imaginary reference portfolios without the need to create an entire underlying structure.
- Standardized synthetic tranches are based on major indices like CDX NA IG and iTraxx Europe, providing liquid benchmarks for credit risk across different loss ranges.
- The 0ā3% equity tranche is unique because protection buyers must pay a significant upfront percentage of the principal in addition to annual basis points.
- Market data from 2007 to 2009 illustrates the catastrophic impact of the financial crisis, showing index spreads and tranche costs skyrocketing as credit risk exploded.
What a difference two years makes in the credit markets!
Cash CDOs require an initial investment by the tranche holders (to finance the
underlying bonds). By contrast, the holders of synthetic CDOs do not have to make
an initial investment. They just have to agree to the way cash inflows and outflows will
be calculated. In practice, they are almost invariably required to post the initial tranche principal as collateral. When the tranche becomes responsible for a payoff on a CDS, the money is taken out of the collateral. The balance in the collateral account usually earns interest.
Standard Portfolios and Single-Tranche Trading
In the synthetic CDO we have described, CDSs on individual companies were sold to create a portfolio of instruments equivalent to a portfolio of bonds. In a further market development, it was recognized that tranches can be traded without any underlying portfolio being created. An imaginary reference portfolio is used to define the cash flows on tranches. The buyer of protection pays the tranche spread to the seller of protection, and the seller of protection pays amounts to the buyer that correspond to those losses on the reference portfolio of CDSs that the tranche is responsible for. This is sometimes referred to as single-tranche trading because one tranche can be traded without there being any trading in other tranches.
In Section 25.3, we discussed CDS indices such as CDX NA IG and iTraxx Europe.
The market has used the portfolios underlying these indices to define standard synthetic
CDO tranches. These trade very actively. The six standard tranches of iTraxx Europe cover losses in the ranges 0ā3%, 3ā6%, 6ā9%, 9ā12%, 12ā22%, and 22ā100%. The six standard tranches of CDX NA IG cover losses in the ranges 0ā3%, 3ā7%, 7ā10%, 10ā15%, 15ā30%, and 30ā100%.
Table 25.6 shows the effect of the 2007ā8 financial crisis on iTraxx Europe quotes.
The index spread is the cost in basis points of buying protection on all the companies in
the index, as described in Section 25.3. The quotes for all tranches except the 0ā3% tranche is the cost in basis point per year of buying tranche protection. (As explained earlier, this is paid on a principal that declines as the tranche experiences losses.) In the case of the 0ā3% (equity) tranche, the protection buyer makes an initial payment and then pays 500 basis points per year on the outstanding tranche principal. The quote is for the initial payment as a percentage of the initial tranche principal.
What a difference two years makes in the credit markets! Table 25.6 shows that the
financial crisis led to a huge increase in credit spreads. The iTraxx index rose from
Table 25.6 Mid-market quotes, from the Creditex Group, for 5-year tranches of
iTraxx Europe. Quotes are in basis points except for the 0ā3% tranche where the quote equals the percent of the tranche principal that must be paid up front in addition to 500 basis points per year.
Date Tranche iTraxx
index0ā3% 3ā6% 6ā9% 9ā12% 12ā22%
January 31, 2007 10.34% 41.59 11.95 5.60 2.00 23
January 31, 2008 30.98% 316.90 212.40 140.00 73.60 77
January 30, 2009 64.28% 1185.63 606.69 315.63 97.13 165
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Credit Derivatives 601
Correlation and CDO Valuation
- Market data from 2007 to 2009 shows a massive surge in iTraxx Europe index quotes, reflecting both increased default probabilities and a liquidity crisis among protection sellers.
- The value of kth-to-default Credit Default Swaps is highly sensitive to default correlation; as correlation increases, the probability of a single default decreases while the probability of multiple defaults rises.
- In CDO tranches, low correlation makes junior equity tranches extremely risky, whereas high correlation shifts risk toward senior tranches as the entities begin to behave as a single unit.
- The valuation of synthetic CDOs involves calculating the breakeven spread by balancing the present value of expected payoffs against the present value of regular spread payments and accruals.
- In the extreme case of perfect default correlation, all reference entities either default together or not at all, making all tranches equally risky.
As the default correlation increases, the junior tranches become less risky and the senior tranches become more risky.
Table 25.6 Mid-market quotes, from the Creditex Group, for 5-year tranches of
iTraxx Europe. Quotes are in basis points except for the 0ā3% tranche where the quote equals the percent of the tranche principal that must be paid up front in addition to 500 basis points per year.
Date Tranche iTraxx
index0ā3% 3ā6% 6ā9% 9ā12% 12ā22%
January 31, 2007 10.34% 41.59 11.95 5.60 2.00 23
January 31, 2008 30.98% 316.90 212.40 140.00 73.60 77
January 30, 2009 64.28% 1185.63 606.69 315.63 97.13 165
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Credit Derivatives 601
23 basis points in January 2007 to 165 basis points in January 2009. The individual
tranche quotes have also shown huge increases. One reason for the changes is that the
default probabilities assessed by the market for investment-grade corporations increased.
However, it is also the case that protection sellers were in many cases experiencing liquidity problems. They became more averse to risk and increased the risk premiums they required.
The cost of protection in a kth-to-default CDS or a tranche of a CDO is critically
dependent on default correlation. Suppose that a basket of 100 reference entities is used
to define a 5-year kth-to-default CDS and that each reference entity has a risk-neutral
probability of 2% of defaulting during the 5 years. When the default correlation
between the reference entities is zero the binomial distribution shows that the prob-ability of one or more defaults during the 5 years is 86.74% and the probability of 10 or more defaults is 0.0034%. A first-to-default CDS is therefore quite valuable whereas a tenth-to-default CDS is worth almost nothing.
As the default correlation increases the probability of one or more defaults declines
and the probability of 10 or more defaults increases. In the limit where the default correlation between the reference entities is perfect the probability of one or more
defaults equals the probability of ten or more defaults and is 2%. This is because in this extreme situation the reference entities are essentially the same. Either they all default (with probability 2%) or none of them default (with probability 98%).
The valuation of a tranche of a CDO is similarly dependent on default correlation. If
the correlation is low, the junior equity tranche is very risky and the senior tranches are
very safe. As the default correlation increases, the junior tranches become less risky and
the senior tranches become more risky. In the limit where the default correlation is perfect and the recovery rate is zero, the tranches are equally risky.25.9 ROLE OF CORRELATION IN A BASKET CDS AND CDO
Synthetic CDOs can be valued using the DerivaGem software. To explain the calcula-tions, suppose that the payment dates on a synthetic CDO tranche are at times
t1, t2,c, tm and t0=0. Define Ej as the expected tranche principal at time tj and
v1t2 as the present value of $1 received at time t. Suppose that the spread on a
particular tranche (i.e., the number of basis points paid for protection) is s per year.
This spread is paid on the remaining tranche principal. The present value of the
expected regular spread payments on the CDO is therefore given by sA, where
A=am
j=11tj-tj-12Ejv1tj2 (25. 1)
The expected loss between times tj-1 and tj is Ej-1-Ej. Assume that the loss occurs at
the midpoint of the time interval (i.e., at time 0.5tj-1+0.5tj). The present value of the 25.10 VALUATION OF A SYNTHETIC CDO
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602 CHAPTER 25
expected payoffs on the CDO tranche is
C=am
j=11Ej-1-Ej2v10.5tj-1+0.5tj2 (25. 2)
The accrual payment due on the losses is given by sB, where
B=am
j=10.51tj-tj-121Ej-1-Ej2v10.5tj-1+0.5tj2 (25. 3)
The value of the tranche to the protection buyer is C-sA-sB. The breakeven spread
on the tranche occurs when the present value of the payments equals the present value
of the payoffs or
C=sA+sB
The breakeven spread is therefore
s=C
A+B (25. 4)
Valuation of Synthetic CDOs
- The valuation of a synthetic CDO tranche involves calculating the present value of expected payoffs and comparing them to the present value of premium payments.
- The breakeven spread is determined by the ratio of the expected payoffs to the sum of the regular premium payments and the accrual payments due on losses.
- The one-factor Gaussian copula model serves as the standard market tool for estimating the probability of default across multiple companies within a portfolio.
- Tranche principal is mathematically defined by attachment and detachment points, which dictate the specific range of portfolio losses covered by the derivative.
- Calculating unconditional values for the tranche requires integrating conditional expectations over a standard normal distribution of the common factor F.
The one-factor Gaussian copula model of time to default was introduced in Section 24.8. This is the standard market model for valuing synthetic CDOs.
The expected loss between times tj-1 and tj is Ej-1-Ej. Assume that the loss occurs at
the midpoint of the time interval (i.e., at time 0.5tj-1+0.5tj). The present value of the 25.10 VALUATION OF A SYNTHETIC CDO
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602 CHAPTER 25
expected payoffs on the CDO tranche is
C=am
j=11Ej-1-Ej2v10.5tj-1+0.5tj2 (25. 2)
The accrual payment due on the losses is given by sB, where
B=am
j=10.51tj-tj-121Ej-1-Ej2v10.5tj-1+0.5tj2 (25. 3)
The value of the tranche to the protection buyer is C-sA-sB. The breakeven spread
on the tranche occurs when the present value of the payments equals the present value
of the payoffs or
C=sA+sB
The breakeven spread is therefore
s=C
A+B (25. 4)
Equations (25.1) to (25.3) show the key role played by the expected tranche principal in
calculating the breakeven spread for a tranche. If we know the expected principal for a
tranche on all payment dates and we also know the zero-coupon yield curve, the
breakeven tranche spread can be calculated from equation (25.4).
If there is an upfront payment and a fixed spread of s* (as is the case in Table 25.6 for
the 0ā3% tranche where s* is 500 basis points), the upfront payment as a percent of the
principal is C-s*1A+B2.
Using the Gaussian Copula Model of Time to Default
The one-factor Gaussian copula model of time to default was introduced in Section 24.8.
This is the standard market model for valuing synthetic CDOs. All companies are assumed to have the same probability
Q1t2 of defaulting by time t. Equation (24.9)
converts this unconditional probability of default by time t to the probability of default by time t conditional on the factor F:
Q1tāF2=NaN-13Q1t24-2rF
21-rb (25. 5)
Here r is the copula correlation, assumed to be the same for any pair of companies.
In the calculation of Q1t2, it is usually assumed that the hazard rate for a company is
constant and consistent with the index spread. The hazard rate that is assumed can be
calculated by using the CDS valuation approach in Section 25.2 and searching for the hazard rate that gives the index spread. Suppose that this hazard rate is
l. Then, from
equation (24.1),
Q1t2=1-e-lt (25. 6)
From the properties of the binomial distribution, the standard market model gives the
probability of exactly k defaults by time t, conditional on F, as
P1k, tāF2=n!
1n-k2! k! Q1tāF2k31-Q1tāF24n-k (25. 7)
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Credit Derivatives 603
where n is the number of reference entities in the portfolio. Suppose that the tranche
under consideration covers losses on the portfolio between aL and aH. The parameter
aL is known as the attachment point and the parameter aH is known as the detachment
point. Define
nL=aLn
1-R and nH=aHn
1-R
where R is the recovery rate. Also, define m1x2 as the smallest integer greater than x.
Without loss of generality, we assume that the initial tranche principal is 1. The tranche
principal stays 1 while the number of defaults, k, is less than m1nL2. It is zero when the
number of defaults is greater than or equal to m1nH2. Otherwise, the tranche principal is
aH-k11-R2>n
aH-aL
Define Ej1F2 as the expected tranche principal at time tj conditional on the value of the
factor F. It follows that
Ej1F2=am1nL2-1
k=0 P1k, tjāF2+am1nH2-1
k=m1nL2 P1k, tjāF2aH-k11-R2>n
aH-aL (25. 8)
Define A1F2, B1F2, and C1F2 as the values of A, B, and C conditional on F. Similarly to
equations (25.1) to (25.3),
A1F2=am
j=11tj-tj-12Ej1F2v1tj2 (25. 9)
B1F2=am
j=10.51tj-tj-121Ej-11F2-Ej1F22v10.5tj-1+0.5tj2 (25. 10)
C1F2=am
j=11Ej-11F2-Ej1F22v10.5tj-1+0.5tj2 (25. 11)
The variable F has a standard normal distribution. To calculate the unconditional
values of A, B, and C, it is necessary to integrate A1F2, B1F2, and C1F2 over a standard
normal distribution. Once the unconditional values have been calculated, the breakeven
Valuing CDO Tranches
- The valuation of CDO tranches requires calculating conditional values for payments, accruals, and payoffs based on a standard normal distribution factor.
- Unconditional values are derived by integrating these conditional variables over the probability distribution of the common factor.
- Gaussian quadrature is the preferred numerical method for this integration, utilizing specific weights and factor values derived from Hermite polynomials.
- The breakeven spread of a tranche is determined by the ratio of the present value of expected payoffs to the sum of expected payments and accruals.
- Practical application involves setting integration points, where a value of 20 typically provides sufficient accuracy for financial modeling.
The integration is best accomplished with a procedure known as Gaussian quadrature.
Define A1F2, B1F2, and C1F2 as the values of A, B, and C conditional on F. Similarly to
equations (25.1) to (25.3),
A1F2=am
j=11tj-tj-12Ej1F2v1tj2 (25. 9)
B1F2=am
j=10.51tj-tj-121Ej-11F2-Ej1F22v10.5tj-1+0.5tj2 (25. 10)
C1F2=am
j=11Ej-11F2-Ej1F22v10.5tj-1+0.5tj2 (25. 11)
The variable F has a standard normal distribution. To calculate the unconditional
values of A, B, and C, it is necessary to integrate A1F2, B1F2, and C1F2 over a standard
normal distribution. Once the unconditional values have been calculated, the breakeven
spread on the tranche can be calculated as C>1A+B2 or the upfront payment can be
calculated as C-s*1A+B2.
The integration is best accomplished with a procedure known as Gaussian quadrature.
It involves the following approximation:
3ā
-ā1
22pe-F2>2 g1F2dFāaM
k=1wkg1Fk2 (25. 12)
As M increases, accuracy increases. The values of wk and Fk for different values of M
are given on the authorās website.9 The value of M is twice the ānumber of integration
9 The parameters wk and Fk are calculated from the roots of Hermite polynomials. For more information on
Gaussian quadrature, see Technical Note 21 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
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604 CHAPTER 25
pointsā variable in DerivaGem. Setting the number of integration points equal to 20
usually gives good results.
Example 25.2
Consider the mezzanine tranche of iTraxx Europe (5-year maturity) when the
copula correlation is 0.15 and the recovery rate is 40%. In this case, aL=0.03,
aH=0.06, n=125, nL=6.25, and nH=12.5. We suppose that the term structure
of interest rates is flat at 3.5%, payments are made quarterly, and the CDS spread
on the index is 50 basis points. A calculation similar to that in Section 25.2 shows
that the constant hazard rate corresponding to the CDS spread is 0.83% (with
continuous compounding). An extract from the remaining calculations is shown
in Table 25.7. A value of M=60 is used in equation (25.12). The factor values, Fk,
and their weights, wk, are shown in the first segment of the table. The expected
Table 25.7 Valuation of CDO in Example 25.2: principal=1;
payments are per unit of spread.
Weights and values for factors
wkg 0.1579 0.1579 0.1342 0.0969g
Fkg 0.2020 -0.2020-0.6060-1.0104g
Expected principal, Ej1Fk2
Time
j=1g 1.0000 1.0000 1.0000 1.0000g
fffffff
j=19g 0.9953 0.9687 0.8636 0.6134g
j=20g 0.9936 0.9600 0.8364 0.5648g
PV expected payment, A1Fk2
j=1g 0.2478 0.2478 0.2478 0.2478g
fffffff
j=19g 0.2107 0.2051 0.1828 0.1299g
j=20g 0.2085 0.2015 0.1755 0.1185g
Total g 4.5624 4.5345 4.4080 4.0361g
PV expected accrual payment, B1Fk2
j=1g 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000g
fffffff
j=19g 0.0001 0.0008 0.0026 0.0051g
j=20g 0.0002 0.0009 0.0029 0.0051g
Total g 0.0007 0.0043 0.0178 0.0478g
PV expected payoff, C1Fk2
j=1g 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000g
fffffff
j=19g 0.0011 0.0062 0.0211 0.0412g
j=20g 0.0014 0.0074 0.0230 0.0410g
Total g 0.0055 0.0346 0.1423 0.3823g
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Credit Derivatives 605
tranche principals on payment dates conditional on the factor values are calculated
from equations (25.5) to (25.8) and shown in the second segment of the table. The values of A , B, and C conditional on the factor values are calculated in the last three
segments of the table using equations (25.9) to (25.11). The unconditional values of
A, B, and C are calculated by integrating
A1F2, B1F2, and C1F2 over the probability
distribution of F. This is done by setting g1F2 equal in turn to A1F2, B1F2, and C1F2
in equation (25.12). The result is
A=4.2846, B=0.0187, C=0.1496
The breakeven tranche spread is 0.1496>14.2846+0.01872=0.0348, or 348 basis
points.
This result can be obtained from DerivaGem. The CDS worksheet is used to
convert the 50-basis-point spread to a hazard rate of 0.83%. The CDO worksheet is then used with this hazard rate and 30 integration points.
Valuing Credit Default Swaps
- The text outlines the mathematical integration of probability distributions to calculate breakeven tranche spreads for credit derivatives.
- A standard market model is applied to value kth-to-default CDS by conditioning on a common factor F to determine default timing probabilities.
- Numerical examples demonstrate how hazard rates, recovery rates, and copula correlations are used to derive the present value of payoffs and payments.
- The model allows for the calculation of breakeven spreads by integrating unconditional present values across multiple factor values.
- Market participants use these models to derive implied correlation from tranche quotes, mirroring the use of implied volatility in the BlackāScholesāMerton model.
Market participants like to imply a correlation from the market quotes for tranches in the same way that they imply a volatility from the market prices of options.
A, B, and C are calculated by integrating
A1F2, B1F2, and C1F2 over the probability
distribution of F. This is done by setting g1F2 equal in turn to A1F2, B1F2, and C1F2
in equation (25.12). The result is
A=4.2846, B=0.0187, C=0.1496
The breakeven tranche spread is 0.1496>14.2846+0.01872=0.0348, or 348 basis
points.
This result can be obtained from DerivaGem. The CDS worksheet is used to
convert the 50-basis-point spread to a hazard rate of 0.83%. The CDO worksheet is then used with this hazard rate and 30 integration points.
Valuation of k th-to-Default CDS
A kth-to-default CDS (see Section 25.6) can also be valued using the standard market
model by conditioning on the factor F. The conditional probability that the kth default happens between times
tj-1 and tj is the conditional probability that there are k or
more defaults by time tj minus the conditional probability that there are k or more
defaults by time tj-1. This can be calculated from equations (25.5) to (25.7) as
an
q=k P1q, tjāF2-an
q=k P1q, tj-1āF2
Defaults between time tj-1 and tj can be assumed to happen at time 0.5tj-1+0.5tj. This
allows the present value of payments and of payoffs, conditional on F, to be calculated in
the same way as for regular CDS payoffs (see Section 25.2). By integrating over F, the unconditional present values of payments and payoffs can be calculated.
Example 25.3
Consider a portfolio consisting of 10 bonds each with a hazard rate of 2% per
annum. Suppose we are interested in valuing a third-to-default CDS where pay-ments are made annually in arrears. Assume that the copula correlation is 0.3,
the recovery rate is 40%, and all risk-free rates are 5%. As in Table 25.7, we
consider
M=60 different factor values. The unconditional cumulative probabil-
ity of each bond defaulting by years 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 is 0.0198, 0.0392, 0.0582, 0.0769, 0.0952, respectively. Equation (25.5) shows that, conditional on
F=-1.0104,
these default probabilities are 0.0361, 0.0746, 0.1122, 0.1484, 0.1830, respectively.
From the binomial distribution, the conditional probability of three or more defaults by times 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 years is 0.0047, 0.0335, 0.0928, 0.1757, 0.2717,
respectively. The conditional probability of the third default happening during years 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 is therefore 0.0047, 0.0289, 0.0593, 0.0829, 0.0960, respectively.
An analysis similar to that in Section 25.2 shows that the present values of
payoffs, regular payments, and accrual payments conditional on
F=-1.0104
are 0.1379, 3.8443s, and 0.1149s, where s is the spread. Similar calculations are carried out for the other 59 factor values and equation (25.12) is used to integrate
over F. The unconditional present values of payoffs, regular payments, and
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606 CHAPTER 25
accrual payments are 0.0629, 4.0580s, and 0.0524s. The breakeven CDS spread is
therefore 0.0629>14.0580+0.05242=0.0153, or 153 basis points.
Figure 25.3 Vertical axis gives present value of expected loss on 0 to X% tranche
as a percent of total underlying principal for iTraxx Europe on January 31, 2007 .
0.0%0.2%0.4%0.6%0.8%1.0%1.2%
0% 10% 20% 30% 40% 50% 60% 70%8 0% 90% 100%
XImplied Correlation
In the standard market model, the recovery rate R is usually assumed to be 40%. This leaves the copula correlation
r as the only unknown parameter. This makes the model
similar to BlackāScholesāMerton, where there is only one unknown parameter, the volatility. Market participants like to imply a correlation from the market quotes for tranches in the same way that they imply a volatility from the market prices of options.
Suppose that the values of
5aL, aH6 for successively more senior tranches are
5a0, a16, 5a1, a26, 5a2, a36,c, with a0=0. (For example, in the case of iTraxx Europe,
a0=0, a1=0.03, a2=0.06, a3=0.09, a4=0.12, a5=0.22, a6=1.00.) There are
Implied Correlation and Market Skews
- The one-factor Gaussian copula model uses correlation as its sole unknown parameter, mirroring how volatility functions in the BlackāScholesāMerton model.
- Market participants utilize two primary measures of implied correlation: compound correlation for specific tranches and base correlation for equity-to-detachment point tranches.
- Empirical data from market quotes reveals a 'correlation smile' for compound correlations and a 'correlation skew' for base correlations.
- The existence of these smiles and skews proves that market prices are fundamentally inconsistent with the assumptions of the one-factor Gaussian copula model.
- Base correlation is calculated through a multi-step process that aggregates expected losses across successive tranches to find a consistent correlation parameter.
From the pronounced smiles and skews that are observed in practice, we can infer that market prices are not consistent with this model.
r as the only unknown parameter. This makes the model
similar to BlackāScholesāMerton, where there is only one unknown parameter, the volatility. Market participants like to imply a correlation from the market quotes for tranches in the same way that they imply a volatility from the market prices of options.
Suppose that the values of
5aL, aH6 for successively more senior tranches are
5a0, a16, 5a1, a26, 5a2, a36,c, with a0=0. (For example, in the case of iTraxx Europe,
a0=0, a1=0.03, a2=0.06, a3=0.09, a4=0.12, a5=0.22, a6=1.00.) There are
two alternative implied correlation measures. One is compound correlation or tranche correlation. For a tranche
5aq-1, aq6, this is the value of the correlation, r, that leads to
the spread calculated from the model being the same as the spread in the market. It is found using an iterative search. The other is base correlation. For a particular value of
aq 1qĆ12, this is the value of r that leads to the 50, aq6 tranche being priced
consistently with the market. It is obtained using the following steps:
1. Calculate the compound correlation for each tranche.
2. Use the compound correlation to calculate the present value of the expected loss
on each tranche during the life of the CDO as a percent of the initial tranche
principal. This is the variable we have defined as C above. Suppose that the value of C for the
5aq-1, aq6 tranche is Cq.
3. Calculate the present value of the expected loss on the 50, aq6 tranche as a percent
of the total principal of the underlying portfolio. This is aq
p=1 Cp1ap-ap-12.
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Credit Derivatives 607
4. The C-value for the 50, aq6 tranche is the value calculated in Step 3 divided by aq.
The base correlation is the value of the correlation parameter, r, that is consistent
with this C-value. It is found using an iterative search.
The present value of the loss as a percent of underlying portfolio that would be calculated
in Step 3 for the iTraxx Europe quotes for January 31, 2007, given in Table 25.6 are
shown in Figure 25.3. The implied correlations for these quotes are shown in Table 25.8.
The calculations were carried out using DerivaGem assuming that the term structure of
interest rates is flat at 3% and the recovery rate is 40%. The CDSs worksheet shows that
the 23-basis-point spread implies a hazard rate of 0.382%. The implied correlations are calculated using the CDOs worksheet. The values underlying Figure 25.3 can also be calculated with this worksheet using the expression in Step 3 above.
The correlation patterns in Table 25.8 exhibit a ācorrelation smileā. As the tranche
becomes more senior, the implied correlation first decreases and then increases. The base correlations exhibit a correlation skew where the implied correlation is an increas-ing function of the tranche detachment point.
If market prices were consistent with the one-factor Gaussian copula model, then the
implied correlations (both compound and base) would be the same for all tranches. From the pronounced smiles and skews that are observed in practice, we can infer that market prices are not consistent with this model.
Valuing Nonstandard Tranches
We do not need a model to value the standard tranches of a standard portfolio such
as iTraxx Europe because the spreads for these tranches can be observed in the
market. Sometimes quotes need to be produced for nonstandard tranches of a
Correlation Smiles and Skews
- The one-factor Gaussian copula model fails to produce consistent implied correlations across different tranches of a portfolio.
- Market data reveals a 'correlation smile' for compound correlations and a 'correlation skew' for base correlations.
- Base correlations are derived through an iterative search to find values consistent with the present value of expected losses.
- Nonstandard tranches can be valued by interpolating base correlations between standard detachment points to estimate expected losses.
- The pronounced discrepancy between model predictions and market prices indicates that the Gaussian copula does not fully capture market reality.
From the pronounced smiles and skews that are observed in practice, we can infer that market prices are not consistent with this model.
The base correlation is the value of the correlation parameter, r, that is consistent
with this C-value. It is found using an iterative search.
The present value of the loss as a percent of underlying portfolio that would be calculated
in Step 3 for the iTraxx Europe quotes for January 31, 2007, given in Table 25.6 are
shown in Figure 25.3. The implied correlations for these quotes are shown in Table 25.8.
The calculations were carried out using DerivaGem assuming that the term structure of
interest rates is flat at 3% and the recovery rate is 40%. The CDSs worksheet shows that
the 23-basis-point spread implies a hazard rate of 0.382%. The implied correlations are calculated using the CDOs worksheet. The values underlying Figure 25.3 can also be calculated with this worksheet using the expression in Step 3 above.
The correlation patterns in Table 25.8 exhibit a ācorrelation smileā. As the tranche
becomes more senior, the implied correlation first decreases and then increases. The base correlations exhibit a correlation skew where the implied correlation is an increas-ing function of the tranche detachment point.
If market prices were consistent with the one-factor Gaussian copula model, then the
implied correlations (both compound and base) would be the same for all tranches. From the pronounced smiles and skews that are observed in practice, we can infer that market prices are not consistent with this model.
Valuing Nonstandard Tranches
We do not need a model to value the standard tranches of a standard portfolio such
as iTraxx Europe because the spreads for these tranches can be observed in the
market. Sometimes quotes need to be produced for nonstandard tranches of a
standard portfolio. Suppose that you need a quote for the 4ā8% iTraxx Europe
tranche. One approach is to interpolate base correlations so as to estimate the base
correlation for the 0ā4% tranche and the 0ā8% tranche. These two base correlations allow the present value of expected loss (as a percent of the underlying portfolio
principal) to be estimated for these tranches. The present value of the expected loss for
the 4ā8% tranche (as a percent of the underlying principal) can be estimated as the
difference between the present value of expected losses for the 0ā8% and 0ā4% tranches. This can be used to imply a compound correlation and a breakeven spread for the tranche.
It is now recognized that this is not the best way to proceed. A better approach is to
calculate expected losses for each of the standard tranches and produce a chart such as Table 25.8 Implied correlations for 5-year iTraxx Europe tranches on
January 31, 2007.
Compound correlations
Tranche 0ā3% 3ā6% 6ā9% 9ā12% 12ā22%
Implied correlation 17.7% 7.8% 14.0% 18.2% 23.3%
Base correlationsTranche 0ā3% 0ā6% 0ā9% 0ā12% 0ā22%
Implied correlation 17.7% 28.4% 36.5% 43.2% 60.5%
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608 CHAPTER 25
Tranche Valuation and Copula Alternatives
- Valuing non-standard iTraxx tranches requires estimating expected losses through interpolation of base correlations or direct loss curves.
- Directly interpolating expected losses is superior to interpolating base correlations because it avoids non-linear function errors.
- To prevent arbitrage, the expected loss of a 0āX% tranche must increase with X at a decreasing rate.
- The standard market model assumes homogeneity in default probabilities and correlations, but heterogeneous models can relax these constraints.
- Alternative one-factor copulas, such as Student t, Clayton, and Archimedean, are proposed to better model default correlations than the Gaussian standard.
If base correlations are interpolated and then used to calculate expected losses, this no-arbitrage condition is often not satisfied.
standard portfolio. Suppose that you need a quote for the 4ā8% iTraxx Europe
tranche. One approach is to interpolate base correlations so as to estimate the base
correlation for the 0ā4% tranche and the 0ā8% tranche. These two base correlations allow the present value of expected loss (as a percent of the underlying portfolio
principal) to be estimated for these tranches. The present value of the expected loss for
the 4ā8% tranche (as a percent of the underlying principal) can be estimated as the
difference between the present value of expected losses for the 0ā8% and 0ā4% tranches. This can be used to imply a compound correlation and a breakeven spread for the tranche.
It is now recognized that this is not the best way to proceed. A better approach is to
calculate expected losses for each of the standard tranches and produce a chart such as Table 25.8 Implied correlations for 5-year iTraxx Europe tranches on
January 31, 2007.
Compound correlations
Tranche 0ā3% 3ā6% 6ā9% 9ā12% 12ā22%
Implied correlation 17.7% 7.8% 14.0% 18.2% 23.3%
Base correlationsTranche 0ā3% 0ā6% 0ā9% 0ā12% 0ā22%
Implied correlation 17.7% 28.4% 36.5% 43.2% 60.5%
M25_HULL0654_11_GE_C25.indd 607 30/04/2021 17:42
608 CHAPTER 25
Figure 25.3 showing the variation of expected loss for the 0āX% tranche with X. Values
on this chart can be interpolated to give the expected loss for the 0ā4% and the 0ā8%
tranches. The difference between these expected losses is a better estimate of the
expected loss on the 4ā8% tranche than that obtained from the base correlation
approach.
It can be shown that for no arbitrage the expected losses when calculated as in
Figure 25.3 must increase with X at a decreasing rate. If base correlations are interpolated
and then used to calculate expected losses, this no-arbitrage condition is often not
satisfied. (The problem here is that the base correlation for the 0āX% tranche is a nonlinear function of the expected loss on the 0āX% tranche.) The direct approach of
interpolating expected losses is therefore much better than the indirect approach of interpolating base correlations. What is more, it can be done so as to ensure that the no-arbitrage condition just mentioned is satisfied.
10 See L. Andersen, J. Sidenius, and S. Basu, ā All Your Hedges in One Basket, ā Risk, November 2003; and
J. C. Hull and A. White, āValuation of a CDO and nth-to-Default Swap without Monte Carlo Simulation, ā
Journal of Derivatives, 12, 2 (Winter 2004), 8ā23.
11 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āValuation of a CDO and nth-to-Default Swap without Monte Carlo
Simulation, ā Journal of Derivatives, 12, 2 (Winter 2004), 8ā23.This section outlines a number of alternatives to the one-factor Gaussian copula model
that has become the market standard.
Heterogeneous Model
The standard market model is a homogeneous model in the sense that the time-to- default probability distributions are assumed to be the same for all companies and the copula correlations for any pair of companies are the same. The homogeneity assump-tion can be relaxed so that a more general model is used. However, this model is more complicated to implement because each company has a different probability of default-ing by any given time and
P1k, tāF2 can no longer be calculated using the binomial
formula in equation (25.7). It is necessary to use a numerical procedure such as that
described in Andersen et al. (2003) and Hull and White (2004).10
Other Copulas
The one-factor Gaussian copula model is a particular model of the correlation between times to default. Many other one-factor copula models have been proposed. These include the Student t copula, the Clayton copula, Archimedean copula, and Marshallā Olkin copula. We can also create new one-factor copulas by assuming that F and the
Zi
Advanced Credit Derivative Models
- Alternative one-factor copulas, such as the Student t and Clayton models, offer different ways to represent correlation between default times.
- The double t copula, using Student t distributions for both factors, provides a significantly better fit to market data than the standard Gaussian model.
- Andersen and Sidenius proposed a model where correlation increases as the economic environment worsens, reflecting empirical evidence of higher default clustering during downturns.
- Dynamic models, including structural and reduced-form approaches, attempt to track the evolution of portfolio losses over time rather than providing a static snapshot.
- The implied copula model allows for a probability distribution of hazard rates to be derived directly from the market pricing of CDO tranches.
This means that in states of the world where the default rate is high (i.e., states of the world where F is low) the default correlation is also high.
P1k, tāF2 can no longer be calculated using the binomial
formula in equation (25.7). It is necessary to use a numerical procedure such as that
described in Andersen et al. (2003) and Hull and White (2004).10
Other Copulas
The one-factor Gaussian copula model is a particular model of the correlation between times to default. Many other one-factor copula models have been proposed. These include the Student t copula, the Clayton copula, Archimedean copula, and Marshallā Olkin copula. We can also create new one-factor copulas by assuming that F and the
Zi
in equation (24.7) have nonnormal distributions with mean 0 and standard deviation 1.
Hull and White show that a good fit to the market is obtained when F and the Zi have
Student t distributions with four degrees of freedom.11 They call this the double t copula.
Another approach is to increase the number of factors in the model. Unfortunately,
the model is then much slower to run because it is necessary to integrate over several normal distributions instead of just one.25.11 ALTERNATIVES TO THE STANDARD MARKET MODEL
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Credit Derivatives 609
Random Recovery and Factor Loadings
Andersen and Sidenius have suggested a model where the copula correlation r in
equation (25.5) is a function of F and the recovery rate is negatively related to the default
rate.12
In general, r increases as F decreases. This means that in states of the world where the
default rate is high (i.e., states of the world where F is low) the default correlation is also
high. There is empirical evidence suggesting that this is the case.13 Andersen and Sidenius
find that this model fits market quotes much better than the standard market model.
The Implied Copula Model
Hull and White show how a copula can be implied from market quotes.14 The simplest
version of the model assumes that a certain average hazard rate applies to all companies
in a portfolio over the life of a CDO. That average hazard rate has a probability
distribution that can be implied from the pricing of tranches. The calculation of the
implied copula is similar in concept to the idea, discussed in Chapter 20, of calculating an implied probability distribution for a stock price from option prices.
Dynamic Models
The models discussed so far can be characterized as static models. In essence they
model the average default environment over the life of the CDO. The model con-structed for a 5-year CDO is different from the model constructed for a 7-year CDO, which is in turn different from the model constructed for a 10-year CDO. Dynamic models are different from static models in that they attempt to model the evolution of
the loss on a portfolio through time. There are three different types of dynamic
models:
1. Structural Models: These are similar to the models described in Section 24.6
except that the stochastic processes for the asset prices of many companies are modeled simultaneously. When the asset price for a company reaches a barrier, there is a default. The processes followed by the assets are correlated. The problem
with these types of models is that they have to be implemented with Monte Carlo simulation and calibration is therefore difficult.
2. Reduced Form Models: In these models the hazard rates of companies are modeled.
Credit Risk Modeling Approaches
- Structural models simulate simultaneous asset price processes for multiple companies to determine default events based on barrier breaches.
- Reduced form models focus on modeling the hazard rates of companies rather than underlying asset prices.
- To achieve realistic correlation in reduced form models, researchers must incorporate sudden jumps in hazard rates.
- Top down models simplify the process by modeling the total loss on a portfolio directly without analyzing individual companies.
- Credit derivatives serve as essential tools for financial institutions to transfer, manage, and diversify credit risk exposures.
In order to build in a realistic amount of correlation, it is necessary to assume that there are jumps in the hazard rates.
1. Structural Models: These are similar to the models described in Section 24.6
except that the stochastic processes for the asset prices of many companies are modeled simultaneously. When the asset price for a company reaches a barrier, there is a default. The processes followed by the assets are correlated. The problem
with these types of models is that they have to be implemented with Monte Carlo simulation and calibration is therefore difficult.
2. Reduced Form Models: In these models the hazard rates of companies are modeled.
In order to build in a realistic amount of correlation, it is necessary to assume that
there are jumps in the hazard rates.
12 See L. B. G. Andersen and J. Sidenius, āExtension of the Gaussian Copula Model: Random Recovery and
Random Factor Loadings, ā Journal of Credit Risk, 1, 1 (Winter 2004), 29ā70.
13 See, for example, A. Sevigny and O. Renault, āDefault Correlation: Empirical Evidence, ā Working Paper,
Standard and Poors, 2002; S. R. Das, L. Freed, G. Geng, and N. Kapadia, āCorrelated Default Risk, ā
Journal of Fixed Income, 16 (2006), 2, 7ā32, J. C. Hull, M. Predescu, and A. White, āThe Valuation of
Correlation-Dependent Credit Derivatives Using a Structural Model, ā Journal of Credit Risk, 6 (2010),
99ā132; and A. Ang and J. Chen, ā Asymmetric Correlation of Equity Portfolios, ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 63 (2002), 443ā494.
14 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āValuing Credit Derivatives Using an Implied Copula Approach, ā Journal of
Derivatives, 14 (2006), 8ā28; and J. C. Hull and A. White, ā An Improved Implied Copula Model and its
Application to the Valuation of Bespoke CDO Tranches, ā Journal of Investment Management, 8, 3 (2010), 11 ā31.
M25_HULL0654_11_GE_C25.indd 609 30/04/2021 17:42
610 CHAPTER 25
3. Top Down Models: These are models where the total loss on a portfolio is modeled
directly. The models do not consider what happens to individual companies.
SUMMARY
Credit derivatives enable banks and other financial institutions to actively manage their credit risks. They can be used to transfer credit risk from one company to another and to diversify credit risk by swapping one type of exposure for another.
The most common credit derivative is a credit default swap. This is a contract where
one company buys insurance from another company against a third company (the
Credit Derivatives and Risk Management
- Credit derivatives allow financial institutions to actively manage, transfer, and diversify credit risk through various insurance-like contracts.
- The credit default swap (CDS) is the primary instrument used to hedge against a reference entity defaulting on its financial obligations.
- Total return swaps function as financing vehicles where a financial institution buys assets on behalf of a company to reduce its direct lending exposure.
- Collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) use specific allocation rules to create securities with varying credit ratings from a single portfolio of bonds or loans.
- The one-factor Gaussian copula model serves as the standard market tool for pricing complex synthetic CDO tranches and kth-to-default swaps.
The advantage of this type of arrangement is that the financial institution has less exposure than if it had lent the company money to buy the portfolio.
3. Top Down Models: These are models where the total loss on a portfolio is modeled
directly. The models do not consider what happens to individual companies.
SUMMARY
Credit derivatives enable banks and other financial institutions to actively manage their credit risks. They can be used to transfer credit risk from one company to another and to diversify credit risk by swapping one type of exposure for another.
The most common credit derivative is a credit default swap. This is a contract where
one company buys insurance from another company against a third company (the
reference entity) defaulting on its obligations. The payoff is designed to equal the
difference between the face value of a bond issued by the reference entity and its value immediately after a default. Credit default swaps can be analyzed by calculating the present value of the expected payments and the present value of the expected payoff in a
risk-neutral world.
A forward credit default swap is an obligation to enter into a particular credit default
swap on a particular date. A credit default swap option is the right to enter into a
particular credit default swap on a particular date. Both instruments cease to exist if the reference entity defaults before the date. A kth-to-default CDS is defined as a CDS that pays off when the kth default occurs in a portfolio of companies.
A total return swap is an instrument where the total return on a portfolio of credit-
sensitive assets is exchanged for a floating rate plus a spread. Total return swaps are often used as financing vehicles. A company wanting to purchase a portfolio of assets will approach a financial institution to buy the assets on its behalf. The financial institution then enters into a total return swap with the company where it pays the return on the assets to the company and receives a floating rate plus a spread. The advantage of this type of arrangement is that the financial institution has less exposure than if it had lent the company money to buy the portfolio.
In a collateralized debt obligation a number of different securities are created from a
portfolio of corporate bonds or commercial loans. There are rules for determining how credit losses are allocated. The result of the rules is that securities with both very high and
very low credit ratings are created from the portfolio. In a synthetic collateralized debt obligation, cash flows on tranches are defined from a reference portfolio of credit default swaps. The standard market model for pricing both a kth-to-default CDS and tranches
of a synthetic CDO is the one-factor Gaussian copula model for time to default.
FURTHER READING
Andersen, L. B. G., and J. Sidenius, āExtensions to the Gaussian Copula: Random Recovery and
Random Factor Loadings,ā Journal of Credit Risk, 1, No. 1 (Winter 2004): 29ā70.
Andersen, L. B. G., J. Sidenius, and S. Basu, āAll Your Hedges in One Basket,ā Risk, 16, 10
(November 2003): 67ā72.
Das, S., Credit Derivatives: Trading & Management of Credit & Default Risk, 3rd edn. New York:
Wiley, 2005.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āValuation of a CDO and nth to Default Swap without Monte Carlo
Simulation,ā Journal of Derivatives, 12, No. 2 (Winter 2004): 8ā23.
M25_HULL0654_11_GE_C25.indd 610 30/04/2021 17:42
Credit Derivatives 611
Practice Questions
25.1. Explain the difference between a regular credit default swap and a binary credit default
swap.
25.2. A 5-year credit default swap requires a quarterly payment at the rate of 60 basis points per year. The principal is $300 million and the credit default swap is settled in cash.
A default occurs after 4 years and 2 months, and the price of the cheapest deliverable bond is estimated as 40% of its face value shortly after the default. List the cash flows
and their timing for the seller of the credit default swap.
25.3. Explain the difference between a cash CDO and a synthetic CDO.
25.4. Explain the term āsingle-tranche trading.ā
Credit Derivatives and Valuation Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative and conceptual problems focused on the mechanics of credit default swaps (CDS) and collateralized debt obligations (CDO).
- Key distinctions are explored between binary and regular CDS, as well as the differences between cash and synthetic CDO structures.
- The problems address the impact of default correlation on the valuation of basket credit derivatives, such as first-to-default and nth-to-default swaps.
- Technical exercises require the calculation of hazard rates, recovery rates, and swap spreads using risk-neutral default probabilities.
- The text highlights the role of total return swaps as financing tools and examines the asymmetric information risks inherent in credit markets.
As the default correlation between the reference entities increases what would you expect to happen to the value of the swap when (a) n=1 and (b) n=25.
25.1. Explain the difference between a regular credit default swap and a binary credit default
swap.
25.2. A 5-year credit default swap requires a quarterly payment at the rate of 60 basis points per year. The principal is $300 million and the credit default swap is settled in cash.
A default occurs after 4 years and 2 months, and the price of the cheapest deliverable bond is estimated as 40% of its face value shortly after the default. List the cash flows
and their timing for the seller of the credit default swap.
25.3. Explain the difference between a cash CDO and a synthetic CDO.
25.4. Explain the term āsingle-tranche trading.ā
25.5. What is a first-to-default credit default swap? Does its value increase or decrease as the default correlation between the companies in the basket increases? Explain your answer.
25.6. Explain the difference between risk-neutral and real-world default probabilities. Which should be used for valuing CDSs?
25.7. Explain why a total return swap can be useful as a financing tool.
25.8. Suppose that the risk-free zero curve is flat at 7% per annum with continuous
compounding and that defaults can occur halfway through each year in a new 5-year credit default swap. Suppose that the recovery rate is 30% and the hazard rate is 3%.
Estimate the credit default swap spread. Assume payments are made annually.
25.9. What is the value of the swap in Problem 25.8 per dollar of notional principal to the protection buyer if the credit default swap spread is 150 basis points?
25.10. What is the credit default swap spread in Problem 25.8 if it is a binary CDS?
25.11. How does a 5-year nth-to-default credit default swap work? Consider a basket of 100
reference entities where each reference entity has a probability of defaulting in each year of 1%. As the default correlation between the reference entities increases what would you expect to happen to the value of the swap when (a)
n=1 and (b) n=25. Explain
your answer.
25.12. What is the formula relating the payoff on a CDS to the notional principal and the
recovery rate?
25.13. Show that the spread for a new plain vanilla CDS should be 11-R2 times the spread for
a similar new binary CDS, where R is the recovery rate.Hull, J. C., and A. White, āValuing Credit Derivatives Using an Implied Copula Approach,ā
Journal of Derivatives, 14, 2 (Winter 2006), 8ā28.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āAn Improved Implied Copula Model and its Application to the
Valuation of Bespoke CDO Tranches,ā Journal of Investment Management, 8, 3 (2010), 11ā31.
Laurent, J.-P., and J. Gregory, āBasket Default Swaps, CDOs and Factor Copulas,ā Journal of
Risk, 7, 4 (2005), 8ā23.
Li, D. X., āOn Default Correlation: A Copula Approach,ā Journal of Fixed Income, March 2000:
43ā54.
Schƶnbucher, P. J., Credit Derivatives Pricing Models. New York: Wiley, 2003.
Tavakoli, J. M., Credit Derivatives & Synthetic Structures: A Guide to Instruments and
Applications, 2nd edn. New York: Wiley, 2019.
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612 CHAPTER 25
25.14. Verify that, if the CDS spread for the example in Tables 25.1 to 25.4 is 100 basis points,
the hazard rate must be 1.63% per year. How does the hazard rate change when the
recovery rate is 20% instead of 40%? Verify that your answer is consistent with the implied hazard rate being approximately proportional to
1>11-R2, where R is the
recovery rate.
25.15. A company enters into a total return swap where it receives the return on a corporate
bond paying a coupon of 5% and pays a floating rate. Explain the difference between this and a regular swap where 5% is exchanged for a floating rate.
25.16. Explain how forward contracts and options on credit default swaps are structured.
25.17. āThe position of a buyer of a credit default swap is similar to the position of someone
who is long a risk-free bond and short a corporate bond.ā Explain this statement.
25.18. Why is there a potential asymmetric information problem in credit default swaps?
Credit Derivatives Problem Set
- The text presents a series of technical exercises focused on the valuation and mechanics of credit default swaps (CDS) and total return swaps.
- It explores the theoretical relationship between risk-free bonds, corporate bonds, and credit insurance to identify potential arbitrage opportunities.
- Several problems address the impact of correlation on synthetic CDO tranches using Gaussian copula models and hazard rate estimations.
- The exercises distinguish between plain vanilla and binary credit default swaps, requiring calculations of spreads based on recovery rates and default probabilities.
- Questions highlight the role of asymmetric information and the difference between risk-neutral and real-world default probabilities in market pricing.
āThe position of a buyer of a credit default swap is similar to the position of someone who is long a risk-free bond and short a corporate bond.ā
recovery rate.
25.15. A company enters into a total return swap where it receives the return on a corporate
bond paying a coupon of 5% and pays a floating rate. Explain the difference between this and a regular swap where 5% is exchanged for a floating rate.
25.16. Explain how forward contracts and options on credit default swaps are structured.
25.17. āThe position of a buyer of a credit default swap is similar to the position of someone
who is long a risk-free bond and short a corporate bond.ā Explain this statement.
25.18. Why is there a potential asymmetric information problem in credit default swaps?
25.19. Does valuing a CDS using real-world default probabilities rather than risk-neutral
default probabilities overstate or understate its value? Explain your answer.
25.20. What is the difference between a total return swap and an asset swap?
25.21. Suppose that in a one-factor Gaussian copula model the 5-year probability of default for
each of 125 names is 3% and the pairwise copula correlation is 0.2. Calculate, for factor values of
-2, -1, 0, 1, and 2: (a) the default probability conditional on the factor value
and (b) the probability of more than 10 defaults conditional on the factor value.
25.22. Explain the difference between base correlation and compound correlation.
25.23. In Example 25.2, what is the tranche spread for the 9% to 12% tranche assuming a
tranche correlation of 0.15?
25.24. Suppose that the risk-free zero curve is flat at 6% per annum with continuous
compounding and that defaults can occur at times 0.25 years, 0.75 years, 1.25 years,
and 1.75 years in a 2-year plain vanilla credit default swap with semiannual payments.
Suppose that the recovery rate is 20% and the unconditional probabilities of default (as
seen at time zero) are 1% at times 0.25 years and 0.75 years, and 1.5% at times 1.25
years and 1.75 years. What is the credit default swap spread? What would the credit default spread be if the instrument were a binary credit default swap?
25.25. Assume that the hazard rate for a company is
l and the recovery rate is R. The risk-free
interest rate is 5% per annum. Default always occurs halfway through a year. The spread
for a 5-year plain vanilla CDS where payments are made annually is 120 basis points and
the spread for a 5-year binary CDS where payments are made annually is 160 basis points. Estimate R and
l.
25.26. Explain how you would expect the returns offered on the various tranches in a synthetic
CDO to change when the correlation between the bonds in the portfolio increases.
25.27. Suppose that:
(a) The yield on a 5-year risk-free bond is 7%.
(b) The yield on a 5-year corporate bond issued by company X is 9.5%.
(c) A 5-year credit default swap providing insurance against company X defaulting
costs 150 basis points per year.
What arbitrage opportunity is there in this situation? What arbitrage opportunity would
there be if the credit default spread were 300 basis points instead of 150 basis points?
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Credit Derivatives 613
25.28. In Example 25.3, what is the spread for (a) a first-to-default CDS and (b) a second-to-
default CDS?
25.29. In Example 25.2, what is the tranche spread for the 6% to 9% tranche assuming a
tranche correlation of 0.15?
25.30. Table 25.6 shows the 5-year iTraxx index was 77 basis points on January 31, 2008.
Assume the risk-free rate is 5% for all maturities, the recovery rate is 40%, and
payments are quarterly. Assume also that the spread of 77 basis points applies to all
maturities. Use the DerivaGem CDS worksheet to calculate a hazard rate consistent with the spread. Use this in the CDO worksheet with 10 integration points to imply base correlations for each tranche from the quotes for January 31, 2008.
M25_HULL0654_11_GE_C25.indd 613 30/04/2021 17:42
614
Exotic Options
Introduction to Exotic Options
- Exotic options are nonstandard over-the-counter derivatives created by financial engineers to meet specific hedging, regulatory, or speculative needs.
- While they represent a small portion of a dealer's portfolio, exotics are significantly more profitable than standard 'plain vanilla' products.
- The text notes that exotic products are sometimes designed to appear more attractive than they actually are to unwary corporate treasurers or fund managers.
- Packages are portfolios of standard instruments, such as calls, puts, and forwards, which can be structured to have zero initial cost.
- Any derivative can be converted into a zero-cost product by deferring the payment of the premium until the maturity of the contract.
Occasionally an exotic product is designed by a derivatives dealer to appear more attractive than it is to an unwary corporate treasurer or fund manager.
25.28. In Example 25.3, what is the spread for (a) a first-to-default CDS and (b) a second-to-
default CDS?
25.29. In Example 25.2, what is the tranche spread for the 6% to 9% tranche assuming a
tranche correlation of 0.15?
25.30. Table 25.6 shows the 5-year iTraxx index was 77 basis points on January 31, 2008.
Assume the risk-free rate is 5% for all maturities, the recovery rate is 40%, and
payments are quarterly. Assume also that the spread of 77 basis points applies to all
maturities. Use the DerivaGem CDS worksheet to calculate a hazard rate consistent with the spread. Use this in the CDO worksheet with 10 integration points to imply base correlations for each tranche from the quotes for January 31, 2008.
M25_HULL0654_11_GE_C25.indd 613 30/04/2021 17:42
614
Exotic Options
Derivatives such as European and American call and put options are what are termed
plain vanilla products. They have standard well-defined properties and trade actively. Their prices or implied volatilities are quoted by exchanges or by interdealer brokers
on a regular basis. One of the exciting aspects of the over-the-counter derivatives
market is the number of nonstandard products that have been created by financial engineers. These products are termed exotic options, or simply exotics. Although they usually constitute a relatively small part of its portfolio, exotics are important to a derivatives dealer because they are generally much more profitable than plain vanilla products.
Exotic products are developed for a number of reasons. Sometimes they meet a
genuine hedging need in the market; sometimes there are tax, accounting, legal, or regulatory reasons why corporate treasurers, fund managers, and financial institutions find exotic products attractive; sometimes the products are designed to reflect a view on
potential future movements in particular market variables; occasionally an exotic
product is designed by a derivatives dealer to appear more attractive than it is to an unwary corporate treasurer or fund manager.
In this chapter, we describe some of the more commonly occurring exotic options
and discuss their valuation. We assume that the underlying asset provides a yield at rate
q. As discussed in Chapters 17 and 18, for an option on a stock index q should be set equal to the dividend yield on the index, for an option on a currency it should be set equal to the foreign risk-free rate, and for an option on a futures contract it should be set equal to the domestic risk-free rate. Many of the options discussed in this chapter can be valued using the DerivaGem software.26 CHAPTER
26.1 PACKAGES
A package is a portfolio consisting of standard European calls, standard European
puts, forward contracts, cash, and the underlying asset itself. We discussed a number of different types of packages in Chapter 12: bull spreads, bear spreads, butterfly spreads, calendar spreads, straddles, strangles, and so on.
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Exotic Options 615
Often a package is structured by traders so that it has zero cost initially. An example
is a range forward contract.1 This was discussed in Section 17.2. It consists of a long call
and a short put or a short call and a long put. The call strike price is greater than the
put strike price and the strike prices are chosen so that the value of the call equals the value of the put.
It is worth noting that any derivative can be converted into a zero-cost product by
deferring payment until maturity. Consider a European call option. If c is the cost of
the option when payment is made at time zero, then
A=cerT is the cost when payment
Zero-Cost Packages and Perpetual Options
- Traders often structure derivative packages, such as range forward contracts, to have zero initial cost by balancing long and short positions.
- Any standard derivative can be converted into a zero-cost product by deferring the payment of the premium until the contract's maturity date.
- Perpetual American options are valued using differential equations that account for dividend rates and optimal exercise boundaries.
- The optimal exercise price for a perpetual call or put is determined by maximizing the option's value relative to the underlying asset's price movement.
- Nonstandard American options, such as Bermudan options, introduce specific restrictions on when early exercise can occur during the contract's life.
The instrument is then known as a Bermudan option. (Bermuda is between Europe and America!)
Often a package is structured by traders so that it has zero cost initially. An example
is a range forward contract.1 This was discussed in Section 17.2. It consists of a long call
and a short put or a short call and a long put. The call strike price is greater than the
put strike price and the strike prices are chosen so that the value of the call equals the value of the put.
It is worth noting that any derivative can be converted into a zero-cost product by
deferring payment until maturity. Consider a European call option. If c is the cost of
the option when payment is made at time zero, then
A=cerT is the cost when payment
is made at time T, the maturity of the option. The payoff is then max1ST-K, 02-A or
max1ST-K-A, -A2. When the strike price, K , equals the forward price, other names
for a deferred payment option are break forward, Boston option, forward with optional exit, and cancelable forward.
1 Other names used for a range forward contract are zero-cost collar, flexible forward, cylinder option, option
fence, mināmax, and forward band.26.2 PERPETUAL AMERICAN CALL AND PUT OPTIONS
The differential equation that must be satisfied by the price of a derivative when there is
a dividend at rate q is equation (17.6):
0f
0t+1r-q2S0f
0S+1
2s2S2 02f
0S2=rf
Consider a derivative that pays off a fixed amount Q when S=H for the first time. If
S6H, the boundary conditions for the differential equation are that f=Q when
S=H and f=0 when S=0. The solution f=Q1S>H2a satisfies the boundary
conditions when a70. Furthermore, it satisfies the differential equation when
1r-q2a+1
2a1a-12s2=r
The positive solution to this equation is a=a1, where
a1=-w+2w2+2s2r
s2
and w=r-q-s2>2. It follows that the value of the derivative must be Q1S>H2a1
because this satisfies the boundary conditions and the differential equation.
Consider next a perpetual American call option with strike price K. If the option is
exercised when S=H, the payoff is H-K and from the result just proved the value of
the option is 1H-K21S>H2a1. The holder of the call option can choose the asset price,
H, at which the option is exercised. The optimal H is the one that maximizes the value we have just calculated. Using standard calculus methods, it is
H=H1, where
H1=K a1
a1-1
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616 CHAPTER 26
The price of a perpetual call if S6H1 is therefore
1H1-K2aS0
H1ba1
=K
a1-1aa1-1
a1 S
Kba1
If S7H1, the call should be exercised immediately and is worth S-K.
To value an American put, we consider a derivative that pays off Q when S=H in
the situation where S7H (so that the barrier H is reached from above). In this case,
the boundary conditions for the differential equation are that f=Q when S=H and
f=0 as S tends to infinity. In this case, the solution f=Q1S>H2-a satisfies the
boundary conditions when a70. As above, we can show that it also satisfies the
differential equation when a=a2, where
a2=w+2w2+2s2r
s2
If the holder of the American put chooses to exercise when S=H, the value of the put
is 1K-H21S>H2-a2. The holder of the put will choose the exercise level H=H2 to
maximize this. This is
H2=K a2
a2+1
The price of a perpetual put if S7H2 is therefore
1K-H22aS0
H2b-a2
=K
a2+1aa2+1
a2 S
Kb-a2
If S6H2, the put should be exercised immediately and is worth K-S.
Section 15.6 and Problem 15.21 give particular cases of the results here for q=0.
26.3 NONSTANDARD AMERICAN OPTIONS
In a standard American option, exercise can take place at any time during the life of the
option and the exercise price is always the same. The American options that are traded in the over-the-counter market sometimes have nonstandard features. For example:
1. Early exercise may be restricted to certain dates. The instrument is then known as a Bermudan option. (Bermuda is between Europe and America!)
2. Early exercise may be allowed during only part of the life of the option. For
Nonstandard and Gap Options
- Nonstandard American options, such as Bermudan options, introduce restrictions on exercise dates or allow for strike prices that change over time.
- Corporate warrants often utilize these nonstandard features, incorporating lockout periods and stepped strike prices over long durations.
- Gap options are European-style derivatives where the payoff trigger price differs from the strike price used to calculate the final payout.
- The valuation of gap options involves a modification of the Black-Scholes-Merton formula to account for the discrete jump in payoff at the strike threshold.
- Practical applications of gap options include insurance contracts where exercise costs or claim thresholds significantly alter the liability of the insurer.
The instrument is then known as a Bermudan option. (Bermuda is between Europe and America!)
26.3 NONSTANDARD AMERICAN OPTIONS
In a standard American option, exercise can take place at any time during the life of the
option and the exercise price is always the same. The American options that are traded in the over-the-counter market sometimes have nonstandard features. For example:
1. Early exercise may be restricted to certain dates. The instrument is then known as a Bermudan option. (Bermuda is between Europe and America!)
2. Early exercise may be allowed during only part of the life of the option. For
example, there may be an initial ālock outā period with no early exercise.
3. The strike price may change during the life of the option.
The warrants issued by corporations on their own stock often have some or all of these features. For example, in a 7-year warrant, exercise might be possible on particular dates
during years 3 to 7, with the strike price being $30 during years 3 and 4, $32 during the next 2 years, and $33 during the final year.
Nonstandard American options can usually be valued using a binomial tree. At each
node, the test (if any) for early exercise is adjusted to reflect the terms of the option.
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Exotic Options 617
26.4 GAP OPTIONS
A gap call option is a European call options that pays off ST-K1 when ST7K2. The
difference between a gap call option and a regular call option with a strike price of K2 is
that the payoff when ST7K2 is increased by K2-K1. (This increase is positive or
negative depending on whether K27K1 or K17K2.)
A gap call option can be valued by a small modification to the BlackāScholesā
Merton formula. With our usual notation, the value is
S0e-qT N1d12-K1e-rTN1d22 (26.1)
where
d1=ln1S0>K22+1r-q+s2>22T
s2T
d2=d1-s2T
The price in this formula is greater than the price given by the BlackāScholesāMerton
formula for a regular call option with strike price K2 by
1K2-K12e-rTN1d22
To understand this difference, note that the probability that the option will be exercised is
N1d22 and, when it is exercised, the payoff to the holder of the gap option is greater
than that to the holder of the regular option by K2-K1.
For a gap put option, the payoff is K1-ST when ST6K2. The value of the option is
K1e-rTN1-d22-S0e-qTN1-d12 (26.2)
where d1 and d2 are defined as for equation (26.1).
Example 26.1
An asset is currently worth $500,000. Over the next year, its price is expected to
have a volatility of 20%. The risk-free rate is 5%, and no income is expected.
Suppose that an insurance company agrees to buy the asset for $400,000 if its value has fallen below $400,000 at the end of one year. The payout will be
400,000-ST
whenever the value of the asset is less than $400,000. The insurance company has
provided a regular put option where the policyholder has the right to sell the asset
to the insurance company for $400,000 in one year. This can be valued using equation (15.21), with
S0=500,000, K=400,000, r=0.05, s=0.2, T=1. The
value is $3,436.
Suppose next that the cost of transferring the asset is $50,000 and this cost is
borne by the policyholder. The option is then exercised only if the value of the asset is less than $350,000. In this case, the cost to the insurance company is
K1-ST when ST6K2, where K2=350,000, K1=400,000, and ST is the price
of the asset in one year. This is a gap put option. The value is given by equa-tion ( 26.2), with
S0=500,000, K1=400,000, K2=350,000, r=0.05, q=0,
s=0.2, T=1. It is $1,896. Recognizing the costs to the policyholder of making
a claim reduces the cost of the policy to the insurance company by about 45% in this case.
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618 CHAPTER 26
Exotic Option Structures
- Gap put options can be used to model insurance policies where the cost of making a claim significantly reduces the insurer's liability.
- Forward start options are agreements that begin at a future date, often used to model employee stock options where at-the-money grants are promised.
- Cliquet options, also known as ratchet options, consist of a series of options where the strike price is reset based on the asset price at specific intervals.
- Compound options represent a complex derivative class where the underlying asset is itself another option, involving two distinct strike prices and exercise dates.
Recognizing the costs to the policyholder of making a claim reduces the cost of the policy to the insurance company by about 45% in this case.
value is $3,436.
Suppose next that the cost of transferring the asset is $50,000 and this cost is
borne by the policyholder. The option is then exercised only if the value of the asset is less than $350,000. In this case, the cost to the insurance company is
K1-ST when ST6K2, where K2=350,000, K1=400,000, and ST is the price
of the asset in one year. This is a gap put option. The value is given by equa-tion ( 26.2), with
S0=500,000, K1=400,000, K2=350,000, r=0.05, q=0,
s=0.2, T=1. It is $1,896. Recognizing the costs to the policyholder of making
a claim reduces the cost of the policy to the insurance company by about 45% in this case.
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618 CHAPTER 26
Forward start options are options that will start at some time in the future. Sometimes
employee stock options, which were discussed in Chapter 16, can be viewed as forward start options. This is because the company commits (implicitly or explicitly) to granting at-the-money options to employees in the future.
Consider a forward start at-the-money European call option that will start at time
T1
and mature at time T2. Suppose that the asset price is S0 at time zero and S1 at time T1.
To value the option, we note from the European option pricing formulas in Chapters 15
and 17 that the value of an at-the-money call option on an asset is proportional to the asset price. The value of the forward start option at time
T1 is therefore cS1>S0, where c
is the value at time zero of an at-the-money option that lasts for T2-T1. Using risk-
neutral valuation, the value of the forward start option at time zero is
e-rT1Encc S1
S0d
where En denotes the expected value in a risk-neutral world. Since c and S0 are known and
En3S14=S0e1r-q2T1, the value of the forward start option is ce-qT1. For a non-dividend-
paying stock, q=0 and the value of the forward start option is exactly the same as the
value of a regular at-the-money option with the same life as the forward start option.26.5 FORWARD START OPTIONS
26.6 CLIQUET OPTIONS
A cliquet option (which is also called a ratchet or strike reset option) is a series of call or put options with rules for determining the strike price. Suppose that the reset dates are
at times
t1, t2, c, tn-1 with tn being the end of the cliquetās life. A simple structure
would be as follows. The first option has a strike price K equal to the initial asset price and lasts between times 0 and
t1; the second option provides a payoff at time t2 with a
strike price equal to the value of the asset at time t1; the third option provides a payoff
at time t3 with a strike price equal to the value of the asset at time t2; and so on. This is
a regular option plus n-1 forward start options. The latter can be valued as described
in Section 26.5.
Some cliquet options are much more complicated than the one described here. For
example, sometimes there are upper and lower limits on the total payoff over the whole period; sometimes cliquets terminate at the end of a period if the asset price is in a certain range. When analytic results are not available, Monte Carlo simulation is often the best approach for valuation.
26.7 COMPOUND OPTIONS
Compound options are options on options. There are four main types of compound options: a call on a call, a put on a call, a call on a put, and a put on a put. Compound options have two strike prices and two exercise dates. Consider, for example, a call on a call. On the first exercise date,
T1, the holder of the compound option is entitled to pay
the first strike price, K1, and receive a call option. The call option gives the holder the
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right to buy the underlying asset for the second strike price, K2, on the second exercise
date, T2. The compound option will be exercised on the first exercise date only if the
value of the option on that date is greater than the first strike price.
Compound and Chooser Options
- Compound options are specialized financial derivatives that function as options on other options, featuring two distinct strike prices and two exercise dates.
- There are four primary configurations of compound options: a call on a call, a put on a call, a call on a put, and a put on a put.
- Valuation of these instruments typically requires the use of the cumulative bivariate normal distribution to account for the correlation between the two exercise periods.
- Chooser options, also known as 'as you like it' options, allow the holder to decide at a specific future date whether the contract becomes a call or a put.
- When the underlying call and put have the same strike price and maturity, a chooser option can be valued as a package of a standard call and a specific number of puts.
A chooser option (sometimes referred to as an as you like it option) has the feature that, after a specified period of time, the holder can choose whether the option is a call or a put.
Compound options are options on options. There are four main types of compound options: a call on a call, a put on a call, a call on a put, and a put on a put. Compound options have two strike prices and two exercise dates. Consider, for example, a call on a call. On the first exercise date,
T1, the holder of the compound option is entitled to pay
the first strike price, K1, and receive a call option. The call option gives the holder the
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Exotic Options 619
right to buy the underlying asset for the second strike price, K2, on the second exercise
date, T2. The compound option will be exercised on the first exercise date only if the
value of the option on that date is greater than the first strike price.
When the usual geometric Brownian motion assumption is made, European-style
compound options can be valued analytically in terms of integrals of the bivariate
normal distribution.2 With our usual notation, the value at time zero of a European call
option on a call option is
S0e-qT2M1a1, b1; 2T1>T22-K2e-rT2M1a2, b2; 2T1>T22-e-rT1K1N1a22
where
a1=ln1S0>S*2+1r-q+s2>22T1
s2T1, a2=a1-s2T1
b1=ln1S0>K22+1r-q+s2>22T2
s2T2, b2=b1-s2T2
The function M1a, b:r2 is the cumulative bivariate normal distribution function that the
first variable will be less than a and the second will be less than b when the coefficient
of correlation between the two is r.3 The variable S* is the asset price at time T1 for
which the option price at time T1 equals K1. If the actual asset price is above S* at time
T1, the first option will be exercised; if it is not above S*, the option expires worthless.
With similar notation, the value of a European put on a call is
K2e-rT2M1-a2, b2; -2T1>T22-S0e-qT2M1-a1, b1; -2T1>T22+e-rT1K1N1-a22
The value of a European call on a put is
K2e-rT2M1-a2, -b2; 2T1>T22-S0e-qT2 M1-a1, -b1; 2T1>T22 - e-rT1 K1 N1-a22
The value of a European put on a put is
S0e-qT2 M1a1, -b1; -2T1>T22-K2e-rT2 M1a2, -b2; -2T1>T22+e-rT1K1N1a22
3 See Technical Note 5 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a numerical procedure for
calculating M. A function for calculating M is also on the website.2 See R. Geske, āThe Valuation of Compound Options,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 7 (1979): 63ā81;
M. Rubinstein, āDouble Trouble,ā Risk, December 1991/January 1992: 53ā56.26.8 CHOOSER OPTIONS
A chooser option (sometimes referred to as an as you like it option) has the feature that,
after a specified period of time, the holder can choose whether the option is a call or a
put. Suppose that the time when the choice is made is T1. The value of the chooser
option at this time is
max1c, p2
where c is the value of the call underlying the option and p is the value of the put
underlying the option.
If the options underlying the chooser option are both European and have the same
strike price, putācall parity can be used to provide a valuation formula. Suppose that S1
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620 CHAPTER 26
is the asset price at time T1, K is the strike price, T2 is the maturity of the options, and r
is the risk-free interest rate. Putācall parity implies that
max1c, p2=max1c, c+Ke-r1T2-T12-S1e-q1T2-T122
=c+e-q1T2-T12 max10, Ke-1r-q21T2-T12-S12
This shows that the chooser option is a package consisting of:
1. A call option with strike price K and maturity T2
2. e-q1T2-T12 put options with strike price Ke-1r-q21T2-T12 and maturity T1
As such, it can readily be valued.
More complex chooser options can be defined where the call and the put do not have
the same strike price and time to maturity. They are then not packages and have
features that are somewhat similar to compound options.
26.9 BARRIER OPTIONS
Chooser and Barrier Options
- A chooser option allows the holder to decide whether the instrument becomes a call or a put after a specified period of time.
- Barrier options are path-dependent derivatives where the payoff is contingent on the underlying asset's price hitting a specific level.
- Knock-out options expire worthless if the asset price hits a barrier, while knock-in options only activate once the barrier is reached.
- These exotic instruments are often more affordable than standard options because the probability of the payoff is restricted by the barrier condition.
- The valuation of barrier options relies on the principle that the sum of a knock-in and a knock-out option equals the value of a regular option.
A knock-out option ceases to exist when the underlying asset price reaches a certain barrier; a knock-in option comes into existence only when the underlying asset price reaches a barrier.
=c+e-q1T2-T12 max10, Ke-1r-q21T2-T12-S12
This shows that the chooser option is a package consisting of:
1. A call option with strike price K and maturity T2
2. e-q1T2-T12 put options with strike price Ke-1r-q21T2-T12 and maturity T1
As such, it can readily be valued.
More complex chooser options can be defined where the call and the put do not have
the same strike price and time to maturity. They are then not packages and have
features that are somewhat similar to compound options.
26.9 BARRIER OPTIONS
Barrier options are options where the payoff depends on whether the underlying assetās
price reaches a certain level during a certain period of time.
A number of different types of barrier options regularly trade in the over-the-counter
market. They are attractive to some market participants because they are less expensive
than the corresponding regular options. These barrier options can be classified as either knock-out options or knock-in options. A knock-out option ceases to exist when the underlying asset price reaches a certain barrier; a knock-in option comes into existence only when the underlying asset price reaches a barrier.
Equations (17.4) and (17.5) show that the values at time zero of a regular call and put
option are
c=S0e-qTN1d12-Ke-rTN1d22
p=Ke-rTN1-d22-S0e-qTN1-d12
where
d1=ln1S0>K2+1r-q+s2>22T
s2T
d2=ln1S0>K2+1r-q-s2>22T
s2T=d1-s2T
A down-and-out call is one type of knock-out option. It is a regular call option that
ceases to exist if the asset price reaches a certain barrier level H. The barrier level is below the initial asset price. The corresponding knock-in option is a down-and-in call. This is a regular call that comes into existence only if the asset price reaches the barrier level.
If H is less than or equal to the strike price, K, the value of a down-and-in call at time
zero is
cdi=S0e-qT1H>S022lN1y2-Ke-rT1H>S022l-2N1y-s2T2
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Exotic Options 621
where
l=r-q+s2>2
s2
y=ln3H2>1S0K24
s2T+ls2T
Because the value of a regular call equals the value of a down-and-in call plus the value
of a down-and-out call, the value of a down-and-out call is given by
cdo=c-cdi
If HĆK, then
cdo=S0N1x12e-qT-Ke-rTN1x1-s2T2
- S0e-qT1H>S022lN1y12+Ke-rT1H>S022l-2N1y1-s2T2
and
cdi=c-cdo
where
x1=ln1S0>H2
s2T+ls2T, y1=ln1H>S02
s2T+ls2T
An up-and-out call is a regular call option that ceases to exist if the asset price reaches a
barrier level, H, that is higher than the current asset price. An up-and-in call is a regular call option that comes into existence only if the barrier is reached. When H is less than or equal to K, the value of the up-and-out call,
cuo, is zero and the value of the up-and-
in call, cui, is c. When H is greater than K,
cui=S0N1x12e-qT-Ke-rTN1x1-s2T2-S0e-qT1H>S022l3N1-y2-N1-y124
+Ke-rT1H>S022l-23N1-y+s2T2-N1-y1+s2T24
and
cuo=c-cui
Put barrier options are defined similarly to call barrier options. An up-and-out put is a
put option that ceases to exist when a barrier, H , that is greater than the current asset
price is reached. An up-and-in put is a put that comes into existence only if the barrier
is reached. When the barrier, H, is greater than or equal to the strike price, K, their
prices are
pui=-S0e-qT1H>S022lN1-y2+Ke-rT1H>S022l-2N1-y+s2T2
and
puo=p-pui
When H is less than or equal to K,
puo=-S0N1-x12e-qT+Ke-rT N1-x1+s2T2
+S0e-qT1H>S022lN1-y12-Ke-rT1H>S022l-2 N1-y1+s2T2
and
pui=p-puo
A down-and-out put is a put option that ceases to exist when a barrier less than the
current asset price is reached. A down-and-in put is a put option that comes into
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622 CHAPTER 26
existence only when the barrier is reached. When the barrier is greater than the strike
price, pdo=0 and pdi=p. When the barrier is less than the strike price,
pdi=-S0N1-x12e-qT+Ke-rTN1-x1+s2T2+S0e-qT1H>S022l3N1y2-N1y124
- Ke-rT1H>S022l-2 3N1y-s2T2-N1y1-s2T24
and
pdo=p-pdi
Barrier and Binary Options
- Barrier options are path-dependent derivatives that either come into existence or cease to exist when an asset price hits a specific threshold.
- Standard valuation formulas assume continuous monitoring, but discrete observation adjustments are necessary for contracts checked only periodically.
- Unlike regular options, barrier options can exhibit negative vega, where an increase in volatility actually reduces the option's value by increasing the risk of it being knocked out.
- Parisian options offer a variation where the asset price must remain beyond a barrier for a sustained period rather than just a momentary spike.
- Binary or digital options provide discontinuous payoffs, such as a fixed cash amount, based solely on whether the asset price finishes above or below the strike.
As a result, a volatility increase can cause the price of the barrier option to decrease in these circumstances.
A down-and-out put is a put option that ceases to exist when a barrier less than the
current asset price is reached. A down-and-in put is a put option that comes into
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622 CHAPTER 26
existence only when the barrier is reached. When the barrier is greater than the strike
price, pdo=0 and pdi=p. When the barrier is less than the strike price,
pdi=-S0N1-x12e-qT+Ke-rTN1-x1+s2T2+S0e-qT1H>S022l3N1y2-N1y124
- Ke-rT1H>S022l-2 3N1y-s2T2-N1y1-s2T24
and
pdo=p-pdi
All of these valuations make the usual assumption that the probability distribution for the asset price at a future time is lognormal. An important issue for barrier options is the
frequency with which the asset price, S, is observed for purposes of determining whether the barrier has been reached. The analytic formulas given in this section assume that S is
observed continuously and sometimes this is the case.
4 Often, the terms of a contract
state that S is observed periodically; for example, once a day at 3 p.m. Broadie, Glasser-man, and Kou provide a way of adjusting the formulas we have just given for the
situation where the price of the underlying is observed discretely.
5 The barrier level H is
replaced by He0.5826s2T>m for an up-and-in or up-and-out option and by He-0.5826s2T>m
for a down-and-in or down-and-out option, where m is the number of times the asset price is observed (so that
T>m is the time interval between observations).
Barrier options often have quite different properties from regular options. For
example, sometimes vega is negative. Consider an up-and-out call option when the asset price is close to the barrier level. As volatility increases, the probability that the barrier will be hit increases. As a result, a volatility increase can cause the price of the barrier option to decrease in these circumstances.
One disadvantage of the barrier options we have considered so far is that a āspikeā in
the asset price can cause the option to be knocked in or out. An alternative structure is
a Parisian option, where the asset price has to be above or below the barrier for a period
of time for the option to be knocked in or out. For example, a down-and-out Parisian put option with a strike price equal to 90% of the initial asset price and a barrier at 75% of the initial asset price might specify that the option is knocked out if the asset price is below the barrier for 50 days. The confirmation might specify that the 50 days are a ācontinuous period of 50 daysā or āany 50 days during the optionās life.ā Parisian options are more difficult to value than regular barrier options.
6 Monte Carlo simula-
tion and binomial trees can be used with the enhancements discussed in Sections 27.5
and 27.6.
4 One way to track whether a barrier has been reached from below (above) is to send a limit order to the
exchange to sell (buy) the asset at the barrier price and see whether the order is filled.
5 M. Broadie, P. Glasserman, and S. G. Kou, āA Continuity Correction for Discrete Barrier Options,ā
Mathematical Finance 7, 4 (October 1997): 325ā49.
6 See, for example, M. Chesney, J. Cornwall, M. Jeanblanc-PicquĆ©, G. Kentwell, and M. Yor, āParisian
pricing,ā Risk, 10, 1 (1997), 77ā79.26.10 BINARY OPTIONS
Binary or digital options are options with discontinuous payoffs. A simple example of a
binary option is a cash-or-nothing call. This pays off nothing if the asset price ends up
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Exotic Options 623
below the strike price at time T and pays a fixed amount, Q, if it ends up above the
strike price. In a risk-neutral world, the probability of the asset price being above the
strike price at the maturity of an option is, with our usual notation, N1d22. The value of
a cash-or-nothing call is therefore Qe-rTN1d22. A cash-or-nothing put is defined
Binary and Lookback Options
- Binary or digital options are characterized by discontinuous payoffs, such as cash-or-nothing or asset-or-nothing structures.
- The valuation of binary options relies on risk-neutral probabilities and the cumulative normal distribution function.
- Discontinuous payoffs in thinly traded markets can incentivize price manipulation to trigger or avoid specific strike thresholds.
- Lookback options provide payoffs based on the maximum or minimum asset prices achieved throughout the entire life of the contract.
- Standard European options can be mathematically decomposed into combinations of long and short binary option positions.
If the final asset price is $19.99, there is no payoff; if it is $20 or more, the payoff is $1 million.
Binary or digital options are options with discontinuous payoffs. A simple example of a
binary option is a cash-or-nothing call. This pays off nothing if the asset price ends up
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Exotic Options 623
below the strike price at time T and pays a fixed amount, Q, if it ends up above the
strike price. In a risk-neutral world, the probability of the asset price being above the
strike price at the maturity of an option is, with our usual notation, N1d22. The value of
a cash-or-nothing call is therefore Qe-rTN1d22. A cash-or-nothing put is defined
analogously to a cash-or-nothing call. It pays off Q if the asset price is below the strike price and nothing if it is above the strike price. The value of a cash-or-nothing
put is
Qe-rTN1-d22.
Another type of binary option is an asset-or-nothing call. This pays off nothing if the
underlying asset price ends up below the strike price and pays the asset price if it ends up above the strike price. With our usual notation, the value of an asset-or-nothing call is
S0e-qTN1d12. An asset-or-nothing put pays off nothing if the underlying asset price
ends up above the strike price and the asset price if it ends up below the strike price. The
value of an asset-or-nothing put is S0e-qTN1-d12.
Binary options have discontinuous payoffs. This can create problems if the under-
lying asset is thinly traded so that relatively small buy or sell trades move the price.
Consider a cash-or-nothing call with a strike price of $20 and a payoff of $1 million. If
the final asset price is $19.99, there is no payoff; if it is $20 or more, the payoff is
$1 million. If there is one day left in the life of the option and the price a little below $20, it would be tempting for the holder of the cash-or-nothing call to place buy orders for the underlying asset to tip the price over $20. A similar issue can arise with barrier
options on thinly traded assets. If the price of the underlying asset is close to the
barrier, one side is likely to be tempted to place buy or sell orders to ensure that the barrier is reached.
A regular European call option is equivalent to a long position in an asset-or-nothing
call and a short position in a cash-or-nothing call where the cash payoff in the cash-or- nothing call equals the strike price. Similarly, a regular European put option is equivalent to a long position in a cash-or-nothing put and a short position in an
asset-or-nothing put where the cash payoff on the cash-or-nothing put equals the strike price.
7 See B. Goldman, H. Sosin, and M. A. Gatto, āPath-Dependent Options: Buy at the Low, Sell at the High,ā
Journal of Finance, 34 (December 1979): 1111ā27.; M. Garman, āRecollection in Tranquility,ā Risk, March
(1989): 16ā19.26.11 LOOKBACK OPTIONS
The payoffs from lookback options depend on the maximum or minimum asset price reached during the life of the option. The payoff from a floating lookback call is the amount that the final asset price exceeds the minimum asset price achieved during the
life of the option. The payoff from a floating lookback put is the amount by which the maximum asset price achieved during the life of the option exceeds the final asset
price.
Valuation formulas have been produced for floating lookbacks.
7 The value of a
floating lookback call at time zero is
cfl=S0e-qTN1a12-S0e-qT s2
21r-q2 N1-a12-Smine-rT cN1a22-s2
21r-q2 eY1N1-a32d
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 623 12/05/2021 18:19
624 CHAPTER 26
where
a1=ln1S0>Smin2+1r-q+s2>22T
s2T
a2=a1-s2T,
a3=ln1S0>Smin2+1-r+q+s2>22T
s2T
Y1=-21r-q-s2>22 ln1S0>S min 2
s2
and Smin is the minimum asset price achieved to date. (If the lookback has just been
originated, Smin=S0.) See Problem 26.23 for the r=q case.
The value of a floating lookback put is
pfl=Smaxe-rT cN1b12-s2
21r-q2 eY2N1-b32d+S0e-qT s2
21r-q2 N1-b22-S0e-qTN1b22
where
b1=ln1S max >S02+1-r+q+s2>22T
s2T
b2=b1-s2T
b3=ln1S max >S02+1r-q-s2>22T
s2T
Pricing Lookback Options
- Floating lookback options allow holders to buy at the lowest price or sell at the highest price achieved during the option's life.
- Fixed lookback options replace the final asset price in a standard European payoff with the maximum or minimum price reached during the term.
- The valuation of fixed lookbacks can be derived from floating lookback formulas using a put-call parity type of argument.
- While lookback options are highly attractive to investors for their path-dependent payoffs, they are significantly more expensive than standard options.
- The mathematical models assume continuous observation of asset prices, though discrete observation adjustments are necessary for real-world application.
Lookbacks are appealing to investors, but very expensive when compared with regular options.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 623 12/05/2021 18:19
624 CHAPTER 26
where
a1=ln1S0>Smin2+1r-q+s2>22T
s2T
a2=a1-s2T,
a3=ln1S0>Smin2+1-r+q+s2>22T
s2T
Y1=-21r-q-s2>22 ln1S0>S min 2
s2
and Smin is the minimum asset price achieved to date. (If the lookback has just been
originated, Smin=S0.) See Problem 26.23 for the r=q case.
The value of a floating lookback put is
pfl=Smaxe-rT cN1b12-s2
21r-q2 eY2N1-b32d+S0e-qT s2
21r-q2 N1-b22-S0e-qTN1b22
where
b1=ln1S max >S02+1-r+q+s2>22T
s2T
b2=b1-s2T
b3=ln1S max >S02+1r-q-s2>22T
s2T
Y2=21r-q-s2>22ln1Smax>S02
s2
and Smax is the maximum asset price achieved to date. (If the lookback has just been
originated, then Smax=S0.)
A floating lookback call is a way that the holder can buy the underlying asset at the
lowest price achieved during the life of the option. Similarly, a floating lookback put is a
way that the holder can sell the underlying asset at the highest price achieved during the
life of the option.
Example 26.2
Consider a newly issued floating lookback put on a non-dividend-paying stock
where the stock price is 50, the stock price volatility is 40% per annum, the risk-free rate is 10% per annum, and the time to maturity is 3 months. In this case,
Smax=50, S0=50, r=0.1, q=0, s=0.4, and T=0.25, b1=-0.025,
b2=-0.225, b3=0.025, and Y2=0, so that the value of the lookback put
is 7.79. A newly issued floating lookback call on the same stock is worth 8.04.
In a fixed lookback option, a strike price is specified. For a fixed lookback call option, the payoff is the same as a regular European call option except that the final asset price is replaced by the maximum asset price achieved during the life of the option. For a fixed lookback put option, the payoff is the same as a regular European put option except that the the final asset price is replaced by the minimum asset price achieved during the life of the option. Define
S*
max=max1Smax, K2, where as before Smax is the
maximum asset price achieved to date and K is the strike price. Also, define p*
fl as the
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 624 12/05/2021 18:19
Exotic Options 625
value of a floating lookback put which lasts for the same period as the fixed lookback
call when the actual maximum asset price so far, Smax, is replaced by S*
max. A putācall
parity type of argument shows that the value of the fixed lookback call option, cfix is
given by8
cfix=p*
fl+S0e-qT-Ke-rT
Similarly, if S*
min=min1Smin, K2, then the value of a fixed lookback put option, pfix, is
given by
pfix=c*
fl+Ke-rT-S0e-qT
where c*
fl is the value of a floating lookback call that lasts for the same period as the
fixed lookback put when the actual minimum asset price so far, Smin, is replaced by
S*
min. This shows that the equations given above for floating lookbacks can be modified
to price fixed lookbacks.
Lookbacks are appealing to investors, but very expensive when compared with
regular options. As with barrier options, the value of a lookback option is liable to
be sensitive to the frequency with which the asset price is observed for the purposes of computing the maximum or minimum. The formulas above assume that the asset price is observed continuously. Broadie, Glasserman, and Kou provide a way of adjusting the
formulas we have just given for the situation where the asset price is observed
discretely.
9
8 The argument was proposed by H. Y. Wong and Y. K. Kwok, āSub-replication and Replenishing Premium:
Efficient Pricing of Multi-state Lookbacks,ā Review of Derivatives Research, 6 (2003), 83ā106.
9 M. Broadie, P. Glasserman, and S. G. Kou, āConnecting Discrete and Continuous Path-Dependent
Options,ā Finance and Stochastics, 2 (1998): 1ā28.26.12 SHOUT OPTIONS
Exotic Options and Payoff Structures
- Lookback options are highly sensitive to the frequency of asset price observation, requiring adjustments when moving from continuous to discrete monitoring.
- Shout options allow holders to lock in an intrinsic value at a chosen time while retaining the potential for higher gains if the asset price continues to move favorably.
- Valuing a shout option involves comparing the payoff of shouting at a specific node in a binomial tree against the value of waiting, similar to American option pricing.
- Asian options utilize the arithmetic average of an asset's price for their payoff, making them cheaper than standard options and ideal for hedging continuous cash flows.
- Corporate treasurers often prefer average price options because they align more closely with the reality of receiving international revenues spread over a period of time.
At the end of the life of the option, the option holder receives either the usual payoff from a European option or the intrinsic value at the time of the shout, whichever is greater.
regular options. As with barrier options, the value of a lookback option is liable to
be sensitive to the frequency with which the asset price is observed for the purposes of computing the maximum or minimum. The formulas above assume that the asset price is observed continuously. Broadie, Glasserman, and Kou provide a way of adjusting the
formulas we have just given for the situation where the asset price is observed
discretely.
9
8 The argument was proposed by H. Y. Wong and Y. K. Kwok, āSub-replication and Replenishing Premium:
Efficient Pricing of Multi-state Lookbacks,ā Review of Derivatives Research, 6 (2003), 83ā106.
9 M. Broadie, P. Glasserman, and S. G. Kou, āConnecting Discrete and Continuous Path-Dependent
Options,ā Finance and Stochastics, 2 (1998): 1ā28.26.12 SHOUT OPTIONS
A shout option is a European option where the holder can āshoutā to the writer at one
time during its life. At the end of the life of the option, the option holder receives either the usual payoff from a European option or the intrinsic value at the time of the shout, whichever is greater. Suppose the strike price is $50 and the holder of a call shouts when
the price of the underlying asset is $60. If the final asset price is less than $60, the holder receives a payoff of $10. If it is greater than $60, the holder receives the excess of the asset price over $50.
A shout option has some of the same features as a lookback option, but is
considerably less expensive. It can be valued by noting that if the holder shouts at a time t when the asset price is
St the payoff from the option is
max10, ST-St2+1St-K2
where, as usual, K is the strike price and ST is the asset price at time T. The value at
time t if the holder shouts is therefore the present value of St-K (received at time T )
plus the value of a European option with strike price St. The latter can be calculated
using BlackāScholesāMerton formulas.
A shout option is valued by constructing a binomial or trinomial tree for the under-
lying asset in the usual way. Working back through the tree, the value of the option if the
holder shouts and the value if the holder does not shout can be calculated at each node.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 625 12/05/2021 18:19
626 CHAPTER 26
The optionās price at the node is the greater of the two. The procedure for valuing a shout
option is therefore similar to the procedure for valuing a regular American option.
10 When the asset price follows geometric Brownian motion, the geometric average of the price is exactly
lognormal and the arithmetic average is approximately lognormal.
11 See S. M. Turnbull and L. M. Wakeman, āA Quick Algorithm for Pricing European Average Options,ā
Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 26 (September 1991): 377ā89.26.13 ASIAN OPTIONS
Asian options are options where the payoff depends on the arithmetic average of the
price of the underlying asset during the life of the option. The payoff from an average price call is
max10, Save-K2 and that from an average price put is max10, K-Save2,
where Save is the average price of the underlying asset. Average price options tend to be
less expensive than regular options and are arguably more appropriate than regular options for meeting some of the needs of corporate treasurers. Suppose that a U.S.
corporate treasurer expects to receive a cash flow of 100 million Australian dollars spread evenly over the next year from the companyās Australian subsidiary. The
treasurer is likely to be interested in an option that guarantees that the average exchange rate realized during the year is above some level. An average price put option can achieve this more effectively than regular put options.
Average price options can be valued using similar formulas to those used for regular
options if it is assumed that
Save is lognomal. As it happens, when the usual assumption
Valuing Average Price Options
- Average price options, also known as Asian options, are generally less expensive than regular options and are highly effective for corporate treasurers managing continuous cash flows.
- These options can be valued by assuming the average price follows a lognormal distribution and fitting it to the first two moments of the asset's price.
- The mathematical valuation involves calculating the first and second moments (M1 and M2) to determine the adjusted forward price and volatility for use in Black's model.
- When an option is not newly issued, the strike price must be adjusted to account for the asset prices that have already been observed during the averaging period.
- If the adjusted strike price becomes negative due to historical price observations, the option is treated as a forward contract because exercise becomes certain.
An average price put option can achieve this more effectively than regular put options.
where Save is the average price of the underlying asset. Average price options tend to be
less expensive than regular options and are arguably more appropriate than regular options for meeting some of the needs of corporate treasurers. Suppose that a U.S.
corporate treasurer expects to receive a cash flow of 100 million Australian dollars spread evenly over the next year from the companyās Australian subsidiary. The
treasurer is likely to be interested in an option that guarantees that the average exchange rate realized during the year is above some level. An average price put option can achieve this more effectively than regular put options.
Average price options can be valued using similar formulas to those used for regular
options if it is assumed that
Save is lognomal. As it happens, when the usual assumption
is made for the process followed by the asset price, this is a reasonable assumption.10
A popular approach is to fit a lognormal distribution to the first two moments of Save
and use Blackās model.11 Suppose that M1 and M2 are the first two moments of Save.
The value of average price calls and puts are given by equations (18.7) and (18.8), with
F0=M1 (26.3)
and
s2=1
T ln aM2
M2
1b (26.4)
When the average is calculated continuously, and r, q, and s are constant (as in
DerivaGem):
M1=e1r-q2T-1
1r-q2T S0
and
M2=2e321r-q2+s24T S2
0
1r-q+s2212r-2q+s22T2+2S2
0
1r-q2T2 a1
21r-q2+s2-e1r-q2T
r-q+s2b
More generally, when the average is calculated from observations at times Ti11ā¦iā¦m2,
M1=1
mam
i=1Fi and M2=1
m2 aam
i=1F2
ies2
iTi+2am
j=1aj-1
i=1FiFj es2
iTib
where Fi and si are the forward price and implied volatility for maturity Ti. See Technical
Note 27 on www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a proof of this.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 626 12/05/2021 18:19
Exotic Options 627
Example 26.3
Consider a newly issued average price call option on a non-dividend-paying stock
where the stock price is 50, the strike price is 50, the stock price volatility is 40% per annum, the risk-free rate is 10% per annum, and the time to maturity is 1 year. In this case,
S0=50, K=50, r=0.1, q=0, s=0.4, and T=1. If the average is
calculated continuously, M1=52.59 and M2=2,922.76. From equations (26.3)
and (26.4), F0=52.59 and s=23.54%. Equation (18.7), with K=50, T=1, and
r=0.1, gives the value of the option as 5.62. When 12, 52, and 250 observations
are used for the average, the price is 6.00, 5.70, and 5.63, respectively.
We can modify the analysis to accommodate the situation where the option is not newly issued and some prices used to determine the average have already been observed. Suppose that the averaging period is composed of a period of length
t1 over which
prices have already been observed and a future period of length t2 (the remaining life of
the option). Suppose that the average asset price during the first time period is S. The
payoff from an average price call is
maxaSt1+Savet2
t1+t2-K, 0b
where Save is the average asset price during the remaining part of the averaging period.
This is the same as
t2
t1+t2 max1Save-K*, 02
where
K*=t1+t2
t2 K-t1
t2 S
When K*70, the option can be valued in the same way as a newly issued Asian option
provided that we change the strike price from K to K* and multiply the result by
t2>1t1+t22. When K*60 the option is certain to be exercised and can be valued as a
forward contract. The value is
t2
t1+t2 3M1e-rt2-K*e-rt24
Asian and Exchange Options
- The text explains how to value seasoned Asian options by adjusting the strike price and treating them as newly issued options or forward contracts.
- Average strike options are described as tools to guarantee that the average price paid or received for an asset remains within a specific threshold relative to the final price.
- Exchange options allow for the trade of one asset for another and are valued using Margrabeās formula, which accounts for the volatilities of both assets and their correlation.
- A notable characteristic of exchange option valuation is its independence from the risk-free interest rate, as changes in the rate are offset by corresponding changes in asset growth and discounting.
- The text demonstrates that options to select the better or worse of two assets can be mathematically decomposed into a base asset position plus an exchange option.
It is interesting to note that equation (26.5) is independent of the risk-free rate r.
payoff from an average price call is
maxaSt1+Savet2
t1+t2-K, 0b
where Save is the average asset price during the remaining part of the averaging period.
This is the same as
t2
t1+t2 max1Save-K*, 02
where
K*=t1+t2
t2 K-t1
t2 S
When K*70, the option can be valued in the same way as a newly issued Asian option
provided that we change the strike price from K to K* and multiply the result by
t2>1t1+t22. When K*60 the option is certain to be exercised and can be valued as a
forward contract. The value is
t2
t1+t2 3M1e-rt2-K*e-rt24
Another type of Asian option is an average strike option. An average strike call pays off
max10, ST-Save2 and an average strike put pays off max10, Save-ST2. Average strike
options can guarantee that the average price paid for an asset in frequent trading over a
period of time is not greater than the final price. Alternatively, it can guarantee that the average price received for an asset in frequent trading over a period of time is not less
than the final price. It can be valued as an option to exchange one asset for another when
Save is assumed to be lognormal.
26.14 OPTIONS TO EXCHANGE ONE ASSET FOR ANOTHER
Options to exchange one asset for another (sometimes referred to as exchange options) arise in various contexts. An option to buy yen with Australian dollars is, from the
point of view of a U.S. investor, an option to exchange one foreign currency asset for
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 627 12/05/2021 18:19
628 CHAPTER 26
another foreign currency asset. A stock tender offer is an option to exchange shares in
one stock for shares in another stock.
Consider a European option to give up an asset worth UT at time T and receive in
return an asset worth VT. The payoff from the option is
max1VT-UT, 02
A formula for valuing this option was first produced by Margrabe.12 Suppose that the
asset prices, U and V, both follow geometric Brownian motion with volatilities sU and
sV. Suppose further that the instantaneous correlation between U and V is r, and the
yields provided by U and V are qU and qV, respectively. The value of the option at time
zero is
V0e-qvTN1d12-U0e-qUTN1d22 (26.5)
where
d1=ln1V0>U02+1qU-qV+sn2>22T
sn2T, d2=d1-sn2T
and
sn=2s2
U+s2
V-2rsUsV
and U0 and V0 are the values of U and V at times zero.
This result will be proved in Chapter 28. It is interesting to note that equation (26.5)
is independent of the risk-free rate r. This is because, as r increases, the growth rate of
both asset prices in a risk-neutral world increases, but this is exactly offset by an
increase in the discount rate. The variable sn is the volatility of V>U. Comparisons with
equation (17.4) show that the option price is the same as the price of U0 European call
options on an asset worth V>U when the strike price is 1.0, the risk-free interest rate is
qU, and the dividend yield on the asset is qV. Mark Rubinstein shows that the American
version of this option can be characterized similarly for valuation purposes.13 It can be
regarded as U0 American options to buy an asset worth V>U for 1.0 when the risk-free
interest rate is qU and the dividend yield on the asset is qV. The option can therefore be
valued as described in Chapter 21 using a binomial tree.
An option to obtain the better or worse of two assets can be regarded as a position in
one of the assets combined with an option to exchange it for the other asset:
min1UT, VT2=VT-max1VT-UT, 02
max1UT, VT2=UT+max1VT-UT, 02
Exotic Options and Volatility Swaps
- The valuation of options to exchange one asset for another is independent of the risk-free rate because changes in growth rates are offset by the discount rate.
- Rainbow options involve multiple risky assets, such as bond futures where the short position chooses from various deliverable bonds.
- European basket options, which depend on a portfolio of assets, can be valued efficiently by calculating the first two moments of the basket and assuming a lognormal distribution.
- Volatility and variance swaps allow investors to trade realized volatility directly, providing a simpler exposure than standard options which involve complex price-volatility interactions.
This is because, as r increases, the growth rate of both asset prices in a risk-neutral world increases, but this is exactly offset by an increase in the discount rate.
and U0 and V0 are the values of U and V at times zero.
This result will be proved in Chapter 28. It is interesting to note that equation (26.5)
is independent of the risk-free rate r. This is because, as r increases, the growth rate of
both asset prices in a risk-neutral world increases, but this is exactly offset by an
increase in the discount rate. The variable sn is the volatility of V>U. Comparisons with
equation (17.4) show that the option price is the same as the price of U0 European call
options on an asset worth V>U when the strike price is 1.0, the risk-free interest rate is
qU, and the dividend yield on the asset is qV. Mark Rubinstein shows that the American
version of this option can be characterized similarly for valuation purposes.13 It can be
regarded as U0 American options to buy an asset worth V>U for 1.0 when the risk-free
interest rate is qU and the dividend yield on the asset is qV. The option can therefore be
valued as described in Chapter 21 using a binomial tree.
An option to obtain the better or worse of two assets can be regarded as a position in
one of the assets combined with an option to exchange it for the other asset:
min1UT, VT2=VT-max1VT-UT, 02
max1UT, VT2=UT+max1VT-UT, 02
12 See W. Margrabe, āThe Value of an Option to Exchange One Asset for Another,ā Journal of Finance, 33
(March 1978): 177ā86.
13 See M. Rubinstein, āOne for Another,ā Risk, July/August 1991: 30ā3226.15 OPTIONS INVOLVING SEVERAL ASSETS
Options involving two or more risky assets are sometimes referred to as rainbow options.
One example is the bond futures contract traded on the CBOT described in Chapter 6.
The party with the short position is allowed to choose between a large number of
different bonds when making delivery.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 628 12/05/2021 18:19
Exotic Options 629
Probably the most popular option involving several assets is a European basket
option. This is an option where the payoff is dependent on the value of a portfolio
(or basket) of assets. The assets are usually either individual stocks or stock indices or
currencies. A European basket option can be valued with Monte Carlo simulation, by assuming that the assets follow correlated geometric Brownian motion processes. A much faster approach is to calculate the first two moments of the basket at the maturity
of the option in a risk-neutral world, and then assume that value of the basket is
lognormally distributed at that time. The option can then be valued using Blackās
model with the parameters shown in equations (26.3) and (26.4). In this case,
M
1=an
i=1Fi and M2=an
i=1an
j=1FiFjerijsisjT
where n is the number of assets, T is the option maturity, Fi and si are the forward price
and volatility of the ith asset, and rij is the correlation between the ith and jth asset.
See Technical Note 28 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
26.16 VOLATILITY AND VARIANCE SWAPS
A volatility swap is an agreement to exchange the realized volatility of an asset between time 0 and time T for a prespecifed fixed volatility. The realized volatility is usually
calculated as described in Section 15.4 but with the assumption that the mean daily return is zero. Suppose that there are n daily observations on the asset price during the period between time 0 and time T. The realized volatility is
s=A252
n-2an-1
i=1c ln aSi+1
Sibd2
where Si is the ith observation on the asset price. (Sometimes n-1 might replace n-2
in this formula.)
The payoff from the volatility swap at time T to the payer of the fixed volatility is
Lvol1s-sK2, where Lvol is the notional principal and sK is the fixed volatility. Whereas
an option provides a complex exposure to the asset price and volatility, a volatility swap is simpler in that it has exposure only to volatility.
A variance swap is an agreement to exchange the realized variance rate
V between
Volatility and Variance Swaps
- Volatility swaps provide a direct exposure to asset price fluctuations without the complex Greeks associated with standard options.
- Variance swaps are agreements to exchange realized variance for a fixed rate and are generally easier to value than volatility swaps.
- The expected average variance of an asset can be replicated and valued using a specific portfolio of European put and call options.
- Practical implementation of variance swap valuation involves approximating integrals using a range of known option strike prices.
- The payoff of these swaps is determined by the difference between realized and fixed rates applied to a notional principal.
Whereas an option provides a complex exposure to the asset price and volatility, a volatility swap is simpler in that it has exposure only to volatility.
where Si is the ith observation on the asset price. (Sometimes n-1 might replace n-2
in this formula.)
The payoff from the volatility swap at time T to the payer of the fixed volatility is
Lvol1s-sK2, where Lvol is the notional principal and sK is the fixed volatility. Whereas
an option provides a complex exposure to the asset price and volatility, a volatility swap is simpler in that it has exposure only to volatility.
A variance swap is an agreement to exchange the realized variance rate
V between
time 0 and time T for a prespecified variance rate. The variance rate is the square of
the volatility 1V=s22. Variance swaps are easier to value than volatility swaps. This is
because the variance rate between time 0 and time T can be replicated using a
portfolio of put and call options. The payoff from a variance swap at time T to
the payer of the fixed variance rate is Lvar1V-VK2, where Lvar is the notional
principal and VK is the fixed variance rate. Often the notional principal for a variance
swap is expressed in terms of the corresponding notional principal for a volatility swap using
Lvar=Lvol>12sK2.
Valuation of Variance Swap
Technical Note 22 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes shows that, for any value
S* of the asset price, the expected average variance between times 0
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 629 12/05/2021 18:19
630 CHAPTER 26
and T is
En1V2=2
T ln F0
S*-2
T cF0
S*-1d+2
T c3S*
K=0 1
K2 erTp1K2 dK+3ā
K=S*1
K2 erTc1K2 dKd (26.6)
where F0 is the forward price of the asset for a contract maturing at time T, c(K) is
the price of a European call option with strike price K and time to maturity T, and
p(K) is the price of a European put option with strike price K and time to
maturity T.
This provides a way of valuing a variance swap.14 The value of an agreement to
receive the realized variance between time 0 and time T and pay a variance rate of VK,
with both being applied to a principal of Lvar, is
Lvar3En1V2-VK4e-rT (26.7)
Suppose that the prices of European options with strike prices Ki11ā¦iā¦n2 are known,
where K16K26g6Kn. A standard approach for implementing equation (26.6) is to
set S* equal to the first strike price below F0 and then approximate the integrals as
3S*
K=0 1
K2 erT p1K2dK+3ā
K=S* 1
K2 erTc1K2dK=an
i=1āKi
K2
i erTQ1Ki2 (26.8)
where āKi=0.51Ki+1-Ki-12 for 2ā¦iā¦n-1, āK1=K2-K1, āKn=Kn-Kn-1.
The function Q1Ki2 is the price of a European put option with strike price Ki if Ki6S*
and the price of a European call option with strike price Ki if Ki7S*. When Ki=S*,
the function Q1Ki2 is equal to the average of the prices of a European call and a
European put with strike price Ki.
Example 26.4
Consider a 3-month contract to receive the realized variance rate of an index over
the 3 months and pay a variance rate of 0.045 on a principal of $100 million. The risk-free rate is 4% and the dividend yield on the index is 1%. The current level of
the index is 1020. Suppose that, for strike prices of 800, 850, 900, 950, 1,000, 1,050, 1,100, 1,150, 1,200, the 3-month implied volatilities of the index are 29%, 28%, 27%, 26%, 25%, 24%, 23%, 22%, 21%, respectively. In this case,
n=9,
K1=800, K2=850, c, K9=1,200, F0=1,020e10.04-0.012*0.25=1,027.68, and
S*=1,000. DerivaGem shows that Q1K12=2.22, Q1K22=5.22, Q1K32=11.05,
Q1K42=21.27, Q1K52=51.21, Q1K62=38.94, Q1K72=20.69, Q1K82=9.44,
Q1K92=3.57. Also, āKi=50 for all i. Hence,
an
i=1āKi
K2
i erTQ1Ki2=0.008139
From equations (26.6) and (26.8), it follows that
En1V2=2
0.25 ln a1027.68
1,000b-2
0.25 a1027.68
1,000-1b+2
0.25*0.008139=0.0621
14 See also K. Demeterfi, E. Derman, M. Kamal, and J. Zou, āA Guide to Volatility and Variance Swaps,ā
The Journal of Derivatives, 6, 4 (Summer 1999), 9ā32. For options on variance and volatility, see P. Carr and
R. Lee, āRealized Volatility and Variance: Options via Swaps,ā Risk, May 2007, 76ā83.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 630 12/05/2021 18:19
Exotic Options 631
Valuing Volatility and Exotic Options
- The text provides mathematical frameworks for valuing volatility swaps by estimating the expected realized volatility through a series expansion of the variance.
- Valuing a volatility swap requires not just the expected variance, but also an estimate of the variance of that realized variance rate over the contract's life.
- The VIX Index calculation methodology is explained as being based on the risk-neutral expected cumulative variance derived from market option prices.
- Static options replication is introduced as a hedging technique for difficult exotic options by creating a portfolio of traded options that matches the exotic option's value on a specific boundary.
If two portfolios are worth the same on a certain boundary, they are also worth the same at all interior points of the boundary.
i erTQ1Ki2=0.008139
From equations (26.6) and (26.8), it follows that
En1V2=2
0.25 ln a1027.68
1,000b-2
0.25 a1027.68
1,000-1b+2
0.25*0.008139=0.0621
14 See also K. Demeterfi, E. Derman, M. Kamal, and J. Zou, āA Guide to Volatility and Variance Swaps,ā
The Journal of Derivatives, 6, 4 (Summer 1999), 9ā32. For options on variance and volatility, see P. Carr and
R. Lee, āRealized Volatility and Variance: Options via Swaps,ā Risk, May 2007, 76ā83.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 630 12/05/2021 18:19
Exotic Options 631
From equation (26.7), the value of the variance swap (in millions of dollars) is
100*10.0621-0.0452e-0.04*0.25=1.69.
Valuation of a Volatility Swap
To value a volatility swap, we require En1s2, where s is, as before, the realized volatility
between time 0 and time T. We can write
s=2En1V2A1+V-En1V2
En1V2
Expanding the second term on the right-hand side in a series gives the approximation:
s=2En1V2e1+V-En1V2
2En1V2-1
8cV-En1V2
En1V2d2
f
Taking expectations,
En1s2=2En1V2e1-1
8cvar1V2
En1V22df (26.9)
where var1V2 is the variance of V. The valuation of a volatility swap therefore requires
an estimate of the variance of the realized variance rate during the life of the contract.
The value of an agreement to receive the realized volatility between time 0 and time T and pay a volatility of
sK, with both being applied to a principal of Lvol, is
Lvol3En1s2-sK4e-rT
Example 26.5
For the situation in Example 26.4, consider a volatility swap where the realized
volatility is received and a volatility of 23% is paid on a principal of $100 million.
In this case En1V2=0.0621. Suppose that the standard deviation of the realized
variance over 3 months has been estimated as 0.01. This means that
var1V2=0.0001. Equation (26.9) gives
En1s2=20.0621 a1-1
8*0.0001
0.06212b=0.2484
The value of the swap in (millions of dollars) is
100*10.2484-0.232e-0.04*0.25=1.82
The VIX Index
In equation (26.6), the ln function can be approximated by the first two terms in a series expansion:
ln
aF0
S*b=aF0
S*-1b-1
2 aF0
S*-1b2
This means that the risk-neutral expected cumulative variance is calculated as
En1V2T=-aF0
S*-1b2
+2an
i=1āKi
K2
i erTQ1Ki2 (26.10)
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 631 12/05/2021 18:19
632 CHAPTER 26
Since 2004 the VIX volatility index (see Section 15.11) has been based on equa-
tion ( 26.10). The procedure used on any given day is to calculate En1V2T for options that
trade in the market and have maturities immediately above and below 30 days. The 30-day
risk-neutral expected cumulative variance is calculated from these two numbers using
interpolation. This is then multiplied by 365/30 and the index is set equal to the square root of the result. More details on the calculation can be found on the CBOE website.
26.17 STATIC OPTIONS REPLICATION
If the procedures described in Chapter 19 are used for hedging exotic options, some are
easy to handle, but others are very difficult because of discontinuities (see Business Snapshot 26.1). For the difficult cases, a technique known as static options replication is
sometimes useful.
15 This involves searching for a portfolio of actively traded options that
approximately replicates the exotic option. Shorting this position provides the hedge.16
The basic principle underlying static options replication is as follows. If two portfolios
are worth the same on a certain boundary, they are also worth the same at all interior points of the boundary. Consider as an example a 9-month up-and-out call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is 50, the strike price is 50, the barrier is
60, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, and the volatility is 30% per annum. Suppose that f (S, t) is the value of the option at time t for a stock price of S. Any
boundary in (S, t) space can be used for the purposes of producing the replicating
portfolio. A convenient one to choose is shown in Figure 26.1. It is defined by
S=60
Static Options Replication Principles
- Static options replication is based on the principle that if two portfolios share the same value on a boundary, they will share the same value at all interior points.
- The method involves constructing a replicating portfolio using standard European options to match the boundary values of an exotic option, such as an up-and-out call.
- A sequential process is used to determine the necessary positions in options with different maturities to ensure the boundary conditions are met over time.
- While some exotic options like average price options become easier to hedge over time, barrier options present significant challenges for traditional delta hedging.
If two portfolios are worth the same on a certain boundary, they are also worth the same at all interior points of the boundary.
The basic principle underlying static options replication is as follows. If two portfolios
are worth the same on a certain boundary, they are also worth the same at all interior points of the boundary. Consider as an example a 9-month up-and-out call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is 50, the strike price is 50, the barrier is
60, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, and the volatility is 30% per annum. Suppose that f (S, t) is the value of the option at time t for a stock price of S. Any
boundary in (S, t) space can be used for the purposes of producing the replicating
portfolio. A convenient one to choose is shown in Figure 26.1. It is defined by
S=60
and t=0.75. The values of the up-and-out option on the boundary are given by
f1S, 0.752=max1S-50, 02 when S660
f160, t2=0 when 0ā¦tā¦0.75
There are many ways that these boundary values can be approximately matched
using regular options. The natural option to match the first boundary is a 9-month European call with a strike price of 50. The first component of the replicating portfolio is therefore one unit of this option. (We refer to this option as option A.)
One way of matching the f (60, t) boundary is to proceed as follows:
1. Divide the life of the option into N steps of length
āt
2. Choose a European call option with a strike price of 60 and maturity at time Nāt
1= 9 months2 to match the boundary at the 560, 1N-12āt6point
3. Choose a European call option with a strike price of 60 and maturity at
time 1N-12āt to match the boundary at the 560, 1N-22āt6point
and so on. Note that the options are chosen in sequence so that they have zero value on the parts of the boundary matched by earlier options.
17 The option with a strike price
15 See E. Derman, D. Ergener, and I. Kani, āStatic Options Replication,ā Journal of Derivatives 2, 4
(Summer 1995): 78ā95.
16 Technical Note 22 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes provides an example of static
replication. It shows that the variance rate of an asset can be replicated by a position in the asset and out-of-the-
money options on the asset. This result, which leads to equation (26.6), can be used to hedge variance swaps.
17 This is not a requirement. If K points on the boundary are to be matched, we can choose K options and
solve a set of K linear equations to determine required positions in the options.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 632 12/05/2021 18:19
Exotic Options 633
of 60 that matures in 9 months has zero value on the vertical boundary that is matched
by option A. The option maturing at time i āt has zero value at the point 560, i āt6that
is matched by the option maturing at time 1i+12āt for 1ā¦iā¦N-1.
Suppose that āt=0.25. In addition to option A, the replicating portfolio consists of
positions in European options with strike price 60 that mature in 9, 6, and 3 months.
We will refer to these as options B, C, and D, respectively. Given our assumptions Business Snapshot 26.1 Is Delta Hedging Easier or More Difficult
for Exotics?
As described in Chapter 19, we can approach the hedging of exotic options by
creating a delta neutral position and rebalancing frequently to maintain delta
neutrality. When we do this we find some exotic options are easier to hedge than plain vanilla options and some are more difficult.
An example of an exotic option that is relatively easy to hedge is an average price
option where the averaging period is the whole life of the option. As time passes, we observe more of the asset prices that will be used in calculating the final average. This
means that our uncertainty about the payoff decreases with the passage of time. As a
result, the option becomes progressively easier to hedge. In the final few days, the delta of the option always approaches zero because price movements during this time
have very little impact on the payoff.
By contrast barrier options are relatively difficult to hedge. Consider a down-and-
Hedging Exotic Options
- Average price options become progressively easier to hedge over time as price uncertainty decreases and the delta approaches zero.
- Barrier options present significant hedging challenges because their delta is discontinuous at the boundary, making conventional methods difficult.
- Static options replication offers an alternative to delta hedging by matching boundary conditions with a portfolio of other options.
- The accuracy of a static replication portfolio increases as more boundary points are matched, eventually converging toward the analytic value.
- Unlike delta hedging, static replication does not require frequent rebalancing, providing greater flexibility for managing complex derivatives.
The delta of the option is discontinuous at the barrier making conventional hedging very difficult.
neutrality. When we do this we find some exotic options are easier to hedge than plain vanilla options and some are more difficult.
An example of an exotic option that is relatively easy to hedge is an average price
option where the averaging period is the whole life of the option. As time passes, we observe more of the asset prices that will be used in calculating the final average. This
means that our uncertainty about the payoff decreases with the passage of time. As a
result, the option becomes progressively easier to hedge. In the final few days, the delta of the option always approaches zero because price movements during this time
have very little impact on the payoff.
By contrast barrier options are relatively difficult to hedge. Consider a down-and-
out call option on a currency when the exchange rate is 0.0005 above the barrier. If the barrier is hit, the option is worth nothing. If the barrier is not hit, the option may prove to be quite valuable. The delta of the option is discontinuous at the barrier making conventional hedging very difficult.
Figure 26.1 Boundary points used for static options replication example.
60
50
0.25 0.50 0.75S
t
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 633 12/05/2021 18:19
634 CHAPTER 26
about volatility and interest rates, option B is worth 4.33 at the {60, 0.5} point.
Option A is worth 11.54 at this point. The position in option B necessary to match
the boundary at the {60, 0.5} point is therefore -11.54>4.33=-2.66. Option C is worth
4.33 at the {60, 0.25} point. The position taken in options A and B is worth -4.21 at
this point. The position in option C necessary to match the boundary at the {60, 0.25}
point is therefore 4.21>4.33=0.97. Similar calculations show that the position in
option D necessary to match the boundary at the {60, 0} point is 0.28.
The portfolio chosen is summarized in Table 26.1. (See also Sample Application F of
the DerivaGem Applications.) It is worth 0.73 initially (i.e., at time zero when the stock price is 50). This compares with 0.31 given by the analytic formula for the up-and-out
call earlier in this chapter. The replicating portfolio is not exactly the same as the up- and-out option because it matches the latter at only three points on the second
boundary. If we use the same procedure, but match at 18 points on the second
boundary (using options that mature every half month), the value of the replicating portfolio reduces to 0.38. If 100 points are matched, the value reduces further to 0.32.
To hedge a derivative, the portfolio that replicates its boundary conditions must be
shorted. The hedge lasts until the end of the life of the derivative or until the boundary is reached, whichever happens first. If the boundary is reached, the hedge portfolio must
be unwound and a new hedge portfolio set up.
Static options replication has the advantage over delta hedging that it does not
require frequent rebalancing. It can be used for a wide range of derivatives. The user has a great deal of flexibility in choosing the boundary that is to be matched and the options that are to be used.
SUMMARY
Exotic options are options with rules governing the payoff that are more complicated than standard options. We have discussed 15 different types of exotic options: packages, perpetual American options, nonstandard American options, gap options, forward start options, cliquet options, compound options, chooser options, barrier options, binary options, lookback options, shout options, Asian options, options to exchange one asset for another, and options involving several assets. We have discussed how these can be valued using the same assumptions as those used to derive the BlackāScholesāMerton model in Chapter 15. Some can be valued analytically, but using much more complicated
formulas than those for regular European calls and puts, some can be handled using analytic approximations, and some can be valued using extensions of the numerical Option Strike
priceMaturity
Valuing and Hedging Exotic Options
- Exotic options are complex financial instruments with payoff rules that exceed the standards of regular European calls and puts.
- Valuation of these instruments relies on BlackāScholesāMerton assumptions, utilizing analytic formulas, approximations, or numerical procedures.
- Hedging difficulty varies by type; Asian options are generally easier to manage as maturity nears, while barrier options present challenges due to delta discontinuity.
- Static options replication offers a hedging strategy by creating a portfolio of standard options that mimics the exotic option's value at specific boundaries.
- The text identifies fifteen distinct categories of exotic options, ranging from path-dependent lookbacks to multi-asset exchange options.
Barrier options can be more difficult to hedge because delta is discontinuous at the barrier.
Exotic options are options with rules governing the payoff that are more complicated than standard options. We have discussed 15 different types of exotic options: packages, perpetual American options, nonstandard American options, gap options, forward start options, cliquet options, compound options, chooser options, barrier options, binary options, lookback options, shout options, Asian options, options to exchange one asset for another, and options involving several assets. We have discussed how these can be valued using the same assumptions as those used to derive the BlackāScholesāMerton model in Chapter 15. Some can be valued analytically, but using much more complicated
formulas than those for regular European calls and puts, some can be handled using analytic approximations, and some can be valued using extensions of the numerical Option Strike
priceMaturity
(years)Position Initial
value
A 50 0.75 1.00 +6.99
B 60 0.75 -2.66 -8.21
C 60 0.50 0.97 +1.78
D 60 0.25 0.28 +0.17Table 26.1 The portfolio of European call options used to
replicate an up-and-out option.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 634 12/05/2021 18:19
Exotic Options 635
procedures in Chapter 21. We will present more numerical procedures for valuing exotic
options in Chapter 27.
Some exotic options are easier to hedge than the corresponding regular options;
others are more difficult. In general, Asian options are easier to hedge because the
payoff becomes progressively more certain as we approach maturity. Barrier options can
be more difficult to hedge because delta is discontinuous at the barrier. One approach to hedging an exotic option, known as static options replication, is to find a portfolio of regular options whose value matches the value of the exotic option on some boundary. The exotic option is hedged by shorting this portfolio.
FURTHER READING
Carr, P., and R. Lee, āRealized Volatility and Variance: Options via Swaps,ā Risk, May 2007, 76ā83.
Clewlow, L., and C. Strickland, Exotic Options: The State of the Art. London: Thomson Business
Press, 1997.
Demeterfi, K., E. Derman, M. Kamal, and J. Zou, āMore than You Ever Wanted to Know
about Volatility Swaps,ā Journal of Derivatives, 6, 4 (Summer, 1999), 9ā32.
Derman, E., D. Ergener, and I. Kani, āStatic Options Replication,ā Journal of Derivatives, 2,
4 (Summer 1995): 78ā95.
Geske, R., āThe Valuation of Compound Options,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 7 (1979): 63ā81.
Goldman, B., H. Sosin, and M. A. Gatto, āPath Dependent Options: Buy at the Low, Sell at the
High,ā Journal of Finance, 34 (December 1979); 1111ā27.
Margrabe, W., āThe Value of an Option to Exchange One Asset for Another,ā Journal of
Finance, 33 (March 1978): 177ā86.
Rubinstein, M., and E. Reiner, āBreaking Down the Barriers,ā Risk, September (1991): 28ā35.Rubinstein, M., āDouble Trouble,ā Risk, December/January (1991/1992): 53ā56.Rubinstein, M., āOne for Another,ā Risk, July/August (1991): 30ā32.Rubinstein, M., āOptions for the Undecided,ā Risk, April (1991): 70ā73.Rubinstein, M., āPay Now, Choose Later,ā Risk, February (1991): 44ā47.
Rubinstein, M., āSomewhere Over the Rainbow,ā Risk, November (1991): 63ā66.
Rubinstein, M., āTwo in One,ā Risk May (1991): 49.Rubinstein, M., and E. Reiner, āUnscrambling the Binary Code,ā Risk, October 1991: 75ā83.Stulz, R. M., āOptions on the Minimum or Maximum of Two Assets,ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 10 (1982): 161ā85.
Turnbull, S. M., and L. M. Wakeman, āA Quick Algorithm for Pricing European Average
Options,ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 26 (September 1991): 377ā89.
Practice Questions
Exotic Options Literature and Practice
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of seminal academic papers on exotic options, covering volatility swaps, static replication, and compound options.
- Mark Rubinstein's extensive series of articles in Risk magazine is highlighted, detailing various complex instruments like binary, rainbow, and chooser options.
- The references include foundational work on path-dependent options, such as lookbacks that allow investors to buy at the low and sell at the high.
- Practice questions challenge the reader to distinguish between forward start and chooser options and to analyze the payoff structures of lookback portfolios.
- The material addresses the mathematical valuation of options on the minimum or maximum of multiple assets and the pricing of European average options.
Is it ever optimal to make the choice before the end of the 2-year period?
Carr, P., and R. Lee, āRealized Volatility and Variance: Options via Swaps,ā Risk, May 2007, 76ā83.
Clewlow, L., and C. Strickland, Exotic Options: The State of the Art. London: Thomson Business
Press, 1997.
Demeterfi, K., E. Derman, M. Kamal, and J. Zou, āMore than You Ever Wanted to Know
about Volatility Swaps,ā Journal of Derivatives, 6, 4 (Summer, 1999), 9ā32.
Derman, E., D. Ergener, and I. Kani, āStatic Options Replication,ā Journal of Derivatives, 2,
4 (Summer 1995): 78ā95.
Geske, R., āThe Valuation of Compound Options,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 7 (1979): 63ā81.
Goldman, B., H. Sosin, and M. A. Gatto, āPath Dependent Options: Buy at the Low, Sell at the
High,ā Journal of Finance, 34 (December 1979); 1111ā27.
Margrabe, W., āThe Value of an Option to Exchange One Asset for Another,ā Journal of
Finance, 33 (March 1978): 177ā86.
Rubinstein, M., and E. Reiner, āBreaking Down the Barriers,ā Risk, September (1991): 28ā35.Rubinstein, M., āDouble Trouble,ā Risk, December/January (1991/1992): 53ā56.Rubinstein, M., āOne for Another,ā Risk, July/August (1991): 30ā32.Rubinstein, M., āOptions for the Undecided,ā Risk, April (1991): 70ā73.Rubinstein, M., āPay Now, Choose Later,ā Risk, February (1991): 44ā47.
Rubinstein, M., āSomewhere Over the Rainbow,ā Risk, November (1991): 63ā66.
Rubinstein, M., āTwo in One,ā Risk May (1991): 49.Rubinstein, M., and E. Reiner, āUnscrambling the Binary Code,ā Risk, October 1991: 75ā83.Stulz, R. M., āOptions on the Minimum or Maximum of Two Assets,ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 10 (1982): 161ā85.
Turnbull, S. M., and L. M. Wakeman, āA Quick Algorithm for Pricing European Average
Options,ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 26 (September 1991): 377ā89.
Practice Questions
26.1. Explain the difference between a forward start option and a chooser option.
26.2. Describe the payoff from a portfolio consisting of a floating lookback call and a floating
lookback put with the same maturity.
26.3. Consider a chooser option where the holder has the right to choose between a European
call and a European put at any time during a 2-year period. The maturity dates and strike prices for the calls and puts are the same regardless of when the choice is made. Is it ever optimal to make the choice before the end of the 2-year period? Explain your answer.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 635 12/05/2021 18:19
636 CHAPTER 26
Exotic Options Problem Set
- The text presents a series of technical problems focused on the valuation and properties of exotic options such as chooser, lookback, and Asian options.
- Mathematical relationships are explored through put-call parity derivations for average price and average strike options.
- The problems address the impact of barrier observation frequency on the value of path-dependent options like down-and-out calls.
- Practical applications include calculating the price of exchange options involving commodities like gold and silver using volatility and correlation data.
- Theoretical questions examine the optimality of early exercise for American options with growing strike prices and the decomposition of regular options into barrier components.
Calculate the price of a 1-year European option to give up 100 ounces of silver in exchange for 1 ounce of gold.
26.1. Explain the difference between a forward start option and a chooser option.
26.2. Describe the payoff from a portfolio consisting of a floating lookback call and a floating
lookback put with the same maturity.
26.3. Consider a chooser option where the holder has the right to choose between a European
call and a European put at any time during a 2-year period. The maturity dates and strike prices for the calls and puts are the same regardless of when the choice is made. Is it ever optimal to make the choice before the end of the 2-year period? Explain your answer.
M26_HULL0654_11_GE_C26.indd 635 12/05/2021 18:19
636 CHAPTER 26
26.4. Suppose that c1 and p1 are the prices of a European average price call and a European
average price put with strike price K and maturity T, c2 and p2 are the prices of a
European average strike call and European average strike put with maturity T, and c3
and p3 are the prices of a regular European call and a regular European put with strike
price K and maturity T. Show that c1+c2-c3=p1+p2-p3.
26.5. The text derives a decomposition of a particular type of chooser option into a call
maturing at time T2 and a put maturing at time T1. Derive an alternative decomposition
into a call maturing at time T1 and a put maturing at time T2.
26.6. Section 26.9 gives two formulas for a down-and-out call. The first applies to the situation
where the barrier, H, is less than or equal to the strike price, K. The second applies to the
situation where HĆK. Show that the two formulas are the same when H=K.
26.7. Explain why a down-and-out put is worth zero when the barrier is greater than the strike
price.
26.8. Suppose that the strike price of an American call option on a non-dividend-paying stock grows at rate g. Show that if g is less than the risk-free rate, r, it is never optimal to
exercise the call early.
26.9. How can the value of a forward start put option on a non-dividend-paying stock be
calculated if it is agreed that the strike price will be 10% greater than the stock price at the time the option starts?
26.10. If a stock price follows geometric Brownian motion, what process does A (t) follow where
A(t) is the arithmetic average stock price between time zero and time t ?
26.11. Explain why delta hedging is easier for Asian options than for regular options.
26.12. Calculate the price of a 1-year European option to give up 100 ounces of silver in exchange
for 1 ounce of gold. The current prices of gold and silver are $1,520 and $16, respectively; the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum; the volatility of each commodity price is 20%;
and the correlation between the two prices is 0.7. Ignore storage costs.
26.13. Is a European down-and-out option on an asset worth the same as a European down-
and-out option on the assetās futures price for a futures contract maturing at the same time as the option?
26.14. Answer the following questions about compound options:
(a) What putācall parity relationship exists between the price of a European call on a
call and a European put on a call? Show that the formulas given in the text satisfy the relationship.
(b) What putācall parity relationship exists between the price of a European call on a put and a European put on a put? Show that the formulas given in the text satisfy the relationship.
26.15. Does a floating lookback call become more valuable or less valuable as we increase the
frequency with which we observe the asset price in calculating the minimum?
26.16. Does a down-and-out call become more valuable or less valuable as we increase the
frequency with which we observe the asset price in determining whether the barrier has
been crossed? What is the answer to the same question for a down-and-in call?
26.17. Explain why a regular European call option is the sum of a down-and-out European call
and a down-and-in European call. Is the same true for American call options?
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Exotic Options 637
Exotic Options and Parity
- The text explores complex put-call parity relationships specifically for compound options, such as calls on calls and puts on calls.
- It examines how the frequency of asset price observation impacts the valuation of lookback and barrier options.
- A fundamental principle is established that a regular European call is equal to the sum of a down-and-out and a down-and-in call.
- Practical application problems require calculating the value of binary options, silver futures derivatives, and average price options.
- The exercises utilize the DerivaGem software to demonstrate theoretical pricing models for various exotic financial instruments.
Explain why a regular European call option is the sum of a down-and-out European call and a down-and-in European call. Is the same true for American call options?
(a) What putācall parity relationship exists between the price of a European call on a
call and a European put on a call? Show that the formulas given in the text satisfy the relationship.
(b) What putācall parity relationship exists between the price of a European call on a put and a European put on a put? Show that the formulas given in the text satisfy the relationship.
26.15. Does a floating lookback call become more valuable or less valuable as we increase the
frequency with which we observe the asset price in calculating the minimum?
26.16. Does a down-and-out call become more valuable or less valuable as we increase the
frequency with which we observe the asset price in determining whether the barrier has
been crossed? What is the answer to the same question for a down-and-in call?
26.17. Explain why a regular European call option is the sum of a down-and-out European call
and a down-and-in European call. Is the same true for American call options?
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Exotic Options 637
26.18. What is the value of a derivative that pays off $100 in 6 months if an index is greater
than 1,000 and zero otherwise? Assume that the current level of the index is 960, the risk-
free rate is 8% per annum, the dividend yield on the index is 3% per annum, and the volatility of the index is 20%.
26.19. In a 3-month down-and-out call option on silver futures the strike price is $20 per ounce
and the barrier is $18. The current futures price is $19, the risk-free interest rate is 5%, and the volatility of silver futures is 40% per annum. Explain how the option works and calculate its value. What is the value of a regular call option on silver futures with the same terms? What is the value of a down-and-in call option on silver futures with the same terms?
26.20. A new European-style floating lookback call option on a stock index has a maturity of
9 months. The current level of the index is 400, the risk-free rate is 6% per annum, the dividend yield on the index is 4% per annum, and the volatility of the index is 20%. Use DerivaGem to value the option.
26.21. Estimate the value of a new 6-month European-style average price call option on a non-
dividend-paying stock. The initial stock price is $30, the strike price is $30, the risk-free interest rate is 5%, and the stock price volatility is 30%.
26.22. Use DerivaGem to calculate the value of:
(a) A regular European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock
price is $50, the strike price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5% per annum, the volatility is
30%, and the time to maturity is one year
(b) A down-and-out European call which is as in (a) with the barrier at $45
(c) A down-and-in European call which is as in (a) with the barrier at $45.
Show that the option in (a) is worth the sum of the values of the options in (b) and (c).
26.23. Explain adjustments that have to be made when
r=q for (a) the valuation formulas for
Exotic Option Valuation Exercises
- The text presents mathematical problems regarding the relationship between regular European call options and barrier options.
- It explores the additive property where a standard call option's value equals the sum of down-and-out and down-and-in call options.
- Exercises require the valuation of variance swaps and lookback options under specific interest rate and volatility conditions.
- The material emphasizes the use of specialized software to visualize how barrier options exhibit non-linear Greeks like delta and vega.
- Static options replication is introduced as a method for hedging complex derivatives using a portfolio of standard options.
Show that the delta, gamma, theta, and vega for an up-and-out barrier call option can be either positive or negative.
(a) A regular European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock
price is $50, the strike price is $50, the risk-free rate is 5% per annum, the volatility is
30%, and the time to maturity is one year
(b) A down-and-out European call which is as in (a) with the barrier at $45
(c) A down-and-in European call which is as in (a) with the barrier at $45.
Show that the option in (a) is worth the sum of the values of the options in (b) and (c).
26.23. Explain adjustments that have to be made when
r=q for (a) the valuation formulas for
floating lookback call options in Section 26.11 and (b) the formulas for M1 and M2 in
Section 26.13.
26.24. Value the variance swap in Example 26.4 of Section 26.16 assuming that the implied
volatilities for options with strike prices 800, 850, 900, 950, 1,000, 1,050, 1,100, 1,150,
1,200 are 20%, 20.5%, 21%, 21.5%, 22%, 22.5%, 23%, 23.5%, 24%, respectively.
26.25. Verify that the results in Section 26.2 for the value of a derivative that pays Q when
S=H are consistent with those in Section 15.6.
26.26. Consider an up-and-out barrier call option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the
stock price is 50, the strike price is 50, the volatility is 30%, the risk-free rate is 5%, the time to maturity is 1 year, and the barrier at $80. Use the DerivaGem software to value the option and graph the relationship between (a) the option price and the stock price, (b) the delta and the stock price, (c) the option price and the time to maturity, and
(d) the option price and the volatility. Provide an intuitive explanation for the results you get. Show that the delta, gamma, theta, and vega for an up-and-out barrier call option can be either positive or negative.
26.27. Sample Application F in the DerivaGem Application Builder Software considers the
static options replication example in Section 26.17. It shows the way a hedge can be
constructed using four options (as in Section 26.17) and two ways a hedge can be
constructed using 16 options.
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638 CHAPTER 26
Exotic Option Valuation Exercises
- The text presents complex quantitative problems involving the valuation of variance swaps and lookback call options using specific volatility smiles.
- It explores the unique Greeks of barrier options, demonstrating that delta, gamma, theta, and vega can fluctuate between positive and negative values.
- Static option replication strategies are analyzed to show how portfolios of standard options can be used to hedge more complex barrier instruments.
- The exercises utilize DerivaGem software to compare discrete versus continuous observation for average price options and to test delta-gamma hedging effectiveness.
Show that the delta, gamma, theta, and vega for an up-and-out barrier call option can be either positive or negative.
floating lookback call options in Section 26.11 and (b) the formulas for M1 and M2 in
Section 26.13.
26.24. Value the variance swap in Example 26.4 of Section 26.16 assuming that the implied
volatilities for options with strike prices 800, 850, 900, 950, 1,000, 1,050, 1,100, 1,150,
1,200 are 20%, 20.5%, 21%, 21.5%, 22%, 22.5%, 23%, 23.5%, 24%, respectively.
26.25. Verify that the results in Section 26.2 for the value of a derivative that pays Q when
S=H are consistent with those in Section 15.6.
26.26. Consider an up-and-out barrier call option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the
stock price is 50, the strike price is 50, the volatility is 30%, the risk-free rate is 5%, the time to maturity is 1 year, and the barrier at $80. Use the DerivaGem software to value the option and graph the relationship between (a) the option price and the stock price, (b) the delta and the stock price, (c) the option price and the time to maturity, and
(d) the option price and the volatility. Provide an intuitive explanation for the results you get. Show that the delta, gamma, theta, and vega for an up-and-out barrier call option can be either positive or negative.
26.27. Sample Application F in the DerivaGem Application Builder Software considers the
static options replication example in Section 26.17. It shows the way a hedge can be
constructed using four options (as in Section 26.17) and two ways a hedge can be
constructed using 16 options.
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638 CHAPTER 26
(a) Explain the difference between the two ways a hedge can be constructed using
16 options. Explain intuitively why the second method works better.
(b) Improve on the four-option hedge by changing Tmat for the third and fourth options.
(c) Check how well the 16-option portfolios match the delta, gamma, and vega of the
barrier option.
26.28. Consider a down-and-out call option on a foreign currency. The initial exchange rate is
0.90, the time to maturity is 2 years, the strike price is 1.00, the barrier is 0.80, the
domestic risk-free interest rate is 5%, the foreign risk-free interest rate is 6%, and the
volatility is 25% per annum. Use DerivaGem to develop a static option replication
strategy involving five options.
26.29. Suppose that a stock index is currently 900. The dividend yield is 2%, the risk-free rate is
5%, and the volatility is 40%. Use the results in Technical Note 27 on the authorās
website to calculate the value of a 1-year average price call where the strike price is 900
and the index level is observed at the end of each quarter for the purposes of the
averaging. Compare this with the price calculated by DerivaGem for a 1-year average
price option where the price is observed continuously. Provide an intuitive explanation for any differences between the prices.
26.30. Use the DerivaGem Application Builder software to compare the effectiveness of daily
delta hedging for (a) the option considered in Tables 19.2 and 19.3 and (b) an average price call with the same parameters. Use Sample Application C. For the average price option you will find it necessary to change the calculation of the option price in cell C16, the payoffs in cells H15 and H16, and the deltas (cells G46 to G186 and N46 to N186). Carry out 20 Monte Carlo simulation runs for each option by repeatedly pressing F9.
On each run record the cost of writing and hedging the option, the volume of trading over the whole 20 weeks and the volume of trading between weeks 11 and 20. Comment on the results.
26.31. In the DerivaGem Application Builder Software modify Sample Application D to test
the effectiveness of delta and gamma hedging for a call on call compound option on a
100,000 units of a foreign currency where the exchange rate is 0.67, the domestic risk-free rate is 5%, the foreign risk-free rate is 6%, the volatility is 12%. The time to maturity of
the first option is 20 weeks, and the strike price of the first option is 0.015. The second
option matures 40 weeks from today and has a strike price of 0.68. Explain how you
modified the cells. Comment on hedge effectiveness.
Exotic Option Hedging Exercises
- The text presents complex quantitative problems focused on static option replication and the management of delta, gamma, and vega risks.
- Students are tasked with using DerivaGem software to model barrier options, average price calls, and compound options under various market conditions.
- A comparison is drawn between discrete quarterly observations and continuous price monitoring for path-dependent options to illustrate pricing discrepancies.
- The exercises introduce 'outperformance certificates,' structured financial products that offer leveraged gains up to a cap while maintaining downside exposure.
- Monte Carlo simulations are utilized to test the real-world effectiveness and trading volumes of daily delta hedging strategies over specific time horizons.
If the stock price goes up between time 0 and time T, the investor gains k times the increase at time T, where k is a constant greater than 1.0.
(a) Explain the difference between the two ways a hedge can be constructed using
16 options. Explain intuitively why the second method works better.
(b) Improve on the four-option hedge by changing Tmat for the third and fourth options.
(c) Check how well the 16-option portfolios match the delta, gamma, and vega of the
barrier option.
26.28. Consider a down-and-out call option on a foreign currency. The initial exchange rate is
0.90, the time to maturity is 2 years, the strike price is 1.00, the barrier is 0.80, the
domestic risk-free interest rate is 5%, the foreign risk-free interest rate is 6%, and the
volatility is 25% per annum. Use DerivaGem to develop a static option replication
strategy involving five options.
26.29. Suppose that a stock index is currently 900. The dividend yield is 2%, the risk-free rate is
5%, and the volatility is 40%. Use the results in Technical Note 27 on the authorās
website to calculate the value of a 1-year average price call where the strike price is 900
and the index level is observed at the end of each quarter for the purposes of the
averaging. Compare this with the price calculated by DerivaGem for a 1-year average
price option where the price is observed continuously. Provide an intuitive explanation for any differences between the prices.
26.30. Use the DerivaGem Application Builder software to compare the effectiveness of daily
delta hedging for (a) the option considered in Tables 19.2 and 19.3 and (b) an average price call with the same parameters. Use Sample Application C. For the average price option you will find it necessary to change the calculation of the option price in cell C16, the payoffs in cells H15 and H16, and the deltas (cells G46 to G186 and N46 to N186). Carry out 20 Monte Carlo simulation runs for each option by repeatedly pressing F9.
On each run record the cost of writing and hedging the option, the volume of trading over the whole 20 weeks and the volume of trading between weeks 11 and 20. Comment on the results.
26.31. In the DerivaGem Application Builder Software modify Sample Application D to test
the effectiveness of delta and gamma hedging for a call on call compound option on a
100,000 units of a foreign currency where the exchange rate is 0.67, the domestic risk-free rate is 5%, the foreign risk-free rate is 6%, the volatility is 12%. The time to maturity of
the first option is 20 weeks, and the strike price of the first option is 0.015. The second
option matures 40 weeks from today and has a strike price of 0.68. Explain how you
modified the cells. Comment on hedge effectiveness.
26.32. Outperformance certificates (also called āsprint certificates,ā āaccelerator certificates,ā
or āspeedersā) are offered to investors by many European banks as a way of investing in
a companyās stock. The initial investment equals the stock price,
S0. If the stock price
goes up between time 0 and time T, the investor gains k times the increase at time T, where k is a constant greater than 1.0. However, the stock price used to calculate the gain
at time T is capped at some maximum level M. If the stock price goes down, the
investorās loss is equal to the decrease. The investor does not receive dividends.
(a) Show that an outperformance certificate is a package.
(b) Calculate using DerivaGem the value of a one-year outperformance certificate when
the stock price is 50 euros,
k=1.5, M=70 euros, the risk-free rate is 5%, and the
stock price volatility is 25%. Dividends equal to 0.5 euros are expected in 2 months, 5 months, 8 months, and 11 months.
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Exotic Options 639
Beyond Geometric Brownian Motion
- The text introduces advanced financial modeling techniques to address the limitations of the standard BlackāScholesāMerton framework.
- While volatility surfaces help price plain vanilla options, they are often inadequate for valuing complex exotic options like barrier options.
- New asset price processes are proposed to better fit market prices and provide more consistent valuations for non-standard derivatives.
- The chapter outlines numerical procedures for valuing path-dependent derivatives, convertible bonds, and options with early exercise opportunities.
- Alternative tree constructions and Monte Carlo simulations are discussed as tools for handling correlated variables and complex exercise features.
Suppose the volatility surface shows that the correct volatility to use when pricing a one-year plain vanilla option with a strike price of $40 is 27%. This is liable to be totally inappropriate for pricing a barrier option.
goes up between time 0 and time T, the investor gains k times the increase at time T, where k is a constant greater than 1.0. However, the stock price used to calculate the gain
at time T is capped at some maximum level M. If the stock price goes down, the
investorās loss is equal to the decrease. The investor does not receive dividends.
(a) Show that an outperformance certificate is a package.
(b) Calculate using DerivaGem the value of a one-year outperformance certificate when
the stock price is 50 euros,
k=1.5, M=70 euros, the risk-free rate is 5%, and the
stock price volatility is 25%. Dividends equal to 0.5 euros are expected in 2 months, 5 months, 8 months, and 11 months.
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Exotic Options 639
26.33. Carry out the analysis in Example 26.4 of Section 26.16 to value the variance swap on
the assumption that the life of the swap is 1 month rather than 3 months.
26.34. What is the relationship between a regular call option, a binary call option, and a gap
call option?
26.35. Produce a formula for valuing a cliquet option where an amount Q is invested to
produce a payoff at the end of n periods. The return earned each period is the greater
of the return on an index (excluding dividends) and zero.
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640
More on Models
and Numerical
Procedures
Up to now the models we have used to value options have been based on the geometric
Brownian motion model of asset price behavior that underlies the BlackāScholesā
Merton formulas and the numerical procedures we have used have been relatively straightforward. In this chapter we introduce a number of new models and explain
how the numerical procedures can be adapted to cope with particular situations.
Chapter 20 explained how traders overcome the weaknesses in the geometric Brown-
ian motion model by using volatility surfaces. A volatility surface determines an
appropriate volatility to substitute into BlackāScholesāMerton when pricing plain vanilla options. Unfortunately it says little about the volatility that should be used
for exotic options when the pricing formulas of Chapter 26 are used. Suppose the
volatility surface shows that the correct volatility to use when pricing a one-year plain vanilla option with a strike price of $40 is 27%. This is liable to be totally inappropriate for pricing a barrier option (or some other exotic option) that has a strike price of $40 and a life of one year.
The first part of this chapter discusses a number of alternatives to geometric
Brownian motion that are designed to deal with the problem of pricing exotic options consistently with plain vanilla options. These alternative asset price processes fit the market prices of plain vanilla options better than geometric Brownian motion. As a result, we can have more confidence in using them to value exotic options.
The second part of the chapter extends the discussion of numerical procedures. It
explains how convertible bonds and some types of path-dependent derivatives can be valued using trees. It discusses the special problems associated with valuing barrier
options numerically and how these problems can be handled. Finally, it outlines
alternative ways of constructing trees for two correlated variables and shows how Monte Carlo simulation can be used to value derivatives when there are early exercise opportunities.
As in earlier chapters, results are presented for derivatives dependent on an asset
providing a yield at rate q. For an option on a stock index, q should be set equal to the
dividend yield on the index; for an option on a currency, it should be set equal to the foreign risk-free rate; for an option on a futures contract, it should be set equal to the domestic risk-free rate.27 CHAPTER
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The BlackāScholesāMerton model assumes that an assetās price changes continously in
Alternative Models and Levy Processes
- The text introduces alternatives to the BlackāScholesāMerton model, including diffusion models, jump-diffusion models, and pure jump processes.
- Collectively known as Levy processes, these models include the Constant Elasticity of Variance (CEV), Mertonās mixed jumpādiffusion, and the variance-gamma model.
- The CEV model adjusts the volatility parameter based on the asset price, allowing for the modeling of heavy tails in probability distributions.
- When the CEV parameter b is less than 1, volatility increases as the stock price decreases, effectively capturing the volatility smile observed in equity markets.
- The text provides specific valuation formulas for European call and put options under the CEV model for different ranges of the parameter b.
When b<1, the volatility increases as the stock price decreases. This creates a probability distribution similar to that observed for equities with a heavy left tail and less heavy right tail.
alternative ways of constructing trees for two correlated variables and shows how Monte Carlo simulation can be used to value derivatives when there are early exercise opportunities.
As in earlier chapters, results are presented for derivatives dependent on an asset
providing a yield at rate q. For an option on a stock index, q should be set equal to the
dividend yield on the index; for an option on a currency, it should be set equal to the foreign risk-free rate; for an option on a futures contract, it should be set equal to the domestic risk-free rate.27 CHAPTER
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More on Models and Numerical Procedures 641
The BlackāScholesāMerton model assumes that an assetās price changes continously in
a way that produces a lognormal distribution for the price at any future time. There are
many alternative processes that can be assumed. One possibility is to retain the property
that the asset price changes continuously, but assume a process other than geometric
Brownian motion. Another alternative is to overlay continuous asset price changes with
jumps. Yet another alternative is to assume a process where all the asset price changes that take place are jumps. We will consider examples of all three types of processes in this section. In particular, we will consider the constant elasticity of variance model, Mertonās mixed jumpādiffusion model, and the variance-gamma model. All three
models are implemented in DerivaGem. The types of processes we consider in this section are known collectively as Levy processes.
1
The Constant Elasticity of Variance Model
One alternative to BlackāScholesāMerton is the constant elasticity of variance (CEV) model. This is a diffusion model where the risk-neutral process for a stock price S is
dS=1r-q2S dt+sSb dz
where r is the risk-free rate, q is the dividend yield, dz is a Wiener process, s is a
volatility parameter, and b is a positive constant.2 The parameter s is roughly
equivalent to the volatility in the usual lognormal model multiplied by S1-b.
When b=1, the CEV model is the geometric Brownian motion model we have been
using up to now. When b61, the volatility increases as the stock price decreases. This
creates a probability distribution similar to that observed for equities with a heavy left tail and less heavy right tail (see Figure 20.4).
3 When b71, the volatility increases as
the stock price increases. This creates a probability distribution with a heavy right tail
and a less heavy left tail. This corresponds to a volatility smile where the implied
volatility is an increasing function of the strike price. This type of volatility smile is sometimes observed for options on futures.
The valuation formulas for European call and put options under the CEV model are
c=S0e-qT31-x21a, b+2, c24-Ke-rTx21c, b, a2
p=Ke-rT31-x21c, b, a24-S0e-qTx21a, b+2, c2
when 06b61, and
c=S0e-qT31-x21c, -b, a24-Ke-rTx21a, 2-b, c2
p=Ke-rT31-x21a, 2-b, c24-S0e-qTx21c, -b, a227.1 ALTERNATIVES TO BLACKāSCHOLESāMERTON
1 Roughly speaking, a Levy process is a continuous-time stochastic process with stationary independent
increments.
2 See J. C. Cox and S. A. Ross, āThe Valuation of Options for Alternative Stochastic Processes,ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 3 (March 1976): 145ā66.
3 The reason is as follows. As the stock price decreases, the volatility increases making even lower stock price
more likely; when the stock price increases, the volatility decreases making higher stock prices less likely.
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 641 30/04/2021 17:45
642 CHAPTER 27
when b71, with
a=3Ke-1r-q2T4211-b2
11-b22v, b=1
1-b, c=S211-b2
11-b22v
where
v=s2
21r-q21b-123e21r-q21b-12T-14
Alternative Option Pricing Models
- The Constant Elasticity of Variance (CEV) model accounts for the inverse relationship between stock price and volatility, making it useful for valuing exotic equity options.
- Mertonās Mixed JumpāDiffusion Model combines continuous Wiener process changes with discrete jumps generated by a Poisson process.
- Merton's model produces heavier tails than the standard BlackāScholesāMerton model, allowing for a better fit with market prices for currency options.
- Model parameters are typically calibrated by minimizing the sum of squared differences between theoretical model prices and observed market prices.
- Monte Carlo simulation can be used to implement jump models by determining the number and size of jumps for each simulation trial.
As the stock price decreases, the volatility increases making even lower stock price more likely; when the stock price increases, the volatility decreases making higher stock prices less likely.
1 Roughly speaking, a Levy process is a continuous-time stochastic process with stationary independent
increments.
2 See J. C. Cox and S. A. Ross, āThe Valuation of Options for Alternative Stochastic Processes,ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 3 (March 1976): 145ā66.
3 The reason is as follows. As the stock price decreases, the volatility increases making even lower stock price
more likely; when the stock price increases, the volatility decreases making higher stock prices less likely.
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 641 30/04/2021 17:45
642 CHAPTER 27
when b71, with
a=3Ke-1r-q2T4211-b2
11-b22v, b=1
1-b, c=S211-b2
11-b22v
where
v=s2
21r-q21b-123e21r-q21b-12T-14
and x21z, k, v2 is the cumulative probability that a variable with a noncentral x2
distribution with noncentrality parameter v and k degrees of freedom is less than z.
A procedure for computing x21z, k, v2 is provided in Technical Note 12 on the authorās
website: www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
The CEV model is useful for valuing exotic equity options. The parameters of the
model can be chosen to fit the prices of plain vanilla options as closely as possible by
minimizing the sum of the squared differences between model prices and market
prices.
Mertonās Mixed JumpāDiffusion Model
Merton has suggested a model where jumps are combined with continuous changes.4
Define:
l: Average number of jumps per year
k: Average jump size, measured as a percentage of the asset price
The percentage jump size is assumed to be drawn from a probability distribution in the
model.
The probability of a jump in time āt is lāt. The average growth rate in the asset
price from the jumps is therefore lk. The risk-neutral process for the asset price is
dS
S=1r-q-lk2 dt+s dz+dp
where dz is a Wiener process, dp is the Poisson process generating the jumps, and s is
the volatility of the non-jump component of S. The processes dz and dp are assumed
to be independent.
An important particular case of Mertonās model is where the logarithm of one plus
the size of the percentage jump is normal. Assume that the standard deviation of the normal distribution is s. Merton shows that a European option price can then be written
aā
n=0e-l/uni2032T1l/uni2032T2n
n! fn
where l/uni2032=l11+k2. The variable fn is the BlackāScholesāMerton option price when the
dividend yield is q, the variance rate is
s2+ns2
T
4 See R. C. Merton, āOption Pricing When Underlying Stock Returns Are Discontinuous,ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 3 (March 1976): 125ā44.
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 642 30/04/2021 17:45
More on Models and Numerical Procedures 643
and the risk-free rate is
r-lk+ng
T
where g=ln11+k2.
This model gives rise to heavier left and heavier right tails than BlackāScholesā
Merton. It can be used for pricing currency options. As in the case of the CEV model,
the model parameters are chosen by minimizing the sum of the squared differences between model prices and market prices.
Simulating Jumps
Models that involve jumps can be implemented with Monte Carlo simulation. When jumps are generated by a Poisson process, the probability of exactly m jumps in time t is
e-lt1lt2m
m!
where l is the average number of jumps per year. Equivalently, lt is the average number
of jumps in time t.
Suppose that on average 0.5 jumps happen per year. The probability of m jumps in
2 years is
e-0.5*210.5*22m
m!
Table 27.1 gives the probability and cumulative probability of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8
jumps in 2 years. (The numbers in a table such as this can be calculated using the
POISSON function in Excel.)
To simulate a process following jumps over 2 years, it is necessary to determine on
each simulation trial:
1. The number of jumps
2. The size of each jump.
Jump Processes and Variance-Gamma Models
- The Poisson distribution is used to model the frequency of discrete jumps in asset prices over a specific time horizon.
- Simulating a mixed jump-diffusion model requires separately sampling the continuous lognormal diffusion component and the discrete jump component.
- The variance-gamma model is a pure jump process characterized by frequent small jumps and occasional large jumps.
- In these models, the overall expected return from both components must be adjusted to equal the risk-free rate for derivative valuation.
A gamma process is a pure jump process where small jumps occur very frequently and large jumps occur only occasionally.
m!
where l is the average number of jumps per year. Equivalently, lt is the average number
of jumps in time t.
Suppose that on average 0.5 jumps happen per year. The probability of m jumps in
2 years is
e-0.5*210.5*22m
m!
Table 27.1 gives the probability and cumulative probability of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8
jumps in 2 years. (The numbers in a table such as this can be calculated using the
POISSON function in Excel.)
To simulate a process following jumps over 2 years, it is necessary to determine on
each simulation trial:
1. The number of jumps
2. The size of each jump.
To determine the number of jumps, on each simulation trial we sample a random
number between 0 and 1 and use Table 27.1 as a look-up table. If the random number is between 0 and 0.3679, no jumps occur; if the random number is between 0.3679 and
Table 27.1 Probabilities for number of jumps in 2 years.
Number of
jumps, mProbability of
exactly m jumpsProbability of
m jumps or less
0 0.3679 0.3679
1 0.3679 0.7358
2 0.1839 0.9197
3 0.0613 0.9810
4 0.0153 0.9963
5 0.0031 0.9994
6 0.0005 0.9999
7 0.0001 1.0000
8 0.0000 1.0000
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 643 30/04/2021 17:45
644 CHAPTER 27
0.7358, one jump occurs; if the random number is between 0.7358 and 0.9197, two jumps
occur; and so on. To determine the size of each jump, it is necessary on each simulation trial to sample from the probability distribution for the jump size once for each jump that occurs. Once the number of jumps and the jump sizes have been determined, the final value of the variable being simulated is known for the simulation trial.
In a mixed jumpādiffusion model, jumps are superimposed upon the usual lognormal
diffusion process that is assumed for stock prices. The process then has two components (the usual diffusion component and the jump component) and each must be sampled separately. The diffusion component is sampled as described in Sections 21.6 and 21.7 while the jump component is sampled as just described. When derivatives are valued, it
is important to ensure that the overall expected return from the asset (from both
components) is the risk-free rate.
The Variance-Gamma Model
An example of a pure jump model that is proving quite popular is the variance-gamma
model.5 Define a variable g as the change over time T in a variable that follows a
gamma process with mean rate of 1 and variance rate of v. A gamma process is a pure jump process where small jumps occur very frequently and large jumps occur only occasionally. The probability density for g is
gT>v-1e-g>v
vT>vĪ1T>v2
where Ī1#2 denotes the gamma function. This probability density can be computed in
Excel using the GAMMADIST 1#, #, #, #2 function. The first argument of the function is
g, the second is T>v, the third is v, and the fourth is TRUE or FALSE, where TRUE
returns the cumulative probability distribution function and FALSE returns the prob-ability density function we have just given.
As usual, we define
ST as the asset price at time T, S0 as the asset price today, r as the
risk-free interest rate, and q as the dividend yield. Conditional on g, ln ST has a risk-
neutral probability distribution under the variance-gamma model that is normal. The conditional mean is
ln S0+1r-q2T+v+ug
and the conditional standard deviation is
s2g
where
v=1T>v2 ln11-uv-s2v>22
The variance-gamma model has three parameters: v, s, and u.6 The parameter v is the
The Variance-Gamma Model
- The variance-gamma model utilizes three primary parametersāvariance rate, volatility, and skewnessāto define the risk-neutral probability distribution of asset prices.
- Unlike pure diffusion models, the parameters of the variance-gamma process are liable to change when moving from the real-world to the risk-neutral world.
- The model allows for flexible skewness: a negative value for the parameter 'u' results in the negative skew typically observed in equity markets.
- Excel functions like GAMMAINV and NORMSINV can be used to perform Monte Carlo simulations by sampling the gamma process and the conditional normal distribution.
- Compared to geometric Brownian motion, the variance-gamma distribution is characterized by heavier tails, providing a more realistic representation of market extremes.
Note that all these parameters are liable to change when we move from the real world to the risk-neutral world.
where Ī1#2 denotes the gamma function. This probability density can be computed in
Excel using the GAMMADIST 1#, #, #, #2 function. The first argument of the function is
g, the second is T>v, the third is v, and the fourth is TRUE or FALSE, where TRUE
returns the cumulative probability distribution function and FALSE returns the prob-ability density function we have just given.
As usual, we define
ST as the asset price at time T, S0 as the asset price today, r as the
risk-free interest rate, and q as the dividend yield. Conditional on g, ln ST has a risk-
neutral probability distribution under the variance-gamma model that is normal. The conditional mean is
ln S0+1r-q2T+v+ug
and the conditional standard deviation is
s2g
where
v=1T>v2 ln11-uv-s2v>22
The variance-gamma model has three parameters: v, s, and u.6 The parameter v is the
variance rate of the gamma process, s is the volatility, and u is a parameter defining
skewness. When u=0, ln ST is symmetric; when u60, it is negatively skewed (as for
equities); and when u70, it is positively skewed.
5 See D. B. Madan, P. P. Carr, and E. C. Chang, āThe Variance-Gamma Process and Option Pricing,ā
European Finance Review, 2 (1998): 79ā105.
6 Note that all these parameters are liable to change when we move from the real world to the risk-neutral
world. This is in contrast to pure diffusion models where the volatility remains the same.
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Suppose that we are interested in using Excel to obtain 10,000 random samples of the
change in an asset price between time 0 and time T using the variance-gamma model.
As a preliminary, we could set cells E1, E2, E3, E4, E5, E6, and E7 equal to T, v, u, s, r,
q, and S0, respectively. We could also set E8 equal to v by defining it as
=$E$1 * LN11-$E$3 * $E$2-$E$4 * $E$4 * $E$2>22>$E$2
We could then proceed as follows:
1. Sample values for g using the GAMMAINV function. Set the contents of cells A1, A2, . . . , A10000 as
=GAMMAINV1RAND12, $ E$1>$E$2, $E$22
2. For each value of g we sample a value z for a variable that is normally distributed
with mean ug and standard deviation s2g. This can be done by defining cell B1 as
=A1 * $E$3+SQRT1A1 2 * $E$4 * NORMSINV1RAND122
and cells B2, B3, . . . , B10000 similarly.
3. The stock price ST is given by
ST=S0 exp31r-q2T+v+z4
By defining C1 as
=$E$7 * EXP11$E$5-$E$62 * $E$1+B1+$E$8)
and C2, C3, . . . , C10000 similarly, random samples from the distribution of ST are
created in these cells.
40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200Variance Gamma
Geometric Brownian MotionFigure 27.1 Distributions obtained with variance-gamma process and geometric
Brownian motion.
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646 CHAPTER 27
Figure 27.1 shows the probability distribution that is obtained using the variance-
gamma model for ST when S0=100, T=0.5, v=0.5, u=0.1, s=0.2, and
r=q=0. For comparison it also shows the distribution given by geometric Brownian
motion when the volatility, s is 0.2 (or 20%). Although not clear in Figure 27.1, the
variance-gamma distribution has heavier tails than the lognormal distribution given by
Variance-Gamma and Stochastic Volatility
- The variance-gamma model incorporates heavier tails than the standard lognormal distribution, better capturing extreme market movements.
- Economic time is represented by a parameter that measures the rate of information arrival, influencing the mean and variance of asset returns.
- Stochastic volatility models address the limitations of the Black-Scholes-Merton model by treating volatility as a dynamic, unpredictable variable.
- The Hull-White model demonstrates that when volatility is uncorrelated with asset price, the option price is the integral of Black-Scholes prices over the average variance distribution.
- Mean reversion is often built into variance rate processes, pulling the volatility back toward a long-term average level over time.
The parameter T is the usual time measure, and g is sometimes referred to as measuring economic time or time adjusted for the flow of information.
Geometric Brownian MotionFigure 27.1 Distributions obtained with variance-gamma process and geometric
Brownian motion.
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646 CHAPTER 27
Figure 27.1 shows the probability distribution that is obtained using the variance-
gamma model for ST when S0=100, T=0.5, v=0.5, u=0.1, s=0.2, and
r=q=0. For comparison it also shows the distribution given by geometric Brownian
motion when the volatility, s is 0.2 (or 20%). Although not clear in Figure 27.1, the
variance-gamma distribution has heavier tails than the lognormal distribution given by
geometric Brownian motion.
One way of characterizing the variance-gamma distribution is that g defines the rate
at which information arrives during time T. If g is large, a great deal of information
arrives and the sample we take from a normal distribution in step 2 above has a
relatively large mean and variance. If g is small, relatively little information arrives
and the sample we take has a relatively small mean and variance. The parameter T is the
usual time measure, and g is sometimes referred to as measuring economic time or time adjusted for the flow of information.
Semi-analytic European option valuation formulas are provided by Madan et al.
(1998). The variance-gamma model tends to produce a U-shaped volatility smile. The smile is not necessarily symmetrical. It is very pronounced for short maturities and ādies
awayā for long maturities. The model can be fitted to either equity or foreign currency plain vanilla option prices.
27.2 STOCHASTIC VOLATILITY MODELS
The BlackāScholesāMerton model assumes that volatility is constant. In practice, as discussed in Chapter 23, volatility varies through time. The variance-gamma model reflects this with its g variable. Low values of g correspond to a low arrival rate for information and a low volatility; high values of g correspond to a high arrival rate for information and a high volatility.
An alternative to the variance-gamma model is a model where the process followed
by the volatility variable is specified explicitly. Suppose first that the volatility parameter
in the geometric Brownian motion is a known function of time. The risk-neutral process followed by the asset price is then
dS=1r-q2S dt+s1t2S dz (27.1)
The BlackāScholesāMerton formulas are then correct provided that the variance rate is
set equal to the average variance rate during the life of the option (see Problem 27.6). The variance rate is the square of the volatility. Suppose that during a 1-year period the volatility of a stock will be 20% during the first 6 months and 30% during the second
6 months. The average variance rate is
0.5*0.202+0.5*0.302=0.065
It is correct to use BlackāScholesāMerton with a variance rate of 0.065. This corre-sponds to a volatility of
20.065=0.255, or 25.5%.
Equation (27.1) assumes that the instantaneous volatility of an asset is perfectly
predictable. In practice, volatility varies stochastically. This has led to the develop-ment of more complex models with two stochastic variables: the stock price and its volatility.
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One model that has been used by researchers is
dS>S=1r-q2 dt+2V dzS (27.2)
dV=a1VL-V2 dt+jVa dzV (27.3)
where a, VL, j, and a are constants, and dzS and dzV are Wiener processes. The variable V
in this model is the assetās variance rate. The variance rate has a drift that pulls it back to
a level VL at rate a.
Hull and White show that, when volatility is stochastic but uncorrelated with the asset
price, the price of a European option is the BlackāScholesāMerton price integrated over
the probability distribution of the average variance rate during the life of the option.7
Thus, a European call price is
3ā
0c1V2 g1V2 dV
Stochastic Volatility and SABR Models
- The Hull-White model demonstrates that when volatility is stochastic and uncorrelated with asset price, option prices are determined by the average variance rate over the option's life.
- Standard Black-Scholes-Merton models tend to overprice at-the-money options and underprice deep-in-the-money or deep-out-of-the-money options compared to stochastic models.
- Alternative approaches like GARCH(1,1) and EWMA provide internally consistent frameworks for characterizing stochastic volatility in option pricing.
- The SABR model has gained popularity among practitioners for its ability to fit observed volatility smiles and manage risks associated with smile movements over time.
- Correlation between asset price and volatility significantly complicates pricing, often requiring Monte Carlo simulations or specific analytic results like the Heston model.
This result can be used to show that BlackāScholesāMerton overprices options that are at the money or close to the money, and underprices options that are deep-in-or deep-out-of-the-money.
where a, VL, j, and a are constants, and dzS and dzV are Wiener processes. The variable V
in this model is the assetās variance rate. The variance rate has a drift that pulls it back to
a level VL at rate a.
Hull and White show that, when volatility is stochastic but uncorrelated with the asset
price, the price of a European option is the BlackāScholesāMerton price integrated over
the probability distribution of the average variance rate during the life of the option.7
Thus, a European call price is
3ā
0c1V2 g1V2 dV
where V is the average value of the variance rate, c is the BlackāScholesāMerton price
expressed as a function of V, and g is the probability density function of V in a risk-
neutral world. This result can be used to show that BlackāScholesāMerton overprices
options that are at the money or close to the money, and underprices options that are deep-in-or deep-out-of-the-money. The model is consistent with the pattern of implied volatilities observed for currency options (see Section 20.2).
The case where the asset price and volatility are correlated is more complicated. Option
prices can be obtained using Monte Carlo simulation. In the particular case where
a=0.5, Hull and White provide a series expansion and Heston provides an analytic
result.8 The pattern of implied volatilities obtained when the volatility is negatively
correlated with the asset price is similar to that observed for equities (see Section 20.3).9
Chapter 23 discusses exponentially weighted moving average (EWMA) and
GARCH(1,1) models. These are alternative approaches to characterizing a stochastic volatility model. Duan shows that it is possible to use GARCH(1,1) as the basis for an internally consistent option pricing model.
10 (See Problem 23.14 for the equivalence of
GARCH(1,1) and stochastic volatility models.)
The SABR Model
A stochastic volatility model that has become very popular with practitioners for
valuing European options (particularly interest rate options) maturing at a particular time T is the SABR model developed by Hagan et al. (2002).
11 The advantage of the
7 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āThe Pricing of Options on Assets with Stochastic Volatilities,ā Journal of
Finance, 42 (June 1987): 281ā300. This result is independent of the process followed by the variance rate.
8 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āAn Analysis of the Bias in Option Pricing Caused by a Stochastic Volatility,ā
Advances in Futures and Options Research, 3 (1988): 27ā61; S. L. Heston, āA Closed Form Solution for
Options with Stochastic Volatility with Applications to Bonds and Currency Options,ā Review of Financial
Studies, 6, 2 (1993): 327ā43. The Heston model is implemented in DerivaGem 4.00.
9 The reason is given in footnote 3.
10 See J.-C. Duan, āThe GARCH Option Pricing Model,ā Mathematical Finance, vol. 5 (1995), 13ā32; and
J.-C. Duan, āCracking the Smileā RISK, vol. 9 (December 1996), 55-59.
11 See P. Hagan, D. Kumar, A. Lesniewski, and D. Woodward, āManaging Smile Risk,ā Wilmott,
September 2002: 84ā108, and also www.math.ku.dk/~rolf/SABR.pdf. SABR is short for āstochastic alpha, beta, and rho.ā We use s instead of Hagan et al.ās
a.
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 647 30/04/2021 17:45
648 CHAPTER 27
model is that it can fit the volatility smiles observed in practice reasonably well and is
useful for managing risks associated with movements in the smile through time.
The model is
dF=sFb dz
ds
s=v dw
where F is a forward interest rate or the forward price of an asset, dz and dw are
Wiener processes, s is the stochastic volatility, and b and v are constants.12 Three other
parameters are r, the correlation between dz and dw, s0, the initial value of s, and F0,
the initial value of F.
Hagan et al. derive an approximate formula for the Black-model implied volatility
given by SABR for a European option with strike price K (see Sections 18.7 and 18.8 for
Blackās model). Define
x=1F0K211-b2>2, y=11-b2 ln1F0>K2
A=s0
SABR and Rough Volatility Models
- The SABR model uses stochastic volatility and forward interest rates to derive an approximate formula for Black-model implied volatility.
- Parameters in the SABR model, such as correlation and volatility of volatility, determine the specific shape and slope of the volatility smile.
- Rough volatility models utilize fractional Brownian motion with a low Hurst exponent to better describe the observed behavior of stock indices.
- The rough Heston model offers analytical tractability but requires complex simulations, leading to the development of the 'lifted Heston' model as a more efficient alternative.
Using high-frequency data, they find that a Hurst exponent between 0.06 and 0.20 fits the behavior of a range of different stock indices well.
where F is a forward interest rate or the forward price of an asset, dz and dw are
Wiener processes, s is the stochastic volatility, and b and v are constants.12 Three other
parameters are r, the correlation between dz and dw, s0, the initial value of s, and F0,
the initial value of F.
Hagan et al. derive an approximate formula for the Black-model implied volatility
given by SABR for a European option with strike price K (see Sections 18.7 and 18.8 for
Blackās model). Define
x=1F0K211-b2>2, y=11-b2 ln1F0>K2
A=s0
x11+y2>24+y4>19202, B=1+a11-b22s2
0
24x2+rbvs0
4x+2-3r2
24v2bT
f=vx
s0 ln aF0
Kb, x=ln a21-2rf+f2+f-r
1-rb
The implied volatility is ABf>x. If F0=K, this becomes s0B>1F1-b
02.13
The parameter s0 defines the level of the volatility. (It is roughly equivalent to the
volatility estimate in the usual lognormal model multiplied by F1-b
0.) The parameter r
defines the shape of the smile. For a large positive r, the smile is upward sloping; for a
large negative r, it is downward sloping; and for intermediate values of r, it is
U-shaped. As the parameter v increases, the smile become more accentuated. (See
Problem 27.23.) The SABR model is implemented in DerivaGem 4.00.
Often b is chosen equal to 0.5 in interest rate applications of the SABR model. The
parameters r, s0, and v that fit the smile typically depend on the maturity T being
considered. However, as mentioned earlier, the model has proved a useful way of
managing the risks in smile movements.
Rough Volatility Models
In Section 14.8, we introduced fractional Brownian motion. Gatheral, Jaisson, and
Rosenbaum (2018) argue that fractional Brownian motion gives a better description of the behavior of volatility than regular Brownian motion.
14 Using high-frequency data,
they find that a Hurst exponent between 0.06 and 0.20 fits the behavior of a range of
different stock indices well. It also fits the volatility surfaces that are observed in practice
12 This is the process for F in a world where F has zero drift. When interest rates are stochastic, it is correct
to discount the expected payoff from the derivative in this world from time T to time zero at the T-year rate.
This is explained in the next chapter.
13 Other researchers have come up with slightly more accurate formulas, but this is the one that is most
widely used.
14 See J. Gatheral, T. Jaisson, and M. Rosenbaum, āVolatility is Rough,ā Quantitative Finance, 18, 6 (2018):
933ā949.
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better than simpler stochastic volatility models. Models which are based on fractional
Brownian motion are known as rough volatility models.
One well-known rough volatility model is referred to as ārough Heston.ā It has the
advantage of being analytically tractable. The original Heston model is given by
equations (27.2) and (27.3) with a=0.5 and can be written as
dSt
St=1r-q2 dt+2Vt1r dzt+21-r2 dwt2
dVt=a1VL-Vt2 dt+j2Vt dzt
where dzt and dwt are uncorrelated Wiener processes and r is the correlation between
the stock price and its volatility. In the rough Heston model the process followed by the variance rate involves fractional Brownian motion rather than regular Brownian motion.
To value exotic options it is often necessary use Monte Carlo simulation. As
explained in Section 14.8, in fractional Brownian motion the change in a future time
period must be simulated so that it has the right correlation with changes in all
previous time periods. This is computationally very slow and has led Jaber (2019) to
suggest the lifted Heston model, which imitates rough Heston using only regular Brownian motion.
15
Stochastic and Local Volatility Models
- The rough Heston model utilizes fractional Brownian motion to describe variance rates but faces computational challenges due to complex historical correlations.
- The lifted Heston model was developed as a more efficient alternative that imitates rough volatility using only regular Brownian motion.
- The Implied Volatility Function (IVF) or local volatility model was designed to provide an exact fit to market prices of plain vanilla options.
- Financial institutions use the IVF model to ensure exotic options are priced consistently with the current market volatility surface.
- The model requires daily recalibration to prevent internal arbitrage by traders who might exploit discrepancies between different pricing models.
If the bank does not use a model with this property, there is a danger that traders working for the bank will spend their time arbitraging the bankās internal models.
where dzt and dwt are uncorrelated Wiener processes and r is the correlation between
the stock price and its volatility. In the rough Heston model the process followed by the variance rate involves fractional Brownian motion rather than regular Brownian motion.
To value exotic options it is often necessary use Monte Carlo simulation. As
explained in Section 14.8, in fractional Brownian motion the change in a future time
period must be simulated so that it has the right correlation with changes in all
previous time periods. This is computationally very slow and has led Jaber (2019) to
suggest the lifted Heston model, which imitates rough Heston using only regular Brownian motion.
15
15 See, for example, O. El Euch, J. Gatheral, and M. Rosenbaum, āRoughening Heston,ā Risk, May (2019):
84ā89, for a discussion of the rough volatility model, and E. A. Jaber, āLifting the Heston Model,ā
Quantitative Finance, 19 (2019): 1995ā2013, for the lifted Heston model.
16 There is a practical reason for this. If the bank does not use a model with this property, there is a danger
that traders working for the bank will spend their time arbitraging the bankās internal models.
17 See B. Dupire, āPricing with a Smile,ā Risk, February (1994): 18ā20; E. Derman and I. Kani, āRiding on a
Smile,ā Risk, February (1994): 32ā39; M. Rubinstein, āImplied Binomial Treesā Journal of Finance, 49, 3
(July 1994), 771ā818.27.3 THE IVF MODEL
The parameters of the models we have discussed so far can be chosen so that they
provide an approximate fit to the prices of plain vanilla options on any given day.
Financial institutions sometimes want to go one stage further and use a model that provides an exact fit to the prices of these options.
16 In 1994 Derman and Kani, Dupire,
and Rubinstein developed a model that is designed to do this. It has become known as the implied volatility function (IVF) model or the local volatility model.
17 It provides an
exact fit to the European option prices observed on any given day, regardless of the shape of the volatility surface.
The risk-neutral process for the asset price in the model has the form
dS=3r1t2-q1t24S dt+s1S, t2S dz
where r(t) is the instantaneous forward interest rate for a contract maturing at time t
and q(t) is the dividend yield as a function of time. The volatility s1S, t2 is a function of
both S and t and is chosen so that the model prices all European options consistently
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650 CHAPTER 27
with the market. It is shown both by Dupire and by Andersen and Brotherton-Ratcliffe
that s1S, t2 can be calculated analytically:18
3s1K, T242=2 0cmkt>0T+q1T2cmkt+K3r1T2-q1T240cmkt>0K
K2102cmkt>0K22 (27.4)
where cmkt1K, T2 is the market price of a European call option with strike price K and
maturity T. If a sufficiently large number of European call prices are available in the
market, this equation can be used to estimate the s1S, t2 function.19
Andersen and Brotherton-Ratcliffe implement the model by using equation (27.4)
together with the implicit finite difference method. An alternative approach, the
implied tree methodology suggested by Derman and Kani and Rubinstein, involves constructing a tree for the asset price that is consistent with option prices in the
market.
When it is used in practice the IVF model is recalibrated daily to the prices of plain
vanilla options. It is a tool to price exotic options consistently with plain vanilla
options. As discussed in Chapter 20 plain vanilla options define the risk-neutral
IVF Models and Convertible Bonds
- The Implied Volatility Function (IVF) model is used to price exotic options consistently with the market prices of plain vanilla options.
- While the IVF model correctly captures the risk-neutral probability distribution at single points in time, it may fail to accurately model joint distributions across multiple times.
- Exotic derivatives like barrier options are particularly susceptible to pricing errors under the IVF model because of these joint distribution inaccuracies.
- Convertible bonds represent complex financial instruments that combine debt with equity options, often featuring call provisions to force early conversion.
- Accurate valuation of convertible bonds requires the inclusion of credit risk to avoid overvaluing coupons and principal payments.
This means that options providing payoffs at just one time (e.g., cash-or-nothing and asset-or-nothing options) are priced correctly by the IVF model.
together with the implicit finite difference method. An alternative approach, the
implied tree methodology suggested by Derman and Kani and Rubinstein, involves constructing a tree for the asset price that is consistent with option prices in the
market.
When it is used in practice the IVF model is recalibrated daily to the prices of plain
vanilla options. It is a tool to price exotic options consistently with plain vanilla
options. As discussed in Chapter 20 plain vanilla options define the risk-neutral
probability distribution of the asset price at all future times. It follows that the IVF model gets the risk-neutral probability distribution of the asset price at all future times
correct. This means that options providing payoffs at just one time (e.g., cash-or- nothing and asset-or-nothing options) are priced correctly by the IVF model. However, the model does not necessarily get the joint distribution of the asset price at two or
more times correct. This means that exotic options such as compound options and barrier options may be priced incorrectly.
20
18 See B. Dupire, āPricing with a Smile,ā Risk, February (1994), 18ā20; L. B. G. Andersen and R.
Brotherton-Ratcliffe āThe Equity Option Volatility Smile: An Implicit Finite Difference Approach,ā Journal
of Computation Finance 1, No. 2 (Winter 1997/98): 5ā37. Dupire considers the case where r and q are zero; Andersen and Brotherton-Ratcliffe consider the more general situation.
19 Some smoothing of the observed volatility surface is typically necessary.
20 Hull and Suo test the IVF model by assuming that all derivative prices are determined by a stochastic
volatility model. They found that the model works reasonably well for compound options, but sometimes gives serious errors for barrier options. See J. C. Hull and W. Suo, āA Methodology for the Assessment of
Model Risk and its Application to the Implied Volatility Function Model,ā Journal of Financial and
Quantitative Analysis, 37, 2 (June 2002): 297ā31827.4 CONVERTIBLE BONDS
We now move on to discuss how the numerical procedures presented in Chapter 21 can
be modified to handle particular valuation problems. We start by considering con-
vertible bonds.
Convertible bonds are bonds issued by a company where the holder has the option to
exchange the bonds for the companyās stock at certain times in the future. The conversion
ratio is the number of shares of stock obtained for one bond (this can be a function of time). The bonds are almost always callable (i.e., the issuer has the right to buy them back
at certain times at a predetermined prices). The holder always has the right to convert the
bond once it has been called. The call feature is therefore usually a way of forcing
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conversion earlier than the holder would otherwise choose. Sometimes the holderās call
option is conditional on the price of the companyās stock being above a certain level.
Credit risk plays an important role in the valuation of convertibles. If credit risk is
ignored, poor prices are obtained because the coupons and principal payments on the bond are overvalued. Ingersoll provides a way of valuing convertibles using a model similar to Mertonās (1974) model discussed in Section 24.6.
21 He assumes geometric
Valuing Convertible Bonds with Credit Risk
- Credit risk is a critical factor in valuing convertible bonds, as ignoring it leads to the overvaluation of coupons and principal payments.
- Ingersoll's model treats convertible debt as a contingent claim on a company's total assets, similar to the Merton model for credit risk.
- A practical alternative involves modeling the stock price using a binomial tree that incorporates a risk-neutral hazard rate for default.
- In this modified binomial tree, each node accounts for three possibilities: a price increase, a price decrease, or a default where the stock price drops to zero.
- The valuation process involves rolling back through the tree while testing for optimal conversion by the holder and potential calls by the issuer.
In the event of a default the stock price falls to zero and there is a recovery on the bond.
conversion earlier than the holder would otherwise choose. Sometimes the holderās call
option is conditional on the price of the companyās stock being above a certain level.
Credit risk plays an important role in the valuation of convertibles. If credit risk is
ignored, poor prices are obtained because the coupons and principal payments on the bond are overvalued. Ingersoll provides a way of valuing convertibles using a model similar to Mertonās (1974) model discussed in Section 24.6.
21 He assumes geometric
Brownian motion for the issuerās total assets and models the companyās equity, its
convertible debt, and its other debt as claims contingent on the value of the assets. Credit risk is taken into account because the debt holders get repaid in full only if the value of the assets exceeds the amount owing to them.
A simpler model that is widely used in practice involves modeling the issuerās stock
price. It is assumed that the stock follows geometric Brownian motion except that there is a probability
lāt that there will be a default in each short period of time āt. In the
event of a default the stock price falls to zero and there is a recovery on the bond. The variable
l is the risk-neutral hazard rate defined in Section 24.2.
The stock price process can be represented by varying the usual binomial tree so that
at each node there is:
1. A probability pu of a percentage up movement of size u over the next time period
of length āt
2. A probability pd of a percentage down movement of size d over the next time
period of length āt
3. A probability l āt, or more accurately 1-e-lāt, that there will be a default with
the stock price moving to zero over the next time period of length āt
Assume that s is the volatility of the stock price conditional on no default and pdef is the
probability of default. Parameter values that match s and give an overall expected return
for the stock of r-q are:
pu=a-de-lāt
u-d, pd=ue-lāt-a
u-d, pdef=1-e-lāt, u=es2āt, d=1
u
where a=e1r-q2āt, r is the risk-free rate, and q is the dividend yield on the stock.
The life of the tree is set equal to the life of the convertible bond. The value of the
convertible at the final nodes of the tree is calculated based on any conversion options that the holder has at that time. We then roll back through the tree. At nodes where the
terms of the instrument allow conversion we test whether conversion is optimal. We also test whether the position of the issuer can be improved by calling the bonds. If so, we assume that the bonds are called and retest whether conversion is optimal.
Example 27.1
Consider a 9-month zero-coupon bond issued by company XYZ with a face value
of $100. Suppose that it can be exchanged for two shares of company XYZās stock at any time during the 9 months. Assume also that it is callable for $113 at any time. The initial stock price is $50, its volatility is 30% per annum, and there are no dividends. The hazard rate
l is 1% per year, and all risk-free rates for all
21 See J. E. Ingersoll, āA Contingent Claims Valuation of Convertible Securities,ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 4, (May 1977), 289ā322.
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652 CHAPTER 27
maturities are 5%. Suppose that in the event of a default the bond is worth $40
(i.e., the recovery rate, as it is usually defined, is 40%).
Figure 27.2 shows the stock price tree that can be used to value the convertible
when there are three time steps 1āt=0.252. The upper number at each node is the
stock price; the lower number is the price of the convertible bond. The tree par-
ameters are:
u=e0.320.25=1.1618, d=1>u=0.8607
a=e0.05*0.25=1.0126, pu=0.5115, pd=0.4860, pdef=0.0025
Valuing Convertible Bonds
- The text demonstrates the use of a binomial tree to calculate the value of a convertible bond by considering stock price movements and default probabilities.
- At each node, the model evaluates whether a bondholder should convert the bond into stock or if the issuer should call the bond to force conversion.
- The calculation accounts for a recovery rate, where the bond retains a specific valueāsuch as $40āeven if the underlying stock price drops to zero due to default.
- A limitation of this specific model is that the probability of default is treated as independent of the stock price, though more advanced models link the two.
- The final value of the convertible bond is determined by working backward from the terminal nodes to the initial node of the tree.
However, at this stage the bond issuer will call the bond for 113 and the bond holder will then decide that converting is better than being called.
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652 CHAPTER 27
maturities are 5%. Suppose that in the event of a default the bond is worth $40
(i.e., the recovery rate, as it is usually defined, is 40%).
Figure 27.2 shows the stock price tree that can be used to value the convertible
when there are three time steps 1āt=0.252. The upper number at each node is the
stock price; the lower number is the price of the convertible bond. The tree par-
ameters are:
u=e0.320.25=1.1618, d=1>u=0.8607
a=e0.05*0.25=1.0126, pu=0.5115, pd=0.4860, pdef=0.0025
At the three default nodes the stock price is zero and the bond price is 40.
Consider first the final nodes. At nodes G and H the bond should be converted
and is worth twice the stock price. At nodes I and J the bond should not be
converted and is worth 100.
Moving back through the tree enables the value to be calculated at earlier
nodes. Consider, for example, node E. The value, if the bond is converted,
is 2*50=$100. If it is not converted, then there is (a) a probability 0.5115 that
it will move to node H, where the bond is worth 116.18, (b) a 0.4860 probability that it will move down to node I, where the bond is worth 100, and (c) a 0.0025 probability that it will default and be worth 40. The value of the bond if it is not converted is therefore
10.5115*116.18+0.4860*100+0.0025*402*e-0.05*0.25=106.78G
78.42
D 156.83
67.49
B 134.99 H
58.09 58.09
A 116.18 E 116.18
50.00 50.00
107.44 C 106.78 I
43.04 43.04
101.37 F 100.00
37.04
98.61 J
31.88
100.00
Default Default Default
0.00 0.00 0.00
40.00 40.00 40.00Figure 27.2 Tree for valuing convertible. Upper number at each node is
stock price; lower number is convertible bond price.
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More on Models and Numerical Procedures 653
This is more than the value of 100 that it would have if converted. We deduce that
it is not worth converting the bond at node E. Finally, we note that the bond
issuer would not call the bond at node E because this would be offering 113 for a
bond worth 106.78.
As another example consider node B. The value of the bond if it is converted is
2*58.09=116.18. If it is not converted a similar calculation to that just given
for node E gives its value as 119.54. The convertible bond holder will therefore
choose not to convert. However, at this stage the bond issuer will call the bond for
113 and the bond holder will then decide that converting is better than being called. The value of the bond at node B is therefore 116.18. A similar argument is
used to arrive at the value at node D. With no conversion the value is 135.08. However, the bond is called, forcing conversion and reducing the value at the node to 134.99.
The value of the convertible is its value at the initial node A, or 107.44.
When interest is paid on the debt, it must be taken into account. At each node, when valuing the bond on the assumption that it is not converted, the present value of any interest payable on the bond in the next time step should be included. The risk-neutral hazard rate
l can be estimated from either bond prices or credit default swap spreads.
In a more general implementation, l, s, and r are functions of time. This can be
handled using a trinomial rather than a binomial tree (see Section 21.4).
One disadvantage of the model we have presented is that the probability of default is
independent of the stock price. This has led some researchers to suggest an implicit finite difference method implementation of the model where the hazard rate
l is a
function of the stock price as well as time.22
22 See, e.g., L. B. G. Andersen and D. Buffum, āCalibration and Implementation of Convertible Bond
Models,ā Journal of Computational Finance, 7, 1 (Winter 2003/04), 1ā34. These authors suggest assuming that
the hazard rate is inversely proportional to Sa, where S is the stock price and a is a positive constant.27.5 PATH-DEPENDENT DERIVATIVES
Valuing Convertibles and Path-Dependent Derivatives
- The valuation of convertible bonds requires analyzing decision nodes where holders choose between conversion and holding, while issuers decide whether to call the bond.
- Issuers can strategically use call options to force bondholders into conversion, effectively capping the bond's value at the conversion price.
- Advanced models incorporate risk-neutral hazard rates and stock-price-dependent default probabilities to improve the accuracy of credit risk assessments.
- Path-dependent derivatives, such as Asian and lookback options, require valuation methods that account for the asset's price history rather than just its final state.
- While Monte Carlo simulations are common for path-dependent options, binomial trees can be extended to handle American-style exercise features more efficiently.
However, the bond is called, forcing conversion and reducing the value at the node to 134.99.
This is more than the value of 100 that it would have if converted. We deduce that
it is not worth converting the bond at node E. Finally, we note that the bond
issuer would not call the bond at node E because this would be offering 113 for a
bond worth 106.78.
As another example consider node B. The value of the bond if it is converted is
2*58.09=116.18. If it is not converted a similar calculation to that just given
for node E gives its value as 119.54. The convertible bond holder will therefore
choose not to convert. However, at this stage the bond issuer will call the bond for
113 and the bond holder will then decide that converting is better than being called. The value of the bond at node B is therefore 116.18. A similar argument is
used to arrive at the value at node D. With no conversion the value is 135.08. However, the bond is called, forcing conversion and reducing the value at the node to 134.99.
The value of the convertible is its value at the initial node A, or 107.44.
When interest is paid on the debt, it must be taken into account. At each node, when valuing the bond on the assumption that it is not converted, the present value of any interest payable on the bond in the next time step should be included. The risk-neutral hazard rate
l can be estimated from either bond prices or credit default swap spreads.
In a more general implementation, l, s, and r are functions of time. This can be
handled using a trinomial rather than a binomial tree (see Section 21.4).
One disadvantage of the model we have presented is that the probability of default is
independent of the stock price. This has led some researchers to suggest an implicit finite difference method implementation of the model where the hazard rate
l is a
function of the stock price as well as time.22
22 See, e.g., L. B. G. Andersen and D. Buffum, āCalibration and Implementation of Convertible Bond
Models,ā Journal of Computational Finance, 7, 1 (Winter 2003/04), 1ā34. These authors suggest assuming that
the hazard rate is inversely proportional to Sa, where S is the stock price and a is a positive constant.27.5 PATH-DEPENDENT DERIVATIVES
A path-dependent derivative (or history-dependent derivative) is a derivative where the
payoff depends on the path followed by the price of the underlying asset, not just its
final value. Asian options and lookback options are examples of path-dependent
derivatives. As explained in Chapter 26, the payoff from an Asian option depends on the average price of the underlying asset; the payoff from a lookback option depends on
its maximum or minimum price. One approach to valuing path-dependent options when analytic results are not available is Monte Carlo simulation, as discussed in
Chapter 21. A sample value of the derivative can be calculated by sampling a random
path for the underlying asset in a risk-neutral world, calculating the payoff, and
discounting the payoff at the risk-free interest rate. An estimate of the value of the derivative is found by obtaining many sample values of the derivative in this way and calculating their mean.
The main problem with Monte Carlo simulation is that the computation time
necessary to achieve the required level of accuracy can be unacceptably high. Also, American-style path-dependent derivatives (i.e., path-dependent derivatives where one
side has exercise opportunities or other decisions to make) cannot easily be handled. In
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654 CHAPTER 27
this section, we show how the binomial tree methods presented in Chapter 21 can be
extended to cope with some path-dependent derivatives.23 The procedure can handle
American-style path-dependent derivatives and is computationally more efficient than Monte Carlo simulation for European-style path-dependent derivatives.
For the procedure to work, two conditions must be satisfied:
Path-Dependent Binomial Trees
- Standard Monte Carlo simulations often struggle with the high computational costs of accuracy and the complexities of American-style exercise features.
- Binomial tree methods can be extended to value path-dependent derivatives if the payoff depends on a single function of the asset's path.
- The procedure requires that the path function's value at a future time step can be calculated solely from its current value and the next asset price.
- The valuation process involves working forward to find path function extremes at each node, then rolling back using interpolation between representative values.
- This method is computationally more efficient than Monte Carlo for European-style path-dependent derivatives and effectively handles American-style options.
The procedure can handle American-style path-dependent derivatives and is computationally more efficient than Monte Carlo simulation for European-style path-dependent derivatives.
necessary to achieve the required level of accuracy can be unacceptably high. Also, American-style path-dependent derivatives (i.e., path-dependent derivatives where one
side has exercise opportunities or other decisions to make) cannot easily be handled. In
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654 CHAPTER 27
this section, we show how the binomial tree methods presented in Chapter 21 can be
extended to cope with some path-dependent derivatives.23 The procedure can handle
American-style path-dependent derivatives and is computationally more efficient than Monte Carlo simulation for European-style path-dependent derivatives.
For the procedure to work, two conditions must be satisfied:
1. The payoff from the derivative must depend on a single function, F, of the path followed by the underlying asset.
2. It must be possible to calculate the value of F at time
t+āt from the value of F
at time t and the value of the underlying asset at time t+āt.
First we construct a tree for the underlying assetās price in the usual way. The next
step is to work forward through the tree establishing the maximum and minimum
values of the path function at each node. Because the value of the path function at time
t+āt depends only on the value of the path function at time t and the value of
the underlying variable at time t+āt, the maximum and minimum values of the path
function for the nodes at time t+āt can be calculated in a straightforward way from
those for the nodes at time t. The second stage is to choose representative values of the
path function at each node. There are a number of approaches. A simple rule is to choose the representative values as the maximum value, the minimum value, and a
number of other values that are equally spaced between the maximum and the
minimum. As we roll back through the tree, we value the derivative for each of the representative values of the path function. When the value of the derivative is needed for other values of the path function, it is calculated by interpolation.
To illustrate the nature of the calculation, consider the problem of valuing the
average price call option in Example 26.3 of Section 26.13 when the payoff depends
on the arithmetic average stock price. The initial stock price is 50, the strike price is 50,
the risk-free interest rate is 10%, the stock price volatility is 40%, and the time to
maturity is 1 year. For 20 time steps, the binomial tree parameters are
āt=0.05,
u=1.0936, d=0.9144, p=0.5056, and 1-p=0.4944. The path function is the
Valuing Path-Dependent Options
- The process begins by constructing a standard binomial tree for the underlying asset's price and calculating the maximum and minimum path function values at each node.
- Representative values of the path function are selected at each node, typically using equally spaced intervals between the established maximum and minimum bounds.
- Backward induction is used to value the derivative, starting from the end of the tree and moving toward the initial time step.
- When the path function results in a value that does not match a representative node, linear interpolation is employed to estimate the derivative's value.
- The methodology is specifically applied to complex instruments like arithmetic average stock price call options where the payoff depends on the asset's history.
When the value of the derivative is needed for other values of the path function, it is calculated by interpolation.
at time t and the value of the underlying asset at time t+āt.
First we construct a tree for the underlying assetās price in the usual way. The next
step is to work forward through the tree establishing the maximum and minimum
values of the path function at each node. Because the value of the path function at time
t+āt depends only on the value of the path function at time t and the value of
the underlying variable at time t+āt, the maximum and minimum values of the path
function for the nodes at time t+āt can be calculated in a straightforward way from
those for the nodes at time t. The second stage is to choose representative values of the
path function at each node. There are a number of approaches. A simple rule is to choose the representative values as the maximum value, the minimum value, and a
number of other values that are equally spaced between the maximum and the
minimum. As we roll back through the tree, we value the derivative for each of the representative values of the path function. When the value of the derivative is needed for other values of the path function, it is calculated by interpolation.
To illustrate the nature of the calculation, consider the problem of valuing the
average price call option in Example 26.3 of Section 26.13 when the payoff depends
on the arithmetic average stock price. The initial stock price is 50, the strike price is 50,
the risk-free interest rate is 10%, the stock price volatility is 40%, and the time to
maturity is 1 year. For 20 time steps, the binomial tree parameters are
āt=0.05,
u=1.0936, d=0.9144, p=0.5056, and 1-p=0.4944. The path function is the
arithmetic average of the stock price.
Figure 27.3 shows the calculations that are carried out in one small part of the tree.
Node X is the central node at time 0.2 year (at the end of the fourth time step). Nodes Y
and Z are the two nodes at time 0.25 year that are reachable from node X. The stock price at node X is 50. Forward induction shows that the maximum average stock price that is achievable in reaching node X is 53.83. The minimum is 46.65. (The initial and final stock prices are included when calculating the average.) From node X, the tree branches to one of the two nodes Y and Z. At node Y, the stock price is 54.68 and the bounds for the average are 47.99 and 57.39. At node Z, the stock price is 45.72 and the bounds for the average stock price are 43.88 and 52.48.
Suppose that the representative values of the average are chosen to be four equally
spaced values at each node. This means that, at node X, averages of 46.65, 49.04, 51.44,
and 53.83 are considered; at node Y, averages 47.99, 51.12, 54.26, and 57.39 are
considered; and at node Z, averages 43.88, 46.75, 49.61, and 52.48 are considered. Assume that backward induction has already been used to calculate the value of the option for each of the alternative values of the average at nodes Y and Z. Values are
23 This approach was suggested in J. C. Hull and A. White, āEfficient Procedures for Valuing European and
American Path-Dependent Options,ā Journal of Derivatives, 1, 1 (Fall 1993): 21ā31.
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More on Models and Numerical Procedures 655
shown in Figure 27.3 (e.g., at node Y when the average is 51.12, the value of the option
is 8.101).
Consider the calculations at node X for the case where the average is 51.44. If the
stock price moves up to node Y, the new average will be
5*51.44+54.68
6=51.98
The value of the derivative at node Y for this average can be found by interpolating between the values when the average is 51.12 and when it is 54.26. It is
151.98-51.122*8.635+154.26-51.982*8.101
54.26-51.12=8.247
Similarly, if the stock price moves down to node Z, the new average will be
5*51.44+45.72
6=50.49
and by interpolation the value of the derivative is 4.182.
The value of the derivative at node X when the average is 51.44 is, therefore,
10.5056*8.247+0.4944*4.1822e-0.1*0.05=6.206
Valuing Path-Dependent Options
- The text demonstrates how to value options on an arithmetic average by interpolating between nodes in a binomial or trinomial tree.
- As the number of time steps and averages per node increases, the option value converges toward the correct analytic approximation.
- A significant advantage of this numerical method is its ability to handle American options by testing for early exercise at every node.
- Standard tree-based methods for barrier options often suffer from slow convergence because the discrete nodes create a 'jagged' barrier that differs from the true barrier.
The reason for this is that the barrier being assumed by the tree is different from the true barrier.
5*51.44+54.68
6=51.98
The value of the derivative at node Y for this average can be found by interpolating between the values when the average is 51.12 and when it is 54.26. It is
151.98-51.122*8.635+154.26-51.982*8.101
54.26-51.12=8.247
Similarly, if the stock price moves down to node Z, the new average will be
5*51.44+45.72
6=50.49
and by interpolation the value of the derivative is 4.182.
The value of the derivative at node X when the average is 51.44 is, therefore,
10.5056*8.247+0.4944*4.1822e-0.1*0.05=6.206
The other values at node X are calculated similarly. Once the values at all nodes at
time 0.2 year have been calculated, the nodes at time 0.15 year can be considered.
The value given by the full tree for the option at time zero is 7.17. As the number of
time steps and the number of averages considered at each node is increased, the value of
the option converges to the correct answer. With 60 time steps and 100 averages at each node, the value of the option is 5.58. The analytic approximation for the value of the option, as calculated in Example 26.3, with continuous averaging is 5.62.XY
ZS 5 50.00
Average S
46.65
49.04
51.44
53.835.642
5.923
6.206
6.492Option priceS 5 54.68
Average S
47.99
51.12
54.26
57.397.5758.101
8.635
9.178Option pric
e
S 5 45.72
Average S
43.88
46.75
49.61
52.483.430
3.7504.079
4.416Option pric eFigure 27.3 Part of tree for valuing option on the arithmetic average.
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656 CHAPTER 27
A key advantage of the method described here is that it can handle American
options. The calculations are as we have described them except that we test for early
exercise at each node for each of the alternative values of the path function at the
node. (In practice, the early exercise decision is liable to depend on both the value of
the path function and the value of the underlying asset.) Consider the American
version of the average price call considered here. The value calculated using the 20-step tree and four averages at each node is 7.77; with 60 time steps and 100 averages, the value is 6.17.
The approach just described can be used in a range of different situations. The two
conditions that must be satisfied were listed at the beginning of this section. Efficiency is
improved somewhat if quadratic rather than linear interpolation is used at each node.
27.6 BARRIER OPTIONS
Chapter 26 presented analytic results for standard barrier options. This section con-siders numerical procedures that can be used for barrier options when there are no analytic results.
In principle, many barrier options can be valued using the binomial and trinomial
trees discussed in Chapter 21. Consider an up-and-out option. A simple approach is to
value this in the same way as a regular option except that, when a node above the
barrier is encountered, the value of the option is set equal to zero.
Trinomial trees work better than binomial trees, but even for them convergence is
very slow when the simple approach is used. A large number of time steps are required to obtain a reasonably accurate result. The reason for this is that the barrier being assumed by the tree is different from the true barrier.
24 Define the inner barrier as the
barrier formed by nodes just on the inside of the true barrier (i.e., closer to the center of
the tree) and the outer barrier as the barrier formed by nodes just outside the true barrier (i.e., farther away from the center of the tree). Figure 27.4 shows the inner and
outer barrier for a trinomial tree on the assumption that the true barrier is horizontal. The usual tree calculations implicitly assume that the outer barrier is the true barrier because the barrier conditions are first used at nodes on this barrier. When the time step is
āt, the vertical spacing between the nodes is of order 2āt. This means that errors
created by the difference between the true barrier and the outer barrier also tend to be
of order 2āt.
Refining Barrier Option Trees
- Standard trinomial trees often suffer from pricing errors because the discrete nodes do not align perfectly with the continuous barrier level.
- One solution involves calculating prices based on both an inner and outer barrier and then interpolating between the two results.
- A more precise method adjusts the tree's upward movement parameter so that nodes are forced to lie exactly on the barrier level.
- When the initial asset price is extremely close to the barrier, an adaptive mesh model can graft a fine tree onto a coarse tree for higher resolution.
- The probabilities for the adjusted tree branches are recalculated to ensure the first two moments of the asset's return remain consistent.
The usual tree calculations implicitly assume that the outer barrier is the true barrier because the barrier conditions are first used at nodes on this barrier.
barrier formed by nodes just on the inside of the true barrier (i.e., closer to the center of
the tree) and the outer barrier as the barrier formed by nodes just outside the true barrier (i.e., farther away from the center of the tree). Figure 27.4 shows the inner and
outer barrier for a trinomial tree on the assumption that the true barrier is horizontal. The usual tree calculations implicitly assume that the outer barrier is the true barrier because the barrier conditions are first used at nodes on this barrier. When the time step is
āt, the vertical spacing between the nodes is of order 2āt. This means that errors
created by the difference between the true barrier and the outer barrier also tend to be
of order 2āt.
One approach to overcoming this problem is to:
1. Calculate the price of the derivative on the assumption that the inner barrier is the
true barrier.
2. Calculate the value of the derivative on the assumption that the outer barrier is the
true barrier.
3. Interpolate between the two prices.
Another approach is to ensure that nodes lie on the barrier. Suppose that the initial stock price is
S0 and that the barrier is at H. In a trinomial tree, there are three possible
24 For a discussion of this, see P. P. Boyle and S. H. Lau, āBumping Up Against the Barrier with the
Binomial Method,ā Journal of Derivatives, 1, 4 (Summer 1994): 6ā14.
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More on Models and Numerical Procedures 657
movements in the assetās price at each node: up by a proportional amount u; stay the
same; and down by a proportional amount d, where d=1>u. We can always choose u
so that nodes lie on the barrier. The condition that must be satisfied by u is
H=S0uN
or
ln H=ln S0+N ln u
for some positive or negative N.
When discussing trinomial trees in Section 21.4, the value suggested for u was es23āt,
so that ln u=s23āt. In the situation considered here, a good rule is to choose ln u as
close as possible to this value, consistent with the condition given above. This means that
ln u=ln H-ln S0
N
where
N=intcln H-ln S0
s23āt+0.5d
and int1x2 is the integral part of x.
This leads to a tree of the form shown in Figure 27.5. The probabilities pu, pm, and
pd on the upper, middle, and lower branches of the tree are chosen to match the first Outer barrier
True barrier
Inner barrierFigure 27.4 Barriers assumed by trinomial trees.
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658 CHAPTER 27
two moments of the return, so that
pd=-1r-q-s2>22āt
2 ln u+s2āt
21ln u22, pm=1-s2āt
1ln u22, pu=1r-q-s2>22āt
2 ln u+s2āt
21ln u22
The methods presented so far work reasonably well when the initial asset price is not
close to the barrier. When the initial asset price is close to a barrier, the adaptive mesh model, which was introduced in Section 21.4, can be used.
25 The idea behind the model
is that computational efficiency can be improved by grafting a fine tree onto a coarse tree to achieve a more detailed modeling of the asset price in the regions of the tree where it is needed most. To value a barrier option, it is computationally efficient to have a fine tree close to barriers with nodes on the barriers.
25 See S. Figlewski and B. Gao, āThe Adaptive Mesh Model: A New Approach to Efficient Option Pricing,ā
Journal of Financial Economics, 53 (1999): 313ā51.BarrierFigure 27.5 Tree with nodes lying on barrier.
27.7 OPTIONS ON TWO CORRELATED ASSETS
Another tricky numerical problem is that of valuing American options dependent on two assets whose prices are correlated. A number of alternative approaches have been suggested. This section will explain three of these.
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Transforming Variables
Valuing Correlated Asset Options
- Computational efficiency in option pricing can be improved by grafting fine trees onto coarse trees, particularly near barriers.
- Valuing American options on two correlated assets requires specialized numerical procedures to handle the interaction between variables.
- One method involves transforming correlated stock price variables into two new uncorrelated variables, x1 and x2, which can be modeled using separate binomial trees.
- These uncorrelated trees are combined into a single three-dimensional tree where probabilities are the products of the individual branch probabilities.
- Alternative approaches include using nonrectangular node arrangements to directly account for the correlation between asset prices.
To value a barrier option, it is computationally efficient to have a fine tree close to barriers with nodes on the barriers.
is that computational efficiency can be improved by grafting a fine tree onto a coarse tree to achieve a more detailed modeling of the asset price in the regions of the tree where it is needed most. To value a barrier option, it is computationally efficient to have a fine tree close to barriers with nodes on the barriers.
25 See S. Figlewski and B. Gao, āThe Adaptive Mesh Model: A New Approach to Efficient Option Pricing,ā
Journal of Financial Economics, 53 (1999): 313ā51.BarrierFigure 27.5 Tree with nodes lying on barrier.
27.7 OPTIONS ON TWO CORRELATED ASSETS
Another tricky numerical problem is that of valuing American options dependent on two assets whose prices are correlated. A number of alternative approaches have been suggested. This section will explain three of these.
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Transforming Variables
It is relatively easy to construct a tree in three dimensions to represent the movements
of two uncorrelated variables. The procedure is as follows. First, construct a two-
dimensional tree for each variable, and then combine these trees into a single three- dimensional tree. The probabilities on the branches of the three-dimensional tree are the product of the corresponding probabilities on the two-dimensional trees. Suppose, for example, that the variables are stock prices,
S1 and S2. Each can be represented in
two dimensions by a Cox, Ross, and Rubinstein binomial tree. Assume that S1 has a
probability p1 of moving up by a proportional amount u1 and a probability 1-p1 of
moving down by a proportional amount d1. Suppose further that S2 has a
probability p2 of moving up by a proportional amount u2 and a probability 1-p2
of moving down by a proportional amount d2. In the three-dimensional tree there are
four branches emanating from each node. The probabilities are:
p1p2: S1 increases; S2 increases
p111-p22: S1 increases; S2 decreases
11-p12p2: S1 decreases; S2 increases
11-p1211-p22: S1 decreases; S2 decreases
Consider next the situation where S1 and S2 are correlated. Suppose that the risk-
neutral processes are:
dS1=1r-q12S1 dt+s1S1 dz1
dS2=1r-q22S2 dt+s2S2 dz2
and the instantaneous correlation between the Wiener processes, dz1 and dz2, is r. This
means that
d ln S1=1r-q1-s2
1>22 dt+s1 dz1
d ln S2=1r-q2-s2
2>22 dt+s2 dz2
Two new uncorrelated variables can be defined:26
x1=s2 ln S1+s1 ln S2
x2=s2 ln S1-s1 ln S2
These variables follow the processes
dx1=3s21r-q1-s2
1>22+s11r-q2-s22>224 dt+s1s22211+r2 dzA
dx2=3s21r-q1-s2
1>22-s11r-q2-s22>224 dt+s1s22211-r2 dzB
where dzA and dzB are uncorrelated Wiener processes.
The variables x1 and x2 can be modeled using two separate binomial trees. In time āt,
xi has a probability pi of increasing by hi and a probability 1-pi of decreasing by hi .
The variables hi and pi are chosen so that the tree gives correct values for the first two
moments of the distribution of x1 and x2. Because they are uncorrelated, the two trees
can be combined into a single three-dimensional tree, as already described. At each
26 This idea was suggested in J. C. Hull and A. White, āValuing Derivative Securities Using the Explicit
Finite Difference Method,ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 25 (1990): 87ā100.
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660 CHAPTER 27
node of the tree, S1 and S2 can be calculated from x1 and x2 using the inverse
relationships
S1=expcx1+x2
2s2d and S2=expcx1-x2
2s1d
The procedure for rolling back through a three-dimensional tree to value a derivative is
analogous to that for a two-dimensional tree.
Using a Nonrectangular Tree
Rubinstein has suggested a way of building a three-dimensional tree for two correlated
stock prices by using a nonrectangular arrangement of the nodes.27 From a
node 1S1, S22, where the first stock price is S1 and the second stock price is S2, there
is a 0.25 chance of moving to each of the following:
Multidimensional Trees and American Options
- Rubinstein's nonrectangular tree method allows for the valuation of derivatives involving two correlated stock prices by using a specific four-node branching structure.
- An alternative approach to modeling correlation involves starting with independent binomial trees and adjusting the node probabilities to reflect the correlation coefficient.
- While trees are standard for American options, Monte Carlo simulation is traditionally preferred for path-dependent options and high-dimensional stochastic variables.
- The Longstaff and Schwartz least-squares approach provides a methodology for using Monte Carlo simulation to value options that are both American-style and path-dependent.
A third approach to building a three-dimensional tree for S1 and S2 involves first assuming no correlation and then adjusting the probabilities at each node to reflect the correlation.
relationships
S1=expcx1+x2
2s2d and S2=expcx1-x2
2s1d
The procedure for rolling back through a three-dimensional tree to value a derivative is
analogous to that for a two-dimensional tree.
Using a Nonrectangular Tree
Rubinstein has suggested a way of building a three-dimensional tree for two correlated
stock prices by using a nonrectangular arrangement of the nodes.27 From a
node 1S1, S22, where the first stock price is S1 and the second stock price is S2, there
is a 0.25 chance of moving to each of the following:
1S1u1, S2A2, 1S1u1, S2B2, 1S1d1, S2C2, 1S1d1, S2D2
where
u1=exp31r-q1-s2
1>22 āt+s12āt4
d1=exp31r-q1-s2
1>22 āt-s12āt4
and
A=exp31r-q2-s2
2>22āt+s22āt1r+21-r224
B=exp31r-q2-s2
2>22āt+s22āt1r-21-r224
C=exp31r-q2-s2
2>22āt-s22āt1r-21-r224
D=exp31r-q2-s2
2>22āt-s22āt1r+21-r224
When the correlation is zero, this method is equivalent to constructing separate trees for
S1 and S2 using the alternative binomial tree construction method in Section 21.4.
Adjusting the Probabilities
A third approach to building a three-dimensional tree for S1 and S2 involves first
assuming no correlation and then adjusting the probabilities at each node to reflect the
correlation.28 The alternative binomial tree construction method for each of S1 and S2 in
Section 21.4 is used. This method has the property that all probabilities are 0.5. When the
two binomial trees are combined on the assumption that there is no correlation, the
probabilities are as shown in Table 27.2. When the probabilities are adjusted to reflect the
correlation, they become those shown in Table 27.3.
27 See M. Rubinstein, āReturn to Oz,ā Risk, November (1994): 67ā70.
28 This approach was suggested in the context of interest rate trees in J. C. Hull and A. White, āNumerical
Procedures for Implementing Term Structure Models II: Two-Factor Models,ā Journal of Derivatives, Winter
(1994): 37ā48.27.8 MONTE CARLO SIMULATION AND AMERICAN OPTIONS
Monte Carlo simulation is well suited to valuing path-dependent options and options where there are many stochastic variables. Trees and finite difference methods are well
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suited to valuing American-style options. What happens if an option is both path
dependent and American? What happens if an American option depends on several stochastic variables? Section 27.5 explained a way in which the binomial tree approach can be modified to value path-dependent options in some situations. A number of researchers have adopted a different approach by searching for a way in which Monte Carlo simulation can be used to value American-style options.
29 This section explains
two alternative ways of proceeding.
The Least-Squares Approach
In order to value an American-style option it is necessary to choose between exercising and continuing at each early exercise point. The value of exercising is normally easy to determine. A number of researchers including Longstaff and Schwartz provide a way of Table 27.3 Combination of binomials assuming
correlation of r.
S2-move S1-move
Down Up
Up 0.2511-r2 0.2511+r2
Down 0.2511+r2 0.2511-r2Table 27.2 Combination of binomials assuming
no correlation.
S2-move S1-move
Down Up
Up 0.25 0.25
Down 0.25 0.25
29 Tilley was the first researcher to publish a solution to the problem. See J. A. Tilley, āValuing American
Options in a Path Simulation Model,ā Transactions of the Society of Actuaries, 45 (1993): 83ā104.Table 27.4 Sample paths for put option example.
Path t=0 t=1 t=2 t=3
1 1.00 1.09 1.08 1.34
2 1.00 1.16 1.26 1.54
3 1.00 1.22 1.07 1.03
4 1.00 0.93 0.97 0.92
5 1.00 1.11 1.56 1.52
6 1.00 0.76 0.77 0.90
7 1.00 0.92 0.84 1.01
8 1.00 0.88 1.22 1.34
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662 CHAPTER 27
determining the value of continuing when Monte Carlo simulation is used.30 Their
Valuing American Options via Simulation
- The text describes the LongstaffāSchwartz approach for valuing American options using Monte Carlo simulation and least-squares analysis.
- A key challenge in this method is determining the value of continuing the option versus exercising it early at specific time steps.
- The model uses a quadratic relationship to estimate the continuation value based on the current stock price for paths that are in the money.
- By comparing the estimated continuation value to the immediate exercise value, the optimal decision is determined for each simulated path.
- The process works backward from the final expiration date to the present, updating cash flows based on these early exercise decisions.
Their approach involves using a least-squares analysis to determine the best-fit relationship between the value of continuing and the values of relevant variables at each time an early exercise decision has to be made.
29 Tilley was the first researcher to publish a solution to the problem. See J. A. Tilley, āValuing American
Options in a Path Simulation Model,ā Transactions of the Society of Actuaries, 45 (1993): 83ā104.Table 27.4 Sample paths for put option example.
Path t=0 t=1 t=2 t=3
1 1.00 1.09 1.08 1.34
2 1.00 1.16 1.26 1.54
3 1.00 1.22 1.07 1.03
4 1.00 0.93 0.97 0.92
5 1.00 1.11 1.56 1.52
6 1.00 0.76 0.77 0.90
7 1.00 0.92 0.84 1.01
8 1.00 0.88 1.22 1.34
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662 CHAPTER 27
determining the value of continuing when Monte Carlo simulation is used.30 Their
approach involves using a least-squares analysis to determine the best-fit relationship
between the value of continuing and the values of relevant variables at each time an early exercise decision has to be made. The approach is best illustrated with a numerical example. We use the one in the LongstaffāSchwartz paper.
Consider a 3-year American put option on a non-dividend-paying stock that can be
exercised at the end of year 1, the end of year 2, and the end of year 3. The risk-free rate is 6% per annum (continuously compounded). The current stock price is 1.00 and the strike price is 1.10. Assume that the eight paths shown in Table 27.4 are sampled for the stock price. (This example is for illustration only; in practice many more paths would be sampled.) If the option can be exercised only at the 3-year point, it provides a cash flow
equal to its intrinsic value at that point. This is shown in the last column of Table 27.5.
If the put option is in the money at the 2-year point, the option holder must decide
whether to exercise. Table 27.4 shows that the option is in the money at the 2-year point
for paths 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7. For these paths, we assume an approximate relationship:
V=a+bS+cS2
where S is the stock price at the 2-year point and V is the value of continuing,
discounted back to the 2-year point. Our five observations on S are: 1.08, 1.07, 0.97,
0.77, and 0.84. From Table 27.5 the corresponding values for V are: 0.00, 0.07e-0.06*1,
0.18e-0.06*1, 0.20e-0.06*1, and 0.09e-0.06*1. The values of a, b, and c that minimize
a5
i=11Vi-a-bSi-cS2
i22
where Si and Vi are the ith observation on S and V, respectively, are a=-1.070,
b=2.983 and c=-1.813, so that the best-fit relationship is
V=-1.070+2.983S-1.813S2
This gives the value at the 2-year point of continuing for paths 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 of 0.0369,
0.0461, 0.1176, 0.1520, and 0.1565, respectively. From Table 27.4 the value of exercising Table 27.5 Cash flows if exercise only possible at 3-year point.
Path t=1 t=2 t=3
1 0.00 0.00 0.00
2 0.00 0.00 0.00
3 0.00 0.00 0.07
4 0.00 0.00 0.18
5 0.00 0.00 0.00
6 0.00 0.00 0.20
7 0.00 0.00 0.09
8 0.00 0.00 0.00
30 See F. A. Longstaff and E. S. Schwartz, āValuing American Options by Simulation: A Simple Least-
Squares Approach,ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 1 (Spring 2001): 113ā47.
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is 0.02, 0.03, 0.13, 0.33, and 0.26. This means that we should exercise at the 2-year point
for paths 4, 6, and 7. Table 27.6 summarizes the cash flows assuming exercise at either the 2-year point or the 3-year point for the eight paths.
Consider next the paths that are in the money at the 1-year point. These are paths 1,
4, 6, 7, and 8. From Table 27.4 the values of S for the paths are 1.09, 0.93, 0.76, 0.92,
and 0.88, respectively. From Table 27.6, the corresponding continuation values
discounted back to
t=1 are 0.00, 0.13e-0.06*1, 0.33e-0.06*1, 0.26e-0.06*1, and 0.00,
respectively. The least-squares relationship is
V=2.038-3.335S+1.356S2
Valuing American Options via Simulation
- The text demonstrates the Longstaff-Schwartz least-squares approach to determine optimal early exercise for American-style options.
- By comparing the immediate exercise value against a calculated continuation value, the model identifies specific paths where early exercise is financially superior.
- The method uses a quadratic relationship to estimate the value of continuing the option based on the current asset price.
- Alternative approaches, such as the Exercise Boundary Parameterization, iteratively determine critical price thresholds to optimize the exercise decision.
- The simulation-based valuation is confirmed as optimal when the calculated option value exceeds the immediate exercise payoff at time zero.
The relationship between V and S can be assumed to be more complicated; for example we could assume that V is a cubic rather than a quadratic function of S.
is 0.02, 0.03, 0.13, 0.33, and 0.26. This means that we should exercise at the 2-year point
for paths 4, 6, and 7. Table 27.6 summarizes the cash flows assuming exercise at either the 2-year point or the 3-year point for the eight paths.
Consider next the paths that are in the money at the 1-year point. These are paths 1,
4, 6, 7, and 8. From Table 27.4 the values of S for the paths are 1.09, 0.93, 0.76, 0.92,
and 0.88, respectively. From Table 27.6, the corresponding continuation values
discounted back to
t=1 are 0.00, 0.13e-0.06*1, 0.33e-0.06*1, 0.26e-0.06*1, and 0.00,
respectively. The least-squares relationship is
V=2.038-3.335S+1.356S2
This gives the value of continuing at the 1-year point for paths 1, 4, 6, 7, 8 as 0.0139, 0.1092, 0.2866, 0.1175, and 0.1533, respectively. From Table 27.4 the value of exercising is 0.01, 0.17, 0.34, 0.18, and 0.22, respectively. This means that we should exercise at the
1-year point for paths 4, 6, 7, and 8. Table 27.7 summarizes the cash flows assuming
that early exercise is possible at all three times. The value of the option is determined by
discounting each cash flow back to time zero at the risk-free rate and calculating the mean of the results. It is
1
810.07e-0.06*3+0.17e-0.06*1+0.34e-0.06*1+0.18e-0.06*1+0.22e-0.06*12=0.1144
Since this is greater than 0.10, it is not optimal to exercise the option immediately.Table 27.6 Cash flows if exercise only possible at 2- and 3-year point.
Path t=1 t=2 t=3
1 0.00 0.00 0.00
2 0.00 0.00 0.00
3 0.00 0.00 0.07
4 0.00 0.13 0.00
5 0.00 0.00 0.00
6 0.00 0.33 0.00
7 0.00 0.26 0.00
8 0.00 0.00 0.00
Table 27.7 Cash flows from option.
Path t=1 t=2 t=3
1 0.00 0.00 0.00
2 0.00 0.00 0.00
3 0.00 0.00 0.07
4 0.17 0.00 0.00
5 0.00 0.00 0.00
6 0.34 0.00 0.00
7 0.18 0.00 0.00
8 0.22 0.00 0.00
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664 CHAPTER 27
This method can be extended in a number of ways. If the option can be exercised at
any time we can approximate its value by considering a large number of exercise points
(just as a binomial tree does). The relationship between V and S can be assumed to be
more complicated. For example we could assume that V is a cubic rather than a
quadratic function of S. The method can be used where the early exercise decision depends on several state variables. A functional form for the relationship between V and the variables is assumed and the parameters are estimated using the least-squares approach, as in the example just considered.
The Exercise Boundary Parameterization Approach
A number of researchers, such as Andersen, have proposed an alternative approach where the early exercise boundary is parameterized and the optimal values of the parameters are determined iteratively by starting at the end of the life of the option and working backward.
31 To illustrate the approach, we continue with the put option
example and assume that the eight paths shown in Table 27.4 have been sampled. In
this case, the early exercise boundary at time t can be parameterized by a critical value of
S, S*1t2. If the asset price at time t is below S*1t2 we exercise at time t; if it is above
S*1t2 we do not exercise at time t. The value of S*132 is 1.10. If the stock price is above
1.10 when t=3 (the end of the optionās life) we do not exercise; if it is below 1.10 we
exercise. We now consider the determination of S*122.
Suppose that we choose a value of S*122 less than 0.77. The option is not exercised at
the 2-year point for any of the paths. The value of the option at the 2-year point for the eight paths is then 0.00, 0.00,
0.07e-0.06*1, 0.18e-0.06*1, 0.00, 0.20e-0.06*1, 0.09e-0.06*1,
and 0.00, respectively. The average of these is 0.0636. Suppose next that S*122=0.77.
The value of the option at the 2-year point for the eight paths is then 0.00, 0.00,
0.07e-0.06*1, 0.18e-0.06*1, 0.00, 0.33, 0.09e-0.06*1, and 0.00, respectively. The average
Determining Early Exercise Boundaries
- The text demonstrates how to parameterize an early exercise boundary for American-style options using a critical asset price value.
- Optimal exercise thresholds are determined by testing various price levels to see which maximizes the average value of the option across sampled paths.
- The process involves a backward induction approach, moving from the end of the option's life toward time zero to establish exercise criteria.
- In practice, tens of thousands of simulations are required to define these boundaries before a final Monte Carlo simulation is run for valuation.
- Because these methods often underprice options by assuming suboptimal boundaries, researchers have developed procedures to establish upper bounds for more precise pricing.
Once the early exercise boundary has been obtained, the paths for the variables are discarded and a new Monte Carlo simulation using the early exercise boundary is carried out to value the option.
example and assume that the eight paths shown in Table 27.4 have been sampled. In
this case, the early exercise boundary at time t can be parameterized by a critical value of
S, S*1t2. If the asset price at time t is below S*1t2 we exercise at time t; if it is above
S*1t2 we do not exercise at time t. The value of S*132 is 1.10. If the stock price is above
1.10 when t=3 (the end of the optionās life) we do not exercise; if it is below 1.10 we
exercise. We now consider the determination of S*122.
Suppose that we choose a value of S*122 less than 0.77. The option is not exercised at
the 2-year point for any of the paths. The value of the option at the 2-year point for the eight paths is then 0.00, 0.00,
0.07e-0.06*1, 0.18e-0.06*1, 0.00, 0.20e-0.06*1, 0.09e-0.06*1,
and 0.00, respectively. The average of these is 0.0636. Suppose next that S*122=0.77.
The value of the option at the 2-year point for the eight paths is then 0.00, 0.00,
0.07e-0.06*1, 0.18e-0.06*1, 0.00, 0.33, 0.09e-0.06*1, and 0.00, respectively. The average
of these is 0.0813. Similarly when S*122 equals 0.84, 0.97, 1.07, and 1.08, the average
value of the option at the 2-year point is 0.1032, 0.0982, 0.0938, and 0.0963, respectively.
This analysis shows that the optimal value of S*122 (i.e., the one that maximizes the
average value of the option) is 0.84. (More precisely, it is optimal to choose
0.84ā¦S*12260.97.) When we choose this optimal value for S*122, the value of the
option at the 2-year point for the eight paths is 0.00, 0.00, 0.0659, 0.1695, 0.00, 0.33, 0.26, and 0.00, respectively. The average value is 0.1032.
We now move on to calculate
S*112. If S*11260.76 the option is not exercised at the
1-year point for any of the paths and the value at the option at the 1-year point is
0.1032e-0.06*1=0.0972. If S*112=0.76, the value of the option for each of the eight
paths at the 1-year point is 0.00, 0.00, 0.0659e-0.06*1, 0.1695e-0.06*1, 0.0, 0.34,
0.26e-0.06*1, and 0.00, respectively. The average value of the option is 0.1008. Similarly
when S*112 equals 0.88, 0.92, 0.93, and 1.09 the average value of the option is 0.1283,
0.1202, 0.1215, and 0.1228, respectively. The analysis therefore shows that the optimal value of
S*112 is 0.88. (More precisely, it is optimal to choose 0.88ā¦S*11260.92.) The
value of the option at time zero with no early exercise is 0.1283e-0.06*1=0.1208. This is
greater than the value of 0.10 obtained by exercising at time zero.
In practice, tens of thousands of simulations are carried out to determine the early
exercise boundary in the way we have described. Once the early exercise boundary has
31 See L. B. G. Andersen, āA Simple Approach to the Pricing of Bermudan Swaptions in the Multifactor
LIBOR Market Model,ā Journal of Computational Finance, 3, 2 (Winter 2000): 1ā32.
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been obtained, the paths for the variables are discarded and a new Monte Carlo
simulation using the early exercise boundary is carried out to value the option. Our
American put option example is simple in that we know that the early exercise
boundary at a time can be defined entirely in terms of the value of the stock price at that time. In more complicated situations it is necessary to make assumptions about how the early exercise boundary should be parameterized.
Upper Bounds
The two approaches we have outlined tend to underprice American-style options because they assume a suboptimal early exercise boundary. This has led Andersen and Broadie to propose a procedure that provides an upper bound to the price.
32 This
procedure can be used in conjunction with any algorithm that generates a lower bound and pinpoints the true value of an American-style option more precisely than the
algorithm does by itself.
SUMMARY
Valuing Complex Derivatives
- Monte Carlo simulations can be adapted to value American-style options by establishing early exercise boundaries, though they often result in underpricing.
- The Andersen and Broadie procedure provides a crucial upper bound to pinpoint the true value of American options when used with lower-bound algorithms.
- Various volatility models, such as jump-diffusion and variance-gamma, are employed to replicate the specific volatility smiles seen in equity and currency markets.
- Tree-based methodologies are extended to handle path-dependent options, convertible bonds with default risk, and correlated multi-asset derivatives.
- To improve the slow convergence of barrier option pricing, tree geometries can be adjusted so that nodes align precisely with the barriers.
This procedure can be used in conjunction with any algorithm that generates a lower bound and pinpoints the true value of an American-style option more precisely than the algorithm does by itself.
been obtained, the paths for the variables are discarded and a new Monte Carlo
simulation using the early exercise boundary is carried out to value the option. Our
American put option example is simple in that we know that the early exercise
boundary at a time can be defined entirely in terms of the value of the stock price at that time. In more complicated situations it is necessary to make assumptions about how the early exercise boundary should be parameterized.
Upper Bounds
The two approaches we have outlined tend to underprice American-style options because they assume a suboptimal early exercise boundary. This has led Andersen and Broadie to propose a procedure that provides an upper bound to the price.
32 This
procedure can be used in conjunction with any algorithm that generates a lower bound and pinpoints the true value of an American-style option more precisely than the
algorithm does by itself.
SUMMARY
A number of models have been developed to fit the volatility smiles that are observed in
practice. The constant elasticity of variance model leads to a volatility smile similar to that
observed for equity options. The jumpādiffusion model leads to a volatility smile similar to that observed for currency options. Variance-gamma and stochastic volatility models are more flexible in that they can lead to either the type of volatility smile observed for
equity options or the type of volatility smile observed for currency options. The implied volatility function model provides even more flexibility than this. It is designed to provide
an exact fit to any pattern of European option prices observed in the market.
The natural technique to use for valuing path-dependent options is Monte Carlo
simulation. This has the disadvantage that it is fairly slow and unable to handle
American-style derivatives easily. Luckily, trees can be used to value many types of path-dependent derivatives. The approach is to choose representative values for the underlying path function at each node of the tree and calculate the value of the derivative
for each of these values as we roll back through the tree.
The binomial tree methodology can be extended to value convertible bonds. Extra
branches corresponding to a default by the company are added to the tree. The roll-back calculations then reflect the holderās option to convert and the issuerās option to call.
Trees can be used to value many types of barrier options, but the convergence of the
option value to the correct value as the number of time steps is increased tends to be slow. One approach for improving convergence is to arrange the geometry of the tree so
that nodes always lie on the barriers. Another is to use an interpolation scheme to
adjust for the fact that the barrier being assumed by the tree is different from the true
barrier. A third is to design the tree so that it provides a finer representation of
movements in the underlying asset price near the barrier.
One way of valuing options dependent on the prices of two correlated assets is to
apply a transformation to the asset price to create two new uncorrelated variables.
32 See L. B. G. Andersen and M. Broadie, āA Primal-Dual Simulation Algorithm for Pricing Multi-
Dimensional American Options,ā Management Science, 50, 9 (2004), 1222ā34.
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666 CHAPTER 27
These two variables are each modeled with trees and the trees are then combined to
form a single three-dimensional tree. At each node of the tree, the inverse of the
transformation gives the asset prices. A second approach is to arrange the positions
of nodes on the three-dimensional tree to reflect the correlation. A third approach is to
start with a tree that assumes no correlation between the variables and then adjust the probabilities on the tree to reflect the correlation.
Monte Carlo simulation is not naturally suited to valuing American-style options, but
Advanced Option Pricing Models
- Three distinct methods are described for incorporating correlation between variables into three-dimensional tree models.
- Tree-based approaches can handle correlations by adjusting node positions or modifying the underlying probabilities of the branches.
- While Monte Carlo simulation is typically used for European options, it can be adapted for American-style options using least-squares analysis.
- An alternative simulation method for American options involves parameterizing and iteratively determining the early exercise boundary.
- The text provides an extensive bibliography of seminal research on volatility smiles, stochastic processes, and numerical procedures.
Monte Carlo simulation is not naturally suited to valuing American-style options, but there are two ways it can be adapted to handle them.
These two variables are each modeled with trees and the trees are then combined to
form a single three-dimensional tree. At each node of the tree, the inverse of the
transformation gives the asset prices. A second approach is to arrange the positions
of nodes on the three-dimensional tree to reflect the correlation. A third approach is to
start with a tree that assumes no correlation between the variables and then adjust the probabilities on the tree to reflect the correlation.
Monte Carlo simulation is not naturally suited to valuing American-style options, but
there are two ways it can be adapted to handle them. The first uses a least-squares analysis
to relate the value of continuing (i.e, not exercising) to the values of relevant variables. The second involves parameterizing the early exercise boundary and determining it iteratively by working back from the end of the life of the option to the beginning.
FURTHER READING
Andersen, L. B. G., āA Simple Approach to the Pricing of Bermudan Swaptions in the
Multifactor LIBOR Market Model,ā Journal of Computational Finance, 3, 2 (Winter 2000): 1ā
32.
Andersen, L. B. G., and R. Brotherton-Ratcliffe, āThe Equity Option Volatility Smile: An
Implicit Finite Difference Approach,ā Journal of Computational Finance, 1, 2 (Winter 1997/98):
3ā37.
Bodurtha, J. N., and M. Jermakyan, āNon-Parametric Estimation of an Implied Volatility
Surface,ā Journal of Computational Finance, 2, 4 (Summer 1999): 29ā61.
Boyle, P. P., and S. H. Lau, āBumping Up Against the Barrier with the Binomial Method,ā
Journal of Derivatives, 1, 4 (Summer 1994): 6ā14.
Cox, J. C. and S. A. Ross, āThe Valuation of Options for Alternative Stochastic Processes,ā
Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (March 1976), 145ā66.
Derman, E., and I. Kani, āRiding on a Smile,ā Risk, February (1994): 32ā39.
Duan, J.-C., āThe GARCH Option Pricing Model,ā Mathematical Finance, 5 (1995): 13ā32.
Duan, J.-C., āCracking the Smile,ā Risk, December (1996): 55ā59.
Dupire, B., āPricing with a Smile,ā Risk, February (1994): 18ā20.El Euch, O., J. Gatheral, and M. Rosenbaum, āRoughening Heston,ā Risk, May (2019): 84ā89.Figlewski, S., and B. Gao, āThe Adaptive Mesh Model: A New Approach to Efficient Option
Pricing,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 53 (1999): 313ā51.
Gatheral, J., T. Jaisson, and M. Rosenbaum, āVolatility is Rough,ā Quantitative Finance, 18,
6 (2018): 933ā949.
Hagan, P., D. Kumar, A. Lesniewski, and D. Woodward, āManaging Smile Risk,ā Wilmott,
September 2002: 84ā108. Also www.math.ku.dk/~rolf/SABR.pdf.
Heston, S. L., āA Closed Form Solution for Options with Stochastic Volatility with Applications
to Bonds and Currency Options,ā Review of Financial Studies, 6, 2 (1993): 327ā43.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āEfficient Procedures for Valuing European and American Path-
Dependent Options,ā Journal of Derivatives, 1, 1 (Fall 1993): 21ā31.
Hull J. C., and A. White, āThe Pricing of Options on Assets with Stochastic Volatilities,ā Journal
of Finance, 42 (June 1987): 281ā300.
Hull, J. C. and W. Suo, āA Methodology for the Assessment of Model Risk and its Application
to the Implied Volatility Function Model,ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 37, 2
(2002): 297ā318.
Longstaff, F. A. and E. S. Schwartz, āValuing American Options by Simulation: A Simple Least-
Squares Approach,ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 1 (Spring 2001): 113ā47.
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 666 30/04/2021 17:45
More on Models and Numerical Procedures 667
Advanced Option Pricing Models
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of academic papers focusing on stochastic volatility and jump-diffusion models.
- Key methodologies discussed include the Heston model for closed-form solutions and the Longstaff-Schwartz approach for American options.
- The references highlight the evolution of numerical procedures, such as implied binomial trees and path simulation models.
- Practice questions challenge the reader to apply complex formulas like the Constant Elasticity of Variance (CEV) and Merton's jump-diffusion model.
- The material emphasizes the importance of model risk assessment and the practical calculation of implied volatility functions.
Suppose that the volatility of an asset will be 20% from month 0 to month 6, 22% from month 6 to month 12, and 24% from month 12 to month 24.
Heston, S. L., āA Closed Form Solution for Options with Stochastic Volatility with Applications
to Bonds and Currency Options,ā Review of Financial Studies, 6, 2 (1993): 327ā43.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āEfficient Procedures for Valuing European and American Path-
Dependent Options,ā Journal of Derivatives, 1, 1 (Fall 1993): 21ā31.
Hull J. C., and A. White, āThe Pricing of Options on Assets with Stochastic Volatilities,ā Journal
of Finance, 42 (June 1987): 281ā300.
Hull, J. C. and W. Suo, āA Methodology for the Assessment of Model Risk and its Application
to the Implied Volatility Function Model,ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 37, 2
(2002): 297ā318.
Longstaff, F. A. and E. S. Schwartz, āValuing American Options by Simulation: A Simple Least-
Squares Approach,ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 1 (Spring 2001): 113ā47.
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 666 30/04/2021 17:45
More on Models and Numerical Procedures 667
Madan D. B., P. P. Carr, and E. C. Chang, āThe Variance-Gamma Process and Option Pricingā
European Finance Review, 2 (1998): 79ā105.
Merton, R. C., āOption Pricing When Underlying Stock Returns Are Discontinuous,ā Journal of
Financial Economics, 3 (March 1976): 125ā44.
Milanov, K., O. Kounchev, F. J. Fabozzi, Y. S. Kim, and S. T. Rachev, āA Binomial Tree Model
for Convertible Bond Pricing,ā Journal of Fixed Income, 22, 3 (Winter 2013): 79ā94.
Rebonato, R., Volatility and Correlation: The Perfect Hedger and the Fox, 2nd edn. Chichester:
Wiley, 2004.
Ritchken, P, and R. Trevor, āPricing Options Under Generalized GARCH and Stochastic
Volatility Processes,ā Journal of Finance 54, 1 (February 1999): 377ā402
Rubinstein, M., āImplied Binomial Trees,ā Journal of Finance, 49, 3 (July 1994): 771ā818.
Rubinstein, M., āReturn to Oz,ā Risk, November (1994): 67ā70.
Stutzer, M., āA Simple Nonparametric Approach to Derivative Security Valuation,ā Journal of
Finance, 51 (December 1996): 1633ā52.
Tilley, J. A., āValuing American Options in a Path Simulation Model,ā Transactions of the
Society of Actuaries, 45 (1993): 83ā104.
Practice Questions
27.1. Confirm that the CEV model formulas satisfy putācall parity.
27.2. What is Mertonās mixed jumpādiffusion model price for a European call option when
r=5%, q=0, l=0.3, k=50%, s=25%, S0=30, K=30, s=50%, and T=1. Use
DerivaGem to check your price.
27.3. Confirm that Mertonās jumpādiffusion model satisfies putācall parity when one plus the
jump size is lognormal.
27.4. Suppose that the volatility of an asset will be 20% from month 0 to month 6, 22% from month 6 to month 12, and 24% from month 12 to month 24. What volatility should be used in BlackāScholesāMerton to value a 2-year option?
27.5. Consider the case of Mertonās jumpādiffusion model where jumps always reduce the asset price to zero. Assume that the average number of jumps per year is
l. Show
Advanced Option Pricing Exercises
- The text presents mathematical problems focused on Mertonās jump-diffusion model and its implications for put-call parity.
- Exercises explore the calculation of average volatility and interest rates for use in the Black-Scholes-Merton framework over multiple time subintervals.
- The Implied Volatility Function (IVF) model is critiqued regarding its ability to accurately predict the evolution of the volatility surface over time.
- Practical applications include valuing path-dependent options, such as lookback and geometric average options, using multi-step trees.
- The Longstaff-Schwartz least-squares approach is referenced for determining early exercise policies in American-style options.
āThe IVF model does not necessarily get the evolution of the volatility surface correct.ā
DerivaGem to check your price.
27.3. Confirm that Mertonās jumpādiffusion model satisfies putācall parity when one plus the
jump size is lognormal.
27.4. Suppose that the volatility of an asset will be 20% from month 0 to month 6, 22% from month 6 to month 12, and 24% from month 12 to month 24. What volatility should be used in BlackāScholesāMerton to value a 2-year option?
27.5. Consider the case of Mertonās jumpādiffusion model where jumps always reduce the asset price to zero. Assume that the average number of jumps per year is
l. Show
that the price of a European call option is the same as in a world with no jumps
except that the risk-free rate is r+l rather than r. Does the possibility of jumps
increase or reduce the value of the call option in this case? (Hint: Value the option assuming no jumps and assuming one or more jumps. The probability of no jumps in time T is
e-lT).
27.6. At time 0 the price of a non-dividend-paying stock is S0. Suppose that the time interval
between 0 and T is divided into two subintervals of length t1 and t2. During the first
subinterval, the risk-free interest rate and volatility are r1 and s1, respectively. During the
second subinterval, they are r2 and s2, respectively. Assume that the world is risk neutral.
(a) Use the results in Chapter 15 to determine the stock price distribution at time T in terms of
r1, r2, s1, s2, t1, t2, and S0.
(b) Suppose that r is the average interest rate between time zero and T and that V is the
average variance rate between times zero and T. What is the stock price distribution as
a function of T in terms of r, V, T, and S0?
(c) What are the results corresponding to (a) and (b) when there are three subintervals with different interest rates and volatilities?
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 667 30/04/2021 17:45
668 CHAPTER 27
(d) Show that if the risk-free rate, r, and the volatility, s, are known functions of time, the
stock price distribution at time T in a risk-neutral world is
ln ST/similar.altf3ln S0+1r-1
2V2T, VT4
where r is the average value of r, V is equal to the average value of s2, and S0 is the
stock price today and f1m, v2 is a normal distribution with mean m and variance v.
27.7. Write down the equations for simulating the path followed by the asset price in the
stochastic volatility model in equations (27.2) and (27.3).
27.8. āThe IVF model does not necessarily get the evolution of the volatility surface correct.ā
Explain this statement.
27.9. āThe IVF model correctly values any derivative whose payoff depends on the value of the underlying asset at only one time.ā Explain why.
27.10. Use a three-time-step tree to value an American floating lookback call option on a
currency when the initial exchange rate is 1.6, the domestic risk-free rate is 5% per
annum, the foreign risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum, the exchange rate volatility is
15%, and the time to maturity is 18 months. Use the approach in Section 27.5.
27.11. What happens to the variance-gamma model as the parameter v tends to zero?
27.12. Use a three-time-step tree to value an American put option on the geometric average of
the price of a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $40, the strike price is
$40, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, the volatility is 35% per annum, and
the time to maturity is three months. The geometric average is measured from today until the option matures.
27.13. Can the approach for valuing path-dependent options in Section 27.5 be used for a 2-year
American-style option that provides a payoff equal to
max1Save-K, 02, where Save is the
average asset price over the three months preceding exercise? Explain your answer.
27.14. Verify that the 6.492 number in Figure 27.3 is correct.
27.15. Examine the early exercise policy for the eight paths considered in the example in
Section 27.8. What is the difference between the early exercise policy given by the least
Advanced Option Pricing Exercises
- The text presents a series of technical problems focused on simulating asset price paths within stochastic volatility and Implied Volatility Function (IVF) models.
- Several exercises require the use of multi-step trees to value complex path-dependent instruments, such as American floating lookback calls and geometric average options.
- The problems explore the limitations of the IVF model, specifically its potential failure to accurately capture the evolution of the volatility surface over time.
- Advanced valuation scenarios are introduced, including convertible bonds with credit risk factors like hazard rates and recovery rates alongside stock price volatility.
- Computational methods such as the least squares approach and exercise boundary parameterization are compared to determine their impact on early exercise policies.
āThe IVF model does not necessarily get the evolution of the volatility surface correct.ā
where r is the average value of r, V is equal to the average value of s2, and S0 is the
stock price today and f1m, v2 is a normal distribution with mean m and variance v.
27.7. Write down the equations for simulating the path followed by the asset price in the
stochastic volatility model in equations (27.2) and (27.3).
27.8. āThe IVF model does not necessarily get the evolution of the volatility surface correct.ā
Explain this statement.
27.9. āThe IVF model correctly values any derivative whose payoff depends on the value of the underlying asset at only one time.ā Explain why.
27.10. Use a three-time-step tree to value an American floating lookback call option on a
currency when the initial exchange rate is 1.6, the domestic risk-free rate is 5% per
annum, the foreign risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum, the exchange rate volatility is
15%, and the time to maturity is 18 months. Use the approach in Section 27.5.
27.11. What happens to the variance-gamma model as the parameter v tends to zero?
27.12. Use a three-time-step tree to value an American put option on the geometric average of
the price of a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $40, the strike price is
$40, the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, the volatility is 35% per annum, and
the time to maturity is three months. The geometric average is measured from today until the option matures.
27.13. Can the approach for valuing path-dependent options in Section 27.5 be used for a 2-year
American-style option that provides a payoff equal to
max1Save-K, 02, where Save is the
average asset price over the three months preceding exercise? Explain your answer.
27.14. Verify that the 6.492 number in Figure 27.3 is correct.
27.15. Examine the early exercise policy for the eight paths considered in the example in
Section 27.8. What is the difference between the early exercise policy given by the least
squares approach and the exercise boundary parameterization approach? Which gives a
higher option price for the paths sampled?
27.16. Consider a European put option on a non-dividend paying stock when the stock price is
$100, the strike price is $110, the risk-free rate is 5% per annum, and the time to
maturity is one year. Suppose that the average variance rate during the life of an option
has a 0.20 probability of being 0.06, a 0.5 probability of being 0.09, and a 0.3 probability of being 0.12. The volatility is uncorrelated with the stock price. Estimate the value of the option. Use DerivaGem.
27.17. When there are two barriers how can a tree be designed so that nodes lie on both barriers?
27.18. Consider an 18-month zero-coupon bond with a face value of $100 that can be converted
into five shares of the companyās stock at any time during its life. Suppose that the current share price is $20, no dividends are paid on the stock, the risk-free rate for all maturities is 6% per annum with continuous compounding, and the share price volatility conditional on no default is 25% per annum. Assume that the hazard rate is 3% per year and the recovery rate is 35%. The bond is callable at $110. Use a three-time-step tree to calculate the value of the bond. What is the value of the conversion option (net of the issuerās call option)?
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 668 30/04/2021 17:45
More on Models and Numerical Procedures 669
27.19. A new European-style floating lookback call option on a stock index has a maturity of 9
months. The current level of the index is 400, the risk-free rate is 6% per annum, the
dividend yield on the index is 4% per annum, and the volatility of the index is 20%. Use the approach in Section 27.5 to value the option and compare your answer to the result given by DerivaGem using the analytic valuation formula.
27.20. Technical Note 13 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes provides a
Advanced Option Valuation Exercises
- The text presents complex quantitative problems involving the valuation of European-style floating lookback call options using both analytic formulas and technical numerical approaches.
- It explores the pricing of bull spreads in currency options to demonstrate how volatility assumptions can lead to counterintuitive results in exotic option pricing.
- Mathematical modeling of the SABR model is required to analyze how volatility smiles fluctuate based on strike prices and correlation parameters.
- A detailed scenario for valuing a three-year convertible bond is provided, incorporating credit risk factors such as hazard rates, recovery rates, and stock price volatility.
- The exercises challenge the reader to compare different numerical procedures, such as least squares and exercise boundary parameterization, for pricing American-style options.
Does your answer support the assertion at the beginning of the chapter that the correct volatility to use when pricing exotic options can be counterintuitive?
More on Models and Numerical Procedures 669
27.19. A new European-style floating lookback call option on a stock index has a maturity of 9
months. The current level of the index is 400, the risk-free rate is 6% per annum, the
dividend yield on the index is 4% per annum, and the volatility of the index is 20%. Use the approach in Section 27.5 to value the option and compare your answer to the result given by DerivaGem using the analytic valuation formula.
27.20. Technical Note 13 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes provides a
different approach to valuing lookbacks. Value the lookback in Problem 27.19 using this
approach. Show that it gives the same answer as the approach in Section 27.5.
27.21. Suppose that the volatilities used to price a 6-month currency option are as in Table 20.2.
Assume that the domestic and foreign risk-free rates are 5% per annum and the current
exchange rate is 1.00. Consider a bull spread that consists of a long position in a
6-month call option with strike price 1.05 and a short position in a 6-month call option
with a strike price 1.10.
(a) What is the value of the spread?
(b) What single volatility if used for both options gives the correct value of the bull
spread? (Use the DerivaGem Application Builder together with Goal Seek or Solver.)
(c) Does your answer support the assertion at the beginning of the chapter that the correct volatility to use when pricing exotic options can be counterintuitive?
(d) Does the IVF model give the correct price for the bull spread?
27.22. Repeat the analysis in Section 27.8 for the put option example on the assumption that
the strike price is 1.13. Use both the least squares approach and the exercise boundary parameterization approach.
27.23. In the SABR model, suppose that
F0=5, b=0.5, s0=0.447 (equivalent to a lognormal
volatility of 20%), and T=1. Show how the volatility smile varies with r for (a) v=0.6
and (b) v=1.2. Consider value of r equal to 0.4, 0.2, 0, -0.2, -0.4 and values of the
strike price equal to 4.0, 4.5, 5.0, 5.5, 6.0.
27.24. A 3-year convertible bond with a face value of $100 has been issued by company ABC. It
pays a coupon of $5 at the end of each year. It can be converted into ABCās equity at the
end of the first year or at the end of the second year. At the end of the first year, it can be
exchanged for 3.6 shares immediately after the coupon date. At the end of the second
year, it can be exchanged for 3.5 shares immediately after the coupon date. The current stock price is $25 and the stock price volatility conditional on no default is 25%. No
dividends are paid on the stock. The risk-free interest rate is 5% with continuous
compounding. The yield on bonds issued by ABC is 7% with continuous compounding and the recovery rate is 30%.
(a) Use a three-step tree to calculate the value of the bond.
(b) How much is the conversion option worth?
(c) What difference does it make to the value of the bond if the bond is callable for $115
immediately before the coupon payment at the end of years 1 and 2?
(d) Explain how your analysis would change if there were a dividend payment of $1 on the equity at the 6-month, 18-month, and 30-month points. Detailed calculations are not required.
(Hint: Use equation (24.2) to estimate the average hazard rate.)
27.25. Show that, if there is no recovery from the bond in the event of default, a convertible
bond can be valued by assuming that (a) both the expected return and discount rate are
r+l and (b) there is no chance of default.
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 669 30/04/2021 17:45
670
Martingales and
Measures
Martingales and Stochastic Interest Rates
- The text transitions from constant interest rate assumptions to the complexities of valuing derivatives when interest rates are stochastic.
- A detailed exercise outlines the valuation of a three-year convertible bond involving coupons, conversion ratios, and default risk parameters.
- The risk-neutral valuation principle is scrutinized for its ambiguity when interest rates fluctuate over different time horizons.
- Theoretical questions are raised regarding whether expected returns should align with short-term or long-term risk-free rates during valuation.
- The chapter introduces the concept of martingales and measures as the necessary theoretical framework for resolving these valuation uncertainties.
What does it mean to assume that the expected return on the underlying asset equals to the risk-free rate?
volatility of 20%), and T=1. Show how the volatility smile varies with r for (a) v=0.6
and (b) v=1.2. Consider value of r equal to 0.4, 0.2, 0, -0.2, -0.4 and values of the
strike price equal to 4.0, 4.5, 5.0, 5.5, 6.0.
27.24. A 3-year convertible bond with a face value of $100 has been issued by company ABC. It
pays a coupon of $5 at the end of each year. It can be converted into ABCās equity at the
end of the first year or at the end of the second year. At the end of the first year, it can be
exchanged for 3.6 shares immediately after the coupon date. At the end of the second
year, it can be exchanged for 3.5 shares immediately after the coupon date. The current stock price is $25 and the stock price volatility conditional on no default is 25%. No
dividends are paid on the stock. The risk-free interest rate is 5% with continuous
compounding. The yield on bonds issued by ABC is 7% with continuous compounding and the recovery rate is 30%.
(a) Use a three-step tree to calculate the value of the bond.
(b) How much is the conversion option worth?
(c) What difference does it make to the value of the bond if the bond is callable for $115
immediately before the coupon payment at the end of years 1 and 2?
(d) Explain how your analysis would change if there were a dividend payment of $1 on the equity at the 6-month, 18-month, and 30-month points. Detailed calculations are not required.
(Hint: Use equation (24.2) to estimate the average hazard rate.)
27.25. Show that, if there is no recovery from the bond in the event of default, a convertible
bond can be valued by assuming that (a) both the expected return and discount rate are
r+l and (b) there is no chance of default.
M27_HULL0654_11_GE_C27.indd 669 30/04/2021 17:45
670
Martingales and
Measures
Up to now interest rates have been assumed to be constant when valuing options. In
this chapter, this assumption is relaxed in preparation for valuing interest rate deriva-tives in Chapters 29 to 34.
The risk-neutral valuation principle states that a derivative can be valued by (a) cal-
culating the expected payoff on the assumption that the expected return from the
underlying asset equals the risk-free interest rate and (b) discounting the expected payoff
at the risk-free interest rate. When interest rates are constant, risk-neutral valuation provides a well-defined and unambiguous valuation tool. When interest rates are
stochastic, it is less clear-cut. What does it mean to assume that the expected return
on the underlying asset equals to the risk-free rate? Does it mean (a) that each day the expected return is the one-day risk-free rate, or (b) that each year the expected return is
the 1-year risk-free rate, or (c) that over a 5-year period the expected return is the 5-year
rate at the beginning of the period? What does it mean to discount expected payoffs at the risk-free rate? Can we, for example, discount an expected payoff realized in year 5 at
todayās 5-year risk-free rate?
In this chapter we explain the theoretical underpinnings of risk-neutral valuation
Martingales and Stochastic Rates
- The text transitions from constant interest rate assumptions to a more complex framework where interest rates are treated as stochastic variables.
- Risk-neutral valuation becomes ambiguous when rates fluctuate, raising questions about which specific risk-free rate should be used for discounting and expected returns.
- The concept of the market price of risk is introduced to show that excess returns on derivatives are linearly related to the underlying stochastic variables.
- A key theoretical result is the equivalent martingale measure, which allows security prices to be treated as zero-drift processes when measured against a specific traded security.
- The chapter aims to extend Black's model to accommodate stochastic interest rates and the valuation of options to exchange assets.
A key result in this chapter will be the equivalent martingale measure result. This states that if we use the price of a traded security as the unit of measurement then there is a market price of risk for which all security prices follow martingales.
Up to now interest rates have been assumed to be constant when valuing options. In
this chapter, this assumption is relaxed in preparation for valuing interest rate deriva-tives in Chapters 29 to 34.
The risk-neutral valuation principle states that a derivative can be valued by (a) cal-
culating the expected payoff on the assumption that the expected return from the
underlying asset equals the risk-free interest rate and (b) discounting the expected payoff
at the risk-free interest rate. When interest rates are constant, risk-neutral valuation provides a well-defined and unambiguous valuation tool. When interest rates are
stochastic, it is less clear-cut. What does it mean to assume that the expected return
on the underlying asset equals to the risk-free rate? Does it mean (a) that each day the expected return is the one-day risk-free rate, or (b) that each year the expected return is
the 1-year risk-free rate, or (c) that over a 5-year period the expected return is the 5-year
rate at the beginning of the period? What does it mean to discount expected payoffs at the risk-free rate? Can we, for example, discount an expected payoff realized in year 5 at
todayās 5-year risk-free rate?
In this chapter we explain the theoretical underpinnings of risk-neutral valuation
when interest rates are stochastic and show that there are many different risk-neutral worlds that can be assumed in any given situation. We first define a parameter known as the market price of risk and show that the excess return over the risk-free interest rate
earned by any derivative in a short period of time is linearly related to the market prices of risk of the underlying stochastic variables. What we will refer to as the traditional risk-neutral world assumes that all market prices of risk are zero, but we will find that other assumptions about the market price of risk are useful in some situations.
Martingales and measures are critical to a full understanding of risk neutral valua-
tion. A martingale is a zero-drift stochastic process. A measure is the unit in which we
value security prices. A key result in this chapter will be the equivalent martingale
measure result. This states that if we use the price of a traded security as the unit of measurement then there is a market price of risk for which all security prices follow martingales.
This chapter illustrates the power of the equivalent martingale measure result by using
it to extend Blackās model (see Section 18.7) to the situation where interest rates are stochastic and to value options to exchange one asset for another. Chapter 29 uses the result to understand the standard market models for valuing interest rate derivatives, 28 CHAPTER
M28_HULL0654_11_GE_C28.indd 670 30/04/2021 17:46
Martingales and Measures 671
We start by considering the properties of derivatives dependent on the value of a single
variable u. Assume that the process followed by u is
du
u=m dt+s dz (28.1)
where dz is a Wiener process. The parameters m and s are the expected growth rate in u
and the volatility of u, respectively. We assume that they depend only on u and time t.
The variable u need not be the price of an investment asset. It could be something as far
removed from financial markets as the temperature in the center of New Orleans.
Suppose that f1 and f2 are the prices of two derivatives dependent only on u and t.
These can be options or other instruments that provide a payoff in the future equal to some function of
u. Assume that during the time period under consideration f1 and f2
provide no income.1
Suppose that the processes followed by f1 and f2 are
d f1
f1=m1 dt+s1 dz
and
d f2
f2=m2 dt+s2 dz
The Market Price of Risk
- The text establishes a mathematical framework for valuing derivatives based on an underlying variable, which can be a financial asset or even a non-market variable like temperature.
- By constructing an instantaneously riskless portfolio of two different derivatives, the author eliminates uncertainty to derive a relationship between expected return and volatility.
- The 'market price of risk' is defined as the ratio of the excess return over the risk-free rate to the volatility of the derivative.
- This ratio must be identical for all derivatives dependent on the same underlying variable to ensure a market free of arbitrage opportunities.
- The relationship is analogous to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, where the excess return required by investors is proportional to the quantity of risk present.
The variable u need not be the price of an investment asset. It could be something as far removed from financial markets as the temperature in the center of New Orleans.
where dz is a Wiener process. The parameters m and s are the expected growth rate in u
and the volatility of u, respectively. We assume that they depend only on u and time t.
The variable u need not be the price of an investment asset. It could be something as far
removed from financial markets as the temperature in the center of New Orleans.
Suppose that f1 and f2 are the prices of two derivatives dependent only on u and t.
These can be options or other instruments that provide a payoff in the future equal to some function of
u. Assume that during the time period under consideration f1 and f2
provide no income.1
Suppose that the processes followed by f1 and f2 are
d f1
f1=m1 dt+s1 dz
and
d f2
f2=m2 dt+s2 dz
where m1, m2, s1, and s2 are functions of u and t. The ādzā in these processes must be
the same dz as in equation (28.1) because it is the only source of the uncertainty in the prices of
f1 and f2.
The prices f1 and f2 can be related using an analysis similar to the BlackāScholes
analysis described in Section 15.6. The discrete versions of the processes for f1 and f2 are
āf1=m1f1 āt+s1f1 āz (28.2)
āf2=m2f2 āt+s2f2 āz (28.3)
We can eliminate the āz by forming an instantaneously riskless portfolio consisting of
s2f2 of the first derivative and -s1f1 of the second derivative. If Ī is the value of the
portfolio, then
Ī =1s2f22f1-1s1f12f2 (28.4)
and
āĪ =s2f2 āf1-s1f1 āf2
Substituting from equations (28.2) and (28.3), this becomes
āĪ =1m1s2f1f2-m2s1f1f22āt (28.5)Chapter 30 uses it to value some nonstandard derivatives, and Chapter 33 uses it to
develop the LIBOR market model.
1 The analysis can be extended to derivatives that provide income (see Problem 28.7).28.1 THE MARKET PRICE OF RISK
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672 CHAPTER 28
Because the portfolio is instantaneously riskless, it must earn the risk-free rate. Hence,
āĪ =rĪ āt
Substituting into this equation from equations (28.4) and (28.5) gives
m1s2-m2s1=rs2-rs1
or
m1-r
s1=m2-r
s2 (28.6)
Note that the left-hand side of equation (28.6) depends only on the parameters of the
process followed by f1 and the right-hand side depends only on the parameters of the
process followed by f2. Define l as the value of each side in equation (28.6), so that
m1-r
s1=m2-r
s2=l
Dropping subscripts, equation (28.6) shows that if f is the price of a derivative dependent
only on u and t with
d f
f=m dt+s dz (28.7)
then
m-r
s=l (28.8)
The parameter l is known as the market price of risk of u. (In the context of portfolio
performance measurement, it is known as the Sharpe ratio.) It can be dependent on
both u and t, but it is not dependent on the nature of the derivative f. Our analysis
shows that, for no arbitrage, 1m-r2>s must at any given time be the same for all
derivatives that are dependent only on u and t.
The market price of risk of u measures the trade-offs between risk and return that are
made for securities dependent on u. Equation (28.8) can be written
m-r=ls (28.9)
The variable s can be loosely interpreted as the quantity of u-risk present in f. On the
right-hand side of the equation, the quantity of u-risk is multiplied by the price of
u-risk. The left-hand side is the expected return, in excess of the risk-free interest rate,
that is required to compensate for this risk. Equation (28.9) is analogous to the capital asset pricing model, which relates the expected excess return on a stock to its risk. This chapter will not be concerned with the measurement of the market price of risk. This will be discussed in Chapter 36 when the evaluation of real options is considered.
It is natural to assume that
s, the coefficient of dz, in equation (28.7) is the volatility
Risk Pricing and Alternative Worlds
- The expected excess return of a derivative is determined by multiplying the quantity of risk by the market price of risk, a concept analogous to the Capital Asset Pricing Model.
- Volatility is defined as the absolute value of the risk coefficient, acknowledging that the relationship between a derivative and its underlying variable can be negative.
- A critical distinction is made between investment assets and consumption assets, noting that the market price of risk for commodities like oil cannot be calculated using standard investment formulas.
- The concept of 'Alternative Worlds' is introduced, where different assumptions about the market price of risk define internally consistent stochastic processes for asset prices.
- In a traditional risk-neutral world, the market price of risk is zero, causing the expected return of an asset to equal the risk-free interest rate.
Other assumptions about the market price of risk, l, enable other worlds that are internally consistent to be defined.
The variable s can be loosely interpreted as the quantity of u-risk present in f. On the
right-hand side of the equation, the quantity of u-risk is multiplied by the price of
u-risk. The left-hand side is the expected return, in excess of the risk-free interest rate,
that is required to compensate for this risk. Equation (28.9) is analogous to the capital asset pricing model, which relates the expected excess return on a stock to its risk. This chapter will not be concerned with the measurement of the market price of risk. This will be discussed in Chapter 36 when the evaluation of real options is considered.
It is natural to assume that
s, the coefficient of dz, in equation (28.7) is the volatility
of f. In fact, s can be negative. This will be the case when f is negatively related to u
(so that 0f>0u is negative). It is the absolute value āsā of s that is the volatility of f. One
way of understanding this is to note that the process for f has the same statistical
properties when we replace dz by -dz.
Chapter 5 distinguished between investment assets and consumption assets. An
investment asset is an asset that is bought or sold purely for investment purposes by some investors. Consumption assets are held primarily for consumption. Equation (28.8)
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Martingales and Measures 673
is true for all investment assets that provide no income and depend only on u. If the
variable u itself happens to be such an asset, then
m-r
s=l
But, in other circumstances, this relationship is not necessarily true.
Example 28.1
Consider a derivative whose price is positively related to the price of oil and
depends on no other stochastic variables. Suppose that it provides an expected
return of 12% per annum and has a volatility of 20% per annum. Assume that the risk-free interest rate is 8% per annum. It follows that the market price of risk of oil is
0.12-0.08
0.2=0.2
Note that oil is a consumption asset rather than an investment asset, so its market price of risk cannot be calculated from equation (28.8) by setting
m equal to the
expected return from an investment in oil and s equal to the volatility of oil prices.
Example 28.2
Consider two securities, both of which are positively dependent on the 90-day interest rate. Suppose that the first one has an expected return of 3% per annum and a volatility of 20% per annum, and the second one has a volatility of 30% per annum. Assume that the instantaneous risk-free rate of interest is 6% per annum. The market price of interest rate risk is, using the expected return and volatility for the first security,
0.03-0.06
0.2=-0.15
From a rearrangement of equation (28.9), the expected return from the second security is, therefore,
0.06-0.15*0.3=0.015
or 1.5% per annum.
Alternative Worlds
The process followed by derivative price f is
d f=m f dt+s f dz
The value of m depends on the risk preferences of investors. In a world where the
market price of risk is zero, l equals zero. From equation (28.9) m=r, so that the
process followed by f is
d f=r f dt+s f dz
We will refer to this as the traditional risk-neutral world.
Other assumptions about the market price of risk, l, enable other worlds that are
internally consistent to be defined. From equation (28.9),
m=r+ls
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674 CHAPTER 28
so that
d f=1r+ls2 f dt+s f dz (28.10)
Market Risk and Probability Measures
- The expected growth rate of a security is determined by the risk-free rate and the market price of risk associated with its underlying variables.
- Girsanovās theorem establishes that changing the market price of risk alters expected growth rates while leaving the volatilities of security prices unchanged.
- Defining a specific market price of risk is equivalent to choosing a probability measure, with one specific measure corresponding to the 'real world' observations.
- In models with multiple state variables, the total excess return required by investors is the sum of the products of each variable's market price of risk and its specific volatility component.
- A negative market price of risk occurs when a variable reduces the overall risk in a typical investor's portfolio, leading to a lower required return.
As we move from one market price of risk to another, the expected growth rates of security prices change, but their volatilities remain the same.
The value of m depends on the risk preferences of investors. In a world where the
market price of risk is zero, l equals zero. From equation (28.9) m=r, so that the
process followed by f is
d f=r f dt+s f dz
We will refer to this as the traditional risk-neutral world.
Other assumptions about the market price of risk, l, enable other worlds that are
internally consistent to be defined. From equation (28.9),
m=r+ls
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674 CHAPTER 28
so that
d f=1r+ls2 f dt+s f dz (28.10)
The market price of risk of a variable determines the growth rates of all securities
dependent on the variable. As we move from one market price of risk to another, the expected growth rates of security prices change, but their volatilities remain the same. This is Girsanovās theorem, which we illustrated for the binomial model in Section 13.7. Choosing a particular market price of risk is also referred to as defining the probability measure. Some value of the market price of risk corresponds to the āreal worldā and the growth rates of security prices that are observed in practice.
28.2 SEVERAL STATE VARIABLES
Suppose that n variables, u1, u2, c, un, follow stochastic processes of the form
dui
ui=mi dt+si dzi (28.11)
for i=1, 2, c, n, where the dzi are Wiener processes. The parameters mi and si are
expected growth rates and volatilities and may be functions of the ui and time.
Equation (14A.10) in the appendix to Chapter 14 provides a version of ItĆ“ās lemma that covers functions of several variables. It shows that the process for the price f of a security that is dependent on the
ui has n stochastic components. It can be written
d f
f=m dt+an
i=1si dzi (28.12)
In this equation, m is the expected return from the security and si dzi is the component
of the risk of this return attributable to ui. Both m and the si are potentially dependent
on the ui and time.
Technical Note 30 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/ā¼hull/TechnicalNotes shows that
m-r=an
i=1lisi (28.13)
where li is the market price of risk for ui. This equation relates the expected excess return
that investors require on the security to the li and si. Equation (28.9) is the particular
case of this equation when n=1. The term lisi on the right-hand side measures the
extent that the excess return required by investors on a security is affected by the dependence of the security on
ui. If lisi=0, there is no effect; if lisi70, investors
require a higher return to compensate them for the risk arising from ui; if lisi60, the
dependence of the security on ui causes investors to require a lower return than would
otherwise be the case. The lisi60 situation occurs when the variable has the effect of
reducing rather than increasing the risks in the portfolio of a typical investor.
Example 28.3
A stock price depends on three underlying variables: the price of oil, the price of
gold, and the performance of a stock index. Suppose that the market prices of risk for these variables are 0.2,
-0.1, and 0.4, respectively. Suppose also that the si in
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Martingales and Measures 675
equation (28.12) corresponding to the three variables have been estimated as 0.05,
0.1, and 0.15, respectively. The excess return on the stock over the risk-free rate is
0.2*0.05-0.1*0.1+0.4*0.15=0.06
or 6.0% per annum. If variables other than those considered affect the stock
price, this result is still true provided that the market price of risk for each of
these other variables is zero.
Equation (28.13) is closely related to arbitrage pricing theory, developed by Stephen
Martingales and Equivalent Measures
- The text explains that the excess return on a stock is determined by the market price of risk for its underlying variables, aligning with Arbitrage Pricing Theory.
- A martingale is defined as a zero-drift stochastic process where the expected future value of a variable is equal to its current value.
- The equivalent martingale measure result states that the ratio of two security prices becomes a martingale when the market price of risk is set to the volatility of the numeraire security.
- This framework allows for the valuation of securities by changing the numeraire, effectively removing the drift from the price process in a risk-neutral or adjusted world.
- The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is presented as a specific case where excess returns only compensate for systematic risk correlated with the market.
A martingale has the convenient property that its expected value at any future time is equal to its value today.
Martingales and Measures 675
equation (28.12) corresponding to the three variables have been estimated as 0.05,
0.1, and 0.15, respectively. The excess return on the stock over the risk-free rate is
0.2*0.05-0.1*0.1+0.4*0.15=0.06
or 6.0% per annum. If variables other than those considered affect the stock
price, this result is still true provided that the market price of risk for each of
these other variables is zero.
Equation (28.13) is closely related to arbitrage pricing theory, developed by Stephen
Ross in 1976.2 The continuous-time version of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)
can be regarded as a particular case of the equation. CAPM (see appendix to Chapter 3)
argues that an investor requires excess returns to compensate for any risk that is
correlated to the risk in the return from the stock market, but requires no excess return for other risks. Risks that are correlated with the return from the stock market are referred to as systematic; other risks are referred to as nonsystematic. If CAPM is true, then
li is proportional to the correlation between changes in ui and the return from the
market. When ui is uncorrelated with the return from the market, li is zero.
3 More formally, a sequence of random variables X0, X1, c is a martingale if E1XiāXi-1, Xi-2, c, X02 =
Xi-1, for all i70, where E denotes expectation.2 See S. A. Ross, āThe Arbitrage Theory of Capital Asset Pricing,ā Journal of Economic Theory, 13
(December 1976): 343ā62.
4 Problem 28.8 extends the analysis to situations where the securities provide income.28.3 MARTINGALES
A martingale is a zero-drift stochastic process.3 A variable u follows a martingale if its
process has the form
du=s dz
where dz is a Wiener process. The variable s may itself be stochastic. It can depend on u
and other stochastic variables. A martingale has the convenient property that its expected value at any future time is equal to its value today. This means that
E1uT2=u0
where u0 and uT denote the values of u at times zero and T, respectively. To understand
this result, note that over a very small time interval the change in u is normally
distributed with zero mean. The expected change in u over any very small time interval
is therefore zero. The change in u between time 0 and time T is the sum of its changes
over many small time intervals. It follows that the expected change in u between time 0
and time T must also be zero.
The Equivalent Martingale Measure Result
Suppose that f and g are the prices of traded securities dependent on a single source of
uncertainty. Assume that the securities provide no income during the time period under
consideration and define f=f>g.4 The variable f is the relative price of f with respect
to g. It can be thought of as measuring the price of f in units of g rather than dollars.
The security price g is referred to as the numeraire.
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676 CHAPTER 28
The equivalent martingale measure result shows that, when there are no arbitrage
opportunities, f is a martingale for some choice of the market price of risk. What is
more, for a given numeraire security g, the same choice of the market price of risk
makes f a martingale for all securities f. This choice of the market price of risk is the
volatility of g. In other words, when the market price of risk is set equal to the volatility of g, the ratio
f>g is a martingale for all security prices f. (Note that the market price
of risk has the same dimension as volatility. Both are āper square root of time.ā Setting the market price of risk equal to a volatility is therefore dimensionally valid.)
To prove this result, suppose that the volatilities of f and g are
sf and sg and r is the
instantaneous risk-free rate. (These variables can depend on the single source of
uncertainty that is being assumed.) From equation (28.10), in a world where the market price of risk is
sg,
d f=1r+sgsf2 f dt+sf f dz
dg=1r+s2
g2g dt+sgg dz
Martingales and Numeraire Selection
- The market price of risk is shown to be equivalent to the volatility of a chosen numeraire security to ensure all security price ratios become martingales.
- Using ItĆ“ās lemma, the text proves that the ratio of any security price to the numeraire follows a process with zero drift, confirming the equivalent martingale measure.
- When the money market account is used as the numeraire, the market price of risk is zero, aligning with traditional risk-neutral valuation models.
- Selecting a zero-coupon bond as the numeraire simplifies valuation by expressing current prices as the bond price multiplied by the expected future payoff.
- The choice of numeraire provides a flexible framework for valuing complex interest rate derivatives like caps, swaps, and bond options.
In other words, when the market price of risk is set equal to the volatility of g, the ratio f/g is a martingale for all security prices f.
opportunities, f is a martingale for some choice of the market price of risk. What is
more, for a given numeraire security g, the same choice of the market price of risk
makes f a martingale for all securities f. This choice of the market price of risk is the
volatility of g. In other words, when the market price of risk is set equal to the volatility of g, the ratio
f>g is a martingale for all security prices f. (Note that the market price
of risk has the same dimension as volatility. Both are āper square root of time.ā Setting the market price of risk equal to a volatility is therefore dimensionally valid.)
To prove this result, suppose that the volatilities of f and g are
sf and sg and r is the
instantaneous risk-free rate. (These variables can depend on the single source of
uncertainty that is being assumed.) From equation (28.10), in a world where the market price of risk is
sg,
d f=1r+sgsf2 f dt+sf f dz
dg=1r+s2
g2g dt+sgg dz
Using ItĆ“ās lemma gives
d ln f=1r+sgsf-s2
f>22 dt+sf dz
d ln g=1r+s2
g>22 dt+sg dz
so that
d1ln f-ln g2=1sgsf-s2
f>2-s2
g>22 dt+1sf-sg2 dz
or
dalnf
gb=-1sf-sg22
2dt+1sf-sg2 dz
ItĆ“ās lemma can be used to determine the process for f>g from the process for ln1f>g2:
daf
gb=1sf-sg2 f
g dz (28.14)
This shows that f>g is a martingale and proves the equivalent martingale measure result.
From now on, we will use the phrase āworld defined by numeraire gā to mean a world
where sg, the volatility of g, is the market price of risk. Because f>g is a martingale in
this world, it follows from the result at the beginning of this section that
f0
g0=Eg afT
gTb
or
f0=g0Eg afT
gTb (28.15)
where Eg denotes the expected value in a world defined by numeraire g.
28.4 ALTERNATIVE CHOICES FOR THE NUMERAIRE
We now present a number of examples of the equivalent martingale measure result. The
first example shows that it is consistent with the traditional risk-neutral valuation result
used in earlier chapters. The other examples prepare the way for the valuation of bond options, interest rate caps, and swap options in Chapter 29.
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Martingales and Measures 677
Money Market Account as the Numeraire
The dollar money market account is a security that is worth $1 at time zero and earns
the instantaneous risk-free rate r at any given time.5 The variable r may be stochastic. If
we set g equal to the money market account, it grows at rate r so that
dg=rg dt (28.16)
The drift of g is stochastic, but the volatility of g is zero. It follows from the results in
Section 28.3 that f>g is a martingale in a world where the market price of risk is zero.
This is the world we defined earlier as the traditional risk-neutral world. From equa-tion ( 28.15),
f
0=g0 En afT
gTb (28.17)
where En denotes expectations in the traditional risk-neutral world.
In this case, g0=1 and
gT=e3T
0r dt
so that equation (28.17) reduces to
f0=En1e-3T
0r dtfT2 (28.18)
or
f0=En1e-rT fT2 (28.19)
where r is the average value of r between time 0 and time T. This equation shows that
one way of valuing an interest rate derivative is to simulate the short-term interest rate r
in the traditional risk-neutral world. On each trial the payoff is calculated and
discounted at the average value of the short rate on the sampled path.
When the short-term interest rate r is assumed to be constant, equation (28.19)
reduces to
f0=e-rTEn1fT2
or the risk-neutral valuation relationship used in earlier chapters.
Zero-Coupon Bond Price as the Numeraire
Define P1t, T2 as the price at time t of a risk-free zero-coupon bond that pays off $1 at
time T. We now explore the implications of setting the numeraire g equal to P1t, T2. Let
ET denote expectations in a world defined by this numeraire. Because gT=P1T, T2=1
and g0=P10, T2, equation (28.15) gives
f0=P10, T2ET 1fT2 (28.20)
Notice the difference between equations (28.20) and (28.19). In equation (28.19), the
Zero-Coupon Bonds as Numeraires
- Setting a risk-free zero-coupon bond as the numeraire simplifies the valuation of securities that provide a single payoff at a specific future time.
- Using this numeraire allows the discounting term to be moved outside the expectations operator, unlike traditional risk-neutral valuation.
- The forward price of a variable is shown to be its expected future spot price when the bond maturing at the same time is used as the numeraire.
- This framework establishes that the expected value of a realized interest rate equals the current forward interest rate in the corresponding world.
- These mathematical relationships provide the foundational logic for valuing complex financial instruments like interest rate caps and floors.
In equation (28.20), the discounting, as represented by the P10, T2 term, is outside the expectations operator.
or the risk-neutral valuation relationship used in earlier chapters.
Zero-Coupon Bond Price as the Numeraire
Define P1t, T2 as the price at time t of a risk-free zero-coupon bond that pays off $1 at
time T. We now explore the implications of setting the numeraire g equal to P1t, T2. Let
ET denote expectations in a world defined by this numeraire. Because gT=P1T, T2=1
and g0=P10, T2, equation (28.15) gives
f0=P10, T2ET 1fT2 (28.20)
Notice the difference between equations (28.20) and (28.19). In equation (28.19), the
discounting is inside the expectations operator. In equation (28.20), the discounting, as
5 The money market account is the limit as āt approaches zero of the following security. For the first short
period of time of length āt, it is invested at the initial āt period rate; at time āt, it is reinvested for a further
period of time āt at the new āt period rate; at time 2āt, it is again reinvested for a further period of time āt
at the new āt period rate; and so on. The money market accounts in other currencies are defined analogously
to the dollar money market account.
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678 CHAPTER 28
represented by the P10, T2 term, is outside the expectations operator. The use of P1t, T2
as the numeraire therefore considerably simplifies things for a security that provides a
payoff solely at time T.
Consider any variable u that is not an interest rate.6 A forward contract on u with
maturity T is defined as a contract that pays off uT-K at time T, where uT is the value u
at time T. Define f as the value of this forward contract. From equation (28.20),
f0=P10, T23ET1uT2-K4
The forward price, F, of u is the value of K for which f0 equals zero. It therefore
follows that
P10, T23ET1uT2-F4=0
or
F=ET1uT2 (28.21)
Equation (28.21) shows that the forward price of any variable (except an interest rate) is
its expected future spot price in a world defined by the numeraire P1t, T2. Note the
difference here between forward prices and futures prices. The argument in Section 18.6
shows that the futures price of a variable is the expected future spot price in the
traditional risk-neutral world.
To summarize, equation (28.20) shows that any security that provides a payoff at
time T can be valued by calculating its expected payoff in a world defined by the
numeraire that is a bond maturing at time T and discounting at the current risk-free rate
for maturity T. Equation (28.21) shows that it is correct to assume that the expected
value of the underlying variables equal their forward values when computing the
expected payoff.
Forward Interest Rates
For the next result, define F1t2 as the forward interest rate as seen at time t for the
period between T and T * expressed with a compounding period of T *-T. (For
example, if T *-T=0.5, the interest rate is expressed with semiannual compounding;
if T *-T=0.25, it is expressed with quarterly compounding; and so on.)
Define R as the realized rate between T and T * expressed with the same compound-
ing frequency. From the definition of a forward interest rate, a forward rate agreement
paying off F1t2-R at time T * is worth zero at time t. From the result in equa-
tion (28.21), it follows that
P10, T *2ET *1F1t2-R2=0
so that
ET *1R2=F1t2 (28.22)
Note that in this result F1t2 and R can be calculated from any yield curve. In the case of
the risk-free yield curve calculated from overnight interest rates, R is not known until
time T *. For other yield curves, R is known at time T. Equation (28.22) applies in both
cases. The results we just have produced will be useful in explaining the valuation of interest rate caps and floors in the next chapter.
6 The analysis given here does not apply to interest rates because forward contracts for interest rates are
defined slightly differently from forward contracts for other variables, as will be seen shortly.
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Martingales and Measures 679
Annuity Numeraires and Martingales
- The text demonstrates how the annuity factor can be used as a numeraire to simplify the valuation of forward swap rates.
- Under the equivalent martingale measure defined by the annuity numeraire, the expected future swap rate is equal to the current forward swap rate.
- This mathematical framework is essential for understanding the standard market models used to price European swap options.
- The analysis extends to multi-factor models, showing that the ratio of a security price to the numeraire remains a martingale even with multiple independent sources of risk.
- The results distinguish between different yield curves, noting that the annuity factor is typically calculated from the risk-free zero curve while the swap value can derive from other curves.
Therefore, in a world defined by this numeraire, the expected future swap rate is the current forward swap rate.
Note that in this result F1t2 and R can be calculated from any yield curve. In the case of
the risk-free yield curve calculated from overnight interest rates, R is not known until
time T *. For other yield curves, R is known at time T. Equation (28.22) applies in both
cases. The results we just have produced will be useful in explaining the valuation of interest rate caps and floors in the next chapter.
6 The analysis given here does not apply to interest rates because forward contracts for interest rates are
defined slightly differently from forward contracts for other variables, as will be seen shortly.
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Martingales and Measures 679
Annuity Factor as the Numeraire
For the next application of equivalent martingale measure arguments, consider a
floating-for-fixed swap starting at a future time T with payment dates at times T1,
T2, c, TN. In the swap, a fixed rate of interest is exchanged for the floating rate. Define
T0=T. Assume that the notional principal is $1. Suppose that the forward swap rate
(i.e., the interest rate on the fixed side that makes the forward swap have a value of zero)
is s(t) at time t 1tā¦T2. The value of the fixed side of the swap is
s1t2A1t2
where
A1t2=aN-1
i=01Ti+1-Ti2P1t, Ti+12
Define the value of the floating side as V1t2. Equating the values of the fixed and floating
sides gives
s1t2A1t2=V1t2
or
s1t2=V1t2
A1t2 (28.23)
The equivalent martingale measure result can be applied by setting f equal to V1t2
and g equal to A1t2. This leads to
s1t2=EA3s1T24 (28.24)
where EA denotes expectations in a world that is defined by the numeraire A1t2. There-
fore, in a world defined by this numeraire, the expected future swap rate is the current
forward swap rate.
The result in equation (28.15) shows that
V102=A102EAcV1T2
A1T2d (28.25)
This result, when combined with the result in equation (28.24), will be critical to an understanding of the standard market model for European swap options in the next chapter. Note that in this result
V1t2 can be calculated from any yield curve, whereas
A1t2 is calculated from the risk-free zero curve. For example, the swap can be a LIBOR-
for-fixed swap, while the risk-free rate is calculated from the OIS zero curve.
7 The independence condition is not critical. If factors are not independent they can be orthogonalized.28.5 EXTENSION TO SEVERAL FACTORS
The results presented in Sections 28.3 and 28.4 can be extended to cover the situation
when there are many independent factors.7 Assume that there are n independent factors
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680 CHAPTER 28
and that the processes for f and g in the traditional risk-neutral world are
d f=r f dt+an
i=1sf, i f dzi
and
dg=rg dt+an
i=1sg, i g dzi
It follows from Section 28.2 that other internally consistent worlds can be defined by
setting
d f=cr+an
i=1li sf, id
f dt+an
i=1sf, i f dzi
and
dg=cr+an
i=1li sg, id
g dt+an
i=1sg, i g dzi
where the li 11ā¦iā¦n2 are the n market prices of risk. One of these other worlds is the
real world.
We now extend our earlier terminology. A āworld defined by numeraire gā is a world
where li=sg,i for all i. It can be shown from ItĆ“ās lemma, using the fact that the dzi
are uncorrelated, that the process followed by f>g in this world has zero drift (see
Problem 28.12). The rest of the results in the last two sections (from equation (28.15)
onward) are therefore still true.
28.6 BLACKāS MODEL REVISITED
Section 18.8 explained that Blackās model is a popular tool for pricing European
Blackās Model and Stochastic Rates
- The text demonstrates that Blackās model remains valid for pricing European options even when interest rates are stochastic, rather than constant.
- By using the forward price of an asset as a martingale in a world defined by a specific numeraire, the option price can be expressed in terms of the current forward price.
- The derivation shows that the expected value of the asset price at maturity equals the current forward price when the appropriate measure is applied.
- The framework is extended to value options that allow for the exchange of one investment asset for another, utilizing the volatility of the ratio between the two assets.
- Adjustments for assets providing income are introduced, modifying the expectation equations to account for continuous dividend or income rates.
We are now in a position to relax the constant interest rate assumption and show that Blackās model can be used to price European options in terms of the forward price of the underlying asset when interest rates are stochastic.
where the li 11ā¦iā¦n2 are the n market prices of risk. One of these other worlds is the
real world.
We now extend our earlier terminology. A āworld defined by numeraire gā is a world
where li=sg,i for all i. It can be shown from ItĆ“ās lemma, using the fact that the dzi
are uncorrelated, that the process followed by f>g in this world has zero drift (see
Problem 28.12). The rest of the results in the last two sections (from equation (28.15)
onward) are therefore still true.
28.6 BLACKāS MODEL REVISITED
Section 18.8 explained that Blackās model is a popular tool for pricing European
options in terms of the forward or futures price of the underlying asset when interest
rates are constant. We are now in a position to relax the constant interest rate
assumption and show that Blackās model can be used to price European options in terms of the forward price of the underlying asset when interest rates are stochastic.
Consider a European call option on an asset with strike price K that lasts until time T.
From equation (28.20), the optionās price is given by
c=P10, T2ET3max1ST-K, 024 (28.26)
where ST is the asset price at time T and ET denotes expectations in a world defined by
numeraire P1t, T2. Define F0 and FT as the forward price of the asset at time 0 and time
T for a contract maturing at time T. Because ST=FT,
c=P10, T2ET3max1FT-K, 024
Assume that FT is lognormal in the world being considered, with the standard deviation
of ln1FT2 equal to sF2T. This could be because the forward price follows a stochastic
process with volatility sF. Equation (15A.1) shows that
ET3max1FT-K, 024=ET1FT2N1d12-KN1d22 (28.27)
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Martingales and Measures 681
where
d1=ln3ET1FT2>K4+s2
FT>2
sF2T
d2=ln3ET1FT2>K4-s2
FT>2
sF2T
From equation (28.21), ET1FT2=ET1ST2=F0. Hence,
c=P10, T23F0N1d12-K N1d224 (28.28)
where
d1=ln3F0>K4+s2
FT>2
sF2T
d2=ln3F0>K4-s2
FT>2
sF2T
Similarly,
p=P10, T23K N1-d22-F0N1-d124 (28.29)
where p is the price of a European put option on the asset with strike price K and time
to maturity T. This is Blackās model. It applies to both investment and consumption
assets and, as we have just shown, is true when interest rates are stochastic provided that
F0 is the forward asset price for a contract with the same maturity as the option. The
variable sF can be interpreted as the volatility of the forward asset price.
28.7 OPTION TO EXCHANGE ONE ASSET FOR ANOTHER
Consider next an option to exchange an investment asset worth U for an investment asset worth V. This has already been discussed in Section 26.14. Suppose that the
volatilities of U and V are
sU and sV and the coefficient of correlation between them is r.
Assume first that the assets provide no income and choose the numeraire security to
be U. Setting f=V in equation (28.15) gives
V0=U0EU aVT
UTb (28.30)
where EU denotes expectations in a world defined by the numeraire U. (We are here
using the multifactor extension of equation (28.15) because V and U may depend on different Wiener processes.)
The variable f in equation (28.15) can be set equal to the value of the option under
consideration, so that
fT=max1VT-UT, 02. It follows that
f0=U0 EUcmax1VT-UT, 02
UTd
or
f0=U0 EUcmax aVT
UT-1, 0bd (28.31)
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682 CHAPTER 28
The volatility of V>U is sn (see Problem 28.13), where
sn2=s2
U+s2V-2rsUsV
From equation (15A.1), equation (28.31) becomes
f0=U0cEU aVT
UTbN1d12-N1d22d
where
d1=ln1V0>U02+sn2T>2
sn2T and d2=d1-sn2T
Substituting from equation (28.30) gives
f0=V0N1d12-U0N1d22 (28.32)
This is the value of an option to exchange one asset for another when the assets provide
no income.
Problem 28.8 shows that, when f and g provide income at rate qf and qg, equa-
tion (28.15) becomes
f0=g0e1qf-qg2TEg afT
gTb
This means that equations (28.30) and (28.31) become
EU aVT
UTb=e1qU-qV2T V0
U0
and
f0=e-qUTU0EUcmax aVT
UT-1, 0bd
Change of Numeraire Dynamics
- The text derives the mathematical value of an option to exchange one asset for another, accounting for scenarios where assets provide income at specific rates.
- A change in numeraire impacts the expected growth rate of a market variable by shifting the market price of risk.
- The adjustment to a variable's expected growth rate when changing numeraires is defined as the instantaneous covariance between the variable and the numeraire ratio.
- This fundamental result applies equally to the prices of traded securities and variables that are not traded securities.
- Moving from the real world to a risk-neutral world involves a specific growth rate adjustment based on the market price of risk and the variable's volatility.
The adjustment to the expected growth rate of a variable v when we change from one numeraire to another is the instantaneous covariance between the percentage change in v and the percentage change in the numeraire ratio.
From equation (15A.1), equation (28.31) becomes
f0=U0cEU aVT
UTbN1d12-N1d22d
where
d1=ln1V0>U02+sn2T>2
sn2T and d2=d1-sn2T
Substituting from equation (28.30) gives
f0=V0N1d12-U0N1d22 (28.32)
This is the value of an option to exchange one asset for another when the assets provide
no income.
Problem 28.8 shows that, when f and g provide income at rate qf and qg, equa-
tion (28.15) becomes
f0=g0e1qf-qg2TEg afT
gTb
This means that equations (28.30) and (28.31) become
EU aVT
UTb=e1qU-qV2T V0
U0
and
f0=e-qUTU0EUcmax aVT
UT-1, 0bd
and equation (28.32) becomes
f0=e-qVTV0N1d12-e-qUTU0N1d22
with d1 and d2 being redefined as
d1=ln1V0>U02+1qU-qV+sn2>22T
sn2T and d2=d1-sn2T
This is the result given in equation (26.5) for the value of an option to exchange one asset for another.
28.8 CHANGE OF NUMERAIRE
In this section, we consider the impact of a change in numeraire on the process followed by a market variable. Suppose first that the variable is the price of a traded security, f.
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Martingales and Measures 683
In a world where the market price of dzi risk is li ,
d f=cr+an
i=1lisf,id
f dt+an
i=1sf,i f dzi
Similarly, when it is l*
i ,
d f=cr+an
i=1l*
isf, id
f dt+an
i=1sf, i f dzi
The effect of moving from the first world to the second is therefore to increase the
expected growth rate of the price of any traded security f by
an
i=11l*
i-li2sf,i
Consider next a variable v that is not the price of a traded security. As shown in
Technical Note 20 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes, the expected growth rate of v responds to a change in the market price of risk in the same way as the expected growth rate of the prices of traded securities. It increases by
a
v=an
i=11l*
i-li2sv,i (28.33)
where sv,i is the ith component of the volatility of v.
When we move from a numeraire of g to a numeraire of h , li=sg,i and l*
i=sh,i .
Define w=h>g and sw, i as the ith component of the volatility of w. From ItĆ“ās
lemma (see Problem 28.13),
sw,i=sh,i-sg,i
so that equation (28.33) becomes
av=an
i=1sw,i sv,i (28.34)
We will refer to w as the numeraire ratio. Equation (28.34) is equivalent to
av=rsvsw (28.35)
where sv is the total volatility of v, sw is the total volatility of w, and r is the
instantaneous correlation between changes in v and w.8
This is a surprisingly simple result. The adjustment to the expected growth rate of a
variable v when we change from one numeraire to another is the instantaneous
covariance between the percentage change in v and the percentage change in the
8 To see this, note that the changes āv and āw in v and w in a short period of time āt are given by
āv=g+asv, ivPi2āt
āw=g+asw, iwPi2āt
Since the dzi are uncorrelated, it follows that E1Pi Pj2=0 when iā j. Also, from the definition of r, we have
rvsvwsw=E1āv āw2-E1āv2E1āw2
When terms of higher order than āt are ignored this leads to
rsvsw=asw,i sv,i
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684 CHAPTER 28
numeraire ratio. This result will be used when timing and quanto adjustments are
considered in Chapter 30.
A particular case of the results in this section is when we move from the real world to
the traditional risk-neutral world (where all the market prices of risk are zero). From
equation (28.33), the growth rate of v changes by -an
i=1lisv,i. This corresponds to the
result in equation (28.13) when v is the price of a traded security. We have shown that it
is also true when v is not the price of a traded security. In general, the way that we move from one world to another for variables that are not the prices of traded securities is the
same as for those that are.
A Final Point
In this chapter we have expressed the processes for variables in terms of their expected returns and volatilities. The results if we use drifts and standard deviations are much the
same. Suppose
d f=m f dt+s f dz
and we write the process as
Martingales and Risk-Neutral Valuation
- The market price of risk defines the trade-off between risk and return for securities dependent on a specific variable.
- Risk-neutral valuation allows derivatives to be priced by assuming a world where the market price of risk is zero, yielding results valid in all worlds.
- A martingale is a stochastic process with zero drift, meaning its expected future value is always equal to its current value.
- The equivalent martingale measure result demonstrates that choosing an appropriate numeraire security can simplify the valuation of complex interest rate derivatives.
- Changing the market price of risk from one value to another adjusts the drift of a variable's process while maintaining its volatility structure.
The principle of risk-neutral valuation shows that, if we assume that the world is risk neutral when valuing derivatives, we get the right answerā not just in a risk-neutral world, but in all other worlds as well.
result in equation (28.13) when v is the price of a traded security. We have shown that it
is also true when v is not the price of a traded security. In general, the way that we move from one world to another for variables that are not the prices of traded securities is the
same as for those that are.
A Final Point
In this chapter we have expressed the processes for variables in terms of their expected returns and volatilities. The results if we use drifts and standard deviations are much the
same. Suppose
d f=m f dt+s f dz
and we write the process as
d f=m* dt+s* dz
(so that m*=mf and s*=sf). Suppose further that these processes reflect a market
price of risk of l1. The impact of changing the market price to l2 is, as we have
explained, to change the process to
d f=1m+l2s-l1s2 f dt+s f dz
This is the same as
d f=1m*+l2s*-l1s*2 dt+s* dz
SUMMARY
The market price of risk of a variable defines the trade-offs between risk and return for traded securities dependent on the variable. When there is one underlying variable, a derivativeās excess return over the risk-free rate equals the market price of risk multiplied
by the derivativeās volatility. When there are many underlying variables, the excess return
is the sum of the market price of risk multiplied by the volatility for each variable.
A powerful tool in the valuation of derivatives is risk-neutral valuation. This was
introduced in Chapters 13 and 15. The principle of risk-neutral valuation shows that, if
we assume that the world is risk neutral when valuing derivatives, we get the right answerā not just in a risk-neutral world, but in all other worlds as well. In the
traditional risk-neutral world, the market price of risk of all variables is zero. This
chapter has extended the principle of risk-neutral valuation. It has shown that, when interest rates are stochastic, there are many interesting and useful alternatives to the traditional risk-neutral world.
A martingale is a zero drift stochastic process. Any variable following a martingale
has the simplifying property that its expected value at any future time equals its value today. The equivalent martingale measure result shows that, if g is a security price, there is a world in which the ratio
f>g is a martingale for all security prices f. It turns out
that, by appropriately choosing the numeraire security g, the valuation of many interest
rate dependent derivatives can be simplified.
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Martingales and Measures 685
This chapter has used the equivalent martingale measure result to extend Blackās
model to the situation where interest rates are stochastic and to value an option to
exchange one asset for another. In Chapters 29 to 34, it will be useful in valuing interest rate derivatives.
FURTHER READING
Baxter, M., and A. Rennie, Financial Calculus. Cambridge University Press, 1996.
Cox, J. C., J. E. Ingersoll, and S. A. Ross, āAn Intertemporal General Equilibrium Model of
Asset Prices,ā Econometrica, 53 (1985): 363ā84.
Duffie, D., Dynamic Asset Pricing Theory, 3rd edn. Princeton University Press, 2001.
Harrison, J. M., and D. M. Kreps, āMartingales and Arbitrage in Multiperiod Securities
Markets,ā Journal of Economic Theory, 20 (1979): 381ā408.
Harrison, J. M., and S. R. Pliska, āMartingales and Stochastic Integrals in the Theory of
Continuous Trading,ā Stochastic Processes and Their Applications, 11 (1981): 215ā60.
Practice Questions
Martingales and Risk-Neutral Valuation
- The text provides a comprehensive list of foundational academic references for financial calculus and dynamic asset pricing theory.
- A series of practice questions explores the definition and application of the market price of risk for non-investment variables.
- Mathematical problems challenge the reader to derive differential equations for derivatives and transform processes into risk-neutral worlds.
- The exercises address complex scenarios involving multiple currencies, income-providing assets, and the use of different numeraires in martingale pricing.
- Specific attention is given to the relationship between expected future interest rates and bond prices in real versus risk-neutral environments.
āThe expected future value of an interest rate in a risk-neutral world is greater than it is in the real world.ā
Baxter, M., and A. Rennie, Financial Calculus. Cambridge University Press, 1996.
Cox, J. C., J. E. Ingersoll, and S. A. Ross, āAn Intertemporal General Equilibrium Model of
Asset Prices,ā Econometrica, 53 (1985): 363ā84.
Duffie, D., Dynamic Asset Pricing Theory, 3rd edn. Princeton University Press, 2001.
Harrison, J. M., and D. M. Kreps, āMartingales and Arbitrage in Multiperiod Securities
Markets,ā Journal of Economic Theory, 20 (1979): 381ā408.
Harrison, J. M., and S. R. Pliska, āMartingales and Stochastic Integrals in the Theory of
Continuous Trading,ā Stochastic Processes and Their Applications, 11 (1981): 215ā60.
Practice Questions
28.1. How is the market price of risk defined for a variable that is not the price of an
investment asset?
28.2. Suppose that the market price of risk for gold is zero. If the storage costs are 1% per
annum and the risk-free rate of interest is 6% per annum, what is the expected growth rate in the price of gold? Assume that gold provides no income.
28.3. Consider two securities both of which are dependent on the same market variable. The expected returns from the securities are 8% and 12%. The volatility of the first security is 15%. The instantaneous risk-free rate is 4%. What is the volatility of the second security?
28.4. An oil company is set up solely for the purpose of exploring for oil in a certain small
area of Texas. Its value depends primarily on two stochastic variables: the price of oil
and the quantity of proven oil reserves. Discuss whether the market price of risk for the second of these two variables is likely to be positive, negative, or zero.
28.5. Deduce the differential equation for a derivative dependent on the prices of two non- dividend-paying traded securities by forming a riskless portfolio consisting of the
derivative and the two traded securities.
28.6. Suppose that an interest rate x follows the process
dx=a1x0-x2 dt+c2x dz
where a, x0, and c are positive constants. Suppose further that the market price of risk
for x is l. What is the process for x in the traditional risk-neutral world?
28.7. Prove that, when the security f provides income at rate q, equation (28.9) becomes
m+q-r=ls. (Hint: Form a new security f* that provides no income by assuming
that all the income from f is reinvested in f.)
28.8. Show that when f and g provide income at rates qf and qg, respectively, equation (28.15)
becomes
f0=g0e1qf-qg2TEg afT
gTb
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686 CHAPTER 28
(Hint: Form new securities f* and g* that provide no income by assuming that all the
income from f is reinvested in f and all the income in g is reinvested in g.)
28.9. āThe expected future value of an interest rate in a risk-neutral world is greater than it is
in the real world.ā What does this statement imply about the market price of risk for
(a) an interest rate and (b) a bond price. Do you think the statement is likely to be true?
Give reasons.
28.10. The variable S is an investment asset providing income at rate q measured in currency A.
It follows the process
dS=mSS dt+sSS dz
in the real world. Defining new variables as necessary, give the process followed by S,
and the corresponding market price of risk, in:
(a) A world that is the traditional risk-neutral world for currency A
(b) A world that is the traditional risk-neutral world for currency B
(c) A world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon currency A bond maturing
at time T
(d) A world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon currency B bond maturing at time T.
28.11. Explain the difference between the way a forward interest rate is defined and the way the
forward values of other variables such as stock prices, commodity prices, and exchange rates are defined.
28.12. Prove the result in Section 28.5 that when
d f=
cr+an
i=1lisf,idf dt+an
i=1sf,i f dzi
and
dg=cr+an
i=1lisg,idg dt+an
i=1sg,i g dzi
with the dzi uncorrelated, f>g is a martingale for li=sg,i (Hint: Start by using
Martingales and Interest Rate Derivatives
- The text provides technical exercises on the application of martingales and numeraire changes in financial modeling.
- It highlights the distinct complexity of interest rate derivatives compared to equity or foreign exchange products.
- Valuing interest rate products requires modeling the entire zero-coupon yield curve rather than a single price point.
- The chapter introduces standard market models for valuing bond options, interest rate caps, and swap options.
Interest rates are used for discounting the derivative as well as defining its payoff.
(d) A world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon currency B bond maturing at time T.
28.11. Explain the difference between the way a forward interest rate is defined and the way the
forward values of other variables such as stock prices, commodity prices, and exchange rates are defined.
28.12. Prove the result in Section 28.5 that when
d f=
cr+an
i=1lisf,idf dt+an
i=1sf,i f dzi
and
dg=cr+an
i=1lisg,idg dt+an
i=1sg,i g dzi
with the dzi uncorrelated, f>g is a martingale for li=sg,i (Hint: Start by using
equation (14A.11) to get the processes for ln f and ln g.)
28.13. Show that when w=h>g and h and g are each dependent on n Wiener processes, the ith
component of the volatility of w is the ith component of the volatility of h minus the ith
component of the volatility of g. (Hint: Start by using equation (14A.11) to get the
processes for ln g and ln h.)
28.14. āIf X is the expected value of a variable, X follows a martingale.ā Explain this statement.
28.15. Suppose that the price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T follows the process
dP1t, T2=mP P1t, T2 dt+sPP1t, T2 dz
and the price of a derivative dependent on the bond follows the process
df=mf f dt+sf f dz
Assume only one source of uncertainty and that f provides no income.
(a) What is the forward price F of f for a contract maturing at time T?
(b) What is the process followed by F in a world defined by the numeraire P1t, T2?
(c) What is the process followed by F in the traditional risk-neutral world?
(d) What is the process followed by f in a world defined by a numeraire equal to a bond
maturing at time T *, where T *ā T? Assume that s*
P is the volatility of this bond.
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Martingales and Measures 687
28.16. Consider a variable that is not an interest rate:
(a) In what world is the futures price of the variable a martingale?
(b) In what world is the forward price of the variable a martingale?
(c) Defining variables as necessary, derive an expression for the difference between the
drift of the futures price and the drift of the forward price in the traditional risk- neutral world.
(d) Show that your result is consistent with the points made in Section 5.8 about the
circumstances when the futures price is above the forward price.
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688
Interest Rate
Derivatives:
The Standard
Market Models
Interest rate derivatives are instruments whose payoffs are dependent in some way on the
level of interest rates. Since the 1980s, the volume of trading in interest rate derivatives in
both the over-the-counter and exchange-traded markets has increased rapidly. Many new
products have been developed to meet particular needs of end users. A key challenge for
derivatives traders has been to find good, robust procedures for pricing and hedging these
products. Interest rate derivatives are more difficult to value than equity and foreign exchange derivatives for the following reasons:
1. The behavior of an individual interest rate is more complicated than that of a
stock price or an exchange rate.
2. For the valuation of many products it is necessary to develop a model describing the behavior of the entire zero-coupon yield curve.
3. The volatilities of different points on the yield curve are different.
4. Interest rates are used for discounting the derivative as well as defining its payoff.
This chapter considers the three most popular over-the-counter interest rate option products: bond options, interest rate caps/floors, and swap options. It explains how
the products work and the standard market models used to value them.29 CHAPTER
29.1 BOND OPTIONS
A bond option is an option to buy or sell a particular bond by a particular date for a particular price. In addition to trading in the over-the-counter market, bond options
are frequently embedded in bonds when they are issued to make them more attractive to
either the issuer or potential purchasers.
Interest Rate Options and Models
- The text explores the three primary over-the-counter interest rate products: bond options, interest rate caps/floors, and swap options.
- Bond options are frequently embedded in financial instruments, such as callable bonds which allow issuers to buy back debt, or puttable bonds which allow holders to demand early redemption.
- Common financial products like fixed-rate deposits and loan commitments are functionally equivalent to American put options on bonds.
- The standard market model for valuing European bond options utilizes Black's model, assuming the forward bond price follows a specific volatility.
- Embedded options significantly impact bond yields, with callable features increasing yields and puttable features decreasing them to compensate for the shifted risk.
The client has, in effect, obtained the right to sell a 5-year bond with a 3% coupon to the financial institution for its face value any time within the next 2 months.
This chapter considers the three most popular over-the-counter interest rate option products: bond options, interest rate caps/floors, and swap options. It explains how
the products work and the standard market models used to value them.29 CHAPTER
29.1 BOND OPTIONS
A bond option is an option to buy or sell a particular bond by a particular date for a particular price. In addition to trading in the over-the-counter market, bond options
are frequently embedded in bonds when they are issued to make them more attractive to
either the issuer or potential purchasers.
Embedded Bond Options
One example of a bond with an embedded bond option is a callable bond. This is a
bond that contains provisions allowing the issuing firm to buy back the bond at a
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predetermined price at certain times in the future. The holder of such a bond has sold
a call option to the issuer. The strike price or call price in the option is the
predetermined price that must be paid by the issuer to the holder. Callable bonds
cannot usually be called for the first few years of their life. (This is known as the lock-
out period.) After that, the call price is usually a decreasing function of time. For
example, in a 10-year callable bond, there might be no call privileges for the first
2 years. After that, the issuer might have the right to buy the bond back at a price of 110 in years 3 and 4 of its life, at a price of 107.5 in years 5 and 6, at a price of 106 in years 7 and 8, and at a price of 103 in years 9 and 10. The value of the call option is reflected in the quoted yields on bonds. Bonds with call features generally offer higher yields than bonds with no call features.
Another type of bond with an embedded option is a puttable bond. This contains
provisions that allow the holder to demand early redemption at a predetermined price at certain times in the future. The holder of such a bond has purchased a put option on the bond as well as the bond itself. Because the put option increases the value of the bond to the holder, bonds with put features provide lower yields than bonds with no put features. A simple example of a puttable bond is a 10-year bond where the holder has the right to be repaid at the end of 5 years. (This is sometimes referred to as a retractable bond.)
Loan and deposit instruments also often contain embedded bond options. For
example, a 5-year fixed-rate deposit with a financial institution that can be redeemed without penalty at any time contains an American put option on a bond. (The deposit instrument is a bond that the investor has the right to put back to the financial
institution at its face value at any time.) Prepayment privileges on loans and mortgages are similarly call options on bonds.
Finally, a loan commitment made by a bank or other financial institution is a put
option on a bond. Consider, for example, the situation where a bank quotes a 5-year interest rate of 3% per annum to a potential borrower and states that the rate is good for the next 2 months. The client has, in effect, obtained the right to sell a 5-year bond with a 3% coupon to the financial institution for its face value any time within the next 2 months. The option will be exercised if rates increase.
European Bond Options
Many over-the-counter bond options and some embedded bond options are European.
The assumption made in the standard market model for valuing European bond
options is that the forward bond price has a volatility sB. This allows Blackās model
in Section 28.6 to be used. In equations (28.28) and (28.29), sF is set equal to sB and F0
is set equal to the forward bond price FB, so that
c=P10, T23FBN1d12-K N1d224 (29.1)
p=P10, T23K N1-d22-FBN1-d124 (29.2)
where
d1=ln1FB>K2+s2
BT>2
sB2T and d2=d1-sB2T
Valuing European Bond Options
- European bond options are typically valued using the standard market model, which applies Blackās model by assuming a specific volatility for the forward bond price.
- The forward bond price is calculated by subtracting the present value of all coupons expected during the option's life from the current spot bond price.
- A critical distinction is made between the 'clean price' (quoted price) and the 'dirty price' (cash price), which includes accrued interest.
- The strike price used in the valuation formula must be the cash strike price, requiring adjustments if the contract specifies a quoted strike price.
- Bond price uncertainty follows a unique trajectory, starting at zero today and returning to zero at maturity when the bond's value equals its face value.
Traders refer to the quoted price of a bond as the clean price and the cash price as the dirty price.
European Bond Options
Many over-the-counter bond options and some embedded bond options are European.
The assumption made in the standard market model for valuing European bond
options is that the forward bond price has a volatility sB. This allows Blackās model
in Section 28.6 to be used. In equations (28.28) and (28.29), sF is set equal to sB and F0
is set equal to the forward bond price FB, so that
c=P10, T23FBN1d12-K N1d224 (29.1)
p=P10, T23K N1-d22-FBN1-d124 (29.2)
where
d1=ln1FB>K2+s2
BT>2
sB2T and d2=d1-sB2T
In these equations, K is the strike price of the bond option, T is its time to maturity, and
P10, T2 is the (risk-free) discount factor for maturity T.
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690 CHAPTER 29
From Section 5.5, FB can be calculated using the formula
FB=B0-I
P10, T2 (29.3)
where B0 is the bond price at time zero and I is the present value of the coupons that
will be paid during the life of the option. In this formula, both the spot bond price and
the forward bond price are cash prices rather than quoted prices. The relationship between cash and quoted bond prices is explained in Section 6.1.
The strike price K in equations (29.1) and (29.2) should be the cash strike price. In
choosing the correct value for K, the precise terms of the option are therefore
important. If the strike price is defined as the cash amount that is exchanged for the bond when the option is exercised, K should be set equal to this strike price. If, as is
more common, the strike price is the quoted price applicable when the option is
exercised, K should be set equal to the strike price plus accrued interest at the expiration
date of the option. Traders refer to the quoted price of a bond as the clean price and the
cash price as the dirty price.
Example 29.1
Consider a 10-month European call option on a 9.75-year bond with a face
value of $1,000. (When the option matures, the bond will have 8 years and
11 months remaining.) Suppose that the current cash bond price is $960, the
strike price is $l,000, the 10-month risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, and
the volatility of the forward bond price for a contract maturing in 10 months is
9% per annum. The bond pays a coupon of 10% per year (with payments made semiannually). Coupon payments of $50 are expected in 3 months and 9 months. (This means that the accrued interest is $25 and the quoted bond price is $935.) We suppose that the 3-month and 9-month risk-free interest rates are 9.0% and 9.5% per annum, respectively. The present value of the coupon payments is,
therefore,
50e-0.25*0.09+50e-0.75*0.095=95.45
or $95.45. The bond forward price is from equation (29.3) given by
FB=1960-95.452e0.1*0.8333=939.68
(a) If the strike price is the cash price that would be paid for the bond on exercise,
the parameters for equation (29.1) are FB=939.68, K=1000, P10, T2 =
e-0.1*110>122=0.9200, sB=0.09, and T=10>12. The price of the call option
is $9.49.
(b) If the strike price is the quoted price that would be paid for the bond on
exercise, 1 monthās accrued interest must be added to K because the maturity of the option is 1 month after a coupon date. This produces a value for K of
1,000+100*0.08333=1,008.33
The values for the other parameters in equation (29.1) are unchanged (i.e.,
FB=939.68, P10, T2=0.9200, sB=0.09, and T=0.8333). The price of the
option is $7.97.
Figure 29.1 shows how the standard deviation of the logarithm of a bondās price
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 691
changes as we look further ahead. The standard deviation is zero today because there is
no uncertainty about the bondās price today. It is also zero at the bondās maturity
because we know that the bondās price will equal its face value at maturity. Between today and the maturity of the bond, the standard deviation first increases and then decreases.
The volatility
Bond Option Volatility Dynamics
- The standard deviation of a bond's price logarithm is zero today and at maturity, peaking at a point in between.
- Forward bond price volatility typically declines as the life of the option increases for a fixed underlying bond.
- Market participants often quote yield volatilities instead of price volatilities, using modified duration to convert between the two.
- Yield volatilities are preferred by traders because they tend to remain more constant than forward bond price volatilities.
- Black's model can be adapted to price European bond options by applying these duration-based volatility conversions.
The standard deviation is zero today because there is no uncertainty about the bondās price today.
option is $7.97.
Figure 29.1 shows how the standard deviation of the logarithm of a bondās price
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 691
changes as we look further ahead. The standard deviation is zero today because there is
no uncertainty about the bondās price today. It is also zero at the bondās maturity
because we know that the bondās price will equal its face value at maturity. Between today and the maturity of the bond, the standard deviation first increases and then decreases.
The volatility
sB that should be used when a European option on the bond is valued is
Standard deviation of logarithm of bond price at maturity of option
2Time to maturity of option
What happens when, for a particular underlying bond, the life of the option is increased? Figure 29.2 shows a typical pattern for
sB as a function of the life of the option, with sB
declining as the life of the option increases.
Figure 29.2 Variation of forward bond price volatility sB with life of option when
bond is kept fixed.
sB
Life of
option
Bond
maturit yFigure 29.1 Standard deviation of logarithm of bond price at future times.
Standard deviation of
logarithm of bond price
Time Bond
maturity
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692 CHAPTER 29
Yield Volatilities
The volatilities that are quoted for bond options are often yield volatilities rather than
price volatilities. The duration concept, introduced in Chapter 4, is used by the market to convert a quoted yield volatility into a price volatility. Suppose that D is the modified
duration of the bond underlying the option at the option maturity, as defined in
Chapter 4. The relationship between the change
āFB in the forward bond price FB
and the change āyF in the forward yield yF is
āFB
FBā-DāyF
or
āFB
FBā-DyF āyF
yF
Volatility is a measure of the standard deviation of percentage changes in the value of a variable. This equation therefore suggests that the volatility of the forward bond price
sB used in Blackās model can be approximately related to the volatility of the forward
bond yield sy by
sB=Dy0sy (29.4)
where y0 is the initial value of yF. When a yield volatility is quoted for a European bond
option, the implicit assumption is usually that it will be converted to a price volatility using equation (29.4), and that this volatility will then be used in conjunction with
equation (29.1) or (29.2) to obtain the optionās price. Suppose that the bond underlying a
call option will have a modified duration of 5 years at option maturity, the forward yield
is 8%, and the forward yield volatility quoted by a broker is 20%. This means that the market price of the option corresponding to the broker quote is the price given by equation (29.1) when the volatility variable
sB is
5*0.08*0.2=0.08
or 8% per annum. Figure 29.2 shows that forward bond volatilities depend on the option considered. Forward yield volatilities as we have just defined them are more constant. This is why traders prefer them.
The Bond_Options worksheet of the software DerivaGem accompanying this book
can be used to price European bond options using Blackās model by selecting Black- European as the Pricing Model. The user inputs a yield volatility, which is handled in the way just described. The strike price can be the cash or quoted strike price.
Example 29.2
Interest Rate Caps and Floors
- Traders prefer forward yield volatilities over bond volatilities because they remain more constant across different option types.
- European bond options can be priced using Black's model, with significant price differences depending on whether the strike is a cash or quoted price.
- An interest rate cap acts as a series of call options that protect borrowers by ensuring their effective interest rate never exceeds a specific strike price.
- Interest rate floors function as a series of put options, guaranteeing a minimum interest rate for bondholders when market rates drop.
- As LIBOR is phased out, the market for caps and floors is shifting toward reference rates calculated from overnight rates.
If the reference interest rate for a particular quarter is less than 3%, there is no payoff for the quarter, but when this interest rate is greater than 3% there is a payoff designed to bring the effective reference interest rate down to 3% per annum.
or 8% per annum. Figure 29.2 shows that forward bond volatilities depend on the option considered. Forward yield volatilities as we have just defined them are more constant. This is why traders prefer them.
The Bond_Options worksheet of the software DerivaGem accompanying this book
can be used to price European bond options using Blackās model by selecting Black- European as the Pricing Model. The user inputs a yield volatility, which is handled in the way just described. The strike price can be the cash or quoted strike price.
Example 29.2
Consider a European put option on a 10-year bond with a principal of 100. The
coupon is 8% per year payable semiannually. The life of the option is 2.25 years and the strike price of the option is 115. The forward yield volatility is 20%. The zero curve is flat at 5% with continuous compounding. The DerivaGem software accompanying this book shows that the quoted price of the bond is 122.82. The price of the option when the strike price is a quoted price is $2.36. When the strike price is a cash price, the price of the option is $1.74. (See Problem 29.16 for the manual calculation.)
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 693
An interest rate cap is a series of call options on interest rates. It can be understood by
considering a floating-rate note where the interest rate is reset every three months.1 The
interest rate for each three-month period is based on a three-month reference interest rate, applicable to the period, that is observed in the market. (For example, the interest rate on the floating-rate note could be the reference interest rate plus 25 basis points.) If
a company borrows $10 million for five years using the floating-rate note and enters into a cap with a notional principal of $10 million and a strike price of 3% per annum, the company has ensured that the effective reference interest rate determining its loan interest payments will never be more than 3% per annum. If the reference interest rate for a particular quarter is less than 3%, there is no payoff for the quarter, but when this interest rate is greater than 3% there is a payoff designed to bring the effective reference
interest rate down to 3% per annum. For example, if the reference interest rate for a period is 4%, the cap will provide a payoff of
0.25*$10,000,000*10.04-0.032=$25,000
to reduce the effective reference rate for the quarter to 3% per annum.
Similarly an interest rate floor is a series of put options on interest rates. A company
that owns a $10 million floating-rate bond with quarterly resets might buy a floor with a
strike price of 2% per annum. This would ensure that the reference interest rate each quarter determining the interest payments received is at least 2% per annum. If the reference interest rate in the market for a particular quarter is greater than 2%, there is
no payoff for the quarter, but if this interest rate is less than 2%, there is a payoff designed to bring the effective reference interest rate up to 2% per annum. For example,
if the reference interest rate is 1.5% per annum, the floor will provide a payoff of
0.25*$10,000,000*10.02-0.0152=$12,500
LIBOR has traditionally been the most common reference rate in interest rate caps
and floors. As LIBOR is phased out, it is likely that caps and floors based on reference rates calculated from overnight rates will become more popular (see Section 4.2). Here we present results for caps and floors where the reference rate is (like LIBOR) set in advance of a period. We then discuss possible adjustments to the models for reference rates based on overnight rates.
The Cap as a Portfolio of Interest Rate Options
Interest Rate Caps and Floors
- Interest rate caps are portfolios of individual call options known as caplets, which provide payoffs when a reference rate exceeds a specified strike level.
- A cap can be mathematically reinterpreted as a portfolio of European put options on zero-coupon bonds, where the strike price is the principal amount.
- Interest rate floors consist of put options on rates (floorlets) and can similarly be viewed as portfolios of call options on zero-coupon bonds.
- A collar is a financial instrument that combines a long cap and a short floor to keep interest rates within a specific range, often structured for zero initial cost.
- The valuation of these derivatives follows a standard market model based on forward rates, and they maintain a put-call parity relationship with interest rate swaps.
The n call options underlying the cap are known as caplets.
LIBOR has traditionally been the most common reference rate in interest rate caps
and floors. As LIBOR is phased out, it is likely that caps and floors based on reference rates calculated from overnight rates will become more popular (see Section 4.2). Here we present results for caps and floors where the reference rate is (like LIBOR) set in advance of a period. We then discuss possible adjustments to the models for reference rates based on overnight rates.
The Cap as a Portfolio of Interest Rate Options
Consider a cap with a total life of T, a principal of L, and a cap rate of RK. Suppose that
the reset dates are t1, t2, c, tn and define tn+1=T. Define Rk as the floating interest
rate for the period between time tk and tk+1 observed at time tk 11ā¦kā¦n2. The cap
leads to a payoff at time tk+1 1k=1, 2, c, n2 of
Ldk max1Rk-RK, 02 (29.5)
where dk=tk+1-tk.2 Both Rk and RK are expressed with a compounding frequency
equal to the frequency of resets.29.2 INTEREST RATE CAPS AND FLOORS
1 The time between resets (three months in this example) is known as the tenor.
2 Day count issues are discussed at the end of this section.
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694 CHAPTER 29
Expression (29.5) is the payoff from a call option on the floating rate observed at time tk
with the payoff occurring at time tk+1. The cap is a portfolio of n such options. Rates are
observed at times t1, t2, t3, c, tn and the corresponding payoffs occur at
times t2, t3, t4, c, tn+1. The n call options underlying the cap are known as caplets.
A Cap as a Portfolio of Bond Options
An interest rate cap can also be characterized as a portfolio of put options on zero-
coupon bonds with payoffs on the puts occurring at the time they are calculated. The payoff in expression (29.5) at time
tk+1 is equivalent to
Ldk
1+Rkdk max1Rk-RK, 02
at time tk. A few lines of algebra show that this reduces to
maxcL-L11+RKdk2
1+Rkdk , 0d (29.6)
The expression
L11+RKdk2
1+Rkdk
is the value at time tk of a zero-coupon bond that pays off L11+RKdk2 at time tk+1. The
expression in (29.6) is therefore the payoff from a put option with maturity tk on a zero-
coupon bond with maturity tk+1 when the face value of the bond is L11+RKdk2 and the
strike price is L. It follows that an interest rate cap can be regarded as a portfolio of European put options on zero-coupon bonds.
Floors and Collars
An interest rate floor is a portfolio of put options on interest rates or a portfolio of call
options on zero-coupon bonds. Each of the individual options comprising a floor is known as a floorlet. A collar is an instrument designed to guarantee that the interest rate
on an underlying floating-rate note always lies between two levels. A collar is a
combination of a long position in a cap and a short position in a floor. It is usually
constructed so that the price of the cap is initially equal to the price of the floor. The cost of entering into the collar is then zero.
Business Snapshot 29.1 gives the putācall parity relationship between caps and floors.
Valuation of Caps and Floors
As shown in equation (29.5), the caplet corresponding to the rate observed at time tk
provides a payoff at time tk+1 of
Ldk max1Rk-RK, 02
Under the standard market model, the value of the caplet is
LdkP10, tk+123Fk N1d12-RK N1d224 (29.7)
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 695
Business Snapshot 29.1 PutāCall Parity for Caps and Floors
There is a putācall parity relationship between the prices of caps and floors. This is
Value of cap=Value of floor+Value of swap
Standard Market Models for Caps
- The value of an interest rate caplet is determined using a natural extension of Blackās model, incorporating forward interest rates and their specific volatilities.
- A fundamental putācall parity relationship exists where the value of a cap equals the value of a floor plus the value of a corresponding swap.
- The valuation of caps and floors requires careful adjustment for LIBOR rates because swaps typically determine payments at time zero, while caps do not have a payoff on the first reset date.
- Market practitioners distinguish between spot volatilities, which vary for each individual caplet, and flat volatilities, which remain constant across all caplets within a specific cap.
- The payoff of a caplet is calculated based on the rate observed at one time period but paid at a subsequent period, necessitating the use of risk-free discount factors.
The cap provides a cash flow of R-RK for periods when R is greater than RK. The short floor provides a cash flow of -1RK-R2=R-RK for periods when R is less than RK.
As shown in equation (29.5), the caplet corresponding to the rate observed at time tk
provides a payoff at time tk+1 of
Ldk max1Rk-RK, 02
Under the standard market model, the value of the caplet is
LdkP10, tk+123Fk N1d12-RK N1d224 (29.7)
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 695
Business Snapshot 29.1 PutāCall Parity for Caps and Floors
There is a putācall parity relationship between the prices of caps and floors. This is
Value of cap=Value of floor+Value of swap
In this relationship, the cap and floor have the same strike price, RK. The swap is an
agreement to receive a floating rate, R, and pay a fixed rate of RK with no exchange of
payments on the first reset date. All three instruments have the same life and the same
frequency of payments.
To see that the result is true, consider a long position in the cap combined with a
short position in the floor. The cap provides a cash flow of R-RK for periods when
R is greater than RK. The short floor provides a cash flow of -1RK-R2=R-RK for
periods when R is less than RK. There is therefore a cash flow of R-RK in all
circumstances. This is the cash flow on the swap. It follows that the value of the cap
minus the value of the floor must equal the value of the swap.
Note that LIBOR-for-fixed swaps are usually structured so that LIBOR at time
zero determines a payment on the first reset date. LIBOR-based caps and floors are
usually structured so that there is no payoff on the first reset date. The formula therefore needs adjustment when R is a LIBOR rate.
where
d1=ln1Fk>RK2+s2
ktk>2
sk1tk
d2=ln1Fk>RK2-s2
k tk>2
sk1tk=d1-sk1tk
Here, Fk is the forward interest rate at time 0 for the period between time tk and
tk+1, and sk is the volatility of this forward interest rate. This is a natural extension of
Blackās model. The volatility sk is multiplied by 1tk because the interest rate Rk is
observed at time tk, but the risk-free discount factor P10, tk+12 reflects the fact that the
payoff is at time tk+1, not time tk. The value of the corresponding floorlet is
Ldk P10, tk+123RK N1-d22-Fk N1-d124 (29.8)
Example 29.3
Consider a contract that caps an interest rate on $10 million at 8% per annum
(with quarterly compounding) for 3 months starting in 1 year. The interest rate is observed at time 1 year and paid at time 1.25 years. This is a caplet and could be
one element of a cap. Suppose that the forward interest rate for the period covered by the caplet is 7% per annum with quarterly compounding and the volatility of
this forward rate is 20% per annum. The continuously compounded risk-free
zero rate for all maturities is 6.5%. In equation (29.7),
Fk=0.07, dk=0.25,
L=10, RK=0.08, tk=1.0, tk+1=1.25, P10, tk+12=e-0.065*1.25=0.9220,
and sk=0.20. Also,
d1=ln10.07>0.082+0.22*1>2
0.20*1=-0.5677
d2=d1-0.20=-0.7677
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696 CHAPTER 29
so that the caplet price (in $ millions) is
0.25*10*0.922030.07N1-0.56772-0.08N1-0.767724=0.00519
This result can also be obtained using the DerivaGem software accompanying
this book.
Each caplet of a cap must be valued separately using equation (29.7). Similarly, each floorlet of a floor must be valued separately using equation (29.8). One approach is to use
a different volatility for each caplet (or floorlet). The volatilities are then referred to as spot volatilities. An alternative approach is to use the same volatility for all the caplets (floorlets) comprising any particular cap (floor) but to vary this volatility according to the life of the cap (floor). The volatilities used are then referred to as flat volatilities.
3 Flat
Valuing Interest Rate Caps
- Interest rate caps and floors are valued by treating each individual caplet or floorlet as a separate European option.
- Traders distinguish between spot volatilities for individual caplets and flat volatilities, which are cumulative averages used for the entire life of a cap.
- The SABR model is frequently employed by analysts to manage risks associated with the volatility smile or skew observed in market prices.
- Black's model for caplets is theoretically justified by using a risk-free zero-coupon bond as a numeraire in a forward risk-neutral world.
- The expected value of the future interest rate in this specific risk-neutral world is shown to be equal to the current forward interest rate.
Flat volatilities are akin to cumulative averages of spot volatilities and are therefore less variable as a function of maturity.
this book.
Each caplet of a cap must be valued separately using equation (29.7). Similarly, each floorlet of a floor must be valued separately using equation (29.8). One approach is to use
a different volatility for each caplet (or floorlet). The volatilities are then referred to as spot volatilities. An alternative approach is to use the same volatility for all the caplets (floorlets) comprising any particular cap (floor) but to vary this volatility according to the life of the cap (floor). The volatilities used are then referred to as flat volatilities.
3 Flat
volatilities are akin to cumulative averages of spot volatilities and are therefore less variable as a function of maturity. The volatilities quoted in the market are usually flat volatilities. However, many traders like to estimate spot volatilities because this allows them to identify underpriced and overpriced caplets (floorlets).
There is a smile or skew in the implied volatilities calculated from caplet/floorlet prices.
Some analysts choose to model this with the SABR model which was introduced in
Section 27.2. This can be useful in managing the risks associated with smile movements.
Theoretical Justification for the Model
The extension of Blackās model used to value a caplet can be shown to be internally
consistent by considering a world defined by a numeraire equal to a risk-free zero-coupon
bond maturing at time tk+1. Section 28.4 shows that:
1. The current value of any security is its expected value at time tk+1 in this world
multiplied by the price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time tk+1 (see
equation (28.20)).
2. The expected value of a risk-free interest rate lasting between times tk and tk+1
equals the forward interest rate in this world (see equation (28.22)).
The first of these results shows that, with the notation introduced earlier, the price of a caplet that provides a payoff at time
tk+1 is
Ldk P10, tk+12Ek+13max1Rk-RK, 024 (29.9)
where Ek+1 denotes expected value in a world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-
coupon bond maturing at time tk+1. When the forward interest rate underlying the cap
(initially Fk) is assumed to have a constant volatility sk, Rk is lognormal in the world we
are considering, with the standard deviation of ln1Rk2 equal to sk1tk. From
equation (15A.1), the caplet price in equation (29.9) becomes
LdkP10, tk+123Ek+11Rk2N1d12-RK N1d224
where
d1=ln3Ek+11Rk2>RK4+s2
ktk>2
sk1tk
d2=ln3Ek+11Rk2>RK4-s2
ktk>2
sk1tk=d1-sk1tk
3 Flat volatilities can be calculated from spot volatilities and vice versa (see Problem 29.20).
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 697
The second result implies that
Ek+11Rk2=Fk
which leads to the result in equation (29.7). Note that the results we have used from
Section 28.4 are correct when any yield curve is used to define Rk and Fk. (It does not
have to be the risk-free yield curve underlying P10, tk+12.)
Use of DerivaGem
The software DerivaGem accompanying this book can be used to price interest rate caps and floors using Blackās model. In the Cap_and_Swap_Options worksheet select Cap/Floor as the Underlying Type and Black-European as the Pricing Model. Forward
rates for the underlying floating reference rate are input with a compounding frequency
corresponding to the tenor. These are used to determine the
Fk. Continuously
Pricing Caps and Negative Rates
- The DerivaGem software facilitates interest rate cap and floor pricing by utilizing Blackās model and OIS rates for discounting.
- Day count conventions, such as actual/360, significantly impact valuation by requiring adjustments to accrual fractions and forward rate calculations.
- The emergence of negative interest rates in 2014 challenged traditional lognormal models which assume rates cannot drop below zero.
- To account for negative rates, practitioners use shifted lognormal models or the Bachelier normal model to allow for a wider range of interest rate outcomes.
- The Bachelier model treats the forward rate process as a martingale where the volatility is applied to the rate change rather than the rate itself.
From an economics perspective, negative rates make no sense. (Why pay an entity to have use of your funds?)
Section 28.4 are correct when any yield curve is used to define Rk and Fk. (It does not
have to be the risk-free yield curve underlying P10, tk+12.)
Use of DerivaGem
The software DerivaGem accompanying this book can be used to price interest rate caps and floors using Blackās model. In the Cap_and_Swap_Options worksheet select Cap/Floor as the Underlying Type and Black-European as the Pricing Model. Forward
rates for the underlying floating reference rate are input with a compounding frequency
corresponding to the tenor. These are used to determine the
Fk. Continuously
compounded OIS rates are input to determine the discount factor P10, tk+12. The inputs
include the start and end date of the period covered by the cap, the flat volatility, and the
cap settlement frequency (i.e., the tenor). The software calculates the payment dates by
working back from the end of period covered by the cap to the beginning. The initial caplet/floorlet is assumed to cover a period of length between 0.5 and 1.5 times a regular
period. Suppose, for example, that the period covered by the cap is 1.22 years to 2.80
years and the settlement frequency is quarterly. There are six caplets covering the periods
2.55 to 2.80 years, 2.30 to 2.55 years, 2.05 to 2.30 years, 1.80 to 2.05 years, 1.55 to
1.80 years, and 1.22 to 1.55 years.
The Impact of Day Count Conventions
The formulas we have presented so far in this section do not reflect day count
conventions (see Section 6.1 for an explanation of day count conventions). Suppose
that the cap rate RK is expressed with an actual >360 day count (as would be normal in
the United States). This means that the time interval dk in the formulas should be
replaced by ak, the accrual fraction for the time period between tk and tk+1. Suppose, for
example, that tk is May 1 and tk+1 is August 1. Under actual >360 there are 92 days
between these payment dates so that ak=92>360=0.2556. The forward rate Fk must
be expressed with an actual >360 day count. This means that we must set it by solving
1+akFk=P10, tk2
P10, tk+12
The impact of all this is much the same as calculating dk on an actual/actual basis
converting RK from actual >360 to actual/actual, and calculating Fk on an actual/actual
basis by solving
1+dkFk=P10, tk2
P10, tk+12
Negative Rates
Negative interest rates became a feature of financial markets in 2014. By the end of the
first half of 2016, interest rates were negative for the Swedish krona, Danish krone, Japanese yen, euro, and Swiss franc. It was then estimated that more than $10 trillion of
government bonds worldwide had negative yields.
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698 CHAPTER 29
From an economics perspective, negative rates make no sense. (Why pay an entity to
have use of your funds?) They also present a challenge to modelers. The standard
market model for valuing caps and floors assumes that the relevant future interest rate
is lognormal so that it cannot become negative. One quick fix is to use what is known as the shifted lognormal model. In this, a future interest rate plus a spread,
a, is assumed to
be lognormal. Caps and floors can then be valued using equations (29.7) and (29.8)
with Fk replaced by Fk+a and RK replaced by RK+a. The shift a, when used with flat
volatilities, sometimes depends on the cap/floor maturity. The SABR model can be adjusted in a similar way to become a shifted SABR model.
An alternative is to use the Bachelier normal model. In a world defined by the
numeraire
P10, tk+12, the process for the forward rate underlying a caplet on the
1tk, tk+12 rate in the standard market model is assumed to be
dFk=skFk dz
where dz is a Wiener process. In the Bachelier normal model, it is
dFk=s*
k dz
Consistent with the equivalent martingale measure results in Chapter 28, both
processes are martingales. The Bachelier model leads to a normal rather than
Modeling Negative Interest Rates
- The shifted lognormal model and the SABR model can be adjusted to accommodate negative interest rates by adding a constant shift to the forward rate.
- The Bachelier normal model provides an alternative approach by assuming a normal distribution for rates, naturally allowing for negative values.
- Volatility parameters differ significantly between models; for instance, a 33% lognormal volatility may correspond to a 1% normal volatility.
- Backward-looking reference rates based on overnight rates require specific timing adjustments to account for the fact that rates are observed throughout the accrual period.
- European swap options, or swaptions, grant the holder the right to enter into a specific interest rate swap at a predetermined future date.
The Bachelier model leads to a normal rather than lognormal distribution for the underlying rate and so allows rates to become negative.
be lognormal. Caps and floors can then be valued using equations (29.7) and (29.8)
with Fk replaced by Fk+a and RK replaced by RK+a. The shift a, when used with flat
volatilities, sometimes depends on the cap/floor maturity. The SABR model can be adjusted in a similar way to become a shifted SABR model.
An alternative is to use the Bachelier normal model. In a world defined by the
numeraire
P10, tk+12, the process for the forward rate underlying a caplet on the
1tk, tk+12 rate in the standard market model is assumed to be
dFk=skFk dz
where dz is a Wiener process. In the Bachelier normal model, it is
dFk=s*
k dz
Consistent with the equivalent martingale measure results in Chapter 28, both
processes are martingales. The Bachelier model leads to a normal rather than
lognormal distribution for the underlying rate and so allows rates to become negative. Equation (29.7) for a caplet becomes
LdkP10, tk+1231Fk-RK2N1d2+s*
k1tk N/uni20321d24
and equation (29.8) for a floorlet becomes
LdkP10, tk+1231RK-Fk2N1-d2+s*
k1tk N/uni20321d24
where
d=Fk-RK
s*
k1tk
and N/uni20321x2 is the normal distributionās density function (see equation (19.2)). Note that
the volatility parameters, sk and s*
k, in the two models are quite different. For
example, when the forward interest rate is 3%, sk might be 33% while s*
k is about 1%.
Both the Bachelier normal and shifted lognormal models are implemented for caps, floors, and swaptions in DerivaGem 4.00.
Backward-Looking Reference Rates
The analysis so far has assumed that the reference rate underlying a cap or floor is observed at the beginning of a period and paid at the end of the period. This is not the case for reference rates based on overnight rates (see Section 4.2). A āquick and dirtyā way of adjusting the models we have presented in (29.7) and (29.8) to value caps and floors for these reference rates is to:
⢠Define
Fk as the forward rate calculated from the OIS zero curve for the period
between tk and tk+1.
⢠Replace tk by 0.51tk+tk+12 in the definitions of d1 and d2.
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 699
This reflects the fact that the underlying one-day rates are, on average, observed halfway
through the accrual period.
When there is less than one accrual period until the reset date, some overnight rates
that will comprise the next settlement rate have already been observed. These should be
reflected in Fk and tk should be replaced by the average of the times until the remaining
one-day rates will be observed.
29.3 EUROPEAN SWAP OPTIONS
Swap options, or swaptions, are options on interest rate swaps and are another popular
type of interest rate option. They give the holder the right to enter into a certain interest
rate swap at a certain time in the future. (The holder does not, of course, have to
exercise this right.) Many large financial institutions that offer interest rate swap
European Swaptions and Valuation
- Swaptions grant the holder the right, but not the obligation, to enter into an interest rate swap at a specific future date.
- Companies use swaptions to hedge against rising interest rates while maintaining the flexibility to benefit from favorable market movements.
- Unlike forward swaps, which mandate participation, swaptions act as a form of insurance with an upfront cost.
- The standard valuation model for European swaptions assumes that the underlying swap rate follows a lognormal distribution at maturity.
- Swaptions can be effectively viewed as a specialized type of bond option offered by large financial institutions.
With a swaption, the company is able to benefit from favorable interest rate movements while acquiring protection from unfavorable interest rate movements.
This reflects the fact that the underlying one-day rates are, on average, observed halfway
through the accrual period.
When there is less than one accrual period until the reset date, some overnight rates
that will comprise the next settlement rate have already been observed. These should be
reflected in Fk and tk should be replaced by the average of the times until the remaining
one-day rates will be observed.
29.3 EUROPEAN SWAP OPTIONS
Swap options, or swaptions, are options on interest rate swaps and are another popular
type of interest rate option. They give the holder the right to enter into a certain interest
rate swap at a certain time in the future. (The holder does not, of course, have to
exercise this right.) Many large financial institutions that offer interest rate swap
contracts to their corporate clients are also prepared to sell them swaptions or buy
swaptions from them. As shown in Business Snapshot 29.2, a swaption can be viewed as
a type of bond option.
To give an example of how a swaption might be used, consider a company that knows
that in 6 months it will enter into a 5-year floating-rate loan agreement and knows that it
will wish to swap the floating interest payments for fixed interest payments to convert the
loan into a fixed-rate loan (see Chapter 7 for a discussion of how swaps can be used in
this way). At a cost, the company could enter into a swaption giving it the right to receive the 6-month floating rate and pay a certain fixed rate of interest, say 3% per annum, for a 5-year period starting in 6 months. If the fixed rate exchanged for floating
on a regular 5-year swap in 6 months turns out to be less than 3% per annum, the
company will choose not to exercise the swaption and will enter into a swap agreement
in the usual way. However, if it turns out to be greater than 3% per annum, the
company will choose to exercise the swaption and will obtain a swap at more favorable terms than those available in the market.
Swaptions, when used in the way just described, provide companies with a guarantee
that the fixed rate of interest they will pay on a loan at some future time will not exceed
some level. They are an alternative to forward swaps (sometimes called deferred swaps).
Forward swaps involve no up-front cost but have the disadvantage of obligating the
company to enter into a swap agreement. With a swaption, the company is able to benefit
from favorable interest rate movements while acquiring protection from unfavorable interest rate movements. The difference between a swaption and a forward swap is analogous to the difference between an option on a foreign currency and a forward contract on the currency.
Valuation of European Swaptions
As explained in Chapter 7, the swap rate for a particular maturity at a particular time is
the (mid-market) fixed rate that would be exchanged for the floating rate in a newly issued swap with that maturity. The model usually used to value a European option on
a swap assumes that the underlying swap rate at the maturity of the option is
lognormal. Consider a swaption where the holder has the right to pay a rate
sK and
receive the floating rate on a swap that will last n years starting in T years. We suppose that there are m payments per year under the swap and that the notional principal is L.
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700 CHAPTER 29
Chapter 7 showed that day count conventions may lead to the fixed payments under a
Valuing Swaptions with Black's Model
- The standard market model for valuing European swaptions assumes that the underlying swap rate at the option's maturity follows a lognormal distribution.
- A swaption's payoff is mathematically treated as a series of cash flows received multiple times per year over the life of the underlying swap.
- The valuation formula is a natural extension of Blackās model, incorporating a discount factor term that represents the value of a contract paying a fixed amount at each swap date.
- Swaptions can be conceptually viewed as bond options, where the right to pay fixed and receive floating acts as a put option on a fixed-rate bond with a strike price equal to the principal.
- The model accounts for forward swap rates and volatility to determine the price of both payer and receiver swaptions.
A swaption can therefore be regarded as an option to exchange a fixed-rate bond for the principal amount of the swapāthat is, a type of bond option.
As explained in Chapter 7, the swap rate for a particular maturity at a particular time is
the (mid-market) fixed rate that would be exchanged for the floating rate in a newly issued swap with that maturity. The model usually used to value a European option on
a swap assumes that the underlying swap rate at the maturity of the option is
lognormal. Consider a swaption where the holder has the right to pay a rate
sK and
receive the floating rate on a swap that will last n years starting in T years. We suppose that there are m payments per year under the swap and that the notional principal is L.
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700 CHAPTER 29
Chapter 7 showed that day count conventions may lead to the fixed payments under a
swap being slightly different on each payment date. For now we will ignore the effect of
day count conventions and assume that each fixed payment on the swap is the fixed rate
times L>m. The impact of day count conventions is considered at the end of this
section.
Suppose that the swap rate for an n-year swap starting at time T proves to be sT. By
comparing the cash flows on a swap where the fixed rate is sT to the cash flows on a swap
where the fixed rate is sK, it can be seen that the payoff from the swaption consists of a
series of cash flows equal to
L
m max1sT-sK, 02
The cash flows are received m times per year for the n years of the life of the swap.
Suppose that the swap payment dates are T1, T2, c, Tmn, measured in years from today.
(It is approximately true that Ti=T+i>m.) Each cash flow is the payoff from a call
option on sT with strike price sK.
Whereas a cap is a portfolio of options on interest rates, a swaption is a single option
on the swap rate with repeated payoffs. The standard market model gives the value of a
swaption where the holder has the right to pay sK as
amn
i=1L
m P10, Ti23sF N1d12-sK N1d224
where
d1=ln1sF>sK2+s2T>2
s2T
d2=ln1sF>sK2-s2T>2
s2T=d1-s2T
sF is the forward swap rate at time zero, and s is the volatility of the forward swap rate (so
that s2T is the standard deviation of ln sT).
This is a natural extension of Blackās model. The volatility s is multiplied by 2T.
The amn
i=1P10, Ti2 term is the discount factor for the mn payoffs. Defining A as the value
of a contract that pays 1>m at times Ti 11ā¦iā¦mn2, the value of the swaption becomes
LA3sF N1d12-sK N1d224 (29.10)Business Snapshot 29.2 Swaptions and Bond Options
As explained in Chapter 7, an interest rate swap can be regarded as an agreement to
exchange a fixed-rate bond for a floating-rate bond. At the start of a swap, the value
of the floating-rate bond always equals the principal amount of the swap. A swaption
can therefore be regarded as an option to exchange a fixed-rate bond for the principal
amount of the swapāthat is, a type of bond option.
If a swaption gives the holder the right to pay fixed and receive floating, it is a put
option on the fixed-rate bond with strike price equal to the principal. If a swaption gives the holder the right to pay floating and receive fixed, it is a call option on the fixed-rate bond with a strike price equal to the principal.
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 701
where
A=1
mamn
i=1P10, Ti2
If the swaption gives the holder the right to receive a fixed rate of sK instead of paying it,
the payoff from the swaption is
L
m max1sK-sT, 02
This is a put option on sT. As before, the payoffs are received at times Ti 11ā¦iā¦mn2.
The standard market model gives the value of the swaption as
LA3sK N1-d22-sF N1-d124 (29.11)
DerivaGem can be used to value swaptions using Blackās model. In the Cap_and_
Swap_Options worksheet, select Swap Options as the Underlying Type and Black-
Standard Market Models for Swaptions
- The standard market model for swaptions utilizes Blackās model to value the right to enter a swap at a predetermined fixed rate.
- A swaption's value is determined by an annuity factor, the forward swap rate, and the volatility of that rate over the option's life.
- Theoretical justification for this model relies on a numeraire equal to the annuity, which allows the expected swap rate to equal the forward swap rate.
- The model can be refined by incorporating specific day count conventions and adjusted to handle negative interest rates using a shifted lognormal approach.
- Practical application is demonstrated through software like DerivaGem, which calculates swaption prices based on zero curves and volatility inputs.
They show that interest rates can be treated as constant for the purposes of discounting provided that the expected swap rate is set equal to the forward swap rate.
Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 701
where
A=1
mamn
i=1P10, Ti2
If the swaption gives the holder the right to receive a fixed rate of sK instead of paying it,
the payoff from the swaption is
L
m max1sK-sT, 02
This is a put option on sT. As before, the payoffs are received at times Ti 11ā¦iā¦mn2.
The standard market model gives the value of the swaption as
LA3sK N1-d22-sF N1-d124 (29.11)
DerivaGem can be used to value swaptions using Blackās model. In the Cap_and_
Swap_Options worksheet, select Swap Options as the Underlying Type and Black-
European as the pricing model. Inputs are similar to those for caps. Forward rates are used to determine the forward swap rate. If this forward swap rate is known, the forward
rates can be input as flat and equal to the known value.
Example 29.4
Suppose that the risk-free zero curve is flat at 6% per annum with continuous
compounding. Consider a swaption that gives the holder the right to pay 6.2% in a 3-year swap starting in 5 years. Payments are made semiannually and the principal
is $100 million. The forward swap rate is 6.1% with continuous compounding, which translates as 6.194% with semiannual compounding. The volatility of the forward swap rate is 20%. In this case,
A=1
21e-0.06*5.5+e-0.06*6+e-0.06*6.5+e-0.06*7+e-0.06*7.5+e-0.06*82=2.0035
Also, sF=0.06194, sK=0.062, T=5, and s=0.2, so that
d1=ln10.06194>0.0622+0.22*5>2
0.225=0.2214
d2=d1-0.225=-0.2258
From equation (29.10), the value of the swaption (in $ millions) is
100*2.0035*30.06194*N10.22142-0.062*N1-0.225824=2.19
(This is in agreement with the price given by DerivaGem.)
Theoretical Justification for the Swaption Model
The extension of Blackās model used for swaptions can be shown to be internally
consistent by considering a world defined by a numeraire equal to the annuity A. The analysis in Section 28.4 shows that:
1. The current value of any security is the current value of the annuity multiplied by the expected value of
Security price at time T
Value of the annuity at time T
in this world (see equation (28.25)).
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702 CHAPTER 29
2. The expected value of the swap rate at time T in this world equals the forward
swap rate (see equation (28.24)).
The first result shows that the value of the swaption is
LAEA3max1sT-sK, 024
From equation (15A.1), this is
LA3EA1sT2N1d12-sK N1d224
where
d1=ln3EA1sT2>sK4+s2T>2
s2T
d2=ln3EA1sT2>sK4-s2T>2
s2T=d1-s2T
The second result shows that EA1sT2 equals sF. The results lead to the swap option pricing
formula in equation (29.10). They show that interest rates can be treated as constant for
the purposes of discounting provided that the expected swap rate is set equal to the
forward swap rate. Note that the results in Section 28.4 show that this theoretical result is
valid when the floating rate in the underlying swap is not the same as the risk-free rate.
The Impact of Day Count Conventions
The above formulas can be made more precise by considering day count conventions. The fixed rate for the swap underlying the swap option is expressed with a day count
convention such as actual
>365 or 30 >360. Suppose that T0=T and that, for the
applicable day count convention, the accrual fraction corresponding to the time period
between Ti-1 and Ti is ai. (For example, if Ti-1 corresponds to March 1 and Ti
corresponds to September 1 and the day count is actual >365, ai=184>365=0.5041.)
The formulas that have been presented are then correct with the annuity factor A being defined as
A=amn
i=1aiP10, Ti2
Negative Rates
The shifted lognormal model can be used to handle the possibility of negative interest rates when swaptions are valued. Equations (29.10) and (29.11) are used with with
sF
Swaption Valuation and Delta Risk
- The text defines the annuity factor for swaptions using applicable day count conventions and accrual fractions between time periods.
- To account for negative interest rates, the shifted lognormal model or the Bachelier normal model can be applied to swaption pricing formulas.
- Delta risk in interest rate derivatives is managed by measuring the impact of zero curve shifts, often through parallel shifts, bucketed changes, or principal components analysis.
- Traders generally prefer calculating deltas based on the specific market instruments used to construct the zero curve rather than theoretical curve shifts.
- Managing gamma risk presents a challenge of 'information overload' due to the high number of second partial derivatives possible when multiple instruments define the curve.
There are 10 choices for xi and 10 choices for xj and a total of 55 different gamma measures. This may be āinformation overloadā.
applicable day count convention, the accrual fraction corresponding to the time period
between Ti-1 and Ti is ai. (For example, if Ti-1 corresponds to March 1 and Ti
corresponds to September 1 and the day count is actual >365, ai=184>365=0.5041.)
The formulas that have been presented are then correct with the annuity factor A being defined as
A=amn
i=1aiP10, Ti2
Negative Rates
The shifted lognormal model can be used to handle the possibility of negative interest rates when swaptions are valued. Equations (29.10) and (29.11) are used with with
sF
replaced by sF+a and sK replaced by sK+a. The shift, a, in practice often depends on
both the life of the option and the life of the underlying swap. The Bachelier normal model can also be used. When the holder has the right to pay
sK, equation (29.10)
becomes
LA31sF-sK2N1d2+s*2TN/uni20321d24
and when the holder has the right to receive sK, equation (29.11) becomes
LA31sK-sF2N1-d2+s*2TN/uni20321d24
where s*2T is the standard deviation of sT and
d=sF-sK
s*2T
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 703
This section discusses how the material on Greek letters in Chapter 19 can be extended
to cover interest rate derivatives.
In the context of interest rate derivatives, delta risk is the risk associated with a shift
in the zero curve. Because there are many ways in which the zero curve can shift, many deltas can be calculated. Some alternatives are:
1. Calculate the impact of a 1-basis-point parallel shift in the zero curve. This is sometimes termed a DV01.
2. Calculate the impact of small changes in the quotes for each of the instruments
used to construct the zero curve.
3. Divide the zero curve (or the forward curve) into a number of sections (or
buckets). Calculate the impact of shifting the rates in one bucket by 1 basis point, keeping the rest of the initial term structure unchanged. (This is described in
Business Snapshot 6.3.)
4. Carry out a principal components analysis as outlined in Section 22.9. Calculate a
delta with respect to the changes in each of the first few factors. The first delta then measures the impact of a small, approximately parallel, shift in the zero curve; the second delta measures the impact of a small twist in the zero curve; and so on.
In practice, traders tend to prefer the second approach. They argue that the only way the zero curve can change is if the quote for one of the instruments used to compute the zero curve changes. They therefore feel that it makes sense to focus on the exposures arising from changes in the prices of these instruments.
When several delta measures are calculated, there are many possible gamma measures.
Suppose that 10 instruments are used to compute the zero curve and that deltas are
calculated by considering the impact of changes in the quotes for each of these. Gamma is a second partial derivative of the form
02Ī >0xi 0xj, where Ī is the portfolio value.
There are 10 choices for xi and 10 choices for xj and a total of 55 different gamma
measures. This may be āinformation overloadā. One approach is ignore cross-gammas and focus on the 10 partial derivatives where
i=j. Another is to calculate a single
Hedging Interest Rate Derivatives
- Traders often prefer calculating deltas based on the specific instruments used to build the zero curve rather than abstract mathematical shifts.
- The complexity of gamma measures can lead to information overload, with ten instruments potentially generating fifty-five different second-order derivatives.
- Principal components analysis is recommended as a sophisticated way to manage vega exposure by identifying the primary factors driving volatility changes.
- Black's model relies on the assumption that underlying variables like bond prices or swap rates are lognormally distributed at maturity.
- A significant limitation of these models is their mutual inconsistency; if one variable is lognormal, the others mathematically cannot be.
The models presented in this chapter are not consistent with each other.
delta with respect to the changes in each of the first few factors. The first delta then measures the impact of a small, approximately parallel, shift in the zero curve; the second delta measures the impact of a small twist in the zero curve; and so on.
In practice, traders tend to prefer the second approach. They argue that the only way the zero curve can change is if the quote for one of the instruments used to compute the zero curve changes. They therefore feel that it makes sense to focus on the exposures arising from changes in the prices of these instruments.
When several delta measures are calculated, there are many possible gamma measures.
Suppose that 10 instruments are used to compute the zero curve and that deltas are
calculated by considering the impact of changes in the quotes for each of these. Gamma is a second partial derivative of the form
02Ī >0xi 0xj, where Ī is the portfolio value.
There are 10 choices for xi and 10 choices for xj and a total of 55 different gamma
measures. This may be āinformation overloadā. One approach is ignore cross-gammas and focus on the 10 partial derivatives where
i=j. Another is to calculate a single
gamma measure as the second partial derivative of the value of the portfolio with respect
to a parallel shift in the zero curve. A further possibility is to calculate gammas with respect to the first two factors in a principal components analysis.
The vega of a portfolio of interest rate derivatives measures its exposure to volatility
changes. One approach is to calculate the impact on the portfolio of making the same small change to the Black volatilities of all caps and European swap options. However, this assumes that one factor drives all volatilities and may be too simplistic. A better idea is to carry out a principal components analysis on the volatilities of caps and swap options and calculate vega measures corresponding to the first two or three factors.
SUMMARY
Blackās model and its extensions provide a popular approach for valuing European- style interest rate options. The essence of Blackās model is that the value of the variable
underlying the option is assumed to be lognormal at the maturity of the option. In the 29.4 HEDGING INTEREST RATE DERIVATIVES
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704 CHAPTER 29
case of a European bond option, Blackās model assumes that the underlying bond price
is lognormal at the optionās maturity. For a cap, the model assumes that the interest rates underlying each of the constituent caplets are lognormally distributed. In the case
of a swap option, the model assumes that the underlying swap rate is lognormally
distributed.
The models presented in this chapter are not consistent with each other. For example,
when future bond prices are lognormal, future interest rates and swap rates are not lognormal; when future interest rates are lognormal, future bond prices and swap rates are not lognormal. The models cannot easily be extended to value instruments such as American swap options. Chapters 32 and 33 present more general interest rate models, which, although more complex, can be used for a much wider range of products.
Blackās model involves calculating the expected payoff based on the assumption that
the expected value of a variable equals its forward value and then discounting the expected payoff at the zero rate observed in the market today. This is the correct
procedure for the āplain vanillaā instruments we have considered in this chapter.
However, as we shall see in the next chapter, it is not correct in all situations.
FURTHER READING
Black, F. āThe Pricing of Commodity Contracts,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (March
1976): 167ā79.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āOIS Discounting, Interest Rate Derivatives, and the Modeling of
Stochastic Interest Rate Spreads,ā Journal of Investment Management, 13, 1 (2015): 64ā83.
Practice Questions
Interest Rate Derivative Valuation
- The standard procedure for valuing plain vanilla instruments involves setting the expected value of a variable to its forward value and discounting at the current zero rate.
- Black's model serves as a foundational framework for pricing commodity contracts, bond options, and interest rate caps.
- Practical applications of these models require distinguishing between spot volatilities and flat volatilities when valuing multi-period instruments like a five-year cap.
- The text highlights that while forward-value discounting works for simple instruments, it is not universally applicable to all financial situations.
- Quantitative exercises demonstrate how to calculate payments for interest rate caps and the pricing of European put options on long-term bonds.
This is the correct procedure for the āplain vanillaā instruments we have considered in this chapter. However, as we shall see in the next chapter, it is not correct in all situations.
the expected value of a variable equals its forward value and then discounting the expected payoff at the zero rate observed in the market today. This is the correct
procedure for the āplain vanillaā instruments we have considered in this chapter.
However, as we shall see in the next chapter, it is not correct in all situations.
FURTHER READING
Black, F. āThe Pricing of Commodity Contracts,ā Journal of Financial Economics, 3 (March
1976): 167ā79.
Hull, J. C., and A. White. āOIS Discounting, Interest Rate Derivatives, and the Modeling of
Stochastic Interest Rate Spreads,ā Journal of Investment Management, 13, 1 (2015): 64ā83.
Practice Questions
29.1. A company caps a 3-month floating rate at 2% per annum. The principal amount is $20 million. On a reset date, the floating rate is 4% per annum. What payment would this lead to under the cap? When would the payment be made?
29.2. Explain why a swap option can be regarded as a type of bond option.
29.3. Use the Blackās model to value a 1-year European put option on a 10-year bond. Assume that the current cash price of the bond is $125, the strike price is $110, the 1-year risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, the bondās forward price volatility is 8% per annum, and the present value of the coupons to be paid during the life of the option is $10.
29.4. Explain carefully how you would use (a) spot volatilities and (b) flat volatilities to value a
5-year cap.
29.5. Calculate the price of an option that caps the 3-month rate, observed in 15 months for the 15ā18 month period, at 13% (quoted with quarterly compounding) on a principal amount
of $1,000. The forward interest rate for the period in question is 12% per annum (quoted with quarterly compounding), the 18-month risk-free interest rate (continuously com-pounded) is 11.5% per annum, and the volatility of the forward rate is 12% per annum.
29.6. A bank uses Blackās model to price European bond options. Suppose that an implied price volatility for a 5-year option on a bond maturing in 10 years is used to price a 9-year option
on the bond. Would you expect the resultant price to be too high or too low? Explain your
answer.
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 705
Interest Rate Derivative Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on valuing interest rate caps, floors, and bond options using Black's model.
- It explores the theoretical relationships between different financial instruments, such as how a swap option can be viewed as a type of bond option.
- Several exercises require the derivation of put-call parity relationships specifically for European bond and swap options.
- The problems address the practical application of volatility, distinguishing between spot and flat volatilities and their impact on cap valuation.
- Mathematical proofs using ItĆ“ās lemma are introduced to demonstrate how bond price volatility behaves as the instrument approaches maturity.
Explain why there is an arbitrage opportunity if the implied Black (flat) volatility of a cap is different from that of a floor.
29.1. A company caps a 3-month floating rate at 2% per annum. The principal amount is $20 million. On a reset date, the floating rate is 4% per annum. What payment would this lead to under the cap? When would the payment be made?
29.2. Explain why a swap option can be regarded as a type of bond option.
29.3. Use the Blackās model to value a 1-year European put option on a 10-year bond. Assume that the current cash price of the bond is $125, the strike price is $110, the 1-year risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum, the bondās forward price volatility is 8% per annum, and the present value of the coupons to be paid during the life of the option is $10.
29.4. Explain carefully how you would use (a) spot volatilities and (b) flat volatilities to value a
5-year cap.
29.5. Calculate the price of an option that caps the 3-month rate, observed in 15 months for the 15ā18 month period, at 13% (quoted with quarterly compounding) on a principal amount
of $1,000. The forward interest rate for the period in question is 12% per annum (quoted with quarterly compounding), the 18-month risk-free interest rate (continuously com-pounded) is 11.5% per annum, and the volatility of the forward rate is 12% per annum.
29.6. A bank uses Blackās model to price European bond options. Suppose that an implied price volatility for a 5-year option on a bond maturing in 10 years is used to price a 9-year option
on the bond. Would you expect the resultant price to be too high or too low? Explain your
answer.
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Interest Rate Derivatives: The Standard Market Models 705
29.7. Calculate the value of a 4-year European call option on bond that will mature 5 years
from today using Blackās model. The 5-year cash bond price is $105, the cash price of a 4-year bond with the same coupon is $102 and both bonds have a principal of $100. The strike price of the option is $100, the 4-year risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum with continuous compounding, and the forward bond price volatility for the bond underlying the option is 2% per annum.
29.8. If the yield volatility for a 5-year put option on a bond maturing in 10 years time is
specified as 22%, how should the option be valued? Assume that, based on todayās
interest rates the modified duration of the bond at the maturity of the option will be
4.2 years and the forward yield on the bond is 7%.
29.9. What other instrument is the same as a 5-year zero-cost collar where the strike price of the cap equals the strike price of the floor? What does the common strike price equal?
29.10. Derive a putācall parity relationship for European bond options.
29.11. Derive a putācall parity relationship for European swap options.
29.12. Explain why there is an arbitrage opportunity if the implied Black (flat) volatility of a
cap is different from that of a floor.
29.13. When a bondās price is lognormal can the bondās yield be negative? Explain your answer.
29.14. What is the value of a European swap option that gives the holder the right to enter into
a 3-year annual-pay swap in 4 years where a fixed rate of 5% is paid and floating is
received? The swap principal is $10 million. Assume that the volatility of the swap rate is
20%, all swap rates are are 5%, and all OIS rates are 4.7%. Compare your answer with that given by DerivaGem.
29.15. Suppose that the yield R on a zero-coupon bond follows the process
dR=mdt+sdz
where m and s are functions of R and t, and dz is a Wiener process. Use ItĆ“ās lemma to
show that the volatility of the zero-coupon bond price declines to zero as it approaches
maturity.
29.16. Carry out a manual calculation to verify the option prices in Example 29.2.
29.17. Suppose that all risk-free (OIS) zero rates are 6.5% (continuously compounded). The
price of a 5-year semiannual cap on LIBOR with a principal of $100 and a cap rate of 8% (semiannually compounded) is $3. Use DerivaGem to determine:
(a) The implied 5-year flat volatility for caps and floors
Interest Rate Derivative Problems
- The text presents a series of quantitative problems focused on the valuation of interest rate derivatives such as caps, floors, and swaptions.
- Mathematical proofs are required to demonstrate that bond price volatility must decline to zero as the instrument approaches its maturity date.
- Practical exercises involve using Black's model and DerivaGem software to price European options on Treasury bonds and interest rate collars.
- The material explores the relationship between swaptions and forward swaps, specifically how different fixed-rate positions interact to determine value.
- A transition occurs at the end of the section toward Chapter 30, introducing the two-step procedure for convexity and timing adjustments.
Use ItĆ“ās lemma to show that the volatility of the zero-coupon bond price declines to zero as it approaches maturity.
where m and s are functions of R and t, and dz is a Wiener process. Use ItĆ“ās lemma to
show that the volatility of the zero-coupon bond price declines to zero as it approaches
maturity.
29.16. Carry out a manual calculation to verify the option prices in Example 29.2.
29.17. Suppose that all risk-free (OIS) zero rates are 6.5% (continuously compounded). The
price of a 5-year semiannual cap on LIBOR with a principal of $100 and a cap rate of 8% (semiannually compounded) is $3. Use DerivaGem to determine:
(a) The implied 5-year flat volatility for caps and floors
(b) The floor rate in a zero-cost 5-year collar when the cap rate is 8%.
Assume that all 6-month LIBOR forward rates are 6.7% with semiannual compounding.
29.18. Show that
V1+f=V2, where V1 is the value of a swaption to pay a fixed rate of sK and
receive floating between times T1 and T2, f is the value of a forward swap to receive a
fixed rate of sK and pay floating between times T1 and T2, and V2 is the value of a
swaption to receive a fixed rate of sK between times T1 and T2. Deduce that V1=V2 when
sK equals the current forward swap rate.
29.19. Suppose that risk-free zero rates and LIBOR forward rates are as in Problem 29.17. Use
DerivaGem to determine the value of an option to pay a fixed rate of 6% and receive LIBOR on a 5-year swap starting in 1 year. Assume that the principal is $100 million, payments are exchanged semiannually, and the swap rate volatility is 21%.
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706 CHAPTER 29
29.20. Describe how you would (a) calculate cap flat volatilities from cap spot volatilities and
(b) calculate cap spot volatilities from cap flat volatilities.
29.21. Consider an 8-month European put option on a Treasury bond that currently has 14.25
years to maturity. The current cash bond price is $910, the exercise price is $900, and the
volatility for the bond price is 10% per annum. A coupon of $35 will be paid by the bond in 3 months. The risk-free interest rate is 8% for all maturities up to 1 year. Use Blackās model to determine the price of the option. Consider both the case where the strike price corresponds to the cash price of the bond and the case where it corresponds to the quoted price.
29.22. A swaption gives the holder the right to receive 7.6% in a 5-year swap starting in 4 years.
Payments are made annually. The forward swap rate is 8% with annual compounding and its volatility is 25% per annum. The principal is $1 million and risk-free (OIS) rates for all maturities are 7.8% (with continuous compounding). Use Blackās model to price the swaption. Compare your answer to that given by DerivaGem.
29.23. Use the DerivaGem software to value a 5-year collar that guarantees that the maximum
and minimum interest rates on a LIBOR-based loan (with quarterly resets) are 7%
and 5%, respectively. All 3-month LIBOR forward rates are 6% per annum (with
quarterly compounding). The flat volatility is 20%. Assume that the principal is $100
and the risk-free (OIS) term structure is flat at 5.8%.
29.24. Use the DerivaGem software to value a European swaption that gives you the right in
2 years to enter into a 5-year swap in which you pay a fixed rate of 6% and receive
floating. Cash flows are exchanged semiannually on the swap. The continuously
compounded 1-year, 2-year, 5-year, and 10-year risk-free (OIS) zero rates are 5%,
6%, 6.5%, and 7%, respectively. Assume a principal of $100. The forward swap rate
is 7% (compounded semiannually) and its volatility is 15% per annum. Give an example
of how the swaption might be used by a corporation. What bond option is equivalent to the swaption?
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707
Convexity,
Timing, and
Quanto
Adjustments30 CHAPTER
A popular two-step procedure for valuing a European-style derivative is:
1. Calculate the expected payoff by assuming that the expected value of each
underlying variable equals its forward value
Convexity and Derivative Adjustments
- The standard two-step procedure for valuing European-style derivatives involves calculating expected payoffs using forward values and discounting them at the risk-free rate.
- While this procedure works for standard instruments like FRAs and swaps, it is not universally applicable to all interest rate derivatives.
- Nonstandard derivatives often require specific adjustments to the forward value of the underlying variable, including convexity, timing, and quanto adjustments.
- Convexity adjustments arise because the relationship between bond prices and yields is nonlinear, meaning the expected future yield does not equal the forward bond yield.
The function G is nonlinear. This means that, when the expected future bond price equals the forward bond price, the expected future bond yield does not equal the forward bond yield.
6%, 6.5%, and 7%, respectively. Assume a principal of $100. The forward swap rate
is 7% (compounded semiannually) and its volatility is 15% per annum. Give an example
of how the swaption might be used by a corporation. What bond option is equivalent to the swaption?
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707
Convexity,
Timing, and
Quanto
Adjustments30 CHAPTER
A popular two-step procedure for valuing a European-style derivative is:
1. Calculate the expected payoff by assuming that the expected value of each
underlying variable equals its forward value
2. Discount the expected payoff at the risk-free rate applicable for the time period
between the valuation date and the payoff date.
We first used this procedure when valuing FRAs and swaps. Chapter 4 shows that an
FRA can be valued by calculating the payoff on the assumption that the forward interest rate will be realized and then discounting the payoff at the risk-free rate.
Similarly, Chapter 7 extends this, showing that swaps can be valued by calculating
cash flows on the assumption that forward rates will be realized and discounting the cash flows at risk-free rates. Chapters 18 and 28 show that Blackās model provides a general approach to valuing a wide range of European optionsāand Blackās model is an application of the two-step procedure. The models presented in Chapter 29 for bond options, caps/floors, and swap options are all examples of the two-step procedure.
This raises the issue of whether it is always correct to value European-style interest
rate derivatives by using the two-step procedure. The answer is no! For nonstandard interest rate derivatives, it is sometimes necessary to modify the two-step procedure so that an adjustment is made to the forward value of the variable in the first step. This chapter considers three types of adjustments: convexity adjustments, timing adjust-ments, and quanto adjustments.
30.1 CONVEXITY ADJUSTMENTS
Consider first an instrument that provides a payoff dependent on a bond yield observed at the time of the payoff.
Usually the forward value of a variable S is calculated with reference to a forward
contract that pays off
ST-K at time T. It is the value of K that causes the contract to
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708 CHAPTER 30
have zero value. Forward yields are defined differently. A forward bond yield is the yield
implied by the forward bond price.
Suppose that BT is the price of a bond at time T, yT is its yield, and the (bond pricing)
relationship between BT and yT is
BT=G1yT2
Define BF as the forward bond price at time zero for a transaction maturing at time T
and yF as the forward bond yield at time zero. The definition of a forward bond yield
means that
BF=G1yF2
The function G is nonlinear. This means that, when the expected future bond price equals the forward bond price (so that we are in a world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T), the expected future bond yield does not equal the forward bond yield.
This is illustrated in Figure 30.1, which shows the relationship between bond prices
and bond yields at time T. For simplicity, suppose that there are only three possible
bond prices,
Bond Yield Convexity Adjustments
- The relationship between bond prices and bond yields is nonlinear, meaning the expected future bond yield does not equal the forward bond yield.
- In a world defined by a zero-coupon bond numeraire, the expected bond price equals the forward price, but the expected yield is typically higher than the forward yield.
- A convexity adjustment is required to account for this discrepancy when valuing derivatives that depend on future bond yields or swap rates.
- The adjustment is calculated using the first and second partial derivatives of the bond price function and the forward yield volatility.
- This methodology can be extended to value swap rate derivatives by approximating the swap rate as a bond yield with a coupon equal to the forward swap rate.
The function G is nonlinear. This means that, when the expected future bond price equals the forward bond price, the expected future bond yield does not equal the forward bond yield.
Define BF as the forward bond price at time zero for a transaction maturing at time T
and yF as the forward bond yield at time zero. The definition of a forward bond yield
means that
BF=G1yF2
The function G is nonlinear. This means that, when the expected future bond price equals the forward bond price (so that we are in a world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T), the expected future bond yield does not equal the forward bond yield.
This is illustrated in Figure 30.1, which shows the relationship between bond prices
and bond yields at time T. For simplicity, suppose that there are only three possible
bond prices,
B1, B2, and B3 and that they are equally likely in a world defined by
numeraire P1t, T2. Assume that the bond prices are equally spaced, so that B 2 - B1 =
B3 - B2. The forward bond price is the expected bond price B2. The bond prices
translate into three equally likely bond yields: y1, y2, and y3. These are not equally
spaced. The variable y2 is the forward bond yield because it is the yield corresponding
to the forward bond price. The expected bond yield is the average of y1, y2, and y3 and
is clearly greater than y2.
Consider a derivative that provides a payoff dependent on the bond yield at time T.
From equation (28.20), it can be valued by (a) calculating the expected payoff in a
world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T and
(b) discounting at the current risk-free rate for maturity T. We know that the expected bond price equals the forward price in the world being considered. We therefore need to know the value of the expected bond yield when the expected bond price equals the
Figure 30.1 Relationship between bond prices and bond yields at time T.
Bond
price
YieldB
B
B
yy y3 213
2
1
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Convexity, Timing, and Quanto Adjustments 709
forward bond price. The analysis in the appendix at the end of this chapter shows that
an approximate expression for the required expected bond yield is
ET1yT2=yF-1
2y2
F s2yTG/uni20331yF2
G/uni20321yF2 (30.1)
where G/uni2032 and G/uni2033 denote the first and second partial derivatives of G, ET denotes
expectations in a world that is defined by numeraire P1t, T2, and sy is the forward yield
volatility. It follows that the expected payoff can be discounted at the current risk-free
rate for maturity T provided the expected bond yield is assumed to be
yF-1
2y2
F s2yTG/uni20331yF2
G/uni20321yF2
rather than yF. The difference between the expected bond yield and the forward bond
yield
-1
2y2F s2yTG/uni20331yF2
G/uni20321yF2
is known as a convexity adjustment. It corresponds to the difference between y2 and the
expected yield in Figure 30.1. (The convexity adjustment is positive because G/uni20321yF260
and G/uni20331yF270.)
In addition to valuing a derivative dependent on a bond yield, equation (30.1) can be
used to value a derivative dependent on a swap rate. We make the approximation that
the N-year swap rate at time T equals the yield at that time on an N-year bond with a
coupon equal to todayās forward swap rate.
Example 30.1
Consider an instrument that provides a payoff in 3 years equal to the 3-year swap
rate at that time multiplied by $100. Suppose that payments are made annually
on the swap, the swap rate for all maturities is 6% per annum with annual compounding, the volatility for the forward swap rate (implied from swap option
prices) is 22%. The 3-year risk-free zero rate is 5% with annual compounding. When the swap rate is approximated as the yield on a 6% bond, the relevant function G(y) is
G1y2=0.06
1+y+0.06
11+y22+1.06
11+y23
G/uni20321y2=-0.06
11+y22-0.12
11+y23-3.18
11+y24
G/uni20331y2=0.12
11+y23+0.36
11+y24+12.72
11+y25
In this case the forward yield yF is 0.06, so that G/uni20321yF2=-2.6730 and
G/uni20331yF2=9.8910. From equation (30.1),
ET1yT2=0.06+1
2*0.062*0.222*3*9.8910
2.6730=0.06097
Convexity and Timing Adjustments
- The text demonstrates how to apply a convexity adjustment to a forward swap rate when valuing instruments with non-standard payoffs.
- A numerical example shows that accounting for convexity increases a swap-based instrument's value from $5.18 to $5.27.
- Timing adjustments are introduced for scenarios where a market variable is observed at one time but the payoff occurs at a later date.
- The change of numeraire between observation and payment times requires adjusting the expected value based on the correlation between the variable and interest rates.
- Mathematical formulas using ItĆ“ās lemma are provided to calculate the drift adjustment needed to move between different risk-neutral worlds.
A forward swap rate of 6.097% rather than 6% should therefore be assumed when valuing the instrument.
Consider an instrument that provides a payoff in 3 years equal to the 3-year swap
rate at that time multiplied by $100. Suppose that payments are made annually
on the swap, the swap rate for all maturities is 6% per annum with annual compounding, the volatility for the forward swap rate (implied from swap option
prices) is 22%. The 3-year risk-free zero rate is 5% with annual compounding. When the swap rate is approximated as the yield on a 6% bond, the relevant function G(y) is
G1y2=0.06
1+y+0.06
11+y22+1.06
11+y23
G/uni20321y2=-0.06
11+y22-0.12
11+y23-3.18
11+y24
G/uni20331y2=0.12
11+y23+0.36
11+y24+12.72
11+y25
In this case the forward yield yF is 0.06, so that G/uni20321yF2=-2.6730 and
G/uni20331yF2=9.8910. From equation (30.1),
ET1yT2=0.06+1
2*0.062*0.222*3*9.8910
2.6730=0.06097
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710 CHAPTER 30
A forward swap rate of 6.097% rather than 6% should therefore be assumed
when valuing the instrument. The instrument is worth
100*0.06097
1.053=5.27
or $5.27. (This compares with a price of $5.18 obtained without any convexity adjustment.)
30.2 TIMING ADJUSTMENTS
In this section consider the situation where a market variable V is observed at time T and its value is used to calculate a payoff that occurs at a later time
T *. Define:
VT: Value of V at time T
ET1VT2: Expected value of VT in a world defined by numeraire P1t, T2
ET *1VT2: Expected value of VT in a world defined by numeraire P1t, T *2.
The numeraire ratio when we move from the P1t, T2 numeraire to the P1t, T *2 numeraire
(see Section 28.8) is
W=P1t, T *2
P1t, T2
This is the forward price of a zero-coupon bond lasting between times T and T *. Define:
sV: Volatility of V
sW: Volatility of W
rVW: Correlation between V and W.
From equation (28.35), the change of numeraire increases the growth rate of V by aV,
where
aV=rVWsVsW (30.2)
This result can be expressed in terms of the forward interest rate between times T and T *.
Define:
RF: Forward interest rate for period between T and T *, expressed with a compound-
ing frequency of m
sR: Volatility of RF.
The relationship between W and RF is
W=1
11+RF>m2m1T *-T2
The relationship between the volatility of W and the volatility of RF can be calculated
from ItĆ“ās lemma as
sWW=sRRF 0W
0RF=-sRRF1T *-T2
11+RF>m2m1T *-T2+1
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Convexity, Timing, and Quanto Adjustments 711
so that
sW=-sRRF1T *-T2
1+RF>m
Hence equation (30.2) becomes1
aV=-rVRsVsRRF1T *-T2
1+RF>m
where rVR=-rVW is the instantaneous correlation between V and RF. As an approxi-
mation, it can be assumed that RF remains constant at its initial value and that the
volatilities and correlation in this expression are constant to get, at time zero,
ET*1VT2=ET1VT2expc-rVRsVsRRF1T *-T2
1+RF>mTd (30.3)
Example 30.2
Consider a derivative that provides a payoff in 6 years equal to the value of a stock
index observed in 5 years. Suppose that 1,200 is the forward value of the stock index for a contract maturing in 5 years. Suppose that the volatility of the index is 20%, the volatility of the forward risk-free interest rate between years 5 and 6 is
18%, and the correlation between the two is
-0.4. Suppose further that the risk-
free zero curve is flat at 8% with annual compounding. The results just produced can be used with V defined as the value of the index,
T=5, T *=6, m=1,
RF=0.08, rVR=-0.4, sV=0.20, and sR=0.18, so that
ET *1VT2=ET1VT2expc--0.4*0.20*0.18*0.08*1
1+0.08*5d
or ET *1VT2=1.00535ET1VT2. From the arguments in Chapter 28, ET1VT2 is the
forward price of the index, or 1,200. It follows that ET *1VT2=1,200*1.00535 =
1,206.42. Using again the arguments in Chapter 28, it follows from equation (28.20) that the value of the derivative is
1,206.42*P10, 62. In this case, P10, 62 =
Quantos and Cross-Currency Derivatives
- A quanto is a cross-currency derivative where the payoff is determined by a variable in one currency but settled in another currency.
- The valuation of these instruments requires a change of numeraire, which adjusts the expected growth rate of the underlying variable based on its correlation with the exchange rate.
- The adjustment factor for the expected value is derived from the volatilities of the underlying asset and the forward exchange rate, as well as their instantaneous correlation.
- Practical applications of these formulas include valuing diff swaps and CME futures contracts on foreign indices like the Nikkei 225.
- The text demonstrates that the forward price of an index can differ significantly when the payoff currency is changed, as seen in the Nikkei example.
The payoff is defined in terms of a variable that is measured in one of the currencies and the payoff is made in the other currency.
free zero curve is flat at 8% with annual compounding. The results just produced can be used with V defined as the value of the index,
T=5, T *=6, m=1,
RF=0.08, rVR=-0.4, sV=0.20, and sR=0.18, so that
ET *1VT2=ET1VT2expc--0.4*0.20*0.18*0.08*1
1+0.08*5d
or ET *1VT2=1.00535ET1VT2. From the arguments in Chapter 28, ET1VT2 is the
forward price of the index, or 1,200. It follows that ET *1VT2=1,200*1.00535 =
1,206.42. Using again the arguments in Chapter 28, it follows from equation (28.20) that the value of the derivative is
1,206.42*P10, 62. In this case, P10, 62 =
1>1.086=0.6302, so that the value of the derivative is 760.25.
1 Variables RF and W are negatively correlated. We can reflect this by setting sW=-sRRF1T *-T2>11+RF>m2,
which is a negative number, and setting rVW=rVR. Alternatively we can change the sign of sW so that it is
positive and set rVW=-rVR. In either case, we end up with the same formula for aV.30.3 QUANTOS
A quanto or cross-currency derivative is an instrument where two currencies are
involved. The payoff is defined in terms of a variable that is measured in one of the currencies and the payoff is made in the other currency. One example of a quanto is the CME futures contract on the Nikkei discussed in Business Snapshot 5.3. The market variable underlying this contract is the Nikkei 225 index (which is measured in yen), but the contract is settled in U.S. dollars.
Consider a quanto that provides a payoff in currency X at time T. Assume that the
payoff depends on the value V of a variable that is observed in currency Y at time T.
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712 CHAPTER 30
Define:
PX1t, T2: Value at time t in currency X of a zero-coupon bond paying off 1 unit of
currency X at time T
PY1t, T2: Value at time t in currency Y of a zero-coupon bond paying off 1 unit of
currency Y at time T
VT: Value of V at time T
EX1VT2: Expected value of VT in a world defined by numeraire PX1t, T2
EY1VT2: Expected value of VT in a world defined by numeraire PY1t, T2.
The numeraire ratio when we move from the PY1t, T2 numeraire to the PX1t, T2
numeraire is
W1t2=PX1t, T2
PY1t, T2S1t2
where S1t2 is the spot exchange rate (units of Y per unit of X) at time t. It follows from
this that the numeraire ratio W1t2 is the forward exchange rate (units of Y per unit of X )
for a contract maturing at time T. Define:
sW: Volatility of W
sV: Volatility of V
rVW: Instantaneous correlation between V and W.
From equation (28.35), the change of numeraire increases the growth rate of V by aV,
where
aV=rVWsVsW (30.4)
If it is assumed that the volatilities and correlation are constant, this means that
EX1VT2=EY1VT2erVWsVsWT (30.5)
or as an approximation
EX1VT2=EY1VT211+rVWsVsWT2 (30.6)
These equations can be used to value diff swaps where interest in one currency is
applied to a principal in another currency.
Example 30.3
Suppose that the current value of the Nikkei stock index is 15,000 yen, the 1-year
dollar risk-free rate is 5%, the 1-year yen risk-free rate is 2%, and the Nikkei dividend yield is 1%. The forward price of the Nikkei for a 1-year contract
denominated in yen can be calculated in the usual way from equation (5.8) as
15,000e10.02-0.012*1=15,150.75
Suppose that the volatility of the index is 20%, the volatility of the 1-year forward
yen per dollar exchange rate is 12%, and the correlation between the two is 0.3. In
this case EY1VT2=15,150.75, sV=0.20, sW=0.12 and r=0.3. From equa-
tion ( 30.5), the expected value of the Nikkei in a world defined by a numeraire
equal to a dollar bond maturing in 1 year is
15,150.75e0.3*0.2*0.12*1=15,260.23
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Convexity, Timing, and Quanto Adjustments 713
This is the forward price of the Nikkei for a contract that provides a payoff in
dollars rather than yen. (As an approximation, it is also the futures price of such a contract.)
Quanto Adjustments and Risk-Neutral Measures
- The text explains how to calculate the expected value of an index, like the Nikkei, when the payoff is settled in a foreign currency rather than its local currency.
- A change of numeraire from one currency's money market account to another requires an adjustment to the expected growth rate of the underlying asset.
- The specific adjustment to the growth rate is determined by the product of the correlation between the asset and the exchange rate and their respective volatilities.
- This methodology allows for the valuation of complex derivatives, such as American options on foreign indices, by adjusting the dividend yield used in binomial trees.
- The application of these numeraire-based measures provides a mathematical framework for resolving financial anomalies like Siegelās paradox.
The change of numeraire therefore involves increasing the expected growth rate of V by rsVsS.
Suppose that the volatility of the index is 20%, the volatility of the 1-year forward
yen per dollar exchange rate is 12%, and the correlation between the two is 0.3. In
this case EY1VT2=15,150.75, sV=0.20, sW=0.12 and r=0.3. From equa-
tion ( 30.5), the expected value of the Nikkei in a world defined by a numeraire
equal to a dollar bond maturing in 1 year is
15,150.75e0.3*0.2*0.12*1=15,260.23
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Convexity, Timing, and Quanto Adjustments 713
This is the forward price of the Nikkei for a contract that provides a payoff in
dollars rather than yen. (As an approximation, it is also the futures price of such a contract.)
Using Traditional Risk-Neutral Measures
The numeraire-based measures we have been using work well when payoffs occur at only
one time. In other situations, it is often more appropriate to use the traditional risk-
neutral measure. Suppose the process followed by a variable V in the traditional
currency-Y risk-neutral world is known and we wish to estimate its process in the
traditional currency-X risk-neutral world. Define:
S : Spot exchange rate (units of Y per unit of X)
sS : Volatility of S
sV : Volatility of V
r : Instantaneous correlation between S and V.
In this case, the change of numeraire is from the money market account in currency Y to the money market account in currency X (with both money market accounts being denominated in currency X). Define
gX as the value of the money market account in
currency X and gY as the value of the money market account in currency Y. The
numeraire ratio is
gXS>gY
The variables gX1t2 and gY1t2 have a stochastic drift but zero volatility as explained in
Section 28.4. From ItĆ“ās lemma it follows that the volatility of the numeraire ratio is sS.
The change of numeraire therefore involves increasing the expected growth rate of V by
rsVsS (30.7)
The market price of risk changes from zero to rsS. This result enables what is known as
Siegelās paradox to be understood (see Business Snapshot 30.1).
Example 30.4
A 2-year American option provides a payoff of S-K pounds sterling where S is
the level of the S&P 500 at the time of exercise and K is the strike price. The
current level of the S&P 500 is 1,200. The risk-free interest rates in sterling and dollars are both constant at 5% and 3%, respectively, the correlation between the
dollar/sterling exchange rate and the S&P 500 is 0.2, the volatility of the S&P 500 is 25%, and the volatility of the exchange rate is 12%. The dividend yield on the S&P 500 is 1.5%.
This option can be valued by constructing a binomial tree for the S&P 500
using as the numeraire the money market account in the U.K. (i.e., using the traditional risk-neutral world as seen from the perspective of a U.K. investor).
From equation (30.7), the change in numeraire from the U.S. to U.K. money market account leads to an increase in the expected growth rate in the S&P 500 of
0.2*0.25*0.12=0.006
or 0.6%. The growth rate of the S&P 500 using a U.S. dollar numeraire is
3%-1.5%=1.5%. The growth rate using the sterling numeraire is therefore
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714 CHAPTER 30
2.1%. The risk-free interest rate in sterling is 5%. The S&P 500 therefore behaves
like an asset providing a dividend yield of 5%-2.1%=2.9% under the sterling
numeraire. Using the parameter values of S=1,200, K=1,200, r=0.05,
q=0.029, s=0.25, and T=2 with 100 time steps, DerivaGem estimates the
value of the option as £179.83.
SUMMARY
Convexity and Siegel's Paradox
- The text explains that valuing derivatives by simply using forward values and discounting is not always correct, particularly when payoffs depend on bond yields or swap rates.
- Siegel's Paradox arises when comparing two currencies, where the expected growth rate of an exchange rate and its inverse appear asymmetrical in a risk-neutral world.
- The paradox is resolved by recognizing that the growth rate of a variable changes when the numeraire is switched from one currency's money market account to another.
- Adjustments are necessary when a variable is observed at one time but paid at another, or when a variable is observed in one currency but paid in a different one.
- Mathematical adjustments for convexity, timing, and quanto effects ensure that the processes for exchange rates remain symmetrical across different economic perspectives.
This leads to what is known as Siegelās paradox. Since the expected growth rate of S is rY-rX in a risk-neutral world, symmetry suggests that the expected growth rate of 1>S should be rX-rY.
or 0.6%. The growth rate of the S&P 500 using a U.S. dollar numeraire is
3%-1.5%=1.5%. The growth rate using the sterling numeraire is therefore
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714 CHAPTER 30
2.1%. The risk-free interest rate in sterling is 5%. The S&P 500 therefore behaves
like an asset providing a dividend yield of 5%-2.1%=2.9% under the sterling
numeraire. Using the parameter values of S=1,200, K=1,200, r=0.05,
q=0.029, s=0.25, and T=2 with 100 time steps, DerivaGem estimates the
value of the option as £179.83.
SUMMARY
When valuing a derivative providing a payoff at a particular future time it is natural to
assume that the variables underlying the derivative equal their forward values and discount at the rate of interest applicable from the valuation date to the payoff date.
This chapter has shown that this is not always the correct procedure.
When a payoff depends on a bond yield y observed at time T the expected yield
should be assumed to be higher than the forward yield as indicated by equation (30.1). This result can be adapted for situations where a payoff depends on a swap rate. When Business Snapshot 30.1 Siegelās Paradox
Consider two currencies, X and Y . Suppose that the interest rates in the two currencies,
rX and rY, are constant. Define S as the number of units of currency Y per unit of
currency X. As explained in Chapter 5, a currency is an asset that provides a yield at the
foreign risk-free rate. The traditional risk-neutral process for S is therefore
dS=1rY-rX2S dt+sSS dz
From ItĆ“ās lemma, this implies that the process for 1>S is
d11>S2=1rX-rY+s2
S211>S2 dt-sS11>S2 dz
This leads to what is known as Siegelās paradox. Since the expected growth rate of S is
rY-rX in a risk-neutral world, symmetry suggests that the expected growth rate
of 1>S should be rX-rY rather than rX-rY+s2
S.
To understand Siegelās paradox it is necessary to appreciate that the process we
have given for S is the risk-neutral process for S in a world where the numeraire is the
money market account in currency Y . The process for 1>S, because it is deduced from
the process for S , therefore also assumes that this is the numeraire. Because 1>S is the
number of units of X per unit of Y, to be symmetrical we should measure the process for
1>S in a world where the numeraire is the money market account in currency X.
Equation (30.7) shows that when we change the numeraire, from the money market account in currency Y to the money market account in currency X, the growth rate of a variable V increases by
rsVsS, where r is the correlation between S and V. In this
case, V=1>S, so that r=-1 and sV=sS. It follows that the change of numeraire
causes the growth rate of 1>S to increase by -s2
S. This neutralizes the +s2
S in the
process given above for 1>S. The process for 1>S in a world where the numeraire is
the money market account in currency X is therefore
d11>S2=1rX-rY211>S2 dt-sS11>S2 dz
This is symmetrical with the process we started with for S. The paradox is resolved!
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Convexity, Timing, and Quanto Adjustments 715
a variable is observed at time T but the payoff occurs at a later time T * the forward
value of the variable should be adjusted as indicated by equation (30.3). When a
variable is observed in one currency but leads to a payoff in another currency the
forward value of the variable should also be adjusted. In this case the adjustment is
shown in equation (30.5).
These results can be used when nonstandard swaps are valued.
FURTHER READING
Brotherton-Ratcliffe, R., and B. Iben, āYield Curve Applications of Swap Products,ā in
Adjustments in Nonstandard Swap Valuation
- Forward values of variables must be adjusted when there is a time delay between observation and the actual payoff.
- Currency-based adjustments are required when a variable is observed in one currency but the payoff is settled in another.
- The valuation of nonstandard swaps relies on these specific timing and convexity adjustments to ensure accuracy.
- Mathematical models like ItĆ“ās lemma and geometric Brownian motion are used to calculate the processes for forward bond yields and prices.
- The relationship between asset prices and interest rate correlations significantly impacts the value of delayed forward contracts.
When a variable is observed in one currency but leads to a payoff in another currency the forward value of the variable should also be adjusted.
a variable is observed at time T but the payoff occurs at a later time T * the forward
value of the variable should be adjusted as indicated by equation (30.3). When a
variable is observed in one currency but leads to a payoff in another currency the
forward value of the variable should also be adjusted. In this case the adjustment is
shown in equation (30.5).
These results can be used when nonstandard swaps are valued.
FURTHER READING
Brotherton-Ratcliffe, R., and B. Iben, āYield Curve Applications of Swap Products,ā in
Advanced Strategies in Financial Risk Management (R. Schwartz and C. Smith, eds.). New
York Institute of Finance, 1993.
Jamshidian, F., āCorralling Quantos,ā Risk, March (1994): 71ā75.
Reiner, E., āQuanto Mechanics,ā Risk, March (1992), 59ā63.
Siegel, J. J., āRisk, interest rates and the forward exchange,ā Quarterly Journal of Economics, 86
(1972): 303ā309.
Practice Questions
30.1. The payoff from a forward contract is delayed by two years. Explain how the impact of
the delay on value is affected by the correlation between the price of the underlying asset and interest rates.
30.2. Explain whether any convexity or timing adjustments are necessary when:
(a) We wish to value a spread option that pays off every quarter the excess (if any) of the
5-year swap rate over the 3-month compounded SOFR applied to a principal of $100. The payoff occurs 90 days after the rates are observed.
(b) We wish to value a derivative that pays off every quarter the 3-month compounded SOFR minus the 3-month Treasury bill rate. The payoff occurs 90 days after the rates
are observed.
30.3. Suppose that in Example 29.3 of Section 29.2 the payoff occurs after 1 year (i.e., when the interest rate is observed) rather than in 15 months. What difference does this make to the inputs to Blackās model?
30.4. The OIS zero curve is flat at 10% per annum with annual compounding. Calculate the value of an instrument where, in 5 yearsā time, the 2-year OIS swap rate (with annual payments and compounding) is received and a fixed rate of 10% is paid. Both are
applied to a notional principal of $100. Assume that the volatility of the forward swap rate is 20%. Explain why the value of the instrument is different from zero.
30.5. What difference does it make in Problem 30.4 if the swap rate is observed in 5 years but the
exchange of payments takes place in (a) 6 years, and (b) 7 years? Assume that the volatilities of all forward rates are 20% and also that the forward swap rate for the period
between years 5 and 7 has a correlation of 0.8 with the forward interest rate between years
5 and 6 and a correlation of 0.95 with the forward interest rate between years 5 and 7.
30.6. The price of a bond at time T, measured in terms of its yield, is
G1yT2. Assume geometric
Brownian motion for the forward bond yield y in a world that is defined by a numeraire equal to a bond maturing at time T. Suppose that the growth rate of the forward bond
yield is
a and its volatility is sy :
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716 CHAPTER 30
(a) Use ItĆ“ās lemma to calculate the process for the forward bond price in terms of a,
sy, y, and G (y).
(b) The forward bond price should follow a martingale in the world considered. Use
this fact to calculate an expression for a.
(c) Show that the expression for a is, to a first approximation, consistent with
equation (30.1).
30.7. The variable S is an investment asset providing income at rate q measured in currency A.
It follows the process
dS=mSS dt+sSS dz
in the real world. Defining new variables as necessary, give the process followed by S ,
and the corresponding market price of risk, in:
(a) A world that is the traditional risk-neutral world for currency A
(b) A world that is the traditional risk-neutral world for currency B
(c) A world that is defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon currency A bond
maturing at time T
Quantitative Finance Problem Sets
- The text presents complex mathematical exercises focused on ItĆ“ās lemma and the application of martingales to forward bond pricing.
- It explores the behavior of investment assets across different risk-neutral worlds and various numeraire choices, including foreign currency bonds.
- Specific scenarios involve calculating the value of cross-currency derivatives, such as gold call options and equity indices denominated in different currencies.
- Practical hedging strategies are examined, including how a U.S. investor can create a portfolio to offset fluctuations in the Nikkei index and yen/dollar exchange rates.
Show that a U.S. investor can create a portfolio that changes in value by approximately āS dollar when the index changes in value by āS yen by investing S dollars in the Nikkei and shorting SQ yen.
(a) Use ItĆ“ās lemma to calculate the process for the forward bond price in terms of a,
sy, y, and G (y).
(b) The forward bond price should follow a martingale in the world considered. Use
this fact to calculate an expression for a.
(c) Show that the expression for a is, to a first approximation, consistent with
equation (30.1).
30.7. The variable S is an investment asset providing income at rate q measured in currency A.
It follows the process
dS=mSS dt+sSS dz
in the real world. Defining new variables as necessary, give the process followed by S ,
and the corresponding market price of risk, in:
(a) A world that is the traditional risk-neutral world for currency A
(b) A world that is the traditional risk-neutral world for currency B
(c) A world that is defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon currency A bond
maturing at time T
(d) A world that is defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon currency B bond maturing at time T.
30.8. A call option provides a payoff at time T of
max1ST-K, 02 yen, where ST is the dollar
price of gold at time T and K is the strike price. Assuming that the storage costs of gold are zero and defining other variables as necessary, calculate the value of the contract.
30.9. A Canadian equity index is 400. The Canadian dollar is currently worth 0.70 U.S. dollars. The risk-free interest rates in Canada and the U.S. are constant at 6% and 4%,
respectively. The dividend yield on the index is 3%. Define Q as the number of Canadian
dollars per U.S. dollar and S as the value of the index. The volatility of S is 20%, the
volatility of Q is 6%, and the correlation between S and Q is 0.4. Use DerivaGem to
determine the value of a 2-year American-style call option on the index if:
(a) It pays off in Canadian dollars the amount by which the index exceeds 400.
(b) It pays off in U.S. dollars the amount by which the index exceeds 400.
30.10. Consider an instrument that will pay off S dollars in 2 years, where S is the value of the
Nikkei index. The index is currently 20,000. The yen/dollar exchange rate is 100 (yen per
dollar). The correlation between the exchange rate and the index is 0.3 and the dividend yield on the index is 1% per annum. The volatility of the Nikkei index is 20% and the volatility of the yen/dollar exchange rate is 12%. The interest rates (assumed constant) in the U.S. and Japan are 4% and 2%, respectively.
(a) What is the value of the instrument?
(b) Suppose that the exchange rate at some point during the life of the instrument is Q
and the level of the index is S. Show that a U.S. investor can create a portfolio that
changes in value by approximately
āS dollar when the index changes in value by
āS yen by investing S dollars in the Nikkei and shorting SQ yen.
(c) Confirm that this is correct by supposing that the index changes from 20,000
to 20,050 and the exchange rate changes from 100 to 99.7.
(d) How would you delta hedge the instrument under consideration?
30.11. Suppose that the risk-free yield curve is flat at 8% (with continuous compounding). The
payoff from a derivative occurs in 4 years. It is equal to the 5-year rate minus the 2-year
rate at this time, applied to a principal of $100 with both rates being continuously compounded. (The payoff can be positive or negative.) Calculate the value of the
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Convexity, Timing, and Quanto Adjustments 717
Convexity and Quanto Adjustments
- The text presents complex quantitative problems involving delta hedging Nikkei investments and calculating derivative values based on yield curve spreads.
- A significant portion of the material focuses on the valuation of derivatives where payoffs are tied to swap rates across different currencies like the U.S. dollar and Japanese yen.
- The appendix provides a formal mathematical proof for the convexity adjustment formula using a Taylor series expansion of bond prices relative to yields.
- The derivation demonstrates that an adjustment term must be added to the forward bond yield to account for the non-linear relationship between bond prices and interest rates.
- The analysis incorporates variables such as forward exchange rate volatility and correlation between currency rates and interest rates to determine fair value.
This shows that, to obtain the expected bond yield in a world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T, the term -1/2 y2F s2yT Gā³(yF)/Gā²(yF) should be added to the forward bond yield.
āS yen by investing S dollars in the Nikkei and shorting SQ yen.
(c) Confirm that this is correct by supposing that the index changes from 20,000
to 20,050 and the exchange rate changes from 100 to 99.7.
(d) How would you delta hedge the instrument under consideration?
30.11. Suppose that the risk-free yield curve is flat at 8% (with continuous compounding). The
payoff from a derivative occurs in 4 years. It is equal to the 5-year rate minus the 2-year
rate at this time, applied to a principal of $100 with both rates being continuously compounded. (The payoff can be positive or negative.) Calculate the value of the
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Convexity, Timing, and Quanto Adjustments 717
derivative. Assume that the volatility for all rates is 25%. What difference does it make
if the payoff occurs in 5 years instead of 4 years? Assume all rates are perfectly
correlated.
30.12. Suppose that the payoff from a derivative will occur in 10 years and will equal the 3-year
U.S. dollar swap rate for a semiannual-pay swap observed at that time applied to a
certain principal. Assume that the swap yield curve is flat at 8% (semiannually compounded) per annum in dollars and 3% (semiannually compounded) in yen. The
forward swap rate volatility is 18%, the volatility of the 10-year āyen per dollarā
forward exchange rate is 12%, and the correlation between this exchange rate and
U.S. dollar interest rates is 0.25. What is the value of the derivative if the swap rate is applied to a principal of (a) $100 million with a dollar payoff and (b) 100 million yen with a yen payoff? Assume that risk-free rates are 2% in yen and 6% in dollars (both semiannually compounded).
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718 CHAPTER 30
APPENDIX
PROOF OF THE CONVEXITY ADJUSTMENT FORMULA
This appendix calculates a convexity adjustment for forward bond yields. Suppose
that the payoff from a derivative at time T depends on a bond yield observed at that
time. Define:
yF : Forward bond yield observed today for a forward contract with maturity T
yT : Bond yield at time T
BT : Price of the bond at time T
sy : Volatility of the forward bond yield.
Suppose that the relationship between a bond price and its yield is
BT=G1yT2
Expanding G1yT2 in a Taylor series about yT=yF yields the following approximation:
BT=G1yF2+1yT-yF2G/uni20321yF2+0.51yT-yF22G/uni20331yF2
where G/uni2032 and G/uni2033 are the first and second partial derivatives of G . Taking expectations in
a world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T gives
ET1BT2=G1yF2+ET1yT-yF2G/uni20321yF2+1
2ET31yT-yF224G/uni20331yF2
where ET denotes expectations in this world. The expression G1yF2 is by definition the
forward bond price. Also, because of the particular world we are working in, ET1BT2
equals the forward bond price. Hence ET 1BT2=G1yF2, so that
ET 1yT-yF2G/uni20321yF2+1
2ET31yT-yF224G/uni20331yF2=0
The expression ET31yT-yF224 is approximately s2
yy2FT. Hence it is approximately true
that
ET 1yT2=yF-1
2 y2
F s2yT G/uni20331yF2
G/uni20321yF2
This shows that, to obtain the expected bond yield in a world defined by a numeraire
equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T, the term
-1
2 y2
F s2yT G/uni20331yF2
G/uni20321yF2
should be added to the forward bond yield. This is the result in equation (30.1). For an
alternative proof, see Problem 30.6.
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719
Equilibrium
Models of the
Short Rate31 CHAPTER
Equilibrium Models of Short Rates
- Equilibrium models like Vasicek and Cox-Ingersoll-Ross use one-factor Markov processes to determine bond prices and interest rates.
- The market price of interest rate risk is negative, meaning the drift of an interest rate is higher in the risk-neutral world than in the real world.
- While these models only approximately match today's term structure, they are highly effective for long-term scenario analysis in pension funds and insurance.
- The value of any interest rate derivative is calculated as the risk-neutral expectation of its payoff discounted by the average short rate.
- The risk-free short rate serves as the fundamental building block for pricing zero-coupon bonds and complex financial instruments.
Since interest rates and bond prices are negatively related, the market price of risk for an interest rate is negative.
The expression ET31yT-yF224 is approximately s2
yy2FT. Hence it is approximately true
that
ET 1yT2=yF-1
2 y2
F s2yT G/uni20331yF2
G/uni20321yF2
This shows that, to obtain the expected bond yield in a world defined by a numeraire
equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing at time T, the term
-1
2 y2
F s2yT G/uni20331yF2
G/uni20321yF2
should be added to the forward bond yield. This is the result in equation (30.1). For an
alternative proof, see Problem 30.6.
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719
Equilibrium
Models of the
Short Rate31 CHAPTER
In this chapter, we consider how models of the term structure of risk-free interest rates
can be constructed in both the real world and the risk-neutral world. We first show that
when a Markov process for the short rate has been specified in the traditional risk- neutral world all rates can, at least in theory, be calculated at all times as a function of
the short rate. We will spend some time studying two popular one-factor Markov models of the short rate: the Vasicek model and the Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross model. These are relatively simple models which lead to analytic formulas for determining bond prices.
The difference between the behavior of the short rate in the real world and the risk-
neutral world is determined by the market price of interest rate risk. We explained the meaning of the term āmarket price of riskā in Section 28.1. The market price of risk for a bond is positive. Since interest rates and bond prices are negatively related, the market price of risk for an interest rate is negative. This means that the drift of an interest rate is greater in the risk-neutral world than in the real world. The expected future value of an interest rate is therefore greater in the risk-neutral world than in the real world.
The equilibrium models considered in this chapter can approximately match the
todayās term structure of interest rates, but they do not provide an exact match. However, when Monte Carlo simulation is being carried out over a long period of
time for the purposes of scenario analysis, the models can be useful tools. For example,
a pension fund or an insurance company that is interested in the performance of its investments over the next 20 years is likely to feel that an approximate fit to todayās term structure is adequate.
In the next chapter, we extend the material in this chapter to consider short-rate
models that are designed to exactly fit todayās term structure of interest rates. These are used to value interest rate derivatives. In Chapter 33, we consider models of forward rates that also provide an exact fit to todayās term structure.
31.1 BACKGROUND
The risk-free short rate, r, at time t is the rate that applies to an infinitesimally short
period of time at time t. It is sometimes referred to as the instantaneous short rate. Bond prices, option prices, and other derivative prices depend only on the process followed by r
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 719 30/04/2021 17:49
720 CHAPTER 31
in the traditional risk-neutral world. As explained in Chapter 28, the traditional risk-
neutral world is a world where, in a very short time period between t and t+āt, investors
earn on average r1t2āt. All risk-neutral processes for r that will be considered in this
chapter are processes in this traditional risk-neutral world.
From equation (28.19), the value at time t of an interest rate derivative that provides a
payoff of fT at time T is
En3e-r1T-t2 fT4 (31.1)
where r is the average value of r in the time interval between t and T, and En denotes
expected value in the traditional risk-neutral world.
As usual, define P1t, T2 as the price at time t of a risk-free zero-coupon bond that pays
off $1 at time T. From equation (31.1),
P1t, T2=En3e-r1T-t24 (31.2)
If R1t, T2 is the continuously compounded risk-free interest rate at time t for a term of
T-t, then
P1t, T2=e-R1t, T21T-t2
so that
R1t, T2=-1
T-t ln P1t, T2 (31.3)
Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate
- The term structure of interest rates can be derived directly from the risk-neutral process of the short rate, r.
- A fundamental differential equation, analogous to Black-Scholes-Merton, governs the behavior of interest rate derivatives and zero-coupon bonds.
- A model where the term structure is always flat is mathematically invalid because it cannot satisfy the required stochastic differential equations.
- One-factor equilibrium models assume a single source of uncertainty but still allow the shape of the zero curve to change over time.
- Key historical models include those by Rendleman and Bartter, Vasicek, and Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross, each using different drift and volatility assumptions.
It is tempting to suggest a simple model where the term structure is always flat; however, this is not a valid stochastic model for bond prices.
payoff of fT at time T is
En3e-r1T-t2 fT4 (31.1)
where r is the average value of r in the time interval between t and T, and En denotes
expected value in the traditional risk-neutral world.
As usual, define P1t, T2 as the price at time t of a risk-free zero-coupon bond that pays
off $1 at time T. From equation (31.1),
P1t, T2=En3e-r1T-t24 (31.2)
If R1t, T2 is the continuously compounded risk-free interest rate at time t for a term of
T-t, then
P1t, T2=e-R1t, T21T-t2
so that
R1t, T2=-1
T-t ln P1t, T2 (31.3)
and, from equation (31.2),
R1t, T2=-1
T-t ln En3e-r1T-t24 (31.4)
This equation enables the term structure of interest rates at any given time to be
obtained from the risk-neutral process for r. It shows that, once the process for r has been defined, everything about the initial zero curve and its evolution through time can be determined.
Suppose the risk-neutral process for r is Markov with one factor:
dr=m1r, t2 dt+s1r, t2 dz
From ItĆ“ās lemma, any derivative dependent on r follows the process
df=a0 f
0 t+m0 f
0 r+1
2s20 2f
0 r2b dt+s0 f
0 r dz
Because we are working in the traditional risk-neutral world, if the derivative provides no income, this process must have the form
d f=r f dt+g
so that
0 f
0 t+m0 f
0 r+1
2s20 2 f
0 r2=r f
This is the equivalent of the BlackāScholesāMerton differential equation for interest rate derivatives. One particular solution to the equation must be the zero-coupon bond price
P1t, T2.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 720 30/04/2021 17:49
Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate 721
Hence
0 P1t, T2
0 t+m0 P1t, T2
0 r+1
2s20 2P1t, T2
0 r2=rP1t, T2 (31.5)
It is tempting to suggest a simple model where the term structure is always flat. All zero-
coupon interest rates are then r , so that P1t, T2=e-r1t21T-t2 at all times. However, this is
not a valid stochastic model for bond prices because it cannot satisfy equation (31.5) for all T unless m and s are both zero.
31.2 ONE-FACTOR MODELS
Equilibrium models usually start with assumptions about economic variables and derive a process for the short rate, r. They then explore what the process for r implies about bond prices and option prices.
In a one-factor equilibrium model, the process for r involves only one source of
uncertainty. Usually the process for the short rate is assumed to be stationary in the sense that the parameters of the process are not functions of time. This means that the process we considered earlier can be written as
dr=m1r2 dt+s1r2 dz
The assumption of a single factor is not as restrictive as it might appear. A one-factor
model implies that all rates move in the same direction over any short time interval, but not that they all move by the same amount. The shape of the zero curve can therefore change with the passage of time.
This section considers three one-factor equilibrium models:
m1r2=mr; s1r2=sr (Rendleman and Bartter model)
m1r2=a1b-r2; s1r2=s (Vasicek model)
m1r2=a1b-r2; s1r2=s1r (Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross model)
The Rendleman and Bartter Model
In Rendleman and Bartterās model, the risk-neutral process for r is1
dr=mr dt+sr dz
Equilibrium Models of Short Rates
- One-factor models assume all interest rates move in the same direction over short intervals, though the magnitude of movement varies across the zero curve.
- The Rendleman and Bartter model treats interest rates like stock prices using geometric Brownian motion but fails to account for the economic reality of mean reversion.
- Mean reversion is a critical economic phenomenon where high rates slow the economy and lower demand for funds, eventually pulling rates back toward a long-run average.
- The Vasicek and CIR models improve upon earlier frameworks by incorporating mean reversion through a drift term that pulls the short rate toward a specific level.
- The Vasicek model specifically provides a mathematical solution for zero-coupon bond prices based on reversion rates, reversion levels, and normally distributed stochastic terms.
One important difference between interest rates and stock prices is that interest rates appear to be pulled back to some long-run average level over time.
The assumption of a single factor is not as restrictive as it might appear. A one-factor
model implies that all rates move in the same direction over any short time interval, but not that they all move by the same amount. The shape of the zero curve can therefore change with the passage of time.
This section considers three one-factor equilibrium models:
m1r2=mr; s1r2=sr (Rendleman and Bartter model)
m1r2=a1b-r2; s1r2=s (Vasicek model)
m1r2=a1b-r2; s1r2=s1r (Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross model)
The Rendleman and Bartter Model
In Rendleman and Bartterās model, the risk-neutral process for r is1
dr=mr dt+sr dz
where m and s are constants. This means that r follows geometric Brownian motion. The
process for r is of the same type as that assumed for a stock price in Chapter 15. It can be
represented using a binomial tree similar to the one used for stocks in Chapter 13.
The assumption that the short-term interest rate behaves like a stock price is a natural
starting point but is less than ideal. One important difference between interest rates and stock prices is that interest rates appear to be pulled back to some long-run average level
over time. This phenomenon is known as mean reversion. When r is high, mean
reversion tends to cause it to have a negative drift; when r is low, mean reversion tends
to cause it to have a positive drift. Mean reversion is illustrated in Figure 31.1. The Rendleman and Bartter model does not incorporate mean reversion.
1 See R. Rendleman and B. Bartter, āThe Pricing of Options on Debt Securities,ā Journal of Financial and
Quantitative Analysis, 15 (March 1980): 11ā24.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 721 30/04/2021 17:49
722 CHAPTER 31
There are compelling economic arguments in favor of mean reversion. When rates are
high, the economy tends to slow down and there is low demand for funds from
borrowers. As a result, rates decline. When rates are low, there tends to be a high demand
for funds on the part of borrowers and rates tend to rise.
The Vasicek Model
In Vasicekās model, the risk-neutral process for r is
dr=a1b-r2 dt+s dz
where a, b, and s are nonnegative constants.2 This model incorporates mean reversion.
The short rate is pulled to a āreversion levelā b at āreversion rateā a. Superimposed upon this pull is a normally distributed stochastic term
s dz.
Zero-coupon bond prices in Vasicekās model are given by
P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r1t2 (31.6)
where
B1t, T2=1-e-a1T-t2
a (31.7)
and
A1t, T2=expc1B1t, T2-T+t21a2b-s2>22
a2-s2B1t, T22
4ad (31.8)
(When a=0, these equations become B1t, T2=T-t and A1t, T2=exp3s21T-t23>64.2Figure 31.1 Mean reversion.
Interest
rate
High interest rate
has ne gative trend on av erage
Low interest rate
has positi ve trend on av erageReversion
level
Time
2 See O. A. Vasicek, āAn Equilibrium Characterization of the Term Structure,ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 5 (1977): 177ā88. For a discrete-time version of Vasicekās model, see S. Heston, āDiscrete-Time
Versions of Continuous-Time Interest Rate Models.āJournal of Fixed Income, 5, 2 (1995): 86ā88.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 722 30/04/2021 17:49
Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate 723
To see this, note that m=a1b-r2 and s=s in differential equation (31.5), so that
0 P1t, T2
0 t+a1b-r20 P1t, T2
0 r+1
2s20 2P1t, T2
0 r2=rP1t, T2
By substitution, we see that P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r satisfies this differential equation
when
Bt-aB+1=0
and
At-abAB+1
2s2AB2=0
where subscripts denote derivatives. The expressions for A1t, T2 and B1t, T2 in equa-
tions (31.7) and (31.8) are solutions to these equations. What is more, because
A1T, T2=1 and B1T, T2=0, the boundary condition P1T, T2=1 is satisfied.
The Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross Model
Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (CIR) have proposed the following alternative model:3
dr=a1b-r2 dt+s1r dz
The Vasicek and CIR Models
- The Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (CIR) model introduces a short-rate standard deviation proportional to the square root of the rate, ensuring volatility increases as rates rise.
- Both the Vasicek and CIR models utilize a mean-reverting drift, but they differ in their mathematical functions for bond pricing and boundary conditions.
- A significant distinction between the two is that the Vasicek model allows for negative interest rates, whereas the CIR model prevents rates from dropping below zero.
- The entire term structure in these models is determined by the current short rate, resulting in yields that are linearly dependent on that rate.
- An alternative duration measure is introduced to calculate bond price sensitivity relative to the short rate rather than the bond's own yield.
One difference between Vasicek and CIR is that in Vasicek the short rate, r(t), can become negative whereas in CIR this is not possible.
0 r2=rP1t, T2
By substitution, we see that P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r satisfies this differential equation
when
Bt-aB+1=0
and
At-abAB+1
2s2AB2=0
where subscripts denote derivatives. The expressions for A1t, T2 and B1t, T2 in equa-
tions (31.7) and (31.8) are solutions to these equations. What is more, because
A1T, T2=1 and B1T, T2=0, the boundary condition P1T, T2=1 is satisfied.
The Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross Model
Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (CIR) have proposed the following alternative model:3
dr=a1b-r2 dt+s1r dz
where a, b, and s are nonnegative constants. This has the same mean-reverting drift as
Vasicek, but the standard deviation of the change in the short rate in a short period of
time is proportional to 1r. This means that, as the short-term interest rate increases, the
standard deviation increases.
Bond prices in the CIR model have the same general form as those in Vasicekās
model,
P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r1t2
but the functions B1t, T2 and A1t, T2 are different:
B1t, T2=21eg1T-t2-12
1g+a21eg1T-t2-12+2g
and
A1t, T2=c2ge1a+g21T-t2>2
1g+a21eg1T-t2-12+2gd2ab>s2
with g=2a2+2s2.
To see this result, substitute m=a1b-r2 and s=s1r into differential equation (31.5)
to get
0 P1t, T2
0 t+a1b-r20 P1t, T2
0 r+1
2s2r0 2 P1t, T2
0 r2=r P1t, T2
As in the case of Vasicekās model, we can prove the bond-pricing result by substituting
P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r into the differential equation. In this case, A1t, T2 and B1t, T2
are solutions of
Bt-aB-1
2s2B2+1=0, At-abAB=0
Furthermore, the boundary condition P1T, T2=1 is satisfied.
3 See J. C. Cox, J. E. Ingersoll, and S. A. Ross, āA Theory of the Term Structure of Interest Rates,ā
Econometrica, 53 (1985): 385ā407.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 723 30/04/2021 17:49
724 CHAPTER 31
Properties of Vasicek and CIR
The A1t, T2 and B1t, T2 functions are different for Vasicek and CIR, but for both
models
P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r1t2
so that
0 P1t, T2
0 r1t2=-B1t, T2P1t, T2 (31.9)
From equation (31.3), the zero rate at time t for a period of T-t is
R1t, T2=-1
T-t ln A1t, T2+1
T-t B1t, T2r1t2 (31.10)
This shows that the entire term structure at time t can be determined as a function of
r(t) once a, b, and s have been chosen. The rate R1t, T2 is linearly dependent on r(t).
This means that the value of r(t) determines the level of the term structure at time t. As shown in Figure 31.2, the shape at a particular time can be upward sloping, downward sloping, or slightly āhumped.ā
One difference between Vasicek and CIR is that in Vasicek the short rate, r(t), can
become negative whereas in CIR this is not possible. If
2abĆs2 in CIR, r(t) is never
zero; otherwise it occasionally touches zero.
Figure 31.2 Possible shapes of term structure in the Vasicek and CIR models.
Yield on
zero-coupon
bond
Maturity Maturity
MaturityYield on
zero-couponbond
Yield on
zero-couponbond
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Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate 725
From Chapter 4, the duration D of a bond that has a price of Q is given by
D=-1
Q0 Q
0 y so that āQ
Q=-D āy
where y is the continuously compounded bond yield. An alternative duration measure
Dn, which can be used in conjunction with Vasicek or CIR, is defined as follows:
Dn=-1
Q0 Q
0 r so that āQ
Q=-Dn ār
Here we are measuring the sensitivity of the bond price to the short rate rather than to its
yield. Equation (31.9) shows that when we consider a T -maturity zero-coupon bond so
that Q=P1t, T2, the alternative duration measure, Dn, is equal to B1t, T2.
Example 31.1
Consider a zero-coupon bond lasting 4 years. In this case, D = 4, so that a 10-basis-
point (0.1% or 0.001) increase in the bondās yield leads to a decrease of approxi-mately 0.4% in the bond price. If Vasicekās model is used with
a=0.1,
Dn=B10, 42=11-e-0.1*42
0.1=3.30
Bond Sensitivity and Risk Dynamics
- The text introduces an alternative duration measure that calculates bond price sensitivity relative to the short rate rather than the yield.
- Mean reversion in interest rate models like Vasicek causes bond prices to be less sensitive to short rate movements than to yield movements.
- The duration of a coupon-bearing bond is shown to be a weighted average of the durations of its underlying zero-coupon components.
- Real-world interest rate processes differ from risk-neutral ones primarily through a lower reversion level due to the negative market price of risk.
- Investors require an extra return over the risk-free rate for holding bonds because interest rates and bond prices are negatively correlated.
The change in the bond price from a certain movement in the short rate is less than that from the same movement in its yield because of the impact of mean reversion.
Here we are measuring the sensitivity of the bond price to the short rate rather than to its
yield. Equation (31.9) shows that when we consider a T -maturity zero-coupon bond so
that Q=P1t, T2, the alternative duration measure, Dn, is equal to B1t, T2.
Example 31.1
Consider a zero-coupon bond lasting 4 years. In this case, D = 4, so that a 10-basis-
point (0.1% or 0.001) increase in the bondās yield leads to a decrease of approxi-mately 0.4% in the bond price. If Vasicekās model is used with
a=0.1,
Dn=B10, 42=11-e-0.1*42
0.1=3.30
This means that a 10-basis-point increase in the short rate leads to a decrease in the bond price that is approximately 0.33%. The change in the bond price from a
certain movement in the short rate is less than that from the same movement in its yield because of the impact of mean reversion.
When Q is the price of a coupon-bearing bond that provides a cash flow
ci at time Ti,
Dn=-1
Q0 Q
0 r=-1
Qan
i=1ci0 P1t, Ti2
0 r=an
i=1ciP1t, Ti2
Q Dni
where Dni=B1t, Ti2 is the Dn for P1t, Ti2. This shows that the Dn for a coupon-bearing
bond can be calculated as a weighted average of the Dnās for the underlying zero-coupon
bonds, similarly to the way the usual duration measure D is calculated (see Table 4.6). This analysis can be extended to cover convexity measures (see Problem 31.11).
The Bond Price Process
The expected growth rate of P1t, T2 in the traditional risk-neutral world at time t is r(t)
because P1t, T2 is the price of a traded security that provides no income. Since P1t, T2 is a
function of r(t), the coefficient of dz(t) in the process for P1t, T2 can be calculated from
ItĆ“ās lemma as s0 P1t, T2>0 r1t2 for Vasicek and s2r1t20 P1t, T2>0 r1t2 for CIR. Substitut-
ing from equation (31.9), the processes for P1t, T2 in a risk-neutral world are therefore
Vasicek: d P1t, T2=r1t2 P1t, T2 dt-sBvas1t, T2 P1t, T2 dz1t2 (31.11)
CIR: d P1t, T2=r1t2 P1t, T2 dt-s2r1t2 Bcir1t, T2 P1t, T2 dz1t2 (31.12)
where the subscripts to B indicate the model it applies to.
To compare the term structure of interest rates given by Vasicek and CIR for a
particular value of r, it makes sense to use the same a and b. However, the Vasicek s
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 725 30/04/2021 17:49
726 CHAPTER 31
Bonds have a positive market price of risk (i.e., positive systematic risk), so investors
require an extra return over the risk-free rate for investing in bonds. Interest rates are negatively related to bond prices and therefore have negative market prices of risk.
Suppose that
l is the (negative) market price of risk of the short rate, r. If the risk-
neutral process for r is
dr=m1r2 dt+s1r2 dz
the real-world process, from Chapter 28, is
dr=3m1r2+ls1r24 dt+s1r2 dz
In the case of Vasicekās model, the risk-neutral process is
dr=a1b-r2 dt+s dz
so that the real-world process is
dr=3a1b-r2+ls4 dt+s dz
Assuming l is constant, this process is
dr=3a1b*-r24 dt+s dz (31.13)
where b*=b+ls>a. The real-world process is therefore the same as the risk-neutral
process except that the reversion level is lower (because l is negative).
In the case of CIR, the risk-neutral process is
dr=a1b-r2 dt+s1r dz
It is convenient to assume that l=k1r, where k is a (negative) constant, so that the
real-world process is
dr=3a1b-r2+ksr4 dt+s1r dz
In this case,
dr=a*1b*-r2 dt+s1r dz
where a*=a-ks and b*=ab>a*. The real-world process is therefore the same as the
risk-neutral process except that the reversion rate is higher and the reversion level is lower.
Next, consider bonds. Equation (31.11) gives the risk-neutral process in Vasicekās
model for a zero-coupon bond. When the market price of risk of the short rate is
l, the
real-world process is
d P1t, T2=3r1t2-lsBvas1t, T24 P1t, T2 dt-sBvas1t, T2 P1t, T2 dz1t2
Modeling Interest Rate Dynamics
- The text distinguishes between real-world and risk-neutral processes, noting that real-world interest rates typically exhibit higher reversion rates and lower reversion levels.
- Vasicek and CIR models are used to describe the stochastic evolution of zero-coupon bonds and short rates through differential equations.
- Parameter estimation for these models involves regressing historical daily data to determine mean reversion speed, long-term levels, and volatility.
- The market price of risk is calculated by minimizing the sum of squared errors between model-predicted zero-coupon rates and actual market rates.
- While simple two-step estimation procedures provide reasonable parameters, professional practice often requires more sophisticated econometric methods to fit the full term structure.
The real-world process is therefore the same as the risk-neutral process except that the reversion rate is higher and the reversion level is lower.
real-world process is
dr=3a1b-r2+ksr4 dt+s1r dz
In this case,
dr=a*1b*-r2 dt+s1r dz
where a*=a-ks and b*=ab>a*. The real-world process is therefore the same as the
risk-neutral process except that the reversion rate is higher and the reversion level is lower.
Next, consider bonds. Equation (31.11) gives the risk-neutral process in Vasicekās
model for a zero-coupon bond. When the market price of risk of the short rate is
l, the
real-world process is
d P1t, T2=3r1t2-lsBvas1t, T24 P1t, T2 dt-sBvas1t, T2 P1t, T2 dz1t2
Equation (31.12) gives the risk-neutral process in the CIR model for a zero-coupon should be chosen to be approximately equal to the CIR s times 2r1t2. For example, if
r is 4% and s is 0.01 in Vasicek, an appropriate value for s in CIR would be
0.01>20.04=0.05. Software for experimenting with the models can be found at
www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/VasicekCIR.
31.3 REAL-WORLD VS. RISK-NEUTRAL PROCESSES
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 726 30/04/2021 17:49
Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate 727
We will illustrate the estimation of parameters with Vasicekās model. The discrete
version of the model in the real world is, from equation (31.13),
ār=a1b*-r2āt+sP2āt
where P is a random sample from a standard normal distribution. Define r i as the rate
on day i. Daily data on 3-month Treasury rates in the United States between January 4,
1982, and August 23, 2016, together with a worksheet for the analysis in this section, is
on www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/VasicekCIR. When we use this data to regress
ri+1-ri against ri, we obtain
ri+1-ri=0.00000915-0.000545ri
with a standard error of 0.000754.
We have about 250 observations per year, so that āt=1>250. Because 0.00000915 =
0.00229>250, 0.000545 = 0.136>250, and 0.000754=0.0119>2250, the regression result
is equivalent to
ār=10.00229-0.136r2āt+0.0119P2āt
or
ār=0.13610.0168-r2āt+0.0119P2āt
indicating that the best-fit parameters are a=0.136, b*=0.0168 (or 1.68%), and
s=0.0119 (or 1.19%). Problem 31.15 shows that the same results are obtained using
maximum-likelihood methods.
So far we have estimated the parameters for Vasicekās model in the real world. If the
market price of risk is l, the previous section shows that in the risk-neutral world the
parameters are a=0.136, b=0.168-0.0119l>a, and s=0.0119. For a trial value of
l, we can use equations (31.7), (31.8), and (31.10) to estimate zero-coupon rates as a
function of maturity. Solver can then be used to determine the value of l that minimizes
the sum of squared errors between the zero-coupon rates given by the model and those in the market. This best-fit value of
l turns out to be -0.175.4 Table 31.1 compares the
zero-coupon rates given by the model when this best-fit value of l is used with those in
the market. Problem 31.16 uses the same data for the CIR model.
The two-step estimation procedure we have used is a simple procedure and there has
been no attempt to fit the term structure of interest rates at times other than today. In practice, researchers use more sophisticated econometric procedures. The parameters
we have estimated for Vasicekās model are reasonable, but this will not always be the case.
5 bond. When the market price of risk is k1r, the real-world process is
d P1t, T2=3r1t2-ksBcir1t, T2r1t24 P1t, T2 dt-s2r1t2Bcir1t, T2 P1t, T2 dz1t2
31.4 ESTIMATING PARAMETERS
Estimating Interest Rate Models
- The text outlines a two-step estimation procedure for fitting Vasicek and CIR models to current market zero-coupon rates.
- Research suggests that estimating the market price of risk from the short end of the term structure often produces values that are excessively negative.
- The accuracy of model parameters is highly sensitive to the specific time period and the current shape of the term structure used for data.
- Two-factor Markov models extend the Vasicek model by treating the mean reversion level as a stochastic process rather than a constant.
- Advanced models like those by Longstaff and Schwartz maintain analytic bond prices while providing a more complex description of real-world term structure evolution.
The period of time over which parameters are estimated and the current shape of the term structure can have a big effect on the results obtained.
zero-coupon rates given by the model when this best-fit value of l is used with those in
the market. Problem 31.16 uses the same data for the CIR model.
The two-step estimation procedure we have used is a simple procedure and there has
been no attempt to fit the term structure of interest rates at times other than today. In practice, researchers use more sophisticated econometric procedures. The parameters
we have estimated for Vasicekās model are reasonable, but this will not always be the case.
5 bond. When the market price of risk is k1r, the real-world process is
d P1t, T2=3r1t2-ksBcir1t, T2r1t24 P1t, T2 dt-s2r1t2Bcir1t, T2 P1t, T2 dz1t2
31.4 ESTIMATING PARAMETERS
4 Research such as R. Stanton, āA Nonparametric Model of Term Structure Dynamics and the Market Price
of Interest Rate Risk,ā Journal of Finance, 52, 5 (December 1997): 1973ā2002, has tried to estimate the market
price of risk from the average slope of the term structure of interest rates at the short end. As explained in
J. C. Hull, A. Sokol, and A. White, āShort-Rate Joint-Measure Models,ā Risk, 15, 3 (2015): 59ā63, this tends to produce values for the market price of risk that are much too negative (typically
-1.0 or less).
5 As Problem 31.16 shows, the results using the same data for the CIR model are not as reasonable.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 727 30/04/2021 17:49
728 CHAPTER 31
The period of time over which parameters are estimated and the current shape of the
term structure can have a big effect on the results obtained. Some judgment is necessary to determine the most appropriate data to use when a model such as Vasicek or CIR is estimated in practice.Maturity
(years)Model rate
(%)Market Rate
(%)
0.5 0.40 0.45
1.0 0.49 0.58
2.0 0.65 0.74
3.0 0.80 0.86
5.0 1.06 1.15
7.0 1.27 1.40
10.0 1.52 1.55
20.0 2.02 1.88
30.0 2.26 2.24Table 31.1 Best fit of model rates to those in the market,
August 23, 2016.
31.5 MORE SOPHISTICATED MODELS
The Vasicek and CIR models are simple one-factor Markov models of the short rate. A two-factor Markov model of the short rate that is an extension of Vasicek is
6
dr=1u-ar2 dt+s1 dz1
du=-bu dt+s2 dz2
In this model, the reversion level 1= u>a2 is not constant. It follows a stochastic process.
However, bond prices are analytic:
P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r-C1t, T2u
where B1t, T2 is the same as in the Vasicek model and
C1t, T2=1
a1a-b2e-a1T-t2-1
b1a-b2e-b1T-t2+1
ab (31.14)
The function A1t, T2 is more complex (see Technical Note 14 on the authorās website).
Another two-factor model which has analytic bond prices and involves similar
processes to CIR was developed by Longstaff and Schwartz.7 Other multifactor models
are sometimes used in practice to describe the real-world evolution of the term
structure. In Chapter 33, we will describe how general risk-neutral models can be
developed in terms of forward rates.
6 See J. Hull and A. White, āNumerical Procedures for Implementing Term Structure Models II: Two-Factor
Models,ā Journal of Derivatives, 2, 2 (Winter 1994): 37ā48.
7 See F. A. Longstaff and E. S. Schwartz, āInterest Rate Volatility and the Term Structure: A Two-Factor
General Equilibrium Model,ā Journal of Finance, 47, 4 (September 1992): 1259ā82.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 728 30/04/2021 17:49
Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate 729
SUMMARY
Equilibrium Short Rate Models
- The Vasicek and Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (CIR) models use mean-reverting processes to determine the term structure of interest rates based on the current short rate.
- A key distinction between the two is that the Vasicek model allows for negative interest rates, whereas the CIR model prevents them by making volatility proportional to the square root of the rate.
- The market price of interest rate risk is negative, which alters the reversion levels and rates when moving from a risk-neutral world to the real world.
- While these equilibrium models are useful for simulation, they do not provide an exact fit to the current term structure, which is typically required for derivative valuation.
- Future chapters explore more complex models that provide exact fits to term structures or describe the evolution of forward rates.
In Vasicek, rates can become negative; in CIR, this is not possible.
are sometimes used in practice to describe the real-world evolution of the term
structure. In Chapter 33, we will describe how general risk-neutral models can be
developed in terms of forward rates.
6 See J. Hull and A. White, āNumerical Procedures for Implementing Term Structure Models II: Two-Factor
Models,ā Journal of Derivatives, 2, 2 (Winter 1994): 37ā48.
7 See F. A. Longstaff and E. S. Schwartz, āInterest Rate Volatility and the Term Structure: A Two-Factor
General Equilibrium Model,ā Journal of Finance, 47, 4 (September 1992): 1259ā82.
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Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate 729
SUMMARY
When a Markov model of the (instantaneous) short rate has been specified, the current
value of the short rate determines the whole term structure of interest rates as a function of the level of the short rate. It is therefore tempting to model the term structure of interest rates by specifying a process for the short rate. Two popular models are the Vasicek and Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross (CIR) models. In both models the short rate
follows a mean-reverting process (i.e., it is pulled back toward a central value) and has some uncertainty superimposed on the mean reversion. In the case of Vasicek, the uncertain component of the change over a short period of time of length
āt always
has zero mean and a constant standard deviation; in CIR, the uncertain component has zero mean and a standard deviation proportional to the square root of the short rate. In
Vasicek, rates can become negative; in CIR, this is not possible. In both models the bond
price
P1t, T2 has the form A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r, but the A1t, T2 and B1t, T2 functions in the two
models are not the same.
The market price of interest rate risk is negative. If the market price of risk in Vasicek
is constant, the process followed by the short rate in the real world is the same as that in the risk-neutral world except that the reversion level is lower. If the market price of risk in CIR is proportional to the square root of the short rate, the process in the real world has the same form as that in the risk-neutral world except that the reversion rate is higher and the reversion level is lower.
The models we have considered in this chapter do not provide an exact fit to the
current term structure of interest rates but are useful for simulating the behavior of
interest rates in some situations. When derivatives are being valued it is usually
necessary to use a model that provides an exact fit to the current term structure of
interest rates. Short-rate models that do this are considered in the next chapter and more general models that describe the behavior of forward rates are in Chapter 33.
FURTHER READING
Cox, J. C., J. E. Ingersoll, and S. A. Ross, āA Theory of the Term Structure of Interest Rates,ā
Econometrica, 53 (1985): 385ā407.
Longstaff, F. A. and E. S. Schwartz, āInterest Rate Volatility and the Term Structure: A Two-
Factor General Equilibrium Model,ā Journal of Finance, 47, 4 (September 1992): 1259ā82.
Vasicek, O. A., āAn Equilibrium Characterization of the Term Structure,ā Journal of Financial
Economics, 5 (1977): 177ā88.
Practice Questions
31.1. Suppose that the short rate is currently 4% and its standard deviation in a short period of
time āt is 0.012āt. What happens to this standard deviation when the short rate
increases to 8% in (a) Vasicekās model, (b) Rendleman and Bartterās model, and
(c) the Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross model?
31.2. If a stock price were mean reverting or followed a path-dependent process there would be market inefficiency. Why is there not a market inefficiency when the short-term interest rate does so?
31.3. Explain the difference between a one-factor and a two-factor model.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 729 30/04/2021 17:49
730 CHAPTER 31
Equilibrium Short Rate Models
- The text presents quantitative problems focused on the Vasicek, CIR, and Rendleman-Bartter models of interest rate behavior.
- It explores the distinction between risk-neutral and real-world processes, specifically how the market price of risk bridges the two.
- A key conceptual question addresses why mean reversion in interest rates does not imply market inefficiency, unlike mean reversion in stock prices.
- Mathematical exercises involve calculating bond prices, maximum-likelihood estimates, and alternative duration measures within these equilibrium frameworks.
If a stock price were mean reverting or followed a path-dependent process there would be market inefficiency. Why is there not a market inefficiency when the short-term interest rate does so?
31.1. Suppose that the short rate is currently 4% and its standard deviation in a short period of
time āt is 0.012āt. What happens to this standard deviation when the short rate
increases to 8% in (a) Vasicekās model, (b) Rendleman and Bartterās model, and
(c) the Cox, Ingersoll, and Ross model?
31.2. If a stock price were mean reverting or followed a path-dependent process there would be market inefficiency. Why is there not a market inefficiency when the short-term interest rate does so?
31.3. Explain the difference between a one-factor and a two-factor model.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 729 30/04/2021 17:49
730 CHAPTER 31
31.4. Suppose that in a risk-neutral world the Vasicek parameters are a=0.1, b=0.03, and
s=0.01. What is the price of a 5-year zero-coupon bond with a principal of $1 when the
short rate is 2%?
31.5. Suppose that in a risk-neutral world the CIR parameters are a=0.1, b=0.03, and
s=0.07. The market price of interest rate risk is -1 times the square root of the short rate.
What are the risk-neutral and real-world processes for (a) the short rate and (b) a zero-
coupon bond with a current maturity of 4 years.
31.6. Suppose that the market price of risk of the short rate is l1+l2r (with l1 and l2
negative). Show that if the real-world process for the short rate is the one assumed by
Vasicek, the risk-neutral process has the same functional form as the real-world
process. Derive the relationship between (a) the real-world reversion rate and the risk-
neutral reversion rate and (b) the real-world reversion level and the risk-neutral reversion level.
31.7. Observations spaced at intervals
āt are taken on the short rate. The ith observation is ri
10ā¦iā¦m2. Show that the maximum-likelihood estimates of a, b*, and s in Vasicekās
model are given by maximizing
am
i=1a-ln1s2āt2-3ri-ri-1-a1b*-ri-12āt42
s2ātb
31.8. Calculate the alternative duration measure explained in Section 31.2 for a 2-year bond with a principal of $100 paying coupons semiannually at the rate of $3 per year when Vasicekās model is used with
a=0.13, b=0.012, s=0.01, and r=1%. Show that it
correctly predicts the effect of an increase in r to 1.05%.
31.9. Suppose that a=0.1 and b=0.1 and in both the Vasicek and the Cox, Ingersoll, Ross
model. In both models, the initial short rate is 10% and the initial standard deviation of the short-rate change in a short time
āt is 0.022āt. Compare the prices given by the
models for a zero-coupon bond that matures in year 10.
31.10. Suppose the short rate r is 4% and its real-world process is dr=0.110.05-r2 dt+0.01 dz,
while the risk-neutral process is dr=0.110.11-r2 dt+0.01 dz:
(a) What is the market price of interest rate risk?
(b) What is the expected return and volatility for a 5-year zero-coupon bond in the risk-
neutral world?
(c) What is the expected return and volatility for a 5-year zero-coupon bond in the real world?
31.11. (a) What is the second partial derivative of
P1t, T2 with respect to r in the Vasicek and
CIR models?
(b) In Section 31. 2, Dn is presented as an alternative to the usual duration measure, D.
What is a similar alternative, Cn, to the convexity measure in Section 4.11?
(c) What is Cn for P1t, T2? How would you calculate Cn for a coupon-bearing bond?
(d) Give a Taylor series expansion for āP1t, T2 in terms of ār and 1ār22 for Vasicek
and CIR.
31.12. Suppose that in the risk-neutral Vasicek process a=0.15, b=0.025, and s=0.012. The
market price of interest rate risk is -0.2. What are the risk-neutral and real-world
processes for (a) the short rate and (b) a zero-coupon bond with a current maturity of
3 years.
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Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate 731
31.13. Suppose that the market price of risk of the short rate is l1>1r+l21r. Show that if the
real world process for the short rate is the one assumed by CIR, the risk-neutral process
Equilibrium vs No-Arbitrage Models
- Equilibrium models like Vasicek and CIR often fail to provide an exact fit for the current term structure of interest rates.
- Traders generally distrust derivative prices when the underlying model cannot accurately price the current bond market.
- The fundamental difference between model types is that equilibrium models treat the term structure as an output, while no-arbitrage models treat it as an input.
- In no-arbitrage models, the drift of the short rate is typically time-dependent to ensure consistency with the initial zero curve.
- A minor error of one percent in the underlying bond price can result in a disproportionate twenty-five percent error in option valuation.
Not unreasonably, they argue that they can have very little confidence in the price of a bond option when the model used does not price the underlying bond correctly.
CIR models?
(b) In Section 31. 2, Dn is presented as an alternative to the usual duration measure, D.
What is a similar alternative, Cn, to the convexity measure in Section 4.11?
(c) What is Cn for P1t, T2? How would you calculate Cn for a coupon-bearing bond?
(d) Give a Taylor series expansion for āP1t, T2 in terms of ār and 1ār22 for Vasicek
and CIR.
31.12. Suppose that in the risk-neutral Vasicek process a=0.15, b=0.025, and s=0.012. The
market price of interest rate risk is -0.2. What are the risk-neutral and real-world
processes for (a) the short rate and (b) a zero-coupon bond with a current maturity of
3 years.
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Equilibrium Models of the Short Rate 731
31.13. Suppose that the market price of risk of the short rate is l1>1r+l21r. Show that if the
real world process for the short rate is the one assumed by CIR, the risk-neutral process
has the same functional form. Derive the relationship between (a) the real-world
reversion rate and the risk-neutral reversion rate and (b) the real-world reversion level
and the risk-neutral reversion level.
31.14. In the two-factor extension of Vasicek given in Section 31.5, derive the differential
equation which must be satisfied by a bond price, P1t, T2. Use this to derive differential
equations that must be satisfied by A1t, T2, B1t, T2, and C1t, T2 in P1t, T2 =
A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r-C1t, T2u. Show that the expressions given for B1t, T2 in equation (31.7)
and C1t, T2 in equation (31.14) satisfy these equations. [Hint: Use equation (14A.10)
to obtain the drift of P1t, T2 and set this drift equal to rP1t, T2.]
31.15. Use the result in Problem 31.7 to determine the best fit parameters for the Vasicek
model using the same data as in Section 31.4 (see www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/
VasicekCIR). Verify that the regression approach in Section 31.4 and the maximum- likelihood approach give the same answer.
31.16. What is the result corresponding to that given in Problem 31.7 for the CIR model? Use
maximum likelihood methods to estimate the a, b, and
s parameters for the CIR model
using the same data as that used for the Vasicek model in Section 31.4 (see
www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/VasicekCIR). Setting the market price of risk equal
to k1r use the market data in Table 31.1 to estimate the best fit k.
M31_HULL0654_11_GE_C31.indd 731 30/04/2021 17:49
732
No-Arbitrage
Models of the
Short Rate
The disadvantage of the equilibrium models presented in Chapter 31 is that they do not
automatically fit todayās term structure of interest rates. By choosing the parameters judiciously, they can be made to provide an approximate fit to many of the term
structures that are encountered in practice. But the fit is not an exact one. Most traders,
when they are valuing derivatives, find this unsatisfactory. Not unreasonably, they argue that they can have very little confidence in the price of a bond option when the model used does not price the underlying bond correctly. A 1% error in the price of the
underlying bond may lead to a 25% error in an option price.
A no-arbitrage model is a model designed to be exactly consistent with todayās term
structure of interest rates. The essential difference between an equilibrium and a no- arbitrage model is therefore as follows. In an equilibrium model, todayās term structure of interest rates is an output. In a no-arbitrage model, todayās term structure of interest rates is an input.
In an equilibrium model, the drift of the short rate is not usually a function of time. In
a no-arbitrage model, the drift is, in general, dependent on time. This is because the shape of the initial zero curve governs the average path taken by the short rate in the future in a no-arbitrage model. If the zero curve is steeply upward-sloping for maturities
between
No-Arbitrage Interest Rate Models
- Equilibrium models often fail to provide an exact fit to the current term structure of interest rates, which can lead to significant errors in derivative pricing.
- No-arbitrage models differ by treating the current term structure as an input rather than an output, ensuring the model is consistent with market prices.
- In these models, the drift of the short rate is time-dependent and is governed by the shape of the initial zero curve.
- The HoāLee model was the first no-arbitrage model, using a time-dependent function to align the average direction of the short rate with the slope of the forward curve.
- Traders prefer no-arbitrage models because a small error in pricing an underlying bond can result in a disproportionately large error in option valuation.
A 1% error in the price of the underlying bond may lead to a 25% error in an option price.
The disadvantage of the equilibrium models presented in Chapter 31 is that they do not
automatically fit todayās term structure of interest rates. By choosing the parameters judiciously, they can be made to provide an approximate fit to many of the term
structures that are encountered in practice. But the fit is not an exact one. Most traders,
when they are valuing derivatives, find this unsatisfactory. Not unreasonably, they argue that they can have very little confidence in the price of a bond option when the model used does not price the underlying bond correctly. A 1% error in the price of the
underlying bond may lead to a 25% error in an option price.
A no-arbitrage model is a model designed to be exactly consistent with todayās term
structure of interest rates. The essential difference between an equilibrium and a no- arbitrage model is therefore as follows. In an equilibrium model, todayās term structure of interest rates is an output. In a no-arbitrage model, todayās term structure of interest rates is an input.
In an equilibrium model, the drift of the short rate is not usually a function of time. In
a no-arbitrage model, the drift is, in general, dependent on time. This is because the shape of the initial zero curve governs the average path taken by the short rate in the future in a no-arbitrage model. If the zero curve is steeply upward-sloping for maturities
between
t1 and t2, then r has a positive drift between these times; if it is steeply
downward-sloping for these maturities, then r has a negative drift between these times.32 CHAPTER
1 See T. S. Y. Ho and S.-B. Lee, āTerm Structure Movements and Pricing Interest Rate Contingent Claims,ā
Journal of Finance, 41 (December 1986): 1011ā29.It turns out that some equilibrium models can be converted to no-arbitrage models by including a function of time in the drift of the short rate. Here, we consider the HoāLee, HullāWhite (one- and two-factor), BlackāDermanāToy, and BlackāKarasinski models.
The HoāLee Model
Ho and Lee proposed the first no-arbitrage model of the term structure in a paper in 1986.
1 They presented the model in the form of a binomial tree of bond prices with two 32.1 EXTENSIONS OF EQUILIBRIUM MODELS
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 732 30/04/2021 17:50
No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 733
parameters: the short-rate standard deviation and the market price of risk of the short
rate. It has since been shown that the continuous-time limit of the model in the
traditional risk-neutral world is
dr=u1t2 dt+s dz (32.1)
where s, the instantaneous standard deviation of the short rate, is constant and u1t2 is a
function of time chosen to ensure that the model fits the initial term structure. The
variable u1t2 defines the average direction that r moves at time t. This is independent of
the level of r. The market price of risk, which determines behavior in the real world, is irrelevant when the model is used to price interest rate derivatives.
Technical Note 31 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes shows that
u1t2=Ft10, t2+s2t (32.2)
where F10, t2 is the instantaneous forward rate for a maturity t as seen at time zero and
the subscript t denotes a partial derivative with respect to t. As an approximation, u1t2
equals Ft10, t2. This means that the average direction that the short rate will be moving in
the future is approximately equal to the slope of the instantaneous forward curve. The HoāLee model is illustrated in Figure 32.1. Superimposed on the average movement in
the short rate is the normally distributed random outcome.
Technical Note 31 also shows that
P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-r1t21T-t2 (32.3)
where
ln A1t, T2=ln P10, T2
P10, t2+1T-t2F10, t2-1
2 s2t1T-t22
From Section 4.8, F10, t2=-0 ln P10, t2>0 t. The zero-coupon bond prices, P10, t2, are Figure 32.1 The HoāLee model.
r
r
rrShort
rate
TimeInitial forward cur ve
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734 CHAPTER 32
No-Arbitrage Short Rate Models
- The HoāLee model approximates the future movement of the short rate based on the slope of the instantaneous forward curve.
- The HullāWhite model extends the Vasicek model by incorporating a time-dependent reversion level to ensure an exact fit to the initial term structure.
- In the HullāWhite framework, the short rate reverts toward the initial forward curve at a constant rate, maintaining analytic tractability for bond pricing.
- The BlackāDermanāToy model offers an alternative approach by utilizing a binomial tree to represent a lognormal short-rate process.
This means that the average direction that the short rate will be moving in the future is approximately equal to the slope of the instantaneous forward curve.
where F10, t2 is the instantaneous forward rate for a maturity t as seen at time zero and
the subscript t denotes a partial derivative with respect to t. As an approximation, u1t2
equals Ft10, t2. This means that the average direction that the short rate will be moving in
the future is approximately equal to the slope of the instantaneous forward curve. The HoāLee model is illustrated in Figure 32.1. Superimposed on the average movement in
the short rate is the normally distributed random outcome.
Technical Note 31 also shows that
P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-r1t21T-t2 (32.3)
where
ln A1t, T2=ln P10, T2
P10, t2+1T-t2F10, t2-1
2 s2t1T-t22
From Section 4.8, F10, t2=-0 ln P10, t2>0 t. The zero-coupon bond prices, P10, t2, are Figure 32.1 The HoāLee model.
r
r
rrShort
rate
TimeInitial forward cur ve
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 733 30/04/2021 17:50
734 CHAPTER 32
known for all t from todayās term structure of interest rates. Equation (32.3) therefore
gives the price of a zero-coupon bond at a future time t in terms of the short rate at
time t and the prices of bonds today.
The HullāWhite One-Factor Model
In a paper published in 1990, Hull and White explored extensions of the Vasicek model
that provide an exact fit to the initial term structure.2 One version of the extended
Vasicek model that they consider is
dr=3u1t2-ar4 dt+s dz (32.4)
or
dr=acu1t2
a-rddt+s dz
where a and s are constants. This is known as the HullāWhite model. It can be
characterized as the HoāLee model with mean reversion at rate a. Alternatively, it
can be characterized as the Vasicek model with a time-dependent reversion level. At
time t, the short rate reverts to u1t2>a at rate a . The HoāLee model is a particular case of
the HullāWhite model with a=0.
The model has the same amount of analytic tractability as HoāLee. Technical Note 31
shows that
u1t2=Ft10, t2+aF10, t2+s2
2a11-e-2at2 (32.5)
2 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āPricing Interest Rate Derivative Securities,ā Review of Financial Studies, 3,
4 (1990): 573ā92.Figure 32.2 The HullāWhite model.
r
r
rrShort
rate
TimeInitial forward cur ve
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No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 735
The last term in this equation is usually fairly small. If we ignore it, the equation implies
that the drift of the process for r at time t is Ft10, t2+a3F10, t2-r4. This shows that, on
average, r follows the slope of the initial instantaneous forward rate curve. When it
deviates from that curve, it reverts back to it at rate a. The model is illustrated in
Figure 32.2.
Technical Note 31 shows that bond prices at time t in the HullāWhite model are
given by
P1t, T2=A1t, T2e-B1t, T2r1t2 (32.6)
where
B1t, T2=1-e-a1T-t2
a (32.7)
and
ln A1t, T2=lnP10, T2
P10, t2+B1t, T2F10, t2-1
4a3s21e-aT-e-at221e2at-12 (32.8)
As we show in the next section, European bond options can be valued analytically
using the HoāLee and HullāWhite models. A method for representing the models in the
form of a trinomial tree is given later in this chapter. This is useful when American options and other derivatives that cannot be valued analytically are considered.
The BlackāDermanāToy Model
In 1990, Black, Derman, and Toy proposed a binomial-tree model for a lognormal
short-rate process.3 Their procedure for building the binomial tree is explained in
Technical Note 23 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes. It can be
shown that the stochastic process corresponding to the model is
d ln r=3u1t2-a1t2 ln r4 dt+s1t2 dz
with
a1t2=-s/uni20321t2
s1t2
Lognormal Short-Rate Models
- The BlackāDermanāToy (BDT) model provides a lognormal short-rate process that prevents interest rates from becoming negative.
- A significant limitation of the BDT model is the forced mathematical relationship between the volatility parameter and the mean reversion rate.
- The BlackāKarasinski model improves upon BDT by allowing the reversion rate and volatility to be determined independently of one another.
- While these lognormal models lack analytic tractability, they can be implemented using trinomial trees to value American options and other complex derivatives.
- The HullāWhite two-factor model offers a more sophisticated alternative by providing a richer pattern of term structure movements and volatilities.
The reversion rate is positive only if the volatility of the short rate is a decreasing function of time.
As we show in the next section, European bond options can be valued analytically
using the HoāLee and HullāWhite models. A method for representing the models in the
form of a trinomial tree is given later in this chapter. This is useful when American options and other derivatives that cannot be valued analytically are considered.
The BlackāDermanāToy Model
In 1990, Black, Derman, and Toy proposed a binomial-tree model for a lognormal
short-rate process.3 Their procedure for building the binomial tree is explained in
Technical Note 23 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes. It can be
shown that the stochastic process corresponding to the model is
d ln r=3u1t2-a1t2 ln r4 dt+s1t2 dz
with
a1t2=-s/uni20321t2
s1t2
where s/uni20321t2 is the derivative of s with respect to t. This model has the property that
the interest rate cannot become negative. The Wiener process dz can cause ln(r ) to be
negative, but r itself is always positive. One disadvan tage of the model is that there
are no analytic properties. A more serious disadvantage is that the way the tree is con-structed imposes a relationship between the volatility parameter
s1t2 and the reversion
rate parameter a(t). The reversion rate is positive only if the volatility of the short rate is a decreasing function of time.
In practice, the most useful version of the model is when
s1t2 is constant. The
parameter a is then zero, so that there is no mean reversion and the model reduces to
d ln r=u1t2 dt+s dz
This can be characterized as a lognormal version of the HoāLee model.
3 See F. Black, E. Derman, and W. Toy, āA One-Factor Model of Interest Rates and Its Application to
Treasury Bond Prices,ā Financial Analysts Journal, January/February (1990): 33ā39.
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736 CHAPTER 32
The BlackāKarasinski Model
In 1991, Black and Karasinski developed an extension of the BlackāDermanāToy
model where the reversion rate and volatility are determined independently of each
other.4 The most general version of the model is
d ln r=3u1t2-a1t2 ln r4 dt+s1t2 dz
The model is the same as BlackāDermanāToy model except that there is no relation between a(t) and
s1t2. In practice, a (t) and s1t2 are often assumed to be constant, so that
the model becomes
d ln r=3u1t2-a ln r4 dt+s dz (32.9)
As in the case of all the models we are considering, the u1t2 function is determined to
provide an exact fit to the initial term structure of interest rates. The model has no
analytic tractability, but later in this chapter we will describe a convenient way of
simultaneously determining u1t2 and representing the process for r in the form of a
trinomial tree.
The HullāWhite Two-Factor Model
In Section 31.4, we presented a two-factor equilibrium model which is an extension of
Vasicekās model. Hull and White show how this model can be converted into a no- arbitrage model by adding
u1t2 in the drift of r.5
This model provides a richer pattern of term structure movements and a richer
pattern of volatilities than one-factor models of r. For more information on the
analytical properties of the model and the way a tree can be constructed for it, see Technical Note 14 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
4 See F. Black and P. Karasinski, āBond and Option Pricing When Short Rates are Lognormal,ā Financial
Analysts Journal, July/August (1991): 52ā59.
5 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āNumerical Procedures for Implementing Term Structure Models II: Two-
Factor Models,ā Journal of Derivatives, 2, 2 (Winter 1994): 37ā48.Some of the models just presented allow options on zero-coupon bonds to be valued analytically. For the Vasicek, HoāLee, and HullāWhite one-factor models, the price at time zero of a call option that matures at time T on a zero-coupon bond maturing at
time s is
LP10, s2N1h2-KP10, T2N1h-sP2 (32.10)
where L is the principal of the bond, K is its strike price, and
h=1
sP ln LP10, s2
P10, T2K+sP
2
Valuing Bond and Swap Options
- One-factor models like Vasicek, HoāLee, and HullāWhite allow for the analytical valuation of options on zero-coupon bonds using formulas similar to Black's model.
- Interest rate caps and floors can be valued as portfolios of these zero-coupon bond options, simplifying complex derivative pricing.
- In one-factor models, a European option on a coupon-bearing bond can be decomposed into a sum of options on individual zero-coupon bonds.
- The volatility structure of forward rates differs by model, with HoāLee showing constant volatility while the HullāWhite model exhibits a declining function due to mean reversion.
In a one-factor model of r, all zero-coupon bonds move up in price when r decreases and all zero-coupon bonds move down in price when r increases.
This model provides a richer pattern of term structure movements and a richer
pattern of volatilities than one-factor models of r. For more information on the
analytical properties of the model and the way a tree can be constructed for it, see Technical Note 14 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
4 See F. Black and P. Karasinski, āBond and Option Pricing When Short Rates are Lognormal,ā Financial
Analysts Journal, July/August (1991): 52ā59.
5 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āNumerical Procedures for Implementing Term Structure Models II: Two-
Factor Models,ā Journal of Derivatives, 2, 2 (Winter 1994): 37ā48.Some of the models just presented allow options on zero-coupon bonds to be valued analytically. For the Vasicek, HoāLee, and HullāWhite one-factor models, the price at time zero of a call option that matures at time T on a zero-coupon bond maturing at
time s is
LP10, s2N1h2-KP10, T2N1h-sP2 (32.10)
where L is the principal of the bond, K is its strike price, and
h=1
sP ln LP10, s2
P10, T2K+sP
2
The price of a put option on the bond is
KP10, T2N1-h+sP2-LP10, s2N1-h232.2 OPTIONS ON BONDS
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No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 737
Technical Note 31 shows that, in the case of the Vasicek and HullāWhite models,
sP=s
a31-e-a1s-T24B1-e-2aT
2a
and, in the case of the HoāLee model,
sP=s1s-T22T
Equation (32.10) is essentially the same as Blackās model for pricing bond options in
Section 29.1 with the forward bond price volatility equaling sP>1T. As explained in
Section 29.2, an interest rate cap or floor can be expressed as a portfolio of options on
zero-coupon bonds. It can, therefore, be valued analytically using the equations just presented.
There are also formulas for valuing options on zero-coupon bonds in the Cox,
Ingersoll, and Ross model, which we presented in Section 31. 2. These involve integrals
of the noncentral chi-square distribution.
Options on Coupon-Bearing Bonds
In a one-factor model of r, all zero-coupon bonds move up in price when r decreases
and all zero-coupon bonds move down in price when r increases. As a result, a one-
factor model allows a European option on a coupon-bearing bond to be expressed as the sum of European options on zero-coupon bonds. The procedure is as follows:
1. Calculate r
*, the critical value of r for which the price of the coupon-bearing bond
equals the strike price of the option on the bond at the option maturity T.
2. Calculate prices of European options with maturity T on the zero-coupon bonds
that comprise the coupon-bearing bond. The strike prices of the options equal the values the zero-coupon bonds will have at time T when r = r
*.
3. Set the price of the European option on the coupon-bearing bond equal to the
sum of the prices on the options on zero-coupon bonds calculated in Step 2.
This allows options on coupon-bearing bonds to be valued for the Vasicek, Cox,
Ingersoll, and Ross, HoāLee, and HullāWhite models. As explained in Business Snap-
shot 29.2, a European swap option can be viewed as an option on a coupon-bearing bond. It can, therefore, be valued using this procedure. For more details on the procedure and a numerical example, see Technical Note 15 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
The models we have looked at give rise to different volatility environments. Figure 32.3 shows patterns for the volatility of the 3-month forward rate as a function of maturity for
the HoāLee, HullāWhite one-factor, and HullāWhite two-factor models. The term structure of interest rates is assumed to be flat.
For HoāLee the volatility of the 3-month forward rate is the same for all maturities.
In the one-factor HullāWhite model the effect of mean reversion is to cause the 32.3 VOLATILITY STRUCTURES
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738 CHAPTER 32
volatility of the 3-month forward rate to be a declining function of maturity. In the
Interest Rate Volatility and Trees
- The HoāLee, HullāWhite one-factor, and HullāWhite two-factor models produce distinct volatility structures for forward rates.
- The HullāWhite two-factor model is unique in its ability to produce a 'humped' volatility structure, which aligns with empirical market evidence.
- Interest rate trees differ from stock price trees because the discount rate varies from node to node based on the short rate.
- Trinomial trees are preferred over binomial trees for interest rates because they offer an extra degree of freedom to model mean reversion.
- The valuation of interest rate derivatives on a tree utilizes a rollback procedure where payoffs are discounted using the specific rate at each node.
In an interest rate tree, the discount rate depends on r and varies from node to node.
shot 29.2, a European swap option can be viewed as an option on a coupon-bearing bond. It can, therefore, be valued using this procedure. For more details on the procedure and a numerical example, see Technical Note 15 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
The models we have looked at give rise to different volatility environments. Figure 32.3 shows patterns for the volatility of the 3-month forward rate as a function of maturity for
the HoāLee, HullāWhite one-factor, and HullāWhite two-factor models. The term structure of interest rates is assumed to be flat.
For HoāLee the volatility of the 3-month forward rate is the same for all maturities.
In the one-factor HullāWhite model the effect of mean reversion is to cause the 32.3 VOLATILITY STRUCTURES
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 737 30/04/2021 17:50
738 CHAPTER 32
volatility of the 3-month forward rate to be a declining function of maturity. In the
HullāWhite two-factor model when parameters are chosen appropriately, the volatility
of the 3-month forward rate has a āhumpedā look. The latter is consistent with
empirical evidence and implied cap volatilities discussed in Section 29.2.Figure 32.3 Volatility of 3-month forward rate as a function of maturity for (a) the
HoāLee model, (b) the HullāWhite one-factor model, and (c) the HullāWhite two-factor model (when parameters are chosen appropriately).
Volatility Volatility Volatility
Maturity Maturity Maturity
(a) (b) (c)
An interest rate tree is a discrete-time representation of the stochastic process for the short rate in much the same way as a stock price tree is a discrete-time representation of the process followed by a stock price. If the time step on the tree is
āt, the rates on the
tree are the continuously compounded āt-period rates. The usual assumption when a
tree is constructed is that the āt-period rate, R, follows the same stochastic process as
the instantaneous rate, r, in the corresponding continuous-time model. The main
difference between interest rate trees and stock price trees is in the way that discounting
is done. In a stock price tree, the discount rate is usually assumed to be the same at
each node or a function of time. In an interest rate tree, the discount rate depends on r and varies from node to node.
It often proves to be convenient to use a trinomial rather than a binomial tree for
interest rates. The main advantage of a trinomial tree is that it provides an extra degree of freedom, making it easier for the tree to represent features of the interest rate process
such as mean reversion. As mentioned in Section 21. 8, using a trinomial tree is
equivalent to using the explicit finite difference method.
Illustration of Use of Trinomial Trees
To illustrate how trinomial interest rate trees are used to value derivatives, consider the simple example shown in Figure 32.4. This is a two-step tree with each time step equal
to 1 year in length so that
āt=1 year. Assume that the up, middle, and down
probabilities are 0.25, 0.50, and 0.25, respectively, at each node. The assumed āt-period
rate is shown as the upper number at each node.632.4 INTEREST RATE TREES
6 We explain later how the probabilities and rates on an interest rate tree are determined.
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No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 739
The tree is used to value a derivative that provides a payoff at the end of the second
time step of
max31001R-0.11), 04
where R is the āt-period rate. The calculated value of this derivative is the lower
number at each node. At the final nodes, the value of the derivative equals the payoff.
For example, at node E, the value is 100*10.14-0.112=3. At earlier nodes, the value
of the derivative is calculated using the rollback procedure explained in Chapters 13 and 21. At node B, the 1 -year interest rate is 12%. This is used for discounting to obtain the value of the derivative at node B from its values at nodes E, F, and G as
Trinomial Interest Rate Trees
- Trinomial trees utilize a rollback procedure to calculate the value of financial derivatives by discounting payoffs from future nodes back to the initial node.
- Standard branching patterns follow an 'up/straight/down' movement, but nonstandard branching is employed to handle mean reversion at extreme interest rate levels.
- The Hull-White model construction involves a two-stage process, beginning with a symmetrical tree for a variable that is initially zero.
- Specific branching adjustments, such as 'up two/up one/straight', are strategically used when interest rates are very low to ensure the model remains robust.
- The spacing between interest rate levels on the tree is mathematically determined by the volatility and the square root of the time step.
This proves useful for incorporating mean reversion when interest rates are very low.
where R is the āt-period rate. The calculated value of this derivative is the lower
number at each node. At the final nodes, the value of the derivative equals the payoff.
For example, at node E, the value is 100*10.14-0.112=3. At earlier nodes, the value
of the derivative is calculated using the rollback procedure explained in Chapters 13 and 21. At node B, the 1 -year interest rate is 12%. This is used for discounting to obtain the value of the derivative at node B from its values at nodes E, F, and G as
30.25*3+0.5*1+0.25*04e-0.12*1=1.11
At node C, the 1 -year interest rate is 10%. This is used for discounting to obtain the
value of the derivative at node C as
10.25*1+0.5*0+0.25*02e-0.1*1=0.23
At the initial node, A, the interest rate is also 10% and the value of the derivative is
10.25*1.11+0.5*0.23+0.25*02e-0.1*1=0.35
Nonstandard Branching
It sometimes proves convenient to modify the standard trinomial branching pattern that is used at all nodes in Figure 32.4. Three alternative branching possibilities are shown in Figure 32.5. The usual branching is shown in Figure 32.5a. It is āup one/straight along/
down oneā. One alternative to this is āup two/up one/straight alongā, as shown in Figure 32.4 Example of the use of trinomial interest rate trees. Upper number at each
node is rate; lower number is value of instrument.
10%
0.3512%
ABE
F
G
H
IC
D14%
12%
10%
8%
6%10%1.11
0.23
0013
0
08%
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 739 30/04/2021 17:50
740 CHAPTER 32
Figure 32.5b. This proves useful for incorporating mean reversion when interest rates are
very low. A third branching pattern shown in Figure 32.5c is āstraight along/down one/
down twoā. This is useful for incorporating mean reversion when interest rates are very high. The use of different branching patterns is illustrated in the following section.Figure 32.5 Alternative branching methods in a trinomial tree.
(a) (b) (c)
Hull and White have proposed a robust two-stage procedure for constructing trinomial trees to represent a wide range of one-factor models.
7 This section first explains how the
procedure can be used for the HullāWhite model in equation (32.4) and then shows how it can be extended to represent other models, such as BlackāKarasinski.
First Stage
The HullāWhite model for the instantaneous short rate r is
dr=3u1t2-ar4 dt+s dz
We suppose that the time step on the tree is constant and equal to āt.8
Assume that the āt rate, R, follows the same process as r.
dR=3u1t2-aR4 dt+s dz
Clearly, this is reasonable in the limit as āt tends to zero. The first stage in building a
tree for this model is to construct a tree for a variable R* that is initially zero and
follows the process
dR*=-aR* dt+s dz
This process is symmetrical about R*=0. The variable R*1t+āt2-R*1t2 is normally
distributed. If terms of higher order than āt are ignored, the expected value of
R*1t+āt2-R*1t2 is -aR*1t2āt and the variance of R*1t+āt2-R*1t2 is s2 āt.32.5 A GENERAL TREE-BUILDING PROCEDURE
7 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āNumerical Procedures for Implementing Term Structure Models I: Single-
Factor Models,āJournal of Derivatives, 2, 1 (1994): 7ā16; and J. C. Hull and A. White, āUsing HullāWhite
Interest Rate Trees,ā Journal of Derivatives, (Spring 1996): 26ā36.
8 See Technical Note 16 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a discussion of how
nonconstant time steps can be used.
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No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 741
Figure 32.6 Tree for R* in HullāWhite model (first stage).
AB
C
D H
IGFE
Node: A B C D E F G H I
R*1% 20.000 1.732 0.000 -1.7323.464 1.732 0.000 -1.732-3.464
pu 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
The spacing between interest rates on the tree, āR, is set as
āR=s13āt
Hull-White Short Rate Trees
- The first stage of the Hull-White model involves constructing a trinomial tree for the variable R* to represent interest rate movements.
- The spacing between interest rates on the tree is specifically set to the product of the volatility and the square root of three times the time interval to minimize errors.
- To ensure all branching probabilities remain positive, the model switches between three different branching geometries based on the level of the interest rate.
- Branching probabilities are calculated by solving a system of three equations that match the expected change and variance of the short rate over time.
- The geometry of the tree is determined by specific threshold values for the rate index, ensuring the mean-reverting nature of the model is captured without negative probabilities.
The branching method used at a node must lead to the probabilities on all three branches being positive.
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No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 741
Figure 32.6 Tree for R* in HullāWhite model (first stage).
AB
C
D H
IGFE
Node: A B C D E F G H I
R*1% 20.000 1.732 0.000 -1.7323.464 1.732 0.000 -1.732-3.464
pu 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
The spacing between interest rates on the tree, āR, is set as
āR=s13āt
This proves to be a good choice of āR from the viewpoint of error minimization.
The objective of the first stage of the procedure is to build a tree similar to that shown
in Figure 32.6 for R*. To do this, it is first necessary to resolve which of the three
branching methods shown in Figure 32.5 will apply at each node. This will determine
the overall geometry of the tree. Once this is done, the branching probabilities must also be calculated.
Define (i, j) as the node where
t=iāt and R*=jāR. (The variable i is a positive
integer and j is a positive or negative integer.) The branching method used at a node must lead to the probabilities on all three branches being positive. Most of the time, the branching shown in Figure 32.5a is appropriate. When
a70, it is necessary to switch
from the branching in Figure 32.5a to the branching in Figure 32.5c for a sufficiently large j. Similarly, it is necessary to switch from the branching in Figure 32.5a to the
branching in Figure 32.5b when j is sufficiently negative. Define
jmax as the value of j
where we switch from the Figure 32.5a branching to the Figure 32.5c branching and jmin
as the value of j where we switch from the Figure 32.5a branching to the Figure 32.5b
branching. Hull and White show that probabilities are always positive if jmax is set equal
to the smallest integer greater than 0.184>1a āt2 and jmin is set equal to -jmax.9 Define
9 The probabilities are positive for any value of jmax between 0.184>1a āt2 and 0.816>1a āt2 and for any value
of jmin between -0.184>1a āt2 and -0.816>1a āt2. Changing the branching at the first possible node proves to
be computationally most efficient.
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 741 30/04/2021 17:50
742 CHAPTER 32
pu, pm, and pd as the probabilities of the highest, middle, and lowest branches emanating
from the node. The probabilities are chosen to match the expected change and variance
of the change in R* over the next time interval āt. The probabilities must also sum to
unity. This leads to three equations in the three probabilities.
As already mentioned, the mean change in R* in time āt is -aR*āt and the variance
of the change is s2āt. At node 1i, j2, R*=jāR. If the branching has the form shown
in Figure 32.5a, the pu, pm, and pd at node (i, j) must satisfy the following three
equations to match the mean and standard deviation:
puāR-pdāR=-ajāRāt
puāR2+pdāR2=s2āt+a2j2āR2āt2
pu+pm+pd=1
Using āR=s23āt, the solution to these equations is
pu=1
6+1
21a2j2āt2-ajāt2
pm=2
3-a2j2āt2
pd=1
6+1
21a2j2āt2+ajāt2
Similarly, if the branching has the form shown in Figure 32.5b, the probabilities are
pu=1
6+1
21a2j2āt2+aj āt2
pm=-1
3-a2j2āt2-2aj āt
pd=7
6+1
21a2j2āt2+3aj āt2
Finally, if the branching has the form shown in Figure 32.5c, the probabilities are
pu=7
6+1
21a2j2āt2-3aj āt2
pm=-1
3-a2j2āt2+2aj āt
pd=1
6+1
21a2j2āt2-aj āt2
To illustrate the first stage of the tree construction, suppose that s=0.01, a=0.1,
and āt=1 year. In this case, āR=0.0113=0.0173, jmax is set equal to the smallest
integer greater than 0.184> 0.1, and jmin=-jmax. This means that jmax=2 and
Hull-White Tree Construction Stages
- The first stage of tree construction involves calculating branching probabilities for a preliminary interest rate variable, R*, based on specific volatility and mean reversion parameters.
- The resulting R* tree is symmetrical, where probabilities at specific nodes depend only on their vertical displacement from the center.
- In the second stage, the R* tree is converted into a tree for the actual short rate, R, by displacing nodes to match the initial term structure of interest rates.
- An iterative forward induction procedure is used to determine the displacement values, ensuring the tree correctly prices zero-coupon bonds at every maturity.
- The process utilizes a security value, Q, representing the present value of a payoff at a specific node, to facilitate the recursive calculation of the displacement terms.
This is accomplished by displacing the nodes on the R*-tree so that the initial term structure of interest rates is exactly matched.
Similarly, if the branching has the form shown in Figure 32.5b, the probabilities are
pu=1
6+1
21a2j2āt2+aj āt2
pm=-1
3-a2j2āt2-2aj āt
pd=7
6+1
21a2j2āt2+3aj āt2
Finally, if the branching has the form shown in Figure 32.5c, the probabilities are
pu=7
6+1
21a2j2āt2-3aj āt2
pm=-1
3-a2j2āt2+2aj āt
pd=1
6+1
21a2j2āt2-aj āt2
To illustrate the first stage of the tree construction, suppose that s=0.01, a=0.1,
and āt=1 year. In this case, āR=0.0113=0.0173, jmax is set equal to the smallest
integer greater than 0.184> 0.1, and jmin=-jmax. This means that jmax=2 and
jmin=-2 and the tree is as shown in Figure 32.6. The probabilities on the branches
emanating from each node are shown below the tree and are calculated using the
equations above for pu, pm, and pd.
Note that the probabilities at each node in Figure 32.6 depend only on j. For
example, the probabilities at node B are the same as the probabilities at node F.
Furthermore, the tree is symmetrical. The probabilities at node D are the mirror image
of the probabilities at node B.
Second Stage
The second stage in the tree construction is to convert the tree for R* into a tree for R .
This is accomplished by displacing the nodes on the R*-tree so that the initial term
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No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 743
structure of interest rates is exactly matched. Define
a1t2=R1t2-R*1t2
The a1t2ās that apply as the time step āt on the tree becomes infinitesimally small can be
calculated analytically from equation (32.5).10 However, we want a tree with a finite āt to
match the term structure exactly, so we use an iterative procedure to determine the aās.
Define ai as a1i āt2, the value of R at time i āt on the R-tree minus the corresponding
value of R* at time i āt on the R*-tree. Define Qi, j as the present value of a security that
pays off $1 if node (i, j) is reached and zero otherwise. The ai and Qi,j can be calculated
using forward induction in such a way that the initial term structure is matched exactly.
Illustration of Second Stage
Suppose that the continuously compounded zero rates in the example in Figure 32.6 are
as shown in Table 32.1. The value of Q0,0 is 1.0. The value of a0 is chosen to give the
right price for a zero-coupon bond maturing at time āt. That is, a0 is set equal to the
initial āt-period interest rate. Because āt=1 in this example, a0=0.03824. This
defines the position of the initial node on the R-tree in Figure 32.7. The next step is
to calculate the values of Q1,1, Q1,0, and Q1,-1. There is a probability of 0.1667 that the
(1, 1) node is reached and the discount rate for the first time step is 3.82%. The value of
Q1,1 is therefore 0.1667e-0.03824=0.1604. Similarly, Q1,0=0.6417 and Q1, -1=0.1604.
10 To estimate the instantaneous a1t2 analytically, we note that
dR=3u1t2-aR4 dt+s dz and dR*=-aR*dt+s dz
so that da=3u1t2-aa1t24 dt. Using equation (32.7), it can be seen that the solution to this is
a1t2=F10, t2+s2
2a2 11-e-at22.Maturity Rate (%)
0.5 3.430
1.0 3.824
1.5 4.183
2.0 4.512
2.5 4.812
3.0 5.086Table 32.1 Zero rates for example in
Figures 32.6 and 32.7.Once Q1,1, Q1,0, and Q1,-1 have been calculated, a1 can be determined. It is chosen to
give the right price for a zero-coupon bond maturing at time 2āt. Because āR=0.01732
and āt=1, the price of this bond as seen at node B is e-1a1+0.017322. Similarly, the price as
seen at node C is e-a1 and the price as seen at node D is e-1a1-0.017322. The price as seen at
the initial node A is therefore
Q1,1e-1a1+0.017322+Q1,0e-a1+Q1,-1e-1a1-0.017322 (32.11)
From the initial term structure, this bond price should be e-0.04512*2=0.9137.
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 743 30/04/2021 17:50
744 CHAPTER 32
Figure 32.7 Tree for R in HullāWhite model (the second stage).
AB
C
DE
F
G
H
I
Node: A B C D E F G H I
R1% 2 3.824 6.937 5.205 3.473 9.716 7.984 6.252 4.520 2.788
Calibrating the HullāWhite Tree
- The text details the iterative process of determining the parameter alpha to ensure the interest rate tree correctly prices zero-coupon bonds.
- State prices, denoted as Q, are calculated for each node to represent the value of a security that pays one dollar if a specific node is reached.
- The model utilizes a forward-induction approach where each time step's parameters are derived from the previously established term structure and node probabilities.
- This methodology is extensible to more general models where the short rate is a monotonic function, allowing for a perfect fit to any initial term structure.
The variable Q2,1 is 0.6566e-0.06937 times the present value of $1 received at node B plus 0.1667e-0.05205 times the present value of $1 received at node C.
Figures 32.6 and 32.7.Once Q1,1, Q1,0, and Q1,-1 have been calculated, a1 can be determined. It is chosen to
give the right price for a zero-coupon bond maturing at time 2āt. Because āR=0.01732
and āt=1, the price of this bond as seen at node B is e-1a1+0.017322. Similarly, the price as
seen at node C is e-a1 and the price as seen at node D is e-1a1-0.017322. The price as seen at
the initial node A is therefore
Q1,1e-1a1+0.017322+Q1,0e-a1+Q1,-1e-1a1-0.017322 (32.11)
From the initial term structure, this bond price should be e-0.04512*2=0.9137.
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 743 30/04/2021 17:50
744 CHAPTER 32
Figure 32.7 Tree for R in HullāWhite model (the second stage).
AB
C
DE
F
G
H
I
Node: A B C D E F G H I
R1% 2 3.824 6.937 5.205 3.473 9.716 7.984 6.252 4.520 2.788
pu 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
Substituting for the Qās in equation (32.11),
0.1604e-1a1+0.017322+0.6417e-a1+0.1604e-1a1-0.017322=0.9137
or
e-a110.1604e-0.01732+0.6417+0.1604e0.017322=0.9137
or
a1=lnc0.1604e-0.01732+0.6417+0.1604e0.01732
0.9137d=0.05205
This means that the central node at time āt in the tree for R corresponds to an interest
rate of 5.205% (see Figure 32.7).
The next step is to calculate Q2,2, Q2,1, Q2,0, Q2,-1, and Q2,-2. The calculations can
be shortened by using previously determined Q values. Consider Q2,1 as an example.
This is the value of a security that pays off $1 if node F is reached and zero otherwise.
Node F can be reached only from nodes B and C. The interest rates at these nodes are 6.937% and 5.205%, respectively. The probabilities associated with the BāF and CāF
branches are 0.6566 and 0.1667. The value at node B of a security that pays $1 at
node F is therefore
0.6566e-0.06937. The value at node C is 0.1667e-0.05205. The variable
Q2,1 is 0.6566e-0.06937 times the present value of $1 received at node B plus
0.1667e-0.05205 times the present value of $1 received at node C; that is,
Q2,1=0.6566e-0.06937*0.1604+0.1667e-0.05205*0.6417=0.1998
Similarly, Q2,2=0.0182, Q2,0=0.4736, Q2,-1=0.2033, and Q2,-2=0.0189.
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 744 30/04/2021 17:50
No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 745
The next step in producing the R-tree in Figure 32.7 is to calculate a2. After that, the
Q3,jās can then be computed. The variable a3 can then be calculated, and so on.
Formulas for Aās and Q ās
To express the approach more formally, suppose that the Qi, j have been determined for
iā¦m1mĆ02. The next step is to determine am so that the tree correctly prices a zero-
coupon bond maturing at 1m+12āt. The interest rate at node (m, j) is am+jāR, so
that the price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time 1m+12āt is given by
Pm+1=anm
j=-nmQm, j exp3-1am+jāR2āt4 (32.12)
where nm is the number of nodes on each side of the central node at time m āt. The
solution to this equation is
am=lnanm
j=-nmQm, je-jāRāt-ln Pm+1
āt
Once am has been determined, the Qi, j for i=m+1 can be calculated using
Qm+1, j=a
kQm,kq1k, j2 exp3-1am+k āR2 āt4
where q(k, j) is the probability of moving from node (m, k) to node 1m+1, j2 and the
summation is taken over all values of k for which this is nonzero.
Extension to Other Models
The procedure that has just been outlined can be extended to more general models of
the form
d f1r 2=3u1t2-a f1r24 dt+s dz (32.13)
where f is a monotonic function of r. This family of models has the property that they
can fit any term structure.11
As before, we assume that the āt period rate, R, follows the same process as r:
d f1R 2=3u1t2-af1R 24 dt+s dz
We start by setting x=f1R 2, so that
dx=3u1t2-ax4 dt+s dz
Generalizing No-Arbitrage Interest Models
- The text outlines a generalized procedure for building interest rate trees using a monotonic function to fit any term structure.
- A two-stage process is employed where a tree is first built for a zero-mean variable and then displaced to match the initial term structure.
- The Black-Karasinski model is highlighted as a specific application where the function is logarithmic, preventing rates from becoming negative.
- While the Hull-White model is analytically tractable, its primary historical drawback was the possibility of generating negative interest rates.
- Market shifts in recent years have reduced the aversion to negative rates, making models like Ho-Lee and Hull-White more acceptable in modern finance.
This aversion to models that give rise to negative rates has changed somewhat in recent years because, as mentioned in earlier chapters, negative interest rates have become a feature of financial markets in some countries.
where q(k, j) is the probability of moving from node (m, k) to node 1m+1, j2 and the
summation is taken over all values of k for which this is nonzero.
Extension to Other Models
The procedure that has just been outlined can be extended to more general models of
the form
d f1r 2=3u1t2-a f1r24 dt+s dz (32.13)
where f is a monotonic function of r. This family of models has the property that they
can fit any term structure.11
As before, we assume that the āt period rate, R, follows the same process as r:
d f1R 2=3u1t2-af1R 24 dt+s dz
We start by setting x=f1R 2, so that
dx=3u1t2-ax4 dt+s dz
The first stage is to build a tree for a variable x* that follows the same process as x
except that u1t2=0 and the initial value is zero. The procedure here is identical to the
procedure already outlined for building a tree such as that in Figure 32.6.
11 Not all no-arbitrage models have this property. For example, the extended-CIR model, considered by Cox,
Ingersoll, and Ross (1985) and Hull and White (1990), which has the form
dr=3u1t2-ar4 dt+s1r dz
cannot fit yield curves where the forward rate declines sharply. This is because the process is not well defined
when u1t2 is negative.
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 745 30/04/2021 17:50
746 CHAPTER 32
As in Figure 3 2.7, the nodes at time i āt are then displaced by an amount ai to provide
an exact fit to the initial term structure. The equations for determining ai and Qi, j
inductively are slightly different from those for the f1R 2=R case. The value of Q at the
first node, Q0,0, is set equal to 1. Suppose that the Qi, j have been determined for iā¦m
1mĆ02. The next step is to determine am so that the tree correctly prices an 1m+12āt
zero-coupon bond. Define g as the inverse function of f so that the āt-period interest
rate at the jth node at time m āt is
g1am+j āx2
The price of a zero-coupon bond maturing at time 1m+12āt is given by
Pm+1=anm
j=-nmQm, j exp3-g1am+j āx2āt4 (32.14)
This equation can be solved using a numerical procedure such as NewtonāRaphson.
The value a0 of a when m=0, is f1R 1022.
Once am has been determined, the Qi, j for i=m+1 can be calculated using
Qm+1, j=a
kQm,kq1k, j2 exp3-g1am+k āx2āt4
where q(k, j) is the probability of moving from node (m, k) to node 1m+1, j2 and the
summation is taken over all values of k where this is nonzero.
Figure 32.8 Tree for lognormal model.
ABE
CF
DG
H
I
Node: A B C D E F G H I
x -3.373-2.875-3.181-3.487-2.430-2.736-3.042-3.349-3.655
R(%) 3.430 5.642 4.154 3.058 8.803 6.481 4.772 3.513 2.587
pu 0.1667 0.1177 0.1667 0.2277 0.8609 0.1177 0.1667 0.2277 0.0809
pm 0.6666 0.6546 0.6666 0.6546 0.0582 0.6546 0.6666 0.6546 0.0582
pd 0.1667 0.2277 0.1667 0.1177 0.0809 0.2277 0.1667 0.1177 0.8609
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 746 30/04/2021 17:51
No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 747
Figure 32.8 shows the results of applying the procedure to the BlackāKarasinski model
in equation (32.9):
d ln1r2=3u1t2-a ln1r24 dt+s dz
when a=0.22, s=0.25, āt=0.5, and the zero rates are as in Table 32.1.
Setting f(r) = r leads to the HullāWhite model in equation (32.4); setting f(r) = ln(r)
leads to the BlackāKarasinski model in equation (32.9). The main advantage of the
f1r2=r model is its analytic tractability.
Negative Rates
Traditionally the main disadvantage of Hull-White has been that it allows interest rates
to become negative. Some analysts have been reluctant to use a model where there is
any chance at all of negative rates and have therefore preferred f1r2=ln1r2 even though
it has no analytic tractability.
This aversion to models that give rise to negative rates has changed somewhat in
recent years because, as mentioned in earlier chapters, negative interest rates have become a feature of financial markets in some countries. The HoāLee and HullāWhite models are similar in spirit to the Bachelier normal model discussed in Section 29.2.
12
Hull-White and Negative Rates
- The Hull-White model's ability to allow negative interest rates was once seen as a flaw but is now considered a useful feature for modern financial markets.
- Analysts can use a 'shifted Black-Karasinski' model to allow interest rates to drop to a specific negative floor defined by a shift parameter.
- Valuing derivatives often requires modeling multiple yield curves when payoffs depend on a different curve than the risk-free OIS discounting curve.
- When using trees for the Hull-White model, analytic formulas can be integrated to calculate bond prices and European options at each node.
- It is critical to distinguish between the instantaneous short rate and the discrete-period rate when performing calculations on a binomial or trinomial tree.
Some analysts have been reluctant to use a model where there is any chance at all of negative rates and have therefore preferred f1r2=ln1r2 even though it has no analytic tractability.
Traditionally the main disadvantage of Hull-White has been that it allows interest rates
to become negative. Some analysts have been reluctant to use a model where there is
any chance at all of negative rates and have therefore preferred f1r2=ln1r2 even though
it has no analytic tractability.
This aversion to models that give rise to negative rates has changed somewhat in
recent years because, as mentioned in earlier chapters, negative interest rates have become a feature of financial markets in some countries. The HoāLee and HullāWhite models are similar in spirit to the Bachelier normal model discussed in Section 29.2.
12
They can be used to value nonstandard deals in negative interest rate environments. An alternative is to use a āshifted BlackāKarasinskiā model. In this,
r+a rather than r is
assumed to follow the process in equation (32.9), so that
d ln1r+a2=3u1t2-a ln1r+a24 dt+s dz
The short-term interest rate can then become (almost) as low as -a.
Multiple Yield Curves
The yield curve used for discounting is the risk-free zero curve obtained from the
overnight indexed swaps (OIS) market. Up to now, we have implicitly assumed that this is also the yield curve determining payoffs on the derivative so that derivatives can be valued by modeling this one yield curve. When the payoffs depend on another yield curve (e.g., the Treasury curve or a curve corresponding to risky borrowing), an analyst has to construct a model incorporating movements in both curves. One approach is to use the methods discussed in this chapter to model the risk-free (OIS) short rate and set
the spreads between the two rates at future times equal to the spreads between the
forward rates calculated from the two yield curves today. A more sophisticated
approach is to use a three-dimensional tree where two short rates are modeled.
13
Using Analytic Results in Conjunction with Trees
When a tree is constructed for the f1r2=r version of the HullāWhite model, the
analytic results in Section 32.1 can be used to provide the complete term structure
12 There is a slight difference. Suppose that the tenor of the rate being considered is t. In the Bachelier normal
model, the rate is assumed to be normal when the compounding frequency used to measure the interest rate
is t. In HoāLee and HullāWhite, the interest rate is also normal, but with continuous compounding.
13 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āMulti-Curve Modeling Using Trees,ā In: Innovations in Derivatives Markets,
edited by Kathrin Glau, Zorano Grbac, Matthias Scherer, and Rudi Zagst, Springer Proceedings in
Mathematics and Statistics, 2016. Also ssrn 2601457.
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 747 30/04/2021 17:51
748 CHAPTER 32
and European option prices at each node. It is important to recognize that the interest
rate on the tree is the āt-period rate R. It is not the instantaneous short rate r.
From equations (32.6), (32.7), and (32.8), it can be shown (see Problem 32.15) that
P1t, T2=An1t, T2e-nB1t, T2R (32.15)
where
ln An1t, T2=lnP10, T2
P10, t2-B1t, T2
B1t, t+āt2lnP10, t+āt2
P10, t2
-s2
4a11-e-2at2B1t, T23B1t, T2-B1t, t+āt24 (32.16)
and
Bn1t, T2=B1t, T2
B1t, t+āt2āt (32.17)
(In the case of the HoāLee model, we set Bn1t, T2=T-t in these equations.)
Bond prices should therefore be calculated with equation (32.15), and not with
equation (32.6).
Example 32.1
Suppose zero rates are as in Table 32.2. The rates for maturities between those
indicated are generated using linear interpolation.
Consider a 3-year 1= 3*365 days2 European put option on a zero-coupon
bond that will pay 100 in 9 years 1= 9*365 days2. Interest rates are assumed
to follow the HullāWhite 1f1r 2=r2 model. The strike price is 63, a=0.1, and
s=0.01. A 3-year tree is constructed and zero-coupon bond prices are calculated
analytically at the final nodes as just described. As shown in Table 32.3, the results from the tree are consistent with the analytic price of the option.
Maturity Days Rate (%)
Bond Option Valuation and Calibration
- The HullāWhite model is tested using a 3-year European put option on a zero-coupon bond, demonstrating consistency between tree-based results and analytic prices.
- Small errors in tree construction can significantly impact option values when the zero curve gradient changes sharply after the option's expiration.
- American bond options are valued using numerical trees, where the strike price is adjusted for accrued interest to differentiate between cash and quoted prices.
- Model calibration involves determining volatility parameters by minimizing the difference between market prices and model-generated prices of actively traded instruments.
Small errors in the construction and use of the tree are liable to have a big effect on the option values obtained.
Suppose zero rates are as in Table 32.2. The rates for maturities between those
indicated are generated using linear interpolation.
Consider a 3-year 1= 3*365 days2 European put option on a zero-coupon
bond that will pay 100 in 9 years 1= 9*365 days2. Interest rates are assumed
to follow the HullāWhite 1f1r 2=r2 model. The strike price is 63, a=0.1, and
s=0.01. A 3-year tree is constructed and zero-coupon bond prices are calculated
analytically at the final nodes as just described. As shown in Table 32.3, the results from the tree are consistent with the analytic price of the option.
Maturity Days Rate (%)
3 days 3 5.01772
1 month 31 4.98284
2 months 62 4.97234
3 months 94 4.96157
6 months 185 4.99058
1 year 367 5.09389
2 years 731 5.79733
3 years 1,096 6.30595
4 years 1,461 6.73464
5 years 1,826 6.94816
6 years 2,194 7.08807
7 years 2,558 7.27527
8 years 2,922 7.30852
9 years 3,287 7.39790
10 years 3,653 7.49015Table 32.2 Zero curve with all rates continuously compounded, actual>365.
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 748 30/04/2021 17:51
No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 749
This example provides a good test of the implementation of the model because
the gradient of the zero curve changes sharply immediately after the expiration of
the option. Small errors in the construction and use of the tree are liable to have a
big effect on the option values obtained. (See also Sample Application G of the DerivaGem Applications software.)
Tree for American Bond Options
The DerivaGem software accompanying this book implements the normal and
the lognormal model for valuing European and American bond options, caps/floors,
and European swap options. Figure 32.9 shows the tree produced by the software when it is used to value a 1.5-year American call option on a 10-year bond using four time steps and the lognormal (BlackāKarasinski) model. The parameters used in the
lognormal model are
a=5% and s=20%. The underlying bond lasts 10 years, has
a principal of 100, and pays a coupon of 5% per annum semiannually. The yield curve is flat at 5% per annum. The strike price is 105. As explained in Section 29.1 the strike price can be a cash strike price or a quoted strike price. In this case it is a quoted strike price. The bond price shown on the tree is the cash bond price. The accrued interest at
each node is shown below the tree. The cash strike price is calculated as the quoted strike price plus accrued interest. The quoted bond price is the cash bond price minus accrued interest. The payoff from the option is the cash bond price minus the cash strike price. Equivalently it is the quoted bond price minus the quoted strike price.
The tree gives the price of the option as 0.672. A much larger tree with 100 time steps
gives the price of the option as 0.703. Note that the price of the 10-year bond cannot be computed analytically when the lognormal model is assumed. It is computed numerically by rolling back through a much larger tree than that shown.Steps Tree Analytic
10 1.8468 1.8093
30 1.8172 1.8093
50 1.8057 1.8093
100 1.8128 1.8093
200 1.8090 1.8093
500 1.8091 1.8093Table 32.3 Value of a 3-year put option on a 9-year
zero-coupon bond with a strike price of 63: a=0.1
and s=0.01; zero curve as in Table 32.2.
Up to now, we have assumed that the volatility parameters a and s are known. We now
discuss how they are determined. This is known as calibrating the model.
The volatility parameters are determined from market data on actively traded
options. These will be referred to as the calibrating instruments. The first stage is to choose a āgoodness-of-fitā measure. Suppose there are n calibrating instruments. A
popular goodness-of-fit measure is
an
i=11Ui-Vi22, where Ui is the market price of the 32.6 CALIBRATION
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 749 30/04/2021 17:51
750 CHAPTER 32
Calibrating Volatility Parameters
- Calibration is the process of determining volatility parameters by matching model outputs to market data from actively traded options.
- The objective is to minimize a 'goodness-of-fit' measure, typically defined as the sum of squared differences between market prices and model prices.
- To ensure the model remains flexible, volatility parameters can be treated as step functions of time rather than fixed constants.
- A penalty function is often added to the objective function to ensure that time-dependent parameters are 'well behaved' and do not fluctuate erratically.
- The LevenbergāMarquardt procedure is a common numerical method used to solve the minimization problem during the calibration process.
A penalty function is often added to the goodness-of-fit measure so that the functions are āwell behavedā.
and s=0.01; zero curve as in Table 32.2.
Up to now, we have assumed that the volatility parameters a and s are known. We now
discuss how they are determined. This is known as calibrating the model.
The volatility parameters are determined from market data on actively traded
options. These will be referred to as the calibrating instruments. The first stage is to choose a āgoodness-of-fitā measure. Suppose there are n calibrating instruments. A
popular goodness-of-fit measure is
an
i=11Ui-Vi22, where Ui is the market price of the 32.6 CALIBRATION
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 749 30/04/2021 17:51
750 CHAPTER 32
ith calibrating instrument and Vi is the price given by the model for this instrument. The
objective of calibration is to choose the model parameters so that this goodness-of-fit
measure is minimized.
The number of volatility parameters should not be greater than the number of
calibrating instruments. If a and s are constant, there are only two volatility parameters.
The models can be extended so that a or s, or both, are functions of time. Step functions
can be used. Suppose, for example, that a is constant and s is a function of time. We
might choose times t1, t2,c, tn and assume s1t2=s0 for tā¦t1, s1t2=si for
ti6tā¦ti+1 11ā¦iā¦n-12, and s1t2=sn for t7tn. There would then be a total of
n+2 volatility parameters: a, s0, s1,c, and sn.
The minimization of the goodness-of-fit measure can be accomplished using the
LevenbergāMarquardt procedure.14 When a or s, or both, are functions of time, a Figure 32.9 Tree, produced by DerivaGem, for valuing an American bond option.
At each node :
Upper value = Cash Bond Price
Middle value = Option Price
Lower value = dt-period Rate
Shaded v alues are as a result of early ex ercise
Strike price = 105
Time step, dt = 0.3750 years, 136.88 days71.13165
0
11.3744%
79.19393 79.13643 Pu:14.0124%
0 0 Pm:66.3503%
9.2572% 9.2003% Pd:19.6374%
87.06928 6.85737 86.65577 Pu:14.8620%
00 0 Pm:66.5260%
7.5348% 7.4877% 7.4417% Pd:18.6120%
94.69 94.325889 3.96242 93.60053 Pu:15.7467%
0.058227 0.0170630 0 Pm:66.6315%
6.1362% 6.0946% 6.0565% 6.0193% Pd:17.6217%
99.51021 101.4979 100.97871 00.4532 99.92196 Pu:16.6667%
0.671933 0.471654 0.2735990 .09907 0 Pm:66.6667%
5.0000% 4.9633% 4.9297% 4.8989% 4.8687% Pd:16.6667%
107.6802 107.00041 06.3087 105.6054 Pu:17.6217%
2.16306 1.7716321 .275943 0.605443 Pm:66.6315%
4.0146% 3.9874% 3.9625% 3.9381% Pd:15.7467%
112.39221 11.5353 110.6623 Pu:18.6120%
6.142178 5.910323 5.662307 Pm:66.5260%
3.2253% 3.2051% 3.1854% Pd:14.8620%
116.1587 115.1222 Pu:19.6374%
10.53372 10.12224 Pm:66.3503%
2.5925% 2.5765% Pd:14.0124%
119.0263
14.02632
2.0840%
Node Time:
0.00000 .37500 .7500 1.1250 1.5000
Accrual:
0.00001 .87501 .2500 0.6250 0.0000
14 For a good description of this procedure, see W. H. Press, B. P. Flannery, S. A. Teukolsky, and W. T.
Vetterling, Numerical Recipes: The Art of Scientific Computing, 3rd edn. Cambridge University Press, 2007.
M32_HULL0654_11_GE_C32.indd 750 30/04/2021 17:51
No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 751
penalty function is often added to the goodness-of-fit measure so that the functions are
āwell behavedā . In the example just mentioned, where s is a step function, an appropriate
objective function is
an
i=11Ui-Vi22+an
i=1w1,i1si-si-122+an-1
i=1w2,i1si-1+si+1-2si22
Calibration and Hedging in Short-Rate Models
- Calibration involves using penalty functions to ensure that volatility and mean reversion parameters remain smooth and well-behaved during numerical optimization.
- Selecting calibrating instruments that closely match the target asset, such as specific European swap options for Bermudan-style swaps, is critical for model accuracy.
- Making model parameters time-dependent allows for a precise fit to current market prices but risks creating a nonstationary volatility structure that may not hold in the future.
- Effective hedging requires 'outside model hedging,' where traders account for yield curve movements that are technically impossible within the simplified one-factor model used for pricing.
The practice of taking account of changes that cannot happen under the model considered, as well as those that can, is known as outside model hedging and is standard practice for traders.
14 For a good description of this procedure, see W. H. Press, B. P. Flannery, S. A. Teukolsky, and W. T.
Vetterling, Numerical Recipes: The Art of Scientific Computing, 3rd edn. Cambridge University Press, 2007.
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No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 751
penalty function is often added to the goodness-of-fit measure so that the functions are
āwell behavedā . In the example just mentioned, where s is a step function, an appropriate
objective function is
an
i=11Ui-Vi22+an
i=1w1,i1si-si-122+an-1
i=1w2,i1si-1+si+1-2si22
The second term provides a penalty for large changes in s between one step and the
next. The third term provides a penalty for high curvature in s. Appropriate values for
w1,i and w2,i are based on experimentation and are chosen to provide a reasonable level
of smoothness in the s function.
The calibrating instruments chosen should be as similar as possible to the instrument
being valued. Suppose, for example, that the model is to be used to value a Bermudan-
style swap option that lasts 10 years and can be exercised on any payment date between year 5 and year 9 into a swap maturing 10 years from today. The most relevant
calibrating instruments are 5 * 5, 6 * 4, 7 * 3, 8 * 2, and 9 * 1 European swap options.
(An
n*m European swap option is an n-year option to enter into a swap lasting for
m years beyond the maturity of the option.)
The advantage of making a or s, or both, functions of time is that the models can be
fitted more precisely to the prices of instruments that trade actively in the market. The disadvantage is that the volatility structure becomes nonstationary. The volatility term structure given by the model in the future is liable to be quite different from that existing in the market today.
15
A somewhat different approach to calibration is to use all available calibrating
instruments to calculate āglobal-best-fitā a and s parameters. The parameter a is held
fixed at its best-fit value. The model can then be used in the same way as Blackā ScholesāMerton. There is a one-to-one relationship between options prices and the
s
parameter. The model can be used to calculate implied sās.16 These can be used to
assess the s most appropriate for pricing the instrument under consideration.
15 For a discussion of the implementation of a model where a and s are functions of time, see Technical
Note 16 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
16 Note that in a term structure model the implied sās are not the same as the implied volatilities calculated
from Blackās model. The procedure for computing implied sās is as follows. The Black volatilities are
converted to prices using Blackās model. An iterative procedure is then used to imply the s parameter in the
term structure model from the price.Section 29.4 outlined some general approaches to hedging a portfolio of interest rate
derivatives. These approaches can be used with the term structure models in this
chapter. The calculation of deltas, gammas, and vegas involves making small changes to either the zero curve or the volatility environment and recomputing the value of the portfolio.
Note that, although one factor is often assumed when pricing interest rate derivatives,
it is not appropriate to assume only one factor when hedging. For example, the deltas calculated should allow for many different movements in the yield curve, not just those that are possible under the model chosen. The practice of taking account of changes that 32.7 HEDGING USING A ONE-FACTOR MODEL
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752 CHAPTER 32
cannot happen under the model considered, as well as those that can, is known as
outside model hedging and is standard practice for traders.17 The reality is that relatively
simple one-factor models if used carefully usually give reasonable prices for instruments,
but good hedging procedures must explicitly or implicitly assume many factors.
Interest Rate Model Hedging
- One-factor models can be used to calculate implied parameters for pricing interest rate derivatives by iterating from market prices.
- Effective hedging requires calculating deltas, gammas, and vegas by simulating shifts in the zero curve and volatility environment.
- Traders frequently employ 'outside model hedging,' which accounts for yield curve movements that are technically impossible under the chosen model.
- While simple one-factor models often provide reasonable pricing, robust hedging procedures must account for multiple risk factors.
- No-arbitrage models like HoāLee and HullāWhite ensure consistency with the initial market term structure while defining its evolution.
The practice of taking account of changes that cannot happen under the model considered, as well as those that can, is known as outside model hedging and is standard practice for traders.
parameter. The model can be used to calculate implied sās.16 These can be used to
assess the s most appropriate for pricing the instrument under consideration.
15 For a discussion of the implementation of a model where a and s are functions of time, see Technical
Note 16 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
16 Note that in a term structure model the implied sās are not the same as the implied volatilities calculated
from Blackās model. The procedure for computing implied sās is as follows. The Black volatilities are
converted to prices using Blackās model. An iterative procedure is then used to imply the s parameter in the
term structure model from the price.Section 29.4 outlined some general approaches to hedging a portfolio of interest rate
derivatives. These approaches can be used with the term structure models in this
chapter. The calculation of deltas, gammas, and vegas involves making small changes to either the zero curve or the volatility environment and recomputing the value of the portfolio.
Note that, although one factor is often assumed when pricing interest rate derivatives,
it is not appropriate to assume only one factor when hedging. For example, the deltas calculated should allow for many different movements in the yield curve, not just those that are possible under the model chosen. The practice of taking account of changes that 32.7 HEDGING USING A ONE-FACTOR MODEL
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752 CHAPTER 32
cannot happen under the model considered, as well as those that can, is known as
outside model hedging and is standard practice for traders.17 The reality is that relatively
simple one-factor models if used carefully usually give reasonable prices for instruments,
but good hedging procedures must explicitly or implicitly assume many factors.
SUMMARY
When valuing derivatives, it is important that the model used be consistent with the initial term structure observed in the market. No-arbitrage models are designed to have this property. They take the initial term structure as given and define how it can evolve.
This chapter has provided a description of a number of one-factor no-arbitrage
models of the short rate. These are robust and can be used in conjunction with any set of initial zero rates. The simplest model is the HoāLee model. This has the advantage that it is analytically tractable. Its chief disadvantage is that it implies that all rates are equally variable at all times. The HullāWhite model is a version of the HoāLee model that includes mean reversion. It allows a richer description of the volatility environment
while preserving its analytic tractability. Lognormal one-factor models avoid the
possibility of negative interest rates, but have no analytic tractability.
FURTHER READING
Black, F., E. Derman, and W. Toy, āA One-Factor Model of Interest Rates and Its Application
to Treasury Bond Prices,ā Financial Analysts Journal, January/February 1990: 33ā39.
Black, F., and P. Karasinski, āBond and Option Pricing When Short Rates Are Lognormal,ā
Financial Analysts Journal, July/August (1991): 52ā59.
Brigo, D., and F. Mercurio, Interest Rate Models: Theory and Practice, 2nd edn. New York:
Springer, 2006.
Ho, T. S. Y., and S.-B. Lee, āTerm Structure Movements and Pricing Interest Rate Contingent
Claims,ā Journal of Finance, 41 (December 1986): 1011ā29.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āBond Option Pricing Based on a Model for the Evolution of Bond
Prices,ā Advances in Futures and Options Research, 6 (1993): 1ā13.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āPricing Interest Rate Derivative Securities,ā The Review of Financial
Studies, 3, 4 (1990): 573ā92.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āUsing HullāWhite Interest Rate Trees,ā Journal of Derivatives, Spring
(1996): 26ā36.
Rebonato, R., Interest Rate Option Models. Chichester: Wiley, 1998.
17 A simple example of outside model hedging is in the way that the BlackāScholesāMerton model is used.
Interest Rate Modeling and Practice
- The text provides a comprehensive bibliography of foundational interest rate models, including works by Black, Derman, Toy, Hull, and White.
- It highlights the practical paradox where traders use models like Black-Scholes-Merton despite knowing their underlying assumptions, such as constant volatility, are flawed.
- A series of practice problems focuses on the application of Vasicek and Hull-White models to price European options on both zero-coupon and coupon-bearing bonds.
- The exercises emphasize the importance of put-call parity and the distinction between equilibrium and no-arbitrage models in financial engineering.
The BlackāScholesāMerton model assumes that volatility is constantābut traders regularly calculate vega and hedge against volatility changes.
Black, F., E. Derman, and W. Toy, āA One-Factor Model of Interest Rates and Its Application
to Treasury Bond Prices,ā Financial Analysts Journal, January/February 1990: 33ā39.
Black, F., and P. Karasinski, āBond and Option Pricing When Short Rates Are Lognormal,ā
Financial Analysts Journal, July/August (1991): 52ā59.
Brigo, D., and F. Mercurio, Interest Rate Models: Theory and Practice, 2nd edn. New York:
Springer, 2006.
Ho, T. S. Y., and S.-B. Lee, āTerm Structure Movements and Pricing Interest Rate Contingent
Claims,ā Journal of Finance, 41 (December 1986): 1011ā29.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āBond Option Pricing Based on a Model for the Evolution of Bond
Prices,ā Advances in Futures and Options Research, 6 (1993): 1ā13.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āPricing Interest Rate Derivative Securities,ā The Review of Financial
Studies, 3, 4 (1990): 573ā92.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āUsing HullāWhite Interest Rate Trees,ā Journal of Derivatives, Spring
(1996): 26ā36.
Rebonato, R., Interest Rate Option Models. Chichester: Wiley, 1998.
17 A simple example of outside model hedging is in the way that the BlackāScholesāMerton model is used.
The BlackāScholesāMerton model assumes that volatility is constantābut traders regularly calculate vega
and hedge against volatility changes.Practice Questions
32.1. What is the difference between an equilibrium model and a no-arbitrage model?
32.2. Can the approach described in Section 32.2 for decomposing an option on a coupon-
bearing bond into a portfolio of options on zero-coupon bonds be used in conjunction with a two-factor model? Explain your answer.
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No-Arbitrage Models of the Short Rate 753
32.3. Suppose that a=0.1, b=0.08, and s=0.015 in Vasicekās model, with the initial value
of the short rate being 5%. Calculate the price of a 1 -year European call option on a
zero-coupon bond with a principal of $100 that matures in 3 years when the strike price is $87.
32.4. Repeat Problem 32.3 valuing a European put option with a strike of $87. What is the putācall parity relationship between the prices of European call and put options? Show that the put and call option prices satisfy putācall parity in this case.
32.5. Suppose that
a=0.05, b=0.08, and s=0.015 in Vasicekās model with the initial short-
term interest rate being 6%. Calculate the price of a 2.1 -year European call option on a bond that will mature in 3 years. Suppose that the bond pays a coupon of 5%
semiannually. The principal of the bond is 100 and the strike price of the option is 99. The strike price is the cash price (not the quoted price) that will be paid for the bond.
32.6. Use the answer to Problem 32.5 and putācall parity arguments to calculate the price of a
put option that has the same terms as the call option in Problem 32.5.
32.7. In the HullāWhite model,
a=0.08 and s=0.01. Calculate the price of a 1 -year
European call option on a zero-coupon bond that will mature in 5 years when the term structure is flat at 10%, the principal of the bond is $100, and the strike price is $68.
32.8. Suppose that
a=0.05 and s=0.015 in the HullāWhite model with the initial term
structure being flat at 6% with semiannual compounding. Calculate the price of a
2.1 -year European call option on a bond that will mature in 3 years. Suppose that the bond pays a coupon of 5% per annum semiannually. The principal of the bond is 100 and the strike price of the option is 99. The strike price is the cash price (not the quoted price) that will be paid for the bond.
32.9. Suppose
a=0.05, s=0.015, and the term structure is flat at 10%. Construct a
Hull-White Model Exercises
- The text presents quantitative problems focused on pricing European and American bond options using the Hull-White interest rate model.
- Exercises require the construction of trinomial trees to verify zero-coupon bond prices against initial term structures.
- Calibration techniques are explored by implying volatility parameters from market prices of actively traded European options.
- Comparative analysis is performed between normal and lognormal models to assess their impact on American option pricing and interest rate probabilities.
- Software-based simulations are used to test the convergence of trinomial trees and investigate the effects of heavy-tailed distributions on strike prices.
Show that the model used does not significantly affect the price obtained providing it is calibrated to the known European price.
a=0.05 and s=0.015 in the HullāWhite model with the initial term
structure being flat at 6% with semiannual compounding. Calculate the price of a
2.1 -year European call option on a bond that will mature in 3 years. Suppose that the bond pays a coupon of 5% per annum semiannually. The principal of the bond is 100 and the strike price of the option is 99. The strike price is the cash price (not the quoted price) that will be paid for the bond.
32.9. Suppose
a=0.05, s=0.015, and the term structure is flat at 10%. Construct a
trinomial tree for the HullāWhite model where there are two time steps, each 1 year in length.
32.10. Calculate the price of a 2-year zero-coupon bond from the tree in Figure 32.4.
32.11. Calculate the price of a 2-year zero-coupon bond from the tree in Figure 32.7 and verify
that it agrees with the initial term structure.
32.12. Calculate the price of an 18-month zero-coupon bond from the tree in Figure 32.8 and
verify that it agrees with the initial term structure.
32.13. What does the calibration of a one-factor term structure model involve?
32.14. Prove equations (32.15), (32.16), and (32.17).
32.15. A trader wishes to compute the price of a 1 -year American call option on a 5-year bond
with a face value of 100. The bond pays a coupon of 6% semiannually and the (quoted)
strike price of the option is $100. The continuously compounded zero rates for
maturities of 6 months, 1 year, 2 years, 3 years, 4 years, and 5 years are 4.5%, 5%,
5.5%, 5.8%, 6.1%, and 6.3%. The best-fit reversion rate for either the normal or the
lognormal model has been estimated as 5%.
A 1 -year European call option with a (quoted) strike price of 100 on the bond is actively
traded. Its market price is $0.50. The trader decides to use this option for calibration. Use the DerivaGem software with 10 time steps to answer the following questions:
(a) Assuming a normal model, imply the
s parameter from the price of the European
option.
(b) Use the s parameter to calculate the price of the option when it is American.
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754 CHAPTER 32
(c) Repeat (a) and (b) for the lognormal model. Show that the model used does not
significantly affect the price obtained providing it is calibrated to the known European
price.
(d) Display the tree for the normal model and calculate the probability of a negative
interest rate occurring.
(e) Display the tree for the lognormal model and verify that the option price is correctly calculated at the node where, with the notation of Section 32.4,
i=9 and j=-1.
32.16. Verify that the DerivaGem software gives Figure 32.9 for the example considered. Use
the software to calculate the price of the American bond option for the lognormal and normal models when the strike price is 95, 100, and 105. In the case of the normal model,
assume that a = 5% and s = 1%. Discuss the results in the context of the heavy-tails
arguments of Chapter 20.
32.17. Modify Sample Application G in the DerivaGem Application Builder software to test
the convergence of the price of the trinomial tree when it is used to price a 2-year call option on a 5-year bond with a face value of 100. Suppose that the strike price (quoted) is 100, the coupon rate is 7% with coupons being paid twice a year. Assume that the zero curve is as in Table 32.2. Compare results for the following cases:
(a) Option is European; normal model with
s=0.01 and a=0.05
(b) Option is European; lognormal model with s = 0.15 and a=0.05
(c) Option is American; normal model with s=0.01 and a=0.05
(d) Option is American; lognormal model with s=0.15 and a=0.05.
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755
Modeling
Forward Rates
Modeling Forward Rates and HJM
- The text provides practical exercises for comparing normal and lognormal interest rate models using trinomial trees and software calibration.
- Standard one-factor models are noted for their limitations, specifically their inability to provide complete freedom in choosing volatility structures.
- Making model parameters functions of time can fit current market volatilities but often results in a nonstationary volatility term structure.
- The Heath, Jarrow, and Morton (HJM) model is introduced as a framework for defining no-arbitrage conditions for the entire yield curve.
- The HJM approach allows for multiple factors of uncertainty and greater flexibility in specifying the future volatility environment.
The volatility structure in the future is liable to be quite different from that observed in the market today.
(c) Repeat (a) and (b) for the lognormal model. Show that the model used does not
significantly affect the price obtained providing it is calibrated to the known European
price.
(d) Display the tree for the normal model and calculate the probability of a negative
interest rate occurring.
(e) Display the tree for the lognormal model and verify that the option price is correctly calculated at the node where, with the notation of Section 32.4,
i=9 and j=-1.
32.16. Verify that the DerivaGem software gives Figure 32.9 for the example considered. Use
the software to calculate the price of the American bond option for the lognormal and normal models when the strike price is 95, 100, and 105. In the case of the normal model,
assume that a = 5% and s = 1%. Discuss the results in the context of the heavy-tails
arguments of Chapter 20.
32.17. Modify Sample Application G in the DerivaGem Application Builder software to test
the convergence of the price of the trinomial tree when it is used to price a 2-year call option on a 5-year bond with a face value of 100. Suppose that the strike price (quoted) is 100, the coupon rate is 7% with coupons being paid twice a year. Assume that the zero curve is as in Table 32.2. Compare results for the following cases:
(a) Option is European; normal model with
s=0.01 and a=0.05
(b) Option is European; lognormal model with s = 0.15 and a=0.05
(c) Option is American; normal model with s=0.01 and a=0.05
(d) Option is American; lognormal model with s=0.15 and a=0.05.
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755
Modeling
Forward Rates
The interest rate models discussed in Chapter 32 are widely used for pricing instruments
when the simpler models in Chapter 29 are inappropriate. They are easy to implement and, if used carefully, can ensure that most nonstandard interest rate derivatives are priced consistently with actively traded instruments such as interest rate caps, European swap options, and European bond options. Two limitations of the models are:
1. Most involve only one factor (i.e., one source of uncertainty).
2. They do not give the user complete freedom in choosing the volatility structure.
By making the parameters a and
s functions of time, an analyst can use the models so
that they fit the volatilities observed in the market today, but as mentioned in Section 32.6 the volatility term structure is then nonstationary. The volatility structure in the future is liable to be quite different from that observed in the market today.
This chapter discusses some general approaches to building term structure models
that give the user more flexibility in specifying the volatility environment and allow several factors to be used.
This chapter also covers the agency mortgage-backed security market in the United
States and describes how some of the ideas presented in the chapter can be used to price instruments in that market.33 CHAPTER
33.1 THE HEATH, JARROW, AND MORTON MODEL
In 1990 David Heath, Bob Jarrow, and Andy Morton (HJM) published an important paper describing the no-arbitrage conditions that must be satisfied by a model of the yield curve.
1 To describe their model, we will use the following notation:
P1t, T2: Price at time t of a risk-free zero-coupon bond with principal $1 maturing at time T
ā¦t: Vector of past and present values of interest rates and bond prices at
time t that are relevant for determining bond price volatilities at that time
1 See D. Heath, R. A. Jarrow, and A. Morton, āBond Pricing and the Term Structure of Interest Rates:
A New Methodology,ā Econometrica, 60, 1 (1992): 77ā105.
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756 CHAPTER 33
v1t, T, ā¦t2: Volatility of P1t, T2
f1t, T1, T22: Forward rate as seen at time t for the period between time T1 and
time T2
F1t, T2: Instantaneous forward rate as seen at time t for a contract maturing at
time T
r1t2: Short-term risk-free interest rate at time t
The Heath-Jarrow-Morton Framework
- The text outlines the Heath-Jarrow-Morton (HJM) methodology for pricing bonds and modeling the term structure of interest rates.
- In a risk-neutral world, the return on a zero-coupon bond must equal the short-term risk-free interest rate.
- The model demonstrates that the risk-neutral process for forward rates is determined solely by the volatility functions of bond prices.
- A fundamental HJM result establishes a direct mathematical link between the drift and the standard deviation of instantaneous forward rates.
- The volatility of a zero-coupon bond must decline to zero at maturity to ensure the bond price equals its face value.
Equation (33.4) shows that there is a link between the drift and standard deviation of an instantaneous forward rate. This is the key HJM result.
P1t, T2: Price at time t of a risk-free zero-coupon bond with principal $1 maturing at time T
ā¦t: Vector of past and present values of interest rates and bond prices at
time t that are relevant for determining bond price volatilities at that time
1 See D. Heath, R. A. Jarrow, and A. Morton, āBond Pricing and the Term Structure of Interest Rates:
A New Methodology,ā Econometrica, 60, 1 (1992): 77ā105.
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756 CHAPTER 33
v1t, T, ā¦t2: Volatility of P1t, T2
f1t, T1, T22: Forward rate as seen at time t for the period between time T1 and
time T2
F1t, T2: Instantaneous forward rate as seen at time t for a contract maturing at
time T
r1t2: Short-term risk-free interest rate at time t
dz1t2: Wiener process driving term structure movements.
Processes for Zero-Coupon Bond Prices and Forward Rates
We start by assuming there is just one factor and will use the traditional risk-neutral
world. A zero-coupon bond is a traded security providing no income. Its return in the traditional risk-neutral world must therefore be r. This means that its stochastic process has the form
dP1t, T2=r1t2P1t, T2 dt+v1t, T, ā¦t2 P1t, T2 dz1t2 (33.1)
As the argument ā¦t indicates, the zero-coupon bondās volatility v can be, in the most
general form of the model, any well-behaved function of past and present interest rates
and bond prices. Because a bondās price volatility declines to zero at maturity, we must have
2
v1t, t, ā¦t2=0
From equation (4.5), the forward rate f1t, T1, T22 can be related to zero-coupon bond
prices as follows:
f1t, T1, T22=ln3P1t, T124-ln3P1t, T224
T2-T1 (33.2)
From equation (33.1) and ItĆ“ās lemma,
d ln3P1t, T124=cr1t2-v1t, T1, ā¦t22
2ddt+v1t, T1, ā¦t2 dz1t2
and
d ln3P1t, T224=cr1t2-v1t, T2, ā¦t22
2ddt+v1t, T2, ā¦t2 dz1t2
so that from equation (33.2)
d f1t, T1, T22=v1t, T2, ā¦t22-v1t, T1, ā¦t22
21T2-T12 dt+v1t, T1, ā¦t2-v1t, T2, ā¦t2
T2-T1 dz1t2 (33.3)
Equation (33.3) shows that the risk-neutral process for f depends solely on the vās. It
depends on r and the Pās only to the extent that the vās themselves depend on these variables.
When we put
T1=T and T2=T+āT in equation (33.3) and then take limits as āT
tends to zero, f1t, T1, T22 becomes F1t, T2, the coefficient of dz1t2 becomes -vT1t, T, ā¦t2,
2 The v1t, t, ā¦t2=0 condition is equivalent to the assumption that all zero-coupon bonds have finite drifts at
all times. If the volatility of the bond does not decline to zero at maturity, an infinite drift may be necessary to
ensure that the bondās price equals its face value at maturity.
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Modeling Forward Rates 757
and the coefficient of dt becomes
1
20 3v1t, T, ā¦t224
0 T=v1t, T, ā¦t2vT1t, T, ā¦t2
where the subscript to v denotes a partial derivative. It follows that
dF1t, T2=v1t, T, ā¦t2vT1t, T, ā¦t2dt-vT1t, T, ā¦t2 dz1t2 (33.4)
Once the function v1t, T, ā¦t2 has been specified, the risk-neutral processes for the
F(t, T)ās are known.
Equation (33.4) shows that there is a link between the drift and standard deviation of
an instantaneous forward rate. This is the key HJM result. Integrating vt1t, t, ā¦t2
between t=t and t=T leads to
v1t, T, ā¦t2-v1t, t, ā¦t2=3T
tvt1t, t, ā¦t2 dt
Because v1t, t, ā¦t2=0, this becomes
v1t, T, ā¦t2=3T
tvt1t, t, ā¦t2dt
If m1t, T, ā¦t2 and s1t, T, ā¦t2 are the instantaneous drift and standard deviation of
F1t, T2, so that
dF1t, T2=m1t, T, ā¦t2 dt+s1t, T, ā¦t2 dz
then it follows from equation (33.4) that
m1t, T, ā¦t2=s1t, T, ā¦t23T
ts1t, t, ā¦t2 dt (33.5)
HJM and BGM Interest Models
- The Heath-Jarrow-Morton (HJM) model establishes a critical link between the drift and standard deviation of instantaneous forward rates.
- A significant challenge of the general HJM model is its non-Markovian nature, meaning future short rates depend on the entire historical path.
- Due to nonrecombining trees, implementing HJM often requires computationally intensive Monte Carlo simulations rather than simple binomial trees.
- The Brace-Gatarek-Musiela (BGM) model, or LIBOR market model, was developed to address HJM's reliance on unobservable instantaneous rates.
- Specific cases of HJM, such as the HoāLee and HullāWhite models, simplify the framework into Markovian processes that allow for recombining trees.
The HJM model in equation (33.4) is deceptively complex.
Once the function v1t, T, ā¦t2 has been specified, the risk-neutral processes for the
F(t, T)ās are known.
Equation (33.4) shows that there is a link between the drift and standard deviation of
an instantaneous forward rate. This is the key HJM result. Integrating vt1t, t, ā¦t2
between t=t and t=T leads to
v1t, T, ā¦t2-v1t, t, ā¦t2=3T
tvt1t, t, ā¦t2 dt
Because v1t, t, ā¦t2=0, this becomes
v1t, T, ā¦t2=3T
tvt1t, t, ā¦t2dt
If m1t, T, ā¦t2 and s1t, T, ā¦t2 are the instantaneous drift and standard deviation of
F1t, T2, so that
dF1t, T2=m1t, T, ā¦t2 dt+s1t, T, ā¦t2 dz
then it follows from equation (33.4) that
m1t, T, ā¦t2=s1t, T, ā¦t23T
ts1t, t, ā¦t2 dt (33.5)
This is the HJM result.
The process for the short rate r in the general HJM model is non-Markov. This
means that the process for r at a future time t depends on the path followed by r
between now and time t as well as on the the value of r at time t .3 This is the key
problem in implementing a general HJM model. Monte Carlo simulation has to be
used. It is difficult to use a tree to represent term structure movements because the tree is usually nonrecombining. Assuming the model has one factor and the tree is binomial
as in Figure 33.1, there are
2n nodes after n time steps (when n=30, 2n is about
1 billion).
The HJM model in equation (33.4) is deceptively complex. A particular forward rate
F1t, T2 is Markov in most applications of the model and can be represented by a
recombining tree. However, the same tree cannot be used for all forward rates. Setting
s1t, T, ā¦t2 equal to a constant, s, leads to the HoāLee model (see Problem 33.3); setting
s1t, T, ā¦t2=se-a1T-t2 leads to the HullāWhite model (see Problem 33.4). These are
particular Markov cases of HJM where the same recombining tree can be used to
represent the short rate, r, and all forward rates.
3 For more details, see Technical Note 17 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
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758 CHAPTER 33
Extension to Several Factors
The HJM result can be extended to the situation where there are several independent
factors. Suppose
dF1t, T2=m1t, T, ā¦t2dt +a
ksk1t, T, ā¦t2 dzk
A similar analysis to that just given (see Problem 33.2) shows that
m1t, T, ā¦t2=a
ksk1t, T, ā¦t23T
tsk1t, t, ā¦t2dt (33.6)Figure 33.1 A nonrecombining tree such as that arising from the general HJM model.
4 See A. Brace, D. Gatarek, and M. Musiela āThe Market Model of Interest Rate Dynamics,ā Mathematical
Finance 7, 2 (1997): 127ā55; F. Jamshidian, āLIBOR and Swap Market Models and Measures,ā Finance and
Stochastics, 1 (1997): 293ā330; and K. Miltersen, K. Sandmann, and D. Sondermann, āClosed Form
Solutions for Term Structure Derivatives with LogNormal Interest Rate,ā Journal of Finance, 52, 1 (March
1997): 409ā30.33.2 THE BGM MODEL
One drawback of the HJM model is that it is expressed in terms of instantaneous
forward rates and these are not directly observable in the market. Another related
drawback is that it is difficult to calibrate the model to prices of actively traded
instruments. This has led Brace, Gatarek, and Musiela (BGM), Jamshidian, and Miltersen, Sandmann, and Sondermann to propose an alternative.
4 At the time the
model was developed, LIBOR was commonly used for both discounting and defining
payoffs. For this reason it was termed the LIBOR market model. However, the same
approach can be used to model risk-free rates determined from overnight indexed swaps.
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Modeling Forward Rates 759
The Model
Define t0=0 and let t1, t2,c be the reset times for caps that trade in the market today. In
the United States, the most popular caps have quarterly resets, so that it is approximately
true that t1=0.25, t2=0.5, t3=0.75, and so on. Define dk=tk+1-tk, and
Fk1t2: Forward rate for the period between times tk and tk+1 as seen at time t16 tk2,
expressed with a compounding period of dk and an actual/actual day count
The LIBOR Market Model
- The LIBOR market model, also known as the BGM model, provides a framework for modeling forward rates and risk-free rates from overnight indexed swaps.
- A rolling risk-neutral world is introduced where the numeraire is a bond maturing at the next reset date, simplifying the valuation of interest rate derivatives.
- The model defines the stochastic process for forward rates as martingales in specific worlds, incorporating drift adjustments when switching numeraires.
- Volatility in the model is often treated as a step function based on the number of accrual periods remaining until the reset date.
- The relationship between bond prices and forward rates allows for the derivation of complex drift terms using ItĆ“ās lemma.
We refer to this as a rolling risk-neutral world because the numeraire changes as we roll forward.
payoffs. For this reason it was termed the LIBOR market model. However, the same
approach can be used to model risk-free rates determined from overnight indexed swaps.
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Modeling Forward Rates 759
The Model
Define t0=0 and let t1, t2,c be the reset times for caps that trade in the market today. In
the United States, the most popular caps have quarterly resets, so that it is approximately
true that t1=0.25, t2=0.5, t3=0.75, and so on. Define dk=tk+1-tk, and
Fk1t2: Forward rate for the period between times tk and tk+1 as seen at time t16 tk2,
expressed with a compounding period of dk and an actual/actual day count
m1t2: Index for the next reset date at time t; this means that m1t2 is the smallest
integer such that tā¦tm1t2
zk1t2: Volatility of Fk1t2 at time t.
Initially, we will assume that there is only one factor.
As shown in Section 28.4, in a world that is defined by the numeraire P1t, tk+12, Fk1t2 is
a martingale and follows the process
dFk1t2=zk1t2Fk1t2 dz (33.7)
where dz is a Wiener process.
The process for P1t, tk2 has the form
dP1t, tk2
P1t, tk2=g+vk1t2 dz
where vk1t2 is negative because bond prices and interest rates are negatively related.
In practice, it is often most convenient to value interest rate derivatives by working in
a world that is always defined by the numeraire equal to a bond maturing at the next
reset date. We refer to this as a rolling risk-neutral world because the numeraire changes
as we roll forward.5 In this world we can discount from time tk+1 to time tk using the
zero rate observed at time tk for a maturity tk+1. We do not have to worry about what
happens to interest rates between times tk and tk+1.
At time t, the rolling risk-neutral world is a world defined by the numeraire P1t, tm1t22.
Equation (33.7) gives the process followed by Fk1t2 in a world defined by the numeraire
P1t, tk+12. From Section 28.8, it follows that the process followed by Fk1t2 in the rolling
risk-neutral world is
dFk1t2=zk1t23vm1t21t2-vk+11t24Fk1t2 dt+zk1t2Fk1t2 dz (33.8)
The relationship between forward rates and bond prices is
P1t, ti2
P1t, ti+12=1+diFi1t2
or
ln P1t, ti2-ln P1t, ti+12=ln31+diFi1t24
5 In the terminology of Section 28.4, this world corresponds to using a ārolling CDā as the numeraire. A
rolling CD (certificate of deposit) is one where we start with $1, buy a bond maturing at time t1, reinvest the
proceeds at time t1 in a bond maturing at time t2, reinvest the proceeds at time t2 in a bond maturing at time
t3, and so on. (Strictly speaking, the interest rate trees we constructed in Chapter 32 are in a rolling risk-
neutral world rather than the traditional risk-neutral world.) The numeraire is a CD rolled over at the end of
each time step.
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 759 30/04/2021 17:51
760 CHAPTER 33
ItĆ“ās lemma can be used to calculate the process followed by both the left-hand side and
the right-hand side of this equation. Equating the coefficients of dz gives6
vi1t2-vi+11t2=diFi1t2zi1t2
1+diFi1t2 (33.9)
so that from equation (33.8) the process followed by Fk1t2 in the rolling risk-neutral
world is
dFk1t2
Fk1t2=ak
i=m1t2diFi1t2zi1t2zk1t2
1+diFi1t2 dt+zk1t2 dz (33.10)
The HJM result in equation (33.4) is the limiting case of this as the di tend to zero (see
Problem 33.7).
Forward Rate Volatilities
The BGM model can be simplified by assuming that zk1t2 is a function only of the
number of whole accrual periods between the next reset date and time tk. Define Īi as
the value of zk1t2 when there are i such accrual periods. This means that
zk1t2=Īk-m1t2 is a step function.
The Īi are related to the volatilities used to price caplets in Blackās model. They can be
thought of as forward values of those volatilities.7 Suppose that sk is the Black volatility
for the caplet that corresponds to the period between times tk and tk+1 and that the rate
for this period is determined at time tk. Equating variances, we must have
Implementing the BGM Model
- The Brace-Gatarek-Musiela (BGM) model is simplified by assuming forward volatilities are step functions based on the number of accrual periods remaining.
- Forward volatilities, denoted as Ī, can be iteratively derived from Blackās caplet spot volatilities by equating variances over specific time intervals.
- Monte Carlo simulation is used to implement the model, employing an approximation where the drift of the log forward rate remains constant within each accrual period.
- The model can be extended to incorporate multiple independent factors, allowing for a more complex representation of the volatility components of forward rates.
Notice that the hump in the Īās is more pronounced than the hump in the sās.
The BGM model can be simplified by assuming that zk1t2 is a function only of the
number of whole accrual periods between the next reset date and time tk. Define Īi as
the value of zk1t2 when there are i such accrual periods. This means that
zk1t2=Īk-m1t2 is a step function.
The Īi are related to the volatilities used to price caplets in Blackās model. They can be
thought of as forward values of those volatilities.7 Suppose that sk is the Black volatility
for the caplet that corresponds to the period between times tk and tk+1 and that the rate
for this period is determined at time tk. Equating variances, we must have
s2
ktk=ak
i=1Ī2k-i di-1 (33.11)
This equation can be used to obtain the Īās iteratively.8
Example 33.1
Assume that the di are all equal and the Black caplet spot volatilities for the first
three caplets are 24%, 22%, and 20%. This means that Ī0=24%. Since
Ī20+Ī21=2*0.222
Ī1 is 19.80%. Also, since
Ī20+Ī21+Ī22=3*0.202
Ī2 is 15.23%.
Example 33.2
Consider the data in Table 33.1 on caplet volatilities sk. These exhibit a hump.
The āās are shown in the second row. Notice that the hump in the Īās is more
pronounced than the hump in the sās.
8 When we are dealing with OIS rates, equation (33.11) can be modified to reflect the uncertainty associated
with overnight rates between times tk and tk+1, as outlined in Section 29.2.7 In practice the āās are determined using a least-squares calibration, as we will discuss later.6 Since the vās and zās have opposite signs, the bond price volatility becomes larger (in absolute terms) as the
time to maturity increases. This is as expected.
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Modeling Forward Rates 761
Implementation of the Model
The BGM model can be implemented using Monte Carlo simulation. Expressed in
terms of the Īiās, equation (33.10) is
dFk1t2
Fk1t2=ak
i=m1t2diFi1t2Īi-m1t2Īk-m1t2
1+diFi1t2 dt+Īk-m1t2 dz (33.12)
so that from ItĆ“ās lemma
d ln Fk1t2=cak
i=m1t2diFi1t2Īi-m1t2Īk-m1t2
1+diFi1t2-1Īk-m1t222
2ddt+Īk-m1t2 dz (33.13)
If, as an approximation, we assume in the calculation of the drift of ln Fk1t2 that
Fi1t2=Fi1tj2 for tj6t6tj+1, then
Fk1tj+12=Fk1tj2expcaak
i=j+1diFi1tj2Īi-j-1Īk-j-1
1+diFi1tj2-Ī2
k-j-1
2bdj+Īk-j-1P2djd
(33.14)
where P is a random sample from a normal distribution with mean equal to zero and
standard deviation equal to one. In the Monte Carlo simulation, this equation is used
to calculate forward rates at time t1 from those at time zero; it is then used to calculate
forward rates at time t2 from those at time t1; and so on.
Extension to Several Factors
The BGM model can be extended to incorporate several independent factors. Suppose that there are p factors and
zk,q is the component of the volatility of Fk1t2 attributable to
the qth factor. Equation (33.10) becomes (see Problem 33.11)
dFk1t2
Fk1t2=ak
i=m1t2diFi1t2ap
q=1zi,q1t2zk,q1t2
1+diFi1t2 dt+ap
q=1zk,q1t2 dzq (33.15)
Define li,q as the qth component of the volatility when there are i accrual periods
between the next reset date and the maturity of the forward contract. Equation (33.14) Table 33.1 Volatility data; accrual period=1 year.
Year, k: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
sk 1%2: 15.50 18.25 17.91 17.74 17.27 16.79 16.30 16.01 15.76 15.54
Īk-1 1%2:15.50 20.64 17.21 17.22 15.25 14.15 12.98 13.81 13.60 13.40
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 761 30/04/2021 17:51
762 CHAPTER 33
then becomes
Fk1tj+12=Fk1tj2
*expcaak
i=j+1diFi1tj2ap
q=1li-j-1,qlk-j-1,q
1+diFi1tj2-ap
q=1l2
k-j-1,q
2bdj+ap
q=1lk-j-1,q Pq2djd
(33.16)
where the Pq are random samples from a normal distribution with mean equal to zero
and standard deviation equal to one.
The approximation that the drift of a forward rate remains constant within each
accrual period allows us to jump from one reset date to the next in the simulation.
This is convenient because as already mentioned the rolling risk-neutral world allows
BGM Model and Drift Approximation
- The BGM model utilizes a drift approximation that assumes forward rate drift remains constant within each accrual period, allowing for efficient simulation jumps between reset dates.
- Monte Carlo simulations using this approximation produce caplet values that do not significantly differ from Blackās model, even with accrual periods as long as one year.
- As the simulation progresses through time, the simulated zero curve naturally shortens, reflecting the diminishing time to maturity for the remaining accrual periods.
- The model is particularly useful for valuing nonstandard instruments like ratchet caps and sticky caps, where cap rates are path-dependent and linked to previous reset dates.
- Empirical testing suggests the drift approximation is innocuous in most market situations, failing only when cap volatilities reach exceptionally high levels.
The results of this type of analysis show that the cap values from Monte Carlo simulation are not significantly different from those given by Blackās model.
762 CHAPTER 33
then becomes
Fk1tj+12=Fk1tj2
*expcaak
i=j+1diFi1tj2ap
q=1li-j-1,qlk-j-1,q
1+diFi1tj2-ap
q=1l2
k-j-1,q
2bdj+ap
q=1lk-j-1,q Pq2djd
(33.16)
where the Pq are random samples from a normal distribution with mean equal to zero
and standard deviation equal to one.
The approximation that the drift of a forward rate remains constant within each
accrual period allows us to jump from one reset date to the next in the simulation.
This is convenient because as already mentioned the rolling risk-neutral world allows
us to discount from one reset date to the next. Suppose that we wish to simulate a zero curve for N accrual periods. On each trial we start with the forward rates at time zero. These are
F0102, F1102,c, FN-1102 and are calculated from the initial zero curve.
Equation (33.16) is used to calculate F11t12, F21t12,c, FN-11t12. Equation (33.16) is
then used again to calculate F21t22, F31t22,c, FN-11t22, and so on, until FN-11tN-12 is
obtained. Note that as we move through time the zero curve gets shorter and shorter. For example, suppose each accrual period is 3 months and
N=40. We start with a
10-year zero curve. At the 6-year point (at time t24), the simulation gives us informa-
tion on a 4-year zero curve.
The drift approximation that we have used (i.e., Fi1t2=Fi1tj2 for tj6t6tj+1) can
be tested by valuing caplets using equation (33.16) and comparing the prices to those given by Blackās model. The value of
Fk1tk2 is the realized rate for the time period
between tk and tk+1 and enables the caplet payoff at time tk+1 to be calculated. This
payoff is discounted back to time zero, one accrual period at a time. The caplet value is
the average of the discounted payoffs. The results of this type of analysis show that the cap values from Monte Carlo simulation are not significantly different from those given by Blackās model. This is true even when the accrual periods are 1 year in length and a
very large number of trials is used.
9 This suggests that the drift approximation is
innocuous in most situations.
Ratchet Caps, Sticky Caps, and Flexi Caps
The BGM model can be used to value some types of nonstandard caps. Consider
ratchet caps and sticky caps. These incorporate rules for determining how the cap rate for each caplet is set. In a ratchet cap it equals the rate at the previous reset date plus a
spread. In a sticky cap it equals the previous capped rate plus a spread. Suppose that the
cap rate at time
tj is Kj, the rate at time tj is Rj, and the spread is s. In a ratchet cap,
Kj+1=Rj+s. In a sticky cap, Kj+1=min1Rj, Kj2+s.
Tables 33.2 and 33.3 provide valuations of a ratchet cap and sticky cap using the
BGM model with one, two, and three factors. The principal is $100. The term structure (for both discounting and determining payoffs) is assumed to be flat at 5% per annum continuously compounded, or 5.127% annually compounded, and the caplet volatilities
9 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āForward Rate Volatilities, Swap Rate Volatilities, and the Implementation of
the LIBOR Market Model,ā Journal of Fixed Income, 10, 2 (September 2000): 46ā62. The only exception is
when the cap volatilities are very high.
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Modeling Forward Rates 763
Valuing Nonstandard Caps
- The text defines the mathematical structures of ratchet and sticky caps, where strike prices are dynamically adjusted based on previous interest rates and spreads.
- Flexi caps are introduced as instruments that function like regular caps but impose a specific limit on the total number of caplets that can be exercised.
- Unlike plain vanilla caps, which depend only on total volatility, nonstandard cap prices vary based on the number of factors used in the BGM model.
- The sensitivity of these instruments to multiple factors arises because their payoffs depend on the joint probability distribution of several different forward rates.
- The valuation process utilizes Monte Carlo simulations with the antithetic variable technique to achieve a low standard error in pricing.
The pricing of a plain vanilla cap depends only on the total volatility and is independent of the number of factors.
tj is Kj, the rate at time tj is Rj, and the spread is s. In a ratchet cap,
Kj+1=Rj+s. In a sticky cap, Kj+1=min1Rj, Kj2+s.
Tables 33.2 and 33.3 provide valuations of a ratchet cap and sticky cap using the
BGM model with one, two, and three factors. The principal is $100. The term structure (for both discounting and determining payoffs) is assumed to be flat at 5% per annum continuously compounded, or 5.127% annually compounded, and the caplet volatilities
9 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āForward Rate Volatilities, Swap Rate Volatilities, and the Implementation of
the LIBOR Market Model,ā Journal of Fixed Income, 10, 2 (September 2000): 46ā62. The only exception is
when the cap volatilities are very high.
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Modeling Forward Rates 763
are as in Table 33.1. The interest rate is reset annually. The spread is 25 basis points
applied to the annually compounded rate. Tables 33.4 and 33.5 show how the volatility
was split into components when two- and three-factor models were used. The results are
based on 100,000 Monte Carlo simulations incorporating the antithetic variable technique described in Section 21.7. The standard error of each price is about 0.001.
A third type of nonstandard cap is a flexi cap. This is like a regular cap except that
there is a limit on the total number of caplets that can be exercised. Consider an annual-
pay flexi cap when the principal is $100, the term structure is flat at 5%, and the cap volatilities are as in Tables 33.1, 33.4, and 33.5. Suppose that all in-the-money caplets
are exercised up to a maximum of five. With one, two, and three factors, the BGM
model gives the price of the instrument as 3.43, 3.58, and 3.61, respectively (see
Problem 33.14 for other types of flexi caps).Caplet start
time (years)One
factorTwo
factorsThree
factors
1 0.196 0.194 0.195
2 0.207 0.207 0.209
3 0.201 0.205 0.210
4 0.194 0.198 0.205
5 0.187 0.193 0.201
6 0.180 0.189 0.193
7 0.172 0.180 0.188
8 0.167 0.174 0.182
9 0.160 0.168 0.175
10 0.153 0.162 0.169Table 33.2 Valuation of ratchet caplets.
Caplet start
time (years)One
factorTwo
factorsThree
factors
1 0.196 0.194 0.195
2 0.336 0.334 0.336
3 0.412 0.413 0.418
4 0.458 0.462 0.472
5 0.484 0.492 0.506
6 0.498 0.512 0.524
7 0.502 0.520 0.533
8 0.501 0.523 0.537
9 0.497 0.523 0.537
10 0.488 0.519 0.534Table 33.3 Valuation of sticky caplets.
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764 CHAPTER 33
The pricing of a plain vanilla cap depends only on the total volatility and is
independent of the number of factors. This is because the price of a plain vanilla caplet
depends on the behavior of only one forward rate. The prices of caplets in the
nonstandard instruments we have looked at are different in that they depend on the
joint probability distribution of several different forward rates. As a result they do depend on the number of factors.
Valuing European Swap Options
There is an analytic approximation for valuing European swap options in the BGM model.
10 Assume that the swap cash flows are based on risk-free rates (i.e., the rates used
for discounting). Let T0 be the maturity of the swap option and assume that the payment
dates for the swap are T1, T2, c, TN. Define ti=Ti+1-Ti. From equation (28.23), the
swap rate at time t is given by
s1t2=P1t, T02-P1t, TN2
aN-1
i=0tiP1t, Ti+12
It is also true that
P1t, Ti2
P1t, T02=qi-1
j=01
1+tjGj1t2
Year, k: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
lk-1, 1 1%2: 13.65 19.28 16.72 16.98 14.85 13.95 12.61 12.90 11.97 10.97
lk-1, 2 1%2: -6.62-7.02-4.06-2.060.00 1.69 3.06 4.70 5.81 6.66
lk-1, 3 1%2: 3.19 2.25 0.00 -1.98-3.47-1.630.00 1.51 2.80 3.84
Total
volatility (%): 15.50 20.64 17.21 17.22 15.25 14.15 12.98 13.81 13.60 13.40Table 33.5 Volatility components in a three-factor model.Year, k: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
lk-1,1 1%2: 14.10 19.52 16.78 17.11 15.25 14.06 12.65 13.06 12.36 11.63
Modeling Swap Rate Volatility
- The text outlines mathematical frameworks for calculating swap rate volatility within the LIBOR market model using factor-based components.
- It presents formulas for the variance of swap rates by applying ItĆ“ās lemma and approximating forward rates at their initial values.
- Tables 33.4 and 33.5 illustrate how volatility is decomposed into different factors across a ten-year horizon for two-factor and three-factor models.
- The valuation of European swap options is extended to scenarios where swap accrual periods are divided into multiple subperiods corresponding to cap accrual periods.
- The methodology relies on the relationship between forward rates and swap rates to ensure consistency between cap and swaption pricing.
Applying ItĆ“ās lemma (see Problem 33.12), the variance V(t) of the swap rate s(t) is given by V1t2=ap q=1caN-1 k=0tkbk,q1t2Gk1t2gk1t2 1+tkGk1t2d2.
It is also true that
P1t, Ti2
P1t, T02=qi-1
j=01
1+tjGj1t2
Year, k: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
lk-1, 1 1%2: 13.65 19.28 16.72 16.98 14.85 13.95 12.61 12.90 11.97 10.97
lk-1, 2 1%2: -6.62-7.02-4.06-2.060.00 1.69 3.06 4.70 5.81 6.66
lk-1, 3 1%2: 3.19 2.25 0.00 -1.98-3.47-1.630.00 1.51 2.80 3.84
Total
volatility (%): 15.50 20.64 17.21 17.22 15.25 14.15 12.98 13.81 13.60 13.40Table 33.5 Volatility components in a three-factor model.Year, k: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
lk-1,1 1%2: 14.10 19.52 16.78 17.11 15.25 14.06 12.65 13.06 12.36 11.63
lk-1,2 1%2: -6.45-6.70-3.84-1.960.00 1.61 2.89 4.48 5.65 6.65
Total
volatility (%): 15.50 20.64 17.21 17.22 15.25 14.15 12.98 13.81 13.60 13.40Table 33.4 Volatility components in two-factor model.
10 See J. C. Hull and A. White, āForward Rate Volatilities, Swap Rate Volatilities, and the Implementation
of the LIBOR Market Model,ā Journal of Fixed Income, 10, 2 (September 2000): 46ā62. Other analytic
approximations have been suggested by A. Brace, D. Gatarek, and M. Musiela āThe Market Model of Interest Rate Dynamics,ā Mathematical Finance, 7, 2 (1997): 127ā55 and L. B. G. Andersen and J. Andreasen,
āVolatility Skews and Extensions of the LIBOR Market Model,ā Applied Mathematical Finance, 7, 1 (March 2000), 1ā32.
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 764 30/04/2021 17:51
Modeling Forward Rates 765
for 1ā¦iā¦N, where Gj1t2 is the forward rate at time t for the period between Tj
and Tj+1. These two equations together define a relationship between s (t) and the Gj1t2.
Applying ItĆ“ās lemma (see Problem 33.12), the variance V(t) of the swap rate s(t) is
given by
V1t2=ap
q=1caN-1
k=0tkbk,q1t2Gk1t2gk1t2
1+tkGk1t2d2
(33.17)
where
gk1t2=qN-1
j=031+tjGj1t24
qN-1
j=031+tjGj1t24-1-ak-1
i=0tiqN-1
j=i+131+tjGj1t24
aN-1
i=0tiqN
j=i+131+tjGj1t24
and bj,q1t2 is the qth component of the volatility of Gj1t2. We approximate V1t2 by
setting Gj1t2=Gj102 for all j and t. The swap volatility that is substituted into the
standard market model for valuing a swaption is then
B1
T03T0
t=0V1t2dt
or
C1
T03T0
t=0 ap
q=1caN-1
k=0tkbk,q1t2Gk102gk102
1+tkGk102d2
dt (33.18)
In the situation where the length of the accrual period for the swap underlying the
swaption is the same as the length of the accrual period for a cap, bk,q1t2 is the qth
component of volatility of a cap forward rate when the time to maturity is Tk-t. This
can be looked up in a table such as Table 33.5.
This valuation result for European swap options can be extended to the situation
where each swap accrual period includes M subperiods that could be accrual periods in
a typical cap. Define tj,m as the length of the mth subperiod in the jth accrual period
so that
tj=aM
m=1tj,m
Define Gj,m1t2 as the forward rate observed at time t for the tj,m accrual period. Because
1+tjGj1t2=qM
m=131+tj,mGj,m1t24
the analysis leading to equation (33.18) can be modified so that the volatility of s (t) is
obtained in terms of the volatilities of the Gj,m1t2 rather than the volatilities of the Gj1t2.
The swap volatility to be substituted into the standard market model for valuing a swap option proves to be (see Problem 33.13)
C1
T03T0
t=0 ap
q=1caN-1
k=n aM
m=1tk,m bk,m,q1t2Gk,m102gk102
1+tk,mGk,m102d2
dt (33.19)
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 765 30/04/2021 17:51
766 CHAPTER 33
Here bj,m,q1t2 is the q th component of the volatility of Gj,m1t2. It is the q th component
of the volatility of a cap forward rate when the time to maturity is from t to the
beginning of the mth subperiod in the 1Tj, Tj+12 swap accrual period.
The expressions (33.18) and (33.19) for the swap volatility do involve the approxima-
tions that Gj1t2=Gj102 and Gj,m1t2=Gj,m102. Hull and White compared the prices of
European swap options calculated using (33.18) and (33.19) with the prices calculated
Calibrating the BGM Model
- The BGM model uses analytic approximations to value European swap options, allowing analysts to quickly identify mispricing relative to caps.
- Calibration requires determining volatility parameters where the total volatility is typically derived from market data and the factor split is determined from historical data.
- Principal components analysis is employed to determine factor loadings, which are then scaled to ensure consistency with the overall volatility of forward rates.
- To avoid erratic results from direct market quotes, a penalty function is often used in a minimization procedure to ensure the volatility parameters remain well-behaved.
- Volatility skews in the cap and floor markets can be addressed by incorporating the Constant Elasticity of Variance (CEV) model into the forward rate framework.
In practice, this is not usually used because it often leads to wild swings in the Īās and sometimes there is no set of Īās exactly consistent with cap quotes.
766 CHAPTER 33
Here bj,m,q1t2 is the q th component of the volatility of Gj,m1t2. It is the q th component
of the volatility of a cap forward rate when the time to maturity is from t to the
beginning of the mth subperiod in the 1Tj, Tj+12 swap accrual period.
The expressions (33.18) and (33.19) for the swap volatility do involve the approxima-
tions that Gj1t2=Gj102 and Gj,m1t2=Gj,m102. Hull and White compared the prices of
European swap options calculated using (33.18) and (33.19) with the prices calculated
from a Monte Carlo simulation and found the two to be very close. Once the BGM model has been calibrated, (33.18) and (33.19) therefore provide a quick way of valuing European swap options. Analysts can determine whether European swap options are overpriced or underpriced relative to caps. As we shall see shortly, they can also use the
results to calibrate the model to the market prices of swap options.
Calibrating the Model
The variable Īj is the volatility at time t of the forward rate Fj for the period between tk
and tk+1 when there are j whole accrual periods between t and tk. To calibrate the BGM
model, it is necessary to determine the Īj and how they are split into lj,q. The Īās are
usually determined from current market data, whereas the split into lās is determined
from historical data.
Consider first the determination of the lās from the Īās. A principal components
analysis (see Section 22.9) on forward rate data can be used. The model is
āFj=aM
q=1aj,qxq
where M is the total number of factors (which equals the number of different forward
rates), āFj is the change in the jth forward rate Fj, aj,q is the factor loading for the jth
forward rate and the qth factor, xq is the factor score for the qth factor. Define sq as the
standard deviation of the qth factor score. If the number of factors used in the BGM model, p, is equal to the total number of factors, M, it is correct to set
lj, q=aj,q sq
for 1ā¦j, qā¦M. When, as is usual, p6M, the lj,q must be scaled so that
Īj=4ap
q=1 l2
j,q
This involves setting
lj, q=Īj sq aj,q
4ap
q=1s2
q a2
j,q (33.20)
Consider next the estimation of the Īās. Equation (33.11) provides one way that they
can be theoretically determined so that they are consistent with caplet prices. In
practice, this is not usually used because it often leads to wild swings in the Īās and
sometimes there is no set of Īās exactly consistent with cap quotes. A commonly used
calibration procedure is similar to that described in Section 32.6. Suppose that Ui is the
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 766 30/04/2021 17:51
Modeling Forward Rates 767
market price of the ith calibrating instrument (typically a cap or European swaption)
and Vi is the model price. The Īās are chosen to minimize
a
i1Ui-Vi22+P
where P is a penalty function chosen to ensure that the Īās are āwell behaved.ā
Similarly to Section 32.6, P might have the form
P=a
iw1,i1Īi+1-Īi22+a
iw2,i1Īi+1+Īi-1-2Īi22
When the calibrating instrument is a European swaption, formulas (33.18) and (33.19) make the minimization feasible using the LevenbergāMarquardt procedure. Equa-tion ( 33.20) is used to determine the
lās from the Īās.
Volatility Skews
Brokers provide quotes on caps that are not at the money as well as on caps that are at the money. In some markets a volatility skew is observed, that is, the quoted (Black) volatility for a cap or a floor is a declining function of the strike price. This can be handled using the CEV model. (See Section 27.1 for the application of the CEV model
to equities.) The model is
dFi1t2=g+ap
q=1zi,q1t2Fi1t2a dzq (33.21)
where a is a constant 106a612. It turns out that this model can be handled very
similarly to the lognormal model. Caps and floors can be valued analytically using the
cumulative noncentral x2 distribution. There are similar analytic approximations to
those given above for the prices of European swap options.11
Bermudan Swap Options
Valuing Caps and Bermudan Swaptions
- The CEV model is utilized to address volatility skews where quoted Black volatility for caps and floors declines as the strike price increases.
- Bermudan swap options allow for exercise on multiple payment dates, making them significantly more complex to value than standard European options.
- The BGM model faces difficulties with Bermudan options because Monte Carlo simulations struggle to evaluate early exercise decisions efficiently.
- Practitioners often use the Longstaff-Schwartz least-squares approach or optimal exercise boundary parameterization to estimate the value of early exercise.
- The accuracy of using one-factor no-arbitrage models for pricing these complex derivatives remains a subject of significant debate among financial theorists.
However, the accuracy of one-factor models for pricing Bermudan swap options has been a controversial issue.
Brokers provide quotes on caps that are not at the money as well as on caps that are at the money. In some markets a volatility skew is observed, that is, the quoted (Black) volatility for a cap or a floor is a declining function of the strike price. This can be handled using the CEV model. (See Section 27.1 for the application of the CEV model
to equities.) The model is
dFi1t2=g+ap
q=1zi,q1t2Fi1t2a dzq (33.21)
where a is a constant 106a612. It turns out that this model can be handled very
similarly to the lognormal model. Caps and floors can be valued analytically using the
cumulative noncentral x2 distribution. There are similar analytic approximations to
those given above for the prices of European swap options.11
Bermudan Swap Options
A popular interest rate derivative is a Bermudan swap option. This is a swap option that can be exercised on some or all of the payment dates of the underlying swap. Bermudan swap options are difficult to value using the BGM model because the BGM model relies on Monte Carlo simulation and it is difficult to evaluate early exercise decisions when Monte Carlo simulation is used. Fortunately, the procedures described in Section 27.8 can be used. Longstaff and Schwartz apply the least-squares approach when there are a large number of factors. The value of not exercising on a particular payment date is assumed to be a polynomial function of the values of the factors.
12
Andersen shows that the optimal early exercise boundary approach can be used. He experiments with a number of ways of parameterizing the early exercise boundary and
finds that good results are obtained when the early exercise decision is assumed to
11 For details, see L. B. G. Andersen and J. Andreasen, āVolatility Skews and Extensions of the LIBOR
Market Model,ā Applied Mathematical Finance, 7, 1 (2000): 1ā32; J. C. Hull and A. White, āForward Rate
Volatilities, Swap Rate Volatilities, and the Implementation of the LIBOR Market Model,ā Journal of Fixed Income, 10, 2 (September 2000): 46ā62.
12 See F. A. Longstaff and E. S. Schwartz, āValuing American Options by Simulation: A Simple Least
Squares Approach,ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 1 (2001): 113ā47.
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 767 30/04/2021 17:51
768 CHAPTER 33
depend only on the intrinsic value of the option.13 Most traders value Bermudan
options using one of the one-factor no-arbitrage models discussed in Chapter 32.
However, the accuracy of one-factor models for pricing Bermudan swap options has
been a controversial issue.14
13 L. B. G. Andersen, āA Simple Approach to the Pricing of Bermudan Swaptions in the Multifactor LIBOR
Market Model,ā Journal of Computational Finance, 3, 2 (Winter 2000): 5ā32.
14 For opposing viewpoints, see āFactor Dependence of Bermudan Swaptions: Fact or Fiction,ā by L. B. G.
Andersen and J. Andreasen, and āThrowing Away a Billion Dollars: The Cost of Suboptimal Exercise
Strategies in the Swaption Market,ā by F. A. Longstaff, P. Santa-Clara, and E. S. Schwartz. Both articles are
in Journal of Financial Economics, 62, 1 (October 2001).33.3 AGENCY MORTGAGE-BACKED SECURITIES
Agency Mortgage-Backed Securities
- Agency mortgage-backed securities (MBS) are guaranteed by government-related entities like GNMA or FNMA to protect investors against default risk.
- The primary risk in an agency MBS is the prepayment privilege, which functions as a 30-year American-style option for the homeowner to put the mortgage back at face value.
- Valuing these securities requires a prepayment function to estimate expected payments based on the yield curve and historical data.
- The 'law of large numbers' allows for more accurate prepayment predictions when many individual mortgages are combined into a single pool.
- Investors demand higher interest rates on MBS to compensate for the risk of prepayments occurring when interest rates are low.
This means that the householder has a 30-year American-style option to put the mortgage back to the lender at its face value.
13 L. B. G. Andersen, āA Simple Approach to the Pricing of Bermudan Swaptions in the Multifactor LIBOR
Market Model,ā Journal of Computational Finance, 3, 2 (Winter 2000): 5ā32.
14 For opposing viewpoints, see āFactor Dependence of Bermudan Swaptions: Fact or Fiction,ā by L. B. G.
Andersen and J. Andreasen, and āThrowing Away a Billion Dollars: The Cost of Suboptimal Exercise
Strategies in the Swaption Market,ā by F. A. Longstaff, P. Santa-Clara, and E. S. Schwartz. Both articles are
in Journal of Financial Economics, 62, 1 (October 2001).33.3 AGENCY MORTGAGE-BACKED SECURITIES
One application of the models presented in this chapter is to the agency mortgage-
backed security (agency MBS) market in the United States.
An agency MBS is similar to the ABS considered in Chapter 8 except that payments
are guaranteed by a government-related agency such as the Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA) or the Federal National Mortgage Association
(FNMA) so that investors are protected against defaults. This makes an agency MBS sound like a regular fixed-income security issued by the government. In fact, there is a critical difference between an agency MBS and a regular fixed-income investment. This difference is that the mortgages in an agency MBS pool have prepayment privileges. These prepayment privileges can be quite valuable to the householder. In the United States, mortgages typically last for 30 years and can be prepaid at any time. This means that the householder has a 30-year American-style option to put the mortgage back to the lender at its face value.
Prepayments on mortgages occur for a variety of reasons. Sometimes interest rates fall
and the owner of the house decides to refinance at a lower rate. On other occasions, a mortgage is prepaid simply because the house is being sold. A critical element in valuing an agency MBS is the determination of what is known as the prepayment function. This is
a function describing expected prepayments on the underlying pool of mortgages at a time t in terms of the yield curve at time t and other relevant variables.
A prepayment function is very unreliable as a predictor of actual prepayment
experience for an individual mortgage. When many similar mortgage loans are com-
bined in the same pool, there is a ālaw of large numbersā effect at work and
prepayments can be predicted more accurately from an analysis of historical data. As mentioned, prepayments are not always motivated by pure interest rate considerations. Nevertheless, there is a tendency for prepayments to be more likely when interest rates are low than when they are high. This means that investors require a higher rate of interest on an agency MBS than on other fixed-income securities to compensate for the prepayment options they have written.
Collateralized Mortgage Obligations
The simplest type of agency MBS is referred to as a pass-through. All investors receive
the same return and bear the same prepayment risk. Not all mortgage-backed securities work in this way. In a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) the investors
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 768 30/04/2021 17:51
Modeling Forward Rates 769
are divided into a number of classes and rules are developed for determining how
principal repayments are channeled to different classes. A CMO creates classes of
Collateralized Mortgage Obligations
- Collateralized Mortgage Obligations (CMOs) differ from simple pass-throughs by dividing investors into classes with distinct rules for principal repayment.
- By channeling principal repayments sequentially through classes, CMOs redistribute prepayment risk to create securities tailored for different institutional needs.
- Stripped MBS structures like IOs and POs separate interest and principal payments, creating assets that react oppositely to changes in prepayment rates.
- Valuing these complex securities typically requires Monte Carlo simulations that model Treasury rate behavior and historical yield curve movements.
- In a PO security, the total principal is fixed but the timing is uncertain, whereas in an IO security, the total cash flow itself is uncertain.
As prepayment rates increase, a PO becomes more valuable and an IO becomes less valuable.
Collateralized Mortgage Obligations
The simplest type of agency MBS is referred to as a pass-through. All investors receive
the same return and bear the same prepayment risk. Not all mortgage-backed securities work in this way. In a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) the investors
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 768 30/04/2021 17:51
Modeling Forward Rates 769
are divided into a number of classes and rules are developed for determining how
principal repayments are channeled to different classes. A CMO creates classes of
securities that bear different amounts of prepayment risk in the same way that the
ABS considered in Chapter 8 creates classes of securities bearing different amounts of credit risk.
As an example of a CMO, consider an agency MBS where investors are divided into
three classes: class A, class B, and class C. All the principal repayments (both those that are scheduled and those that are prepayments) are channeled to class A investors until
investors in this class have been completely paid off. Principal repayments are then channeled to class B investors until these investors have been completely paid off.
Finally, principal repayments are channeled to class C investors. In this situation, class A investors bear the most prepayment risk. The class A securities can be expected to last for a shorter time than the class B securities, and these, in turn, can be expected to last less long than the class C securities.
The objective of this type of structure is to create classes of securities that are more
attractive to institutional investors than those created by a simpler pass-through MBS. The prepayment risks assumed by the different classes depend on the par value in each class. For example, class C bears very little prepayment risk if the par values in classes A, B, and C are 400, 300, and 100, respectively. Class C bears rather more prepayment risk in the situation where the par values in the classes are 100, 200, and 500.
The creators of mortgage-backed securities have created many more exotic structures
than the one we have just described. Business Snapshot 33.1 gives an example.
Valuing Agency Mortgage-Backed Securities
Agency MBSs are usually valued by modeling the behavior of Treasury rates using Monte Carlo simulation. The HJM/BGM approach can be used. Consider what happens on one simulation trial. Each month, expected prepayments are calculated
from the current yield curve and the history of yield curve movements. These prepay-ments determine the expected cash flows to the holder of the agency MBS and the cash flows are discounted at the Treasury rate plus a spread to time zero to obtain a sample Business Snapshot 33.1 IOs and POs
In what is known as a stripped MBS, principal payments are separated from interest payments. All principal payments are channeled to one class of security, known as a principal only (PO). All interest payments are channeled to another class of security
known as an interest only (IO). Both IOs and POs are risky investments. As prepayment rates increase, a PO becomes more valuable and an IO becomes less
valuable. As prepayment rates decrease, the reverse happens. In a PO, a fixed amount
of principal is returned to the investor, but the timing is uncertain. A high rate of
prepayments on the underlying pool leads to the principal being received early (which
is, of course, good news for the holder of the PO). A low rate of prepayments on the underlying pool delays the return of the principal and reduces the yield provided by the PO. In the case of an IO, the total of the cash flows received by the investor is uncertain. The higher the rate of prepayments, the lower the total cash flows received by the investor, and vice versa.
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 769 30/04/2021 17:51
770 CHAPTER 33
value for the agency MBS. An estimate of the value of the agency MBS is the average of
the sample values over many simulation trials.
Option-Adjusted Spread
Valuing Mortgage-Backed Securities
- Agency Mortgage-Backed Securities (MBS) are typically valued using Monte Carlo simulations that model Treasury rate behaviors and historical yield curve movements.
- Stripped MBS products like Interest Only (IO) and Principal Only (PO) securities react oppositely to prepayment rates, creating distinct risk profiles for investors.
- The Option-Adjusted Spread (OAS) serves as a critical metric for traders to measure the yield spread over Treasuries after accounting for embedded options.
- While HJM and BGM models offer flexibility in volatility structures, their path-dependent nature requires significant computational power compared to simpler models.
- The BGM model is often preferred over HJM because it calibrates more easily to market prices for caps and European swap options.
As prepayment rates increase, a PO becomes more valuable and an IO becomes less valuable.
Agency MBSs are usually valued by modeling the behavior of Treasury rates using Monte Carlo simulation. The HJM/BGM approach can be used. Consider what happens on one simulation trial. Each month, expected prepayments are calculated
from the current yield curve and the history of yield curve movements. These prepay-ments determine the expected cash flows to the holder of the agency MBS and the cash flows are discounted at the Treasury rate plus a spread to time zero to obtain a sample Business Snapshot 33.1 IOs and POs
In what is known as a stripped MBS, principal payments are separated from interest payments. All principal payments are channeled to one class of security, known as a principal only (PO). All interest payments are channeled to another class of security
known as an interest only (IO). Both IOs and POs are risky investments. As prepayment rates increase, a PO becomes more valuable and an IO becomes less
valuable. As prepayment rates decrease, the reverse happens. In a PO, a fixed amount
of principal is returned to the investor, but the timing is uncertain. A high rate of
prepayments on the underlying pool leads to the principal being received early (which
is, of course, good news for the holder of the PO). A low rate of prepayments on the underlying pool delays the return of the principal and reduces the yield provided by the PO. In the case of an IO, the total of the cash flows received by the investor is uncertain. The higher the rate of prepayments, the lower the total cash flows received by the investor, and vice versa.
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 769 30/04/2021 17:51
770 CHAPTER 33
value for the agency MBS. An estimate of the value of the agency MBS is the average of
the sample values over many simulation trials.
Option-Adjusted Spread
In addition to calculating theoretical prices for mortgage-backed securities and other bonds with embedded options, traders also like to compute what is known as the
option-adjusted spread (OAS). This is a measure of the spread over the yields on government Treasury bonds provided by the instrument when all options have been
taken into account.
To calculate an OAS for an instrument, it is priced as described above using Treasury
rates plus a spread for discounting. The price of the instrument given by the model is compared to the price in the market. A series of iterations is then used to determine the value of the spread that causes the model price to be equal to the market price. This spread is the OAS.
SUMMARY
The HJM and BGM models provide approaches to valuing interest rate derivatives that
give the user complete freedom in choosing the volatility term structure. The BGM model has two key advantages over the HJM model. First, it is developed in terms of the forward rates that determine the pricing of caps, rather than in terms of instantaneous forward rates. Second, it is relatively easy to calibrate to the price of caps or European swap options. The HJM and BGM models both have the disadvantage that they cannot be represented as recombining trees. In practice, this means that they must usually be implemented using Monte Carlo simulation and require much more computation time than the models in Chapter 32.
The agency mortgage-backed security market in the United States has given birth to
many exotic interest rate derivatives: CMOs, IOs, POs, and so on. These instruments
provide cash flows to the holder that depend on the prepayments on a pool of mortgages. These prepayments depend on, among other things, the level of interest
rates. Because they are heavily path dependent, agency mortgage-backed securities usually have to be valued using Monte Carlo simulation. These are, therefore, ideal candidates for applications of the HJM and BGM models.
FURTHER READING
HJM and BGM Interest Models
- The HJM and BGM models offer flexibility in choosing volatility term structures for interest rate derivatives.
- The BGM model is often preferred because it uses forward rates relevant to cap pricing and is easier to calibrate than the HJM model.
- Both models lack recombining tree structures, necessitating the use of computationally intensive Monte Carlo simulations.
- The complexity of agency mortgage-backed securities, such as CMOs and IOs, makes them ideal candidates for these path-dependent modeling approaches.
- Prepayment risks in mortgage pools are heavily dependent on interest rate levels, requiring sophisticated valuation frameworks.
The agency mortgage-backed security market in the United States has given birth to many exotic interest rate derivatives: CMOs, IOs, POs, and so on.
The HJM and BGM models provide approaches to valuing interest rate derivatives that
give the user complete freedom in choosing the volatility term structure. The BGM model has two key advantages over the HJM model. First, it is developed in terms of the forward rates that determine the pricing of caps, rather than in terms of instantaneous forward rates. Second, it is relatively easy to calibrate to the price of caps or European swap options. The HJM and BGM models both have the disadvantage that they cannot be represented as recombining trees. In practice, this means that they must usually be implemented using Monte Carlo simulation and require much more computation time than the models in Chapter 32.
The agency mortgage-backed security market in the United States has given birth to
many exotic interest rate derivatives: CMOs, IOs, POs, and so on. These instruments
provide cash flows to the holder that depend on the prepayments on a pool of mortgages. These prepayments depend on, among other things, the level of interest
rates. Because they are heavily path dependent, agency mortgage-backed securities usually have to be valued using Monte Carlo simulation. These are, therefore, ideal candidates for applications of the HJM and BGM models.
FURTHER READING
Andersen, L. B. G., āA Simple Approach to the Pricing of Bermudan Swaption in the Multi-
Factor LIBOR Market Model,ā The Journal of Computational Finance, 3, 2 (2000): 5ā32.
Andersen, L. B. G., and J. Andreasen, āVolatility Skews and Extensions of the LIBOR Market
Model,ā Applied Mathematical Finance, 7, 1 (March 2000): 1ā32.
Andersen, L. B. G., and V. Piterbarg, Interest Rate Modeling, Vols. IāIII. New York: Atlantic
Financial Press, 2010.
Brace A., D. Gatarek, and M. Musiela āThe Market Model of Interest Rate Dynamics,ā
Mathematical Finance, 7, 2 (1997): 127ā55.
M33_HULL0654_11_GE_C33.indd 770 30/04/2021 17:51
Modeling Forward Rates 771
Duffie, D. and R. Kan, āA Yield-Factor Model of Interest Rates,ā Mathematical Finance 6,
4 (1996), 379ā406.
Heath, D., R. Jarrow, and A. Morton, āBond Pricing and the Term Structure of Interest Rates:
A Discrete Time Approximation,ā Journal of Financial and Quantitative Analysis, 25,
4 (December 1990): 419ā40.
Heath, D., R. Jarrow, and A. Morton, āBond Pricing and the Term Structure of Interest Rates:
A New Methodology,ā Econometrica, 60, 1 (1992): 77ā105.
Hull, J. C., and A. White, āForward Rate Volatilities, Swap Rate Volatilities, and the
Implementation of the LIBOR Market Model,ā Journal of Fixed Income, 10, 2 (September
2000): 46ā62.
Jamshidian, F., āLIBOR and Swap Market Models and Measures,ā Finance and Stochastics,
1 (1997): 293ā330.
Jarrow, R. A., and S. M. Turnbull, āDelta, Gamma, and Bucket Hedging of Interest Rate
Derivatives,ā Applied Mathematical Finance, 1 (1994): 21ā48.
Lyashenko, A., and F. Mercurio, āLooking Forward to Backward-Looking Rates: A Modeling
Framework for Term Rates Replacing LIBORā (2019). SSRN 3330240.
Mercurio, F., and Z. Xie, āThe Basis Goes Stochastic,ā Risk, 25, 12 (December 2012): 78ā83.
Miltersen, K., K. Sandmann, and D. Sondermann, āClosed Form Solutions for Term Structure
Derivatives with Lognormal Interest Rates,ā Journal of Finance, 52, 1 (March 1997): 409ā30.
Rebonato, R., Modern Pricing of Interest Rate Derivatives: The LIBOR Market Model and
Beyond. Princeton Umiversity Press, 2002.
Practice Questions
Interest Rate Models and Swaps
- The text provides a comprehensive set of practice questions covering advanced interest rate modeling frameworks like HJM, BGM, and Hull-White.
- It explores the technical differences between Markov and non-Markov models and the relationship between forward rate volatility and bond price processes.
- The transition to Chapter 34 highlights the historical significance of swaps as one of the most successful innovations in financial market history.
- Standard swap valuation relies on the 'assume forward rates will be realized' approach, using OIS rates for discounting net cash flows.
- Nonstandard swaps are introduced, requiring complex adjustments for convexity, timing, and quanto factors or the valuation of embedded options.
Based on the range of different contracts that now trade and the total volume of business transacted each year, swaps are arguably one of the most successful innovations in financial markets ever.
Lyashenko, A., and F. Mercurio, āLooking Forward to Backward-Looking Rates: A Modeling
Framework for Term Rates Replacing LIBORā (2019). SSRN 3330240.
Mercurio, F., and Z. Xie, āThe Basis Goes Stochastic,ā Risk, 25, 12 (December 2012): 78ā83.
Miltersen, K., K. Sandmann, and D. Sondermann, āClosed Form Solutions for Term Structure
Derivatives with Lognormal Interest Rates,ā Journal of Finance, 52, 1 (March 1997): 409ā30.
Rebonato, R., Modern Pricing of Interest Rate Derivatives: The LIBOR Market Model and
Beyond. Princeton Umiversity Press, 2002.
Practice Questions
33.1. Explain the difference between a Markov and a non-Markov model of the short rate.
33.2. Prove the relationship between the drift and volatility of the forward rate for the
multifactor version of HJM in equation (33.6).
33.3. āWhen the forward rate volatility s1t, T2 in HJM is constant, the HoāLee model results.ā
Verify that this is true by showing that HJM gives a process for bond prices that is
consistent with the HoāLee model in Chapter 32.
33.4. āWhen the forward rate volatility, s1t, T2, in HJM is se-a1T-t2, the HullāWhite model
results.ā Verify that this is true by showing that HJM gives a process for bond prices that
is consistent with the HullāWhite model in Chapter 32.
33.5. What is the advantage of BGM over HJM?
33.6. Provide an intuitive explanation of why a ratchet cap increases in value as the number of factors increase.
33.7. Show that equation (33.10) reduces to (33.4) as the
di tend to zero.
33.8. Explain why a sticky cap is more expensive than a similar ratchet cap.
33.9. Explain why IOs and POs have opposite sensitivities to the rate of prepayments.
33.10. āAn option adjusted spread is analogous to the yield on a bond.ā Explain this statement.
33.11. Prove equation (33.15).
33.12. Prove the formula for the variance V(T) of the swap rate in equation (33.17).
33.13. Show that the swap volatility expression (33.19) in Section 33.2 is correct.
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772 CHAPTER 33
33.14. In the flexi cap considered in Section 33.2 the holder is obligated to exercise the first
N in-the-money caplets. After that no further caplets can be exercised. (In the example,
N=5.) Two other ways that flexi caps are sometimes defined are:
(a) The holder can choose whether any caplet is exercised, but there is a limit of N on
the total number of caplets that can be exercised.
(b) Once the holder chooses to exercise a caplet all subsequent in-the-money caplets must be exercised up to a maximum of N.
Discuss the problems in valuing these types of flexi caps. Of the three types of flexi
caps, which would you expect to be most expensive? Which would you expect to be least expensive?
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773
Swaps Revisited34 CHAPTER
Swaps have been central to the success of over-the-counter derivatives markets. They
have proved to be very flexible instruments for managing risk. Based on the range of different contracts that now trade and the total volume of business transacted each year, swaps are arguably one of the most successful innovations in financial markets ever.
Chapter 7 discussed how plain vanilla interest rate swaps can be valued. The standard
approach can be summarized as: āAssume forward rates will be realized.ā The steps are as follows:
1. Calculate the swapās net cash flows on the assumption that rates in the future equal the forward rates calculated from instruments trading in the market today.
2. Set the value of the swap equal to the present value of the net cash flows using a risk-free (OIS) rate.
This chapter describes a number of nonstandard swaps. Some can be valued using the āassume forward rates will be realizedā approach; some require the application of the
convexity, timing, and quanto adjustments we encountered in Chapter 30; some contain embedded options that must be valued using the procedures described in
Chapters 29, 32, and 33.
Nonstandard Interest Rate Swaps
- Standard valuation of nonstandard swaps involves calculating net cash flows based on market forward rates and discounting them using the risk-free OIS rate.
- Step-up and amortizing swaps allow the notional principal to increase or decrease over time to match specific corporate borrowing or prepayment schedules.
- Variations in payment frequency or differing notional principals between the fixed and floating sides do not fundamentally alter the valuation methodology.
- The transition away from LIBOR is shifting the market toward overnight rates like SOFR, with potential future developments in credit-sensitive floating rates.
Swaps where the notional principal is an increasing function of time are known as step-up swaps.
1. Calculate the swapās net cash flows on the assumption that rates in the future equal the forward rates calculated from instruments trading in the market today.
2. Set the value of the swap equal to the present value of the net cash flows using a risk-free (OIS) rate.
This chapter describes a number of nonstandard swaps. Some can be valued using the āassume forward rates will be realizedā approach; some require the application of the
convexity, timing, and quanto adjustments we encountered in Chapter 30; some contain embedded options that must be valued using the procedures described in
Chapters 29, 32, and 33.
34.1 VARIATIONS ON THE VANILLA DEAL
Many interest rate swaps involve relatively minor variations to the plain vanilla structure discussed in Chapter 7. In some swaps the notional principal changes with
time in a predetermined way. Swaps where the notional principal is an increasing function of time are known as step-up swaps. Swaps where the notional principal is a decreasing function of time are known as amortizing swaps. Step-up swaps could be
useful for a construction company that intends to borrow increasing amounts of money at floating rates to finance a particular project and wants to swap to fixed-rate
funding. An amortizing swap could be used by a company that has fixed-rate borrowings with a certain prepayment schedule and wants to swap to borrowings at
a floating rate.
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774 CHAPTER 34
The principal can be different on the two sides of a swap. Also the frequency of
payments can be different. Business Snapshot 34.1 illustrates this by showing a hypo-
thetical swap between Microsoft and Goldman Sachs where the notional principal is
$120 million on the floating side and $100 million on fixed side. Payments are made every three months on the floating side and every 6 months on the fixed side. These type
of variations to the basic plain vanilla structure do not affect the valuation method-ology. The āassume forward rates are realizedā approach can still be used.
Traditionally LIBOR has been the most common floating reference rate in swaps. As
LIBOR is phased out, it is likely that swaps based on overnight rates will become more common. (As explained in Chapter 7, a typical OIS transaction involves compounded daily overnight rates being exchanged for a fixed rate at the end of each three-month period.) Banks have indicated that they would like to be able to use a non-risk-free floating reference rate in transactions, and in time it is likely that an acceptable non-risk-free floating reference rate will be developed. Banks will then be able to trade swaps where the floating rate reflects credit spreads (which vary through time) as well as those where the floating rate is risk-free.
Whatever the floating reference rate, the āassume forward rates are realized approachā
can be used in standard floating-for-fixed swaps. Cash flows are calculated based on forward rates calculated from the yield curve for the floating reference rate and these are
discounted at the risk-free (OIS) rate.Business Snapshot 34.1 Hypothetical Confirmation for Nonstandard Swap
Trade date: 4-January, 2021
Effective date: 11-January, 2021
Business day convention (all dates): Following business day
Holiday calendar: U.S.
Termination date: 11-January, 2026
Fixed amounts
Fixed-rate payer: Microsoft
Fixed-rate notional principal: USD 100 million
Fixed rate: 2% per annum
Fixed-rate day count convention: Actual>365
Fixed-rate payment dates Each 11-July and 11-January
commencing 11-July 2021 up to and including 11-January 2026
Floating amounts
Floating-rate payer Goldman Sachs
Floating-rate notional principal USD 120 million
Floating rate USD 3-month compounded SOFR
Floating-rate day count convention Actual>360
Floating-rate payment dates Each 11-April, 11-July, 11-October,
and 11-January commencing11-April 2021 up to and including
11-January 2026
Compounding Swap Mechanics
- Compounding swaps differ from plain vanilla swaps by deferring interest payments until the end of the contract's life.
- The hypothetical confirmation between Microsoft and Goldman Sachs illustrates how interest is compounded forward rather than paid periodically.
- Basis swaps serve as a risk management tool for companies whose assets and liabilities are tied to different floating reference rates.
- Valuation of these instruments can be approximated using the 'assume forward rates are realized' approach, treating floating cash flows as a series of forward rate agreements.
- The fixed side of a compounding swap is predictable because the final payment at maturity is known with certainty at the outset.
Instead of being paid, the interest is compounded forward until the end of the life of the swap at a rate of SOFR.
Fixed-rate notional principal: USD 100 million
Fixed rate: 2% per annum
Fixed-rate day count convention: Actual>365
Fixed-rate payment dates Each 11-July and 11-January
commencing 11-July 2021 up to and including 11-January 2026
Floating amounts
Floating-rate payer Goldman Sachs
Floating-rate notional principal USD 120 million
Floating rate USD 3-month compounded SOFR
Floating-rate day count convention Actual>360
Floating-rate payment dates Each 11-April, 11-July, 11-October,
and 11-January commencing11-April 2021 up to and including
11-January 2026
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Basis swaps where interest at one floating reference rate is exchanged for interest at
another floating reference rate are a potentially useful tool to companies whose assets
and liabilities are dependent on different floating rates.Business Snapshot 34.2 Hypothetical Confirmation for Compounding Swap
Trade date: 4-January, 2021
Effective date: 11-January, 2021
Holiday calendar: U.S.
Business day convention (all dates): Following business day
Termination date: 11-January, 2026
Fixed amounts
Fixed-rate payer: Microsoft
Fixed-rate notional principal: USD 100 million
Fixed rate: 2% per annum
Fixed-rate day count convention: Actual>365
Fixed-rate payment date: 11-January, 2026
Fixed-rate compounding: Applicable at 2.3% per annum
Fixed-rate compounding dates Each 11-April, 11-July, 11-October,
and 11-January commencing
11-April 2021 up to and including
11-January 2026
Floating amounts
Floating-rate payer: Goldman Sachs
Floating-rate notional principal: USD 100 million
Floating rate: USD 3-month compounded SOFR
plus 20 basis points
Floating-rate day count convention: Actual>360
Floating-rate payment date: 11-January, 2026
Floating-rate compounding: Applicable at SOFR
Floating-rate compounding dates: Each 11-April, 11-July, 11-October,
and 11-January commencing
11-April 2021 up to and including
11-January 2026
34.2 COMPOUNDING SWAPS
Another variation on the plain vanilla swap is a compounding swap. A hypothetical
confirmation for a compounding swap is in Business Snapshot 34.2. In this example there is only one payment date for both the floating-rate payments and the fixed-rate payments. This is at the end of the life of the swap. The floating rate of interest is SOFR plus 20 basis points. Instead of being paid, the interest is compounded forward until the
end of the life of the swap at a rate of SOFR. The fixed rate of interest is 2% per
annum. Instead of being paid this interest is compounded forward at a fixed rate of interest of 2.3% per annum until the end of the swap.
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776 CHAPTER 34
The āassume forward rates are realizedā approach can be used at least approximately
for valuing a compounding swap such as that in Business Snapshot 34.2. It is straight-
forward to deal with the fixed side of the swap because the payment that will be made at maturity is known with certainty. The āassume forward rates are realizedā approach for
the floating side is justifiable because there exist a series of forward rate agreements (FRAs) where the floating-rate cash flows are exchanged for the values they would have if each floating rate equaled the corresponding forward rate.
1
Example 34.1
A compounding swap with annual resets has a life of three years. A fixed rate is paid and a floating rate is received. The fixed interest rate is 4% and the floating reference interest rate is a 12-month rate. The fixed side compounds at 3.9% and
the floating side compounds at the 12-month rate minus 20 basis points. All forward rates for the floating reference rate are 5%. OIS rates are all 4%. The notional principal is $100 million. (All rates are annually compounded.)
On the fixed side, interest of $4 million is earned at the end of the first year.
This compounds to
Compounding and Currency Swaps
- Compounding swaps are valued by calculating the total accumulated interest on both fixed and floating sides at the end of the swap's life.
- The valuation process assumes that future interest rates will equal current forward rates to project floating side cash flows.
- Currency swaps allow for the exchange of interest rate exposures and principal amounts between two different national currencies.
- Fixed-for-fixed, floating-for-floating, and cross-currency interest rate swaps represent the primary variations of currency-based exchanges.
- The net value of a compounding swap is determined by discounting the difference between the final compounded inflows and outflows using the OIS rate.
The swap can be valued by assuming that it leads to an inflow of $15.731 million and an outflow of $12.474 million at the end of year 3.
A compounding swap with annual resets has a life of three years. A fixed rate is paid and a floating rate is received. The fixed interest rate is 4% and the floating reference interest rate is a 12-month rate. The fixed side compounds at 3.9% and
the floating side compounds at the 12-month rate minus 20 basis points. All forward rates for the floating reference rate are 5%. OIS rates are all 4%. The notional principal is $100 million. (All rates are annually compounded.)
On the fixed side, interest of $4 million is earned at the end of the first year.
This compounds to
4*1.039=+4.156 million at the end of the second year.
A second interest amount of $4 million is added at the end of the second year bringing the total compounded forward amount to $8.156 million. This com-pounds to
8.156*1.039=+8.474 million by the end of the third year when there
is the third interest amount of $4 million. The cash flow at the end of the third year on the fixed side of the swap is therefore $12.474 million.
On the floating side we assume all future interest rates equal the corresponding
forward rates. This means that all future interest rates are assumed to be 5% with
annual compounding. The interest calculated at the end of the first year is
$5 million. Compounding this forward at 4.8% (forward rate minus 20 basis points) gives
5*1.048=+5.24 million at the end of the second year. Adding
in the interest, the compounded forward amount is $10.24 million. Compounding
forward to the end of the third year, we get 10.24*1.048=$10.731 million.
Adding in the final interest gives $15.731 million.
The swap can be valued by assuming that it leads to an inflow of $15.731 million
and an outflow of $12.474 million at the end of year 3. The value of the swap is
therefore
15.731-12.474
1.043=2.895
or $2.895 million. (This analysis ignores day count issues and makes the approx-imation indicated in footnote 1.)
1 See Technical Note 18 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for the details. The āassume
forward rates are realizedā approach works exactly if the spread used for compounding, sc, is zero or if it is
applied so that Q at time t compounds to Q11+Rt211+sct2 at time t+t, where R is LIBOR. If, as is more
usual, it compounds to Q31+1R+sc2t4, then there is a small approximation.34.3 CURRENCY AND NONSTANDARD SWAPS
Currency swaps were introduced in Chapter 7. They enable an interest rate exposure in one currency to be swapped for an interest rate exposure in another currency. Usually
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Swaps Revisited 777
two principals are specified, one in each currency. The principals are exchanged at both
the beginning and the end of the life of the swap as described in Section 7.7.
Suppose that the currencies involved in a currency swap are U.S. dollars (USD) and
British pounds (GBP). In a fixed-for-fixed currency swap, a fixed rate of interest is specified in each currency. The payments on one side are determined by applying the fixed rate of interest in USD to the USD principal; the payments on the other side are determined by applying the fixed rate of interest in GBP to the GBP principal.
In a floating-for-floating currency swap, the payments on one side are determined by
applying a USD floating rate (possibly with a spread added) to the USD principal; similarly the payments on the other side are determined by applying a GBP floating rate
(possibly with a spread added) to the GBP principal. In a cross-currency interest rate swap, a floating rate in one currency is exchanged for a fixed rate in another currency.
Floating-for-floating and cross-currency interest rate swaps can be valued using the
Currency and Equity Swaps
- Currency swaps involve the exchange of principal and interest payments in two different currencies, which can be structured as fixed-for-fixed, floating-for-floating, or cross-currency interest rate swaps.
- Valuation of these swaps typically relies on the assumption that forward rates will be realized, allowing cash flows to be discounted at their respective zero rates and translated via current exchange rates.
- Standard valuation models must be adjusted for differential swaps or timing differences to ensure that new transactions have a zero initial value and prevent internal arbitrage.
- Equity swaps allow fund managers to exchange index returns for fixed or floating interest, providing a tool to manage market exposure without the need to buy or sell underlying stocks.
- In an equity swap, the index involved is usually a total return index where dividends are reinvested, effectively packaging a series of forward contracts into a single agreement.
If a bankās system does not value deals consistently with the market, its traders will be able to arbitrage the system.
two principals are specified, one in each currency. The principals are exchanged at both
the beginning and the end of the life of the swap as described in Section 7.7.
Suppose that the currencies involved in a currency swap are U.S. dollars (USD) and
British pounds (GBP). In a fixed-for-fixed currency swap, a fixed rate of interest is specified in each currency. The payments on one side are determined by applying the fixed rate of interest in USD to the USD principal; the payments on the other side are determined by applying the fixed rate of interest in GBP to the GBP principal.
In a floating-for-floating currency swap, the payments on one side are determined by
applying a USD floating rate (possibly with a spread added) to the USD principal; similarly the payments on the other side are determined by applying a GBP floating rate
(possibly with a spread added) to the GBP principal. In a cross-currency interest rate swap, a floating rate in one currency is exchanged for a fixed rate in another currency.
Floating-for-floating and cross-currency interest rate swaps can be valued using the
āassume forward rates are realizedā rule. Future rates in each currency are assumed to
equal todayās forward rates. This enables the cash flows in the currencies to be determined. The USD cash flows are discounted at the USD zero rate. The GBP cash
flows are discounted at the GBP zero rate. The current exchange rate is then used to translate the two present values to a common currency.
It is important to ensure that valuation procedures are such that transactions that
could be negotiated today (at the midpoint of bid and ask) have zero value. The discount rates that are used are often adjusted to ensure that this is the case.
2
The results in Chapter 30 indicate that the āassume forward rates will be realizedā
approach to valuation does not always work. It must be replaced by āassume adjusted
forward rates will be realized.ā If payments on a swap depend on a bond yield or a swap rate, equation (30.1) can be used to determine adjusted forward rates. If timing differences are involved in the determination of payments, equation (30.3) can be used to determine adjusted forward rates. A swap where an interest rate in one currency is applied to a principal in another currency is known as a differential swap or diff swap. In this case the quanto adjustment in equation (30.5) is necessary to determine adjusted forward rates.
2 If a bankās system does not value deals consistently with the market, its traders will be able to arbitrage
the system.34.4 EQUITY SWAPS
In an equity swap, one party promises to pay the return on an equity index on a notional principal, while the other promises to pay a fixed or floating return on a notional principal. Equity swaps enable a fund managers to increase or reduce their exposure to an index without buying and selling stock. An equity swap is a convenient way of packaging a series of forward contracts on an index to meet the needs of the market participants.
The equity index is usually a total return index where dividends are reinvested in the
stocks comprising the index. An example of an equity swap is in Business Snapshot 34.3.
In this, the 3-month return on the S&P 500 is exchanged for 3-month SOFR. The principal on either side of the swap is $100 million and payments are made every
3 months.
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778 CHAPTER 34
Equity and Accrual Swaps
- Equity swaps allow fund managers to adjust index exposure without the transaction costs of buying or selling underlying stocks.
- The valuation of an equity swap is theoretically zero at inception and immediately after payment dates because the cash flows can be costlessly replicated.
- Equity index payments are typically based on total return indices, where dividends are reinvested into the stocks comprising the index.
- Accrual swaps introduce a conditional element where interest only accumulates on days when a reference rate stays within a specific range.
- The valuation of equity swaps between payment dates requires calculating the current index performance relative to its value at the last payment date.
This is because a financial institution can in theory arrange to costlessly replicate the cash flows to one side by borrowing the principal on each payment date and investing it in the index until the next payment date with any dividends being reinvested.
In an equity swap, one party promises to pay the return on an equity index on a notional principal, while the other promises to pay a fixed or floating return on a notional principal. Equity swaps enable a fund managers to increase or reduce their exposure to an index without buying and selling stock. An equity swap is a convenient way of packaging a series of forward contracts on an index to meet the needs of the market participants.
The equity index is usually a total return index where dividends are reinvested in the
stocks comprising the index. An example of an equity swap is in Business Snapshot 34.3.
In this, the 3-month return on the S&P 500 is exchanged for 3-month SOFR. The principal on either side of the swap is $100 million and payments are made every
3 months.
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778 CHAPTER 34
For an equity-for-floating swap such as that in Business Snapshot 34.3, the value at
the start of its life is zero. This is because a financial institution can in theory arrange to
costlessly replicate the cash flows to one side by borrowing the principal on each
payment date and investing it in the index until the next payment date with any
dividends being reinvested. A similar argument shows that the swap is always worth
zero immediately after a payment date.
Between payment dates the equity cash flow and the floating cash flow at the next
payment date must be valued. The next floating cash flow can be valued from the overnight rates already observed and a forward rate for the remaining time until the
next payment calculated from the SOFR zero curve. The value of the next equity cash flow is
L1E-E02>E0, where L is the principal, E is the current value of the equity
index, and E0 is its value at the last payment date.3Business Snapshot 34.3 Hypothetical Confirmation for an Equity Swap
Trade date: 4-January, 2021
Effective date: 11-January, 2021
Business day convention (all dates): Following business day
Holiday calendar: U.S.
Termination date: 11-January, 2026
Equity amounts
Equity payer: Microsoft
Equity principal USD 100 million
Equity index: Total Return S&P 500 index
Equity payment: 1001I1-I02>I0, where I1 is the index
level on the payment date and I0 is the
index level on the immediately preceding
payment date. In the case of the first payment date,
I0 is the index level on
11-January, 2021
Equity payment dates: Each 11-April, 11-July, 11-October, and 11-January commencing
11-April 2021 up to and including
11-January 2026
Floating amounts
Floating-rate payer: Goldman Sachs
Floating-rate notional principal: USD 100 million
Floating rate: USD 3-month compounded SOFR
Floating-rate day count convention: Actual>360
Floating-rate payment dates: Each 11-April, 11-July, 11-October,
and 11-January commencing
11-April 2021 up to and including
11-January 2026
3 See Technical Note 19 at www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes for a more detailed
discussion.
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Swaps Revisited 779
Some swaps contain embedded options. In this section we consider some commonly
encountered examples.
Accrual Swaps
Accrual swaps are swaps where the interest on one side accrues only when the floating reference rate is within a certain range. Sometimes the range remains fixed during the entire life of the swap; sometimes it is reset periodically.
As a simple example of an accrual swap, consider a deal where a fixed rate Q is
exchanged for compounded SOFR every quarter and the fixed rate accrues only on days when SOFR is below 2% per annum. Suppose that the principal is L. In a normal swap the fixed-rate payer would pay
QLn1>n2 on each payment date where n1 is the number
Swaps with Embedded Options
- Accrual swaps are specialized contracts where interest only accumulates on days when a floating reference rate remains within a predefined range.
- The financial structure of an accrual swap is mathematically equivalent to a standard swap combined with a series of daily binary options.
- Valuing these instruments requires calculating the probability that the reference rate will exceed a cutoff, often utilizing lognormal assumptions and timing adjustments.
- Cancelable swaps allow one party to terminate the agreement early, effectively functioning as a plain vanilla swap paired with a swaption.
- A cancelable swap with a single termination date is equivalent to a regular swap plus a European swaption to enter into an offsetting position.
The fixed-rate payerās position can therefore be considered equivalent to a regular swap plus a series of binary options, one for each day of the life of the swap.
Accrual swaps are swaps where the interest on one side accrues only when the floating reference rate is within a certain range. Sometimes the range remains fixed during the entire life of the swap; sometimes it is reset periodically.
As a simple example of an accrual swap, consider a deal where a fixed rate Q is
exchanged for compounded SOFR every quarter and the fixed rate accrues only on days when SOFR is below 2% per annum. Suppose that the principal is L. In a normal swap the fixed-rate payer would pay
QLn1>n2 on each payment date where n1 is the number
of days in the preceding quarter and n2 is the number of days in the year. (This assumes
that the day count is actual/actual.) In an accrual swap, this is changed to QLn3>n2,
where n3 is the number of days in the preceding quarter that SOFR was below 2%. The
fixed-rate payer saves QL>n2 on each day when SOFR is above 2%.4 The fixed-rate
payerās position can therefore be considered equivalent to a regular swap plus a series of
binary options, one for each day of the life of the swap. The binary options pay off
QL>n2 when SOFR is above 2%.
To generalize, suppose that the cutoff rate (2% in the case just considered) is RK.
Consider day i during the life of the swap and suppose that ti is the time until day i.
Suppose that the interest accrues when Ri6RK where Ri is a floating reference interest
rate for the period between ti and t i + Ļ. Define Fi as the forward value of Ri and si as
the volatility of Fi. Making the usual lognormal assumption, the probability that Ri is
greater than RK in a world defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing
at time t i + Ļ is N1d22, where
d2=ln1Fi>RK2-s2
iti>2
si1ti
The payoff from the binary option is realized at the swap payment date following day i .
Suppose that this is at time si. The probability that SOFR is greater than RK in a world
defined by a numeraire equal to a zero-coupon bond maturing at time si is given by
N1d*
22, where d*
2 is calculated using the same formula as d2, but with a small timing
adjustment to Fi reflecting the difference between time t i + Ļ and time si.
The value of the binary option corresponding to day i is
QL
n2P10, si2N1d*
22
where P10, t2 as usual is the price of a risk-free zero-coupon bond maturing at time t.
The total value of the binary options is obtained by summing this expression for every
day in the life of the swap. The timing adjustment (causing d2 to be replaced by d*
2) is so
small that, in practice, it is frequently ignored.34.5 SWAPS WITH EMBEDDED OPTIONS
4 The usual convention is that, if a day is a holiday, the applicable rate is assumed to be the rate on the
immediately preceding business day.
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780 CHAPTER 34
Cancelable Swap
A cancelable swap is a plain vanilla interest rate swap where one side has the option to
terminate on one or more payment dates. Terminating a swap is the same as entering into the offsetting (opposite) swap. Consider a swap between Microsoft and Goldman Sachs. If Microsoft has the option to cancel, it can regard the swap as a regular swap plus a long position in an option to enter into the offsetting swap. If Goldman Sachs has the cancelation option, Microsoft has a regular swap plus a short position in an option to enter into the swap.
If there is only one termination date, a cancelable swap is the same as a regular swap
plus a position in a European swaption. Consider, for example, a 10-year swap where
Microsoft will receive 6% and pay a floating rate. Suppose that Microsoft has the option to terminate at the end of 6 years. The swap is a regular 10-year swap to receive 6% and pay floating plus a long position in a 6-year European option to enter into a 4-year swap where 6% is paid and floating is received. (The latter is referred to as a
6*4 European swaption.) The standard market model for valuing European swap-
Mechanics of Cancelable Swaps
- A cancelable swap is a standard interest rate swap that includes an embedded option for one party to terminate the agreement on specific payment dates.
- The valuation of these instruments treats the cancellation right as a regular swap combined with either a long or short position in a swaption.
- Single-date termination options are modeled as European swaptions, while multiple termination dates are treated as Bermudan-style swaptions.
- For cancelable compounding swaps, valuation can be simplified by treating the floating side as par and focusing on maximizing or minimizing the value of the fixed side.
- When valuing these options using interest rate trees, the decision to cancel is essentially a test of whether the fixed side of the swap is worth more or less than par at a given node.
Terminating a swap is the same as entering into the offsetting (opposite) swap.
A cancelable swap is a plain vanilla interest rate swap where one side has the option to
terminate on one or more payment dates. Terminating a swap is the same as entering into the offsetting (opposite) swap. Consider a swap between Microsoft and Goldman Sachs. If Microsoft has the option to cancel, it can regard the swap as a regular swap plus a long position in an option to enter into the offsetting swap. If Goldman Sachs has the cancelation option, Microsoft has a regular swap plus a short position in an option to enter into the swap.
If there is only one termination date, a cancelable swap is the same as a regular swap
plus a position in a European swaption. Consider, for example, a 10-year swap where
Microsoft will receive 6% and pay a floating rate. Suppose that Microsoft has the option to terminate at the end of 6 years. The swap is a regular 10-year swap to receive 6% and pay floating plus a long position in a 6-year European option to enter into a 4-year swap where 6% is paid and floating is received. (The latter is referred to as a
6*4 European swaption.) The standard market model for valuing European swap-
tions is described in Chapter 29.
When the swap can be terminated on a number of different payment dates, it is a
regular swap plus a Bermudan-style swaption. Consider, for example, the situation where Microsoft has entered into a 5-year swap with semiannual payments where 6% is received and a floating rate is paid. Suppose that the counterparty has the option to terminate the swap on payment dates between year 2 and year 5. The swap is a regular swap plus a short position in a Bermudan-style swaption, where the Bermudan-style swaption is an option to enter into a swap that matures in 5 years and involves a fixed payment at 6% being received and floating being paid. The swaption can be exercised
on any payment date between year 2 and year 5. Methods for valuing Bermudan swaptions are discussed in Chapters 32 and 33.
Cancelable Compounding Swaps
Sometimes compounding swaps can be terminated on specified payment dates. On
termination, the floating-rate payer pays the compounded value of the floating amounts
up to the time of termination and the fixed-rate payer pays the compounded value of the fixed payments up to the time of termination.
Some tricks can be used to value cancelable compounding swaps. Suppose first that
the floating rate is a risk-free rate (such as compounded SOFR or SONIA) and it is compounded at the risk-free rate. Assume that the principal amount of the swap is
paid on both the fixed and floating sides of the swap at the end of its life. This is similar to moving from Table 7.1 to Table 7.2 for a vanilla swap. It does not change the value of the swap and has the effect of ensuring that the value of the floating side always equals the notional principal immediately after a payment date. To make the cancelation decision, we need only look at the fixed side. We construct an interest rate tree as outlined in Chapter 32. We roll back through the tree in the usual way valuing
the fixed side. At each node where the swap can be canceled, we test whether it is optimal to keep the swap or cancel it. Canceling the swap in effect sets the fixed side
equal to par. If we are paying fixed and receiving floating, our objective is to minimize the value of the fixed side; if we are receiving fixed and paying floating, our objective is to maximize the value of the fixed side.
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When the floating side is the risk-free rate plus a spread compounded at the risk-free
rate, the cash flows corresponding to the spread rate of interest can be subtracted from
the fixed side instead of adding them to the floating side. The option can then be valued as in the case where there is no spread.
When the compounding is at the risk-free rate plus a spread, an approximate
approach is as follows:
5
Valuing Cancelable Compounding Swaps
- Cancelable compounding swaps can be valued by simplifying the floating side to equal the notional principal, allowing the focus to remain on the fixed side.
- Interest rate trees are utilized to determine optimal cancellation by comparing the value of keeping the swap versus setting the fixed side to par.
- When spreads are involved in compounding, an approximate approach involves calculating the 'value of spreads' and adjusting the fixed side valuation accordingly.
- The financial market offers diverse swap structures, such as index amortizing rate swaps, which are limited only by the imagination of financial engineers.
- Index amortizing swaps were specifically designed to mirror the returns and prepayment risks associated with mortgage-backed securities.
In practice, the range of different contracts that trade is limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the appetite of corporate treasurers for innovative risk management tools.
up to the time of termination and the fixed-rate payer pays the compounded value of the fixed payments up to the time of termination.
Some tricks can be used to value cancelable compounding swaps. Suppose first that
the floating rate is a risk-free rate (such as compounded SOFR or SONIA) and it is compounded at the risk-free rate. Assume that the principal amount of the swap is
paid on both the fixed and floating sides of the swap at the end of its life. This is similar to moving from Table 7.1 to Table 7.2 for a vanilla swap. It does not change the value of the swap and has the effect of ensuring that the value of the floating side always equals the notional principal immediately after a payment date. To make the cancelation decision, we need only look at the fixed side. We construct an interest rate tree as outlined in Chapter 32. We roll back through the tree in the usual way valuing
the fixed side. At each node where the swap can be canceled, we test whether it is optimal to keep the swap or cancel it. Canceling the swap in effect sets the fixed side
equal to par. If we are paying fixed and receiving floating, our objective is to minimize the value of the fixed side; if we are receiving fixed and paying floating, our objective is to maximize the value of the fixed side.
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When the floating side is the risk-free rate plus a spread compounded at the risk-free
rate, the cash flows corresponding to the spread rate of interest can be subtracted from
the fixed side instead of adding them to the floating side. The option can then be valued as in the case where there is no spread.
When the compounding is at the risk-free rate plus a spread, an approximate
approach is as follows:
5
1. Calculate the value of the floating side of the swap at each cancelation date assuming forward rates are realized.
2. Calculate the value of the floating side of the swap at each cancelation date
assuming that the floating rate is the risk-free rate and it is compounded at the
risk-free rate.
3. Define the excess of step 1 over step 2 as the āvalue of spreadsā on a cancelation date.
4. Treat the option in the way described above. In deciding whether to exercise the
cancelation option, subtract the value of the spreads from the values calculated for the fixed side.
5 This approach is not perfectly accurate in that it assumes that the decision to exercise the cancelation
option is not influenced by future payments being compounded at a rate different from the floating rate.34.6 OTHER SWAPS
This chapter has discussed just a few of the swap structures in the market. In practice, the range of different contracts that trade is limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the appetite of corporate treasurers for innovative risk management tools.
A swap that was very popular in the United States in the mid-1990s is an index
amortizing rate swap (also called an indexed principal swap). In this, the principal
reduces in a way dependent on the level of interest rates. The lower the interest rate, the greater the reduction in the principal. The fixed side of an indexed amortizing swap was originally designed to mirror approximately the return obtained by an investor on an agency mortgage-backed security after prepayment options are taken into account.
The swap therefore exchanged the return on the mortgage-backed security for a floating-rate return.
Commodity swaps are now becoming increasingly popular. A company that consumes
Exotic Swaps and Bizarre Deals
- The financial market offers a vast range of swap structures limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the risk management needs of corporate treasurers.
- Index amortizing rate swaps allow principal reductions based on interest rate levels, effectively mirroring the prepayment behavior of mortgage-backed securities.
- Commodity swaps enable companies to lock in fixed prices for resources like oil, providing a hedge against market volatility for both consumers and producers.
- The '5/30' swap between Procter and Gamble and Bankers Trust serves as a cautionary example of a 'bizarre' deal that resulted in high-profile litigation.
In practice, the range of different contracts that trade is limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the appetite of corporate treasurers for innovative risk management tools.
cancelation option, subtract the value of the spreads from the values calculated for the fixed side.
5 This approach is not perfectly accurate in that it assumes that the decision to exercise the cancelation
option is not influenced by future payments being compounded at a rate different from the floating rate.34.6 OTHER SWAPS
This chapter has discussed just a few of the swap structures in the market. In practice, the range of different contracts that trade is limited only by the imagination of financial engineers and the appetite of corporate treasurers for innovative risk management tools.
A swap that was very popular in the United States in the mid-1990s is an index
amortizing rate swap (also called an indexed principal swap). In this, the principal
reduces in a way dependent on the level of interest rates. The lower the interest rate, the greater the reduction in the principal. The fixed side of an indexed amortizing swap was originally designed to mirror approximately the return obtained by an investor on an agency mortgage-backed security after prepayment options are taken into account.
The swap therefore exchanged the return on the mortgage-backed security for a floating-rate return.
Commodity swaps are now becoming increasingly popular. A company that consumes
100,000 barrels of oil per year could agree to pay $5 million each year for the next
10 years and to receive in return 100,000S, where S is the market price of oil per barrel. The agreement would in effect lock in the companyās oil cost at $50 per barrel. An oil producer might agree to the opposite exchange, thereby locking in the price it realized
for its oil at $50 per barrel. Energy derivatives such as this will be discussed in Chapter 35.
A number of other types of swaps are discussed elsewhere in this book. For example,
asset swaps are discussed in Chapter 24, total return swaps and various types of credit default swaps are covered in Chapter 25, and volatility and variance swaps are analyzed in Chapter 26.
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Bizarre Deals
Some swaps have payoffs that are calculated in quite bizarre ways. An example is a deal
entered into between Procter and Gamble and Bankers Trust in 1993 (see Business Snapshot 34.4). The details of this transaction are in the public domain because it later
became the subject of litigation.
6
SUMMARY
Swaps have proved to be very versatile financial instruments. Many swaps can be valued
by (a) assuming that the floating reference rate will equal its forward value and
(b) discounting the resulting cash flows. These include plain vanilla interest swaps, most
types of currency swaps, swaps where the principal changes in a predetermined way, swaps where the payment dates are different on each side, and compounding swaps.
Some swaps require the adjustments to the forward rates discussed in Chapter 30
when they are valued. These adjustments are termed convexity, timing, or quanto adjustments.Business Snapshot 34.4 Procter and Gambleās Bizarre Deal
A particularly bizarre swap is the so-called ā5> 30ā swap entered into between Bankers
Trust (BT) and Procter and Gamble (P&G) on November 2, 1993. This was a 5-year swap with semiannual payments. The notional principal was $200 million. BT paid P&G 5.30% per annum. P&G paid BT the average 30-day CP (commercial paper)
rate minus 75 basis points plus a spread. The average commercial paper rate was calculated by taking observations on the 30-day commercial paper rate each day
during the preceding accrual period and averaging them.
The spread was zero for the first payment date (May 2, 1994). For the remaining
nine payment dates, it was
maxā„0, 98.5a5@year CMT%
5.78%b-130@year TSY price2
100Ā„
Swap Versatility and Risk
- Standard swaps are valued by assuming floating rates equal their forward values and discounting the resulting cash flows.
- Complex swaps may require convexity, timing, or quanto adjustments to account for specific market variables.
- The 1993 Procter and Gamble deal with Bankers Trust serves as a cautionary example of a highly leveraged, 'bizarre' swap structure.
- Equity swaps allow parties to exchange the returns of an equity index for fixed or floating interest rates.
- Many modern swaps incorporate embedded options, such as accrual swaps with binary options or cancelable swaps with Bermudan swaptions.
In fact, interest rates rose sharply in early 1994, bond prices fell, and the swap proved very, very expensive.
Swaps have proved to be very versatile financial instruments. Many swaps can be valued
by (a) assuming that the floating reference rate will equal its forward value and
(b) discounting the resulting cash flows. These include plain vanilla interest swaps, most
types of currency swaps, swaps where the principal changes in a predetermined way, swaps where the payment dates are different on each side, and compounding swaps.
Some swaps require the adjustments to the forward rates discussed in Chapter 30
when they are valued. These adjustments are termed convexity, timing, or quanto adjustments.Business Snapshot 34.4 Procter and Gambleās Bizarre Deal
A particularly bizarre swap is the so-called ā5> 30ā swap entered into between Bankers
Trust (BT) and Procter and Gamble (P&G) on November 2, 1993. This was a 5-year swap with semiannual payments. The notional principal was $200 million. BT paid P&G 5.30% per annum. P&G paid BT the average 30-day CP (commercial paper)
rate minus 75 basis points plus a spread. The average commercial paper rate was calculated by taking observations on the 30-day commercial paper rate each day
during the preceding accrual period and averaging them.
The spread was zero for the first payment date (May 2, 1994). For the remaining
nine payment dates, it was
maxā„0, 98.5a5@year CMT%
5.78%b-130@year TSY price2
100Ā„
In this, 5-year CMT is the constant maturity Treasury yield (i.e., the yield on a 5-year Treasury note, as reported by the U.S. Federal Reserve). The 30-year TSY price is the midpoint of the bid and ask cash bond prices for the 6.25% Treasury bond maturing
on August 2023. Note that the spread calculated from the formula is a decimal interest rate. It is not measured in basis points. If the formula gives 0.1 and the CP
rate is 6%, the rate paid by P&G is 15.25%.
P&G were hoping that the spread would be zero and the deal would enable it to
exchange fixed-rate funding at 5.30% for funding at 75 basis points less than the commercial paper rate. In fact, interest rates rose sharply in early 1994, bond prices fell, and the swap proved very, very expensive (see Problem 34.7).
6 See D. J. Smith, āAggressive Corporate Finance: A Close Look at the Procter and GambleāBankers Trust
Leveraged Swap,ā Journal of Derivatives 4, 4 (Summer 1997): 67ā79.
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Equity swaps involve the return on an equity index being exchanged for a fixed or
floating rate of interest. They are usually designed so that they are worth zero immediately
after a payment date, but they may have nonzero values between payment dates.
Some swaps involve embedded options. An accrual swap is a regular swap plus a
large portfolio of binary options (one for each day of the life of the swap). A cancelable swap is a regular swap plus a Bermudan swaption.
FURTHER READING
Chance, D., and Rich, D., āThe Pricing of Equity Swap and Swaptions,ā Journal of Derivatives
5, 4 (Summer 1998): 19ā31.
Smith D. J., āAggressive Corporate Finance: A Close Look at the Procter and GambleāBankers
Trust Leveraged Swap,ā Journal of Derivatives, 4, 4 (Summer 1997): 67ā79.
Practice Questions
Equity Swaps and Exotic Structures
- Equity swaps facilitate the exchange of returns on an equity index for fixed or floating interest rates.
- These financial instruments are typically structured to have zero value immediately following a payment date.
- Complex swaps often incorporate embedded options, such as accrual swaps which function as a portfolio of binary options.
- A cancelable swap is defined as a combination of a standard swap and a Bermudan swaption.
- The text provides quantitative practice problems for valuing compounding swaps, diff swaps, and leveraged structures.
An accrual swap is a regular swap plus a large portfolio of binary options (one for each day of the life of the swap).
Equity swaps involve the return on an equity index being exchanged for a fixed or
floating rate of interest. They are usually designed so that they are worth zero immediately
after a payment date, but they may have nonzero values between payment dates.
Some swaps involve embedded options. An accrual swap is a regular swap plus a
large portfolio of binary options (one for each day of the life of the swap). A cancelable swap is a regular swap plus a Bermudan swaption.
FURTHER READING
Chance, D., and Rich, D., āThe Pricing of Equity Swap and Swaptions,ā Journal of Derivatives
5, 4 (Summer 1998): 19ā31.
Smith D. J., āAggressive Corporate Finance: A Close Look at the Procter and GambleāBankers
Trust Leveraged Swap,ā Journal of Derivatives, 4, 4 (Summer 1997): 67ā79.
Practice Questions
34.1. Calculate all the fixed cash flows and their exact timing for the swap in Business Snapshot 34.1. Assume that the day count conventions are applied using target payment
dates rather than actual payment dates.
34.2. Suppose that a swap specifies that a fixed rate is exchanged for twice a floating rate. Can the swap be valued using the āassume forward rates are realizedā rule?
34.3. What is the value of a 2-year fixed-for-floating compounding swap where the principal is $100 million and payments are made semiannually? Fixed interest is received and floating is paid. The fixed rate is 3% per annum and fixed cash flows are compounded every six
months at a rate of 3.3% per annum. (Both the 3% and 3.3% are expressed with semiannual compounding.) The floating rate is a risk-free rate plus 10 basis points and
it is compounded at the risk-free rate plus 20 basis points. The risk-free zero curve is flat at 3% with semiannual compounding.
34.4. What is the value of a 5-year swap where a risk-free floating rate is paid in the usual way and in return the risk-free rate compounded at the risk-free rate is received on the other side? The principal on both sides is $100 million. Payment dates on the pay side and compounding dates on the receive side are every 3 months. The risk-free zero curve is flat at 2% with quarterly compounding.
34.5. In the accrual swap discussed in the text, the fixed side accrues only when the floating
reference rate lies below a certain level. Discuss how the analysis can be extended to cope with a situation where the fixed side accrues only when the floating reference rate is between two levels.
34.6. Risk-free zero rates are flat at 2% in the United States and flat at 5% in Australia (both annually compounded). In a 4-year diff swap the Australian floating risk-free rate is received and 4% is paid, with both being applied to a USD principal of $10 million.
Payments are exchanged annually. The volatility of all 1-year forward rates in Australia is
estimated to be 25%, the volatility of the forward USD/AUD exchange rate (AUD per USD) is 15% for all maturities, and the correlation between the two is 0.3. What is the
value of the swap?
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34.7. Estimate the interest rate paid by P&G on the 5> 30 swap in Section 34.6 if (a) the CP rate
is 6.5% and the Treasury yield curve is flat at 6% and (b) the CP rate is 7.5% and the
Treasury yield curve is flat at 7% with semiannual compounding.
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35 CHAPTER Energy and
Commodity
Derivatives
Swaps and Commodity Derivatives
- The text presents complex quantitative problems involving the valuation of compounding swaps, accrual swaps, and diff swaps.
- Calculations for these financial instruments require accounting for risk-free zero curves, volatility, and correlations between exchange rates and interest rates.
- A transition occurs from interest rate products to energy and commodity derivatives, where the underlying asset is a physical good.
- Commodity prices are noted for exhibiting mean reversion and sudden jumps, necessitating more sophisticated models than standard European options.
- The chapter introduces the application of interest rate modeling techniques to the unique behaviors of commodity spot prices.
A feature of commodity prices is that they often exhibit mean reversion (similarly to interest rates) and are also sometimes subject to jumps.
34.1. Calculate all the fixed cash flows and their exact timing for the swap in Business Snapshot 34.1. Assume that the day count conventions are applied using target payment
dates rather than actual payment dates.
34.2. Suppose that a swap specifies that a fixed rate is exchanged for twice a floating rate. Can the swap be valued using the āassume forward rates are realizedā rule?
34.3. What is the value of a 2-year fixed-for-floating compounding swap where the principal is $100 million and payments are made semiannually? Fixed interest is received and floating is paid. The fixed rate is 3% per annum and fixed cash flows are compounded every six
months at a rate of 3.3% per annum. (Both the 3% and 3.3% are expressed with semiannual compounding.) The floating rate is a risk-free rate plus 10 basis points and
it is compounded at the risk-free rate plus 20 basis points. The risk-free zero curve is flat at 3% with semiannual compounding.
34.4. What is the value of a 5-year swap where a risk-free floating rate is paid in the usual way and in return the risk-free rate compounded at the risk-free rate is received on the other side? The principal on both sides is $100 million. Payment dates on the pay side and compounding dates on the receive side are every 3 months. The risk-free zero curve is flat at 2% with quarterly compounding.
34.5. In the accrual swap discussed in the text, the fixed side accrues only when the floating
reference rate lies below a certain level. Discuss how the analysis can be extended to cope with a situation where the fixed side accrues only when the floating reference rate is between two levels.
34.6. Risk-free zero rates are flat at 2% in the United States and flat at 5% in Australia (both annually compounded). In a 4-year diff swap the Australian floating risk-free rate is received and 4% is paid, with both being applied to a USD principal of $10 million.
Payments are exchanged annually. The volatility of all 1-year forward rates in Australia is
estimated to be 25%, the volatility of the forward USD/AUD exchange rate (AUD per USD) is 15% for all maturities, and the correlation between the two is 0.3. What is the
value of the swap?
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34.7. Estimate the interest rate paid by P&G on the 5> 30 swap in Section 34.6 if (a) the CP rate
is 6.5% and the Treasury yield curve is flat at 6% and (b) the CP rate is 7.5% and the
Treasury yield curve is flat at 7% with semiannual compounding.
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35 CHAPTER Energy and
Commodity
Derivatives
The variable underlying a derivative is sometimes simply referred to as the underlying.
Earlier parts of this book have focused on situations where the underlying is a stock price, a stock index, an exchange rate, a bond price, an interest rate, or the loss from a credit event. In this chapter, we consider a variety of other underlyings.
The first part of the chapter is concerned with situations where the underlying is a
commodity. Chapter 2 discussed futures contracts on commodities and Chapter 18 discussed how European and American options on commodity futures contracts can be valued. As a European futures option has the same payoff as a European spot option when the futures contract matures at the same time as the option, the model
used to value European futures options (Blackās model) can also be used to value European spot options. However, American spot options and other more complicated derivatives dependent on the spot price of a commodity require more sophisticated models. A feature of commodity prices is that they often exhibit mean reversion (similarly to interest rates) and are also sometimes subject to jumps. Some of the models developed for interest rates can be adapted to apply to commodities.
The second part of the chapter considers weather and insurance derivatives. A
Non-Traditional Derivative Underlyings
- The text explores derivatives where the underlying variables extend beyond traditional stocks and bonds to include commodities, weather, and insurance events.
- Commodity prices often exhibit mean reversion and price jumps, requiring more sophisticated modeling than standard European options.
- Weather and insurance derivatives are unique because they typically involve variables with no systematic risk, meaning their expected values are consistent across risk-neutral and real-world scenarios.
- Historical data is exceptionally valuable for valuing weather-related derivatives because the underlying risks do not correlate with broader market movements.
- Agricultural commodity prices are driven by supply and demand, heavily influenced by production reports and inventory statistics from organizations like the USDA.
A distinctive feature of these derivatives is that they depend on variables with no systematic risk.
The variable underlying a derivative is sometimes simply referred to as the underlying.
Earlier parts of this book have focused on situations where the underlying is a stock price, a stock index, an exchange rate, a bond price, an interest rate, or the loss from a credit event. In this chapter, we consider a variety of other underlyings.
The first part of the chapter is concerned with situations where the underlying is a
commodity. Chapter 2 discussed futures contracts on commodities and Chapter 18 discussed how European and American options on commodity futures contracts can be valued. As a European futures option has the same payoff as a European spot option when the futures contract matures at the same time as the option, the model
used to value European futures options (Blackās model) can also be used to value European spot options. However, American spot options and other more complicated derivatives dependent on the spot price of a commodity require more sophisticated models. A feature of commodity prices is that they often exhibit mean reversion (similarly to interest rates) and are also sometimes subject to jumps. Some of the models developed for interest rates can be adapted to apply to commodities.
The second part of the chapter considers weather and insurance derivatives. A
distinctive feature of these derivatives is that they depend on variables with no systematic risk. For example, the expected value of the temperature at a certain location or the losses experienced due to hurricanes can reasonably be assumed to be the same in a risk- neutral world and the real world. This means that historical data is potentially more useful for valuing these types of derivatives than for some others.
Agricultural commodities include products that are grown (or created from products
that are grown) such as corn, wheat, soybeans, cocoa, coffee, sugar, cotton, and frozen orange juice. They also include products related to livestock such as cattle, hogs, and pork bellies. The prices of agricultural commodities, like all commodities, is determined by supply and demand. The U.S. Department of Agriculture publishes reports on
inventories and production. One statistic that is watched for commodities such as corn
35.1 AGRICULTURAL COMMODITIES
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Agricultural and Metal Commodities
- Agricultural commodity prices are driven by the stocks-to-use ratio, where lower year-end inventories lead to significantly higher price volatility.
- Mean reversion occurs in farming because low prices discourage production while high prices incentivize farmers to reallocate resources, balancing supply.
- Weather events like Florida hurricanes or Brazilian frosts create seasonal price jumps and peak volatility during pre-harvest periods.
- Metals differ from agricultural goods as they are non-seasonal, easier to store, and can be categorized as either consumption or investment assets.
- Long-term metal prices are influenced by recycling rates, geopolitical shifts, and technological changes in extraction rather than biological growth cycles.
Frosts can decimate the Brazilian coffee crop, a hurricane in Florida is likely to have a big effect on the price of frozen orange juice, and so on.
that are grown) such as corn, wheat, soybeans, cocoa, coffee, sugar, cotton, and frozen orange juice. They also include products related to livestock such as cattle, hogs, and pork bellies. The prices of agricultural commodities, like all commodities, is determined by supply and demand. The U.S. Department of Agriculture publishes reports on
inventories and production. One statistic that is watched for commodities such as corn
35.1 AGRICULTURAL COMMODITIES
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786 CHAPTER 35
and wheat is the stocks-to-use ratio. This is the ratio of the year-end inventory to the
yearās usage. Typically it is between 20% and 40%. It has an impact on price volatility. As the ratio for a commodity becomes lower, the commodityās price becomes more sensitive to supply changes, so that the volatility increases.
There are reasons for supposing some level of mean reversion in agricultural prices.
As prices decline, farmers find it less attractive to produce the commodity and supply decreases creating upward pressure on the price. Similarly, as the price of an agricul-tural commodity increases, farmers are more likely to devote resources to producing the commodity creating downward pressure on the price.
Prices of agricultural commodities tend to be seasonal, as storage is expensive and
there is a limit to the length of time for which a product can be stored. Weather plays a key role in determining the price of many agricultural products. Frosts can decimate the Brazilian coffee crop, a hurricane in Florida is likely to have a big effect on the price of frozen orange juice, and so on. The volatility of the price of a commodity that is grown tends to be highest at pre-harvest times and then declines when the size of the crop is known. During the growing season, the price process for an agricultural commodity is liable to exhibit jumps because of the weather.
Many of the commodities that are grown and traded are used to feed livestock. (For
example, the corn futures contract that is traded by the CME Group refers to the corn that is used to feed animals.) The price of livestock, and when slaughtering takes place, is liable to be dependent on the price of these commodities, which are in turn influenced by the weather.
Another important commodity category is metals. This includes gold, silver, platinum,
palladium, copper, tin, lead, zinc, nickel, and aluminum. Metals have quite different characteristics from agricultural commodities. Their prices are unaffected by the weather and are not seasonal. They are extracted from the ground. They are divisible and are relatively easy to store. Some metals, such as copper, are used almost entirely in the manufacture of goods and should be classified as consumption assets. As explained in Section 5.1, others, such as gold and silver, are held purely for investment as well as for consumption and should be classified as investment assets.
As in the case of agricultural commodities, analysts monitor inventory levels to
determine short-term price volatility. Exchange rate volatility may also contribute to volatility as the country where the metal is extracted is often different from the country
in whose currency the price is quoted. In the long term, the price of a metal is determined by trends in the extent to which a metal is used in different production processes and new sources of the metal that are found. Changes in exploration and extraction methods, geopolitics, cartels, and environmental regulation also have an impact.
One potential source of supply for a metal is recycling. A metal might be used to
create a product and, over the following 20 years, 10% of the metal might come back on the market as a result of a recycling process.
Metals that are investment assets are not usually assumed to follow mean-reverting
Metals and Energy Derivatives
- Short-term metal prices are driven by volatility and exchange rates, while long-term trends depend on production processes, new discoveries, and recycling.
- Metals held as investment assets typically do not follow mean-reverting processes to avoid arbitrage, whereas consumption metals often do.
- Energy products like oil, natural gas, and electricity are characterized by mean reversion because price shifts naturally adjust consumption and production levels.
- The crude oil market is the world's largest commodity market, utilizing benchmarks like Brent and WTI for a vast array of OTC and exchange-traded derivatives.
- Oil derivatives include swaps, forwards, and options that can be settled either through cash payments or the physical delivery of barrels.
Metals that are investment assets are not usually assumed to follow mean-reverting processes because a mean-reverting process would give rise to an arbitrage opportunity for the investor.
determine short-term price volatility. Exchange rate volatility may also contribute to volatility as the country where the metal is extracted is often different from the country
in whose currency the price is quoted. In the long term, the price of a metal is determined by trends in the extent to which a metal is used in different production processes and new sources of the metal that are found. Changes in exploration and extraction methods, geopolitics, cartels, and environmental regulation also have an impact.
One potential source of supply for a metal is recycling. A metal might be used to
create a product and, over the following 20 years, 10% of the metal might come back on the market as a result of a recycling process.
Metals that are investment assets are not usually assumed to follow mean-reverting
processes because a mean-reverting process would give rise to an arbitrage opportunity for the investor. For metals that are consumption assets, there may be some mean
35.2 METALS
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reversion. As the price of a metal increases, it is likely to become less attractive to use
the metal in some production processes and more economically viable to extract the metal from difficult locations. As a result there will be downward pressure on the price.
Similarly, as the price decreases, it is likely to become more attractive to use the metal in some production processes and less economically viable to extract the metal from difficult locations. As a result, there will be upward pressure on the price.
Energy products are among the most important and actively traded commodities.
A wide range of energy derivatives trade in both the over-the-counter market and on exchanges. Here we consider oil, natural gas, and electricity. There are reasons for supposing that all three follow mean reverting processes. As the price of a source of energy rises, it is likely to be consumed less and and produced more. This creates a downward pressure on prices. As the price of a source of energy declines, it is likely to be consumed more, but production is likely to be less economically viable. This creates upward pressure on the price.
Crude Oil
The crude oil market is the largest commodity market in the world, with global demand amounting to about 90 million barrels daily. Ten-year fixed-price supply contracts have been commonplace in the over-the-counter market for many years. These are swaps where oil at a fixed price is exchanged for oil at a floating price.
There are many grades of crude oil, reflecting variations in the gravity and the sulfur
content. Two important benchmarks for pricing are Brent crude oil (which is sourced from the North Sea) and West Texas Intermediate (WTI) crude oil. Crude oil is refined into products such as gasoline, heating oil, fuel oil, and kerosene.
In the over-the-counter market, virtually any derivative that is available on common
stocks or stock indices is now available with oil as the underlying asset. Swaps, forward contracts, and options are popular. Contracts sometimes require settlement in cash and sometimes require settlement by physical delivery (i.e., by delivery of oil).
Exchange-traded contracts are also popular. The CME Group and Intercontinental
Exchange (ICE) trade a number of oil futures and oil futures options contracts. Some of the futures contracts are settled in cash; others are settled by physical delivery. For example, the Brent crude oil futures traded on ICE have a cash settlement option; the light sweet crude oil futures traded on CME Group require physical delivery. In both cases, the amount of oil underlying one contract is 1,000 barrels. The CME Group also trades popular contracts on two refined products: heating oil and gasoline. In both
cases, one contract is for the delivery of 42,000 gallons.
Natural Gas
Energy Derivatives and Markets
- Oil futures contracts on major exchanges like ICE and CME are settled through either cash payments or physical delivery of 1,000 barrels.
- The natural gas industry has shifted from government monopolies to a deregulated market where suppliers must manage seasonal demand and pipeline logistics.
- Electricity is a unique commodity because it cannot be easily stored, making its price highly sensitive to the immediate capacity of regional control areas.
- Extreme weather events can cause massive volatility in electricity spot prices, sometimes resulting in spikes of up to 1,000% during heat waves.
- Standardized electricity contracts, such as 58 or 516 agreements, allow for power delivery during specific peak or off-peak hours throughout a month.
Heat waves have been known to increase the spot price by as much as 1,000% for short periods of time.
Exchange (ICE) trade a number of oil futures and oil futures options contracts. Some of the futures contracts are settled in cash; others are settled by physical delivery. For example, the Brent crude oil futures traded on ICE have a cash settlement option; the light sweet crude oil futures traded on CME Group require physical delivery. In both cases, the amount of oil underlying one contract is 1,000 barrels. The CME Group also trades popular contracts on two refined products: heating oil and gasoline. In both
cases, one contract is for the delivery of 42,000 gallons.
Natural Gas
The natural gas industry throughout the world went through a period of deregulation and the elimination of government monopolies in the 1980s and 1990s. The supplier of
natural gas is now not necessarily the same company as the producer of the gas.
Suppliers are faced with the problem of meeting daily demand.35.3 ENERGY PRODUCTS
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A typical over-the-counter contract is for the delivery of a specified amount of
natural gas at a roughly uniform rate over a 1-month period. Forward contracts,
options, and swaps are available in the over-the-counter market. The seller of natural
gas is usually responsible for moving the gas through pipelines to the specified
location.
The CME Group trades a contract for the delivery of 10,000 million British thermal
units of natural gas. The contract, if not closed out, requires physical delivery to be made during the delivery month at a roughly uniform rate to a particular hub in Louisiana. ICE trades a similar contract in London.
Natural gas is a popular source of energy for heating buildings. It is also used to
produce electricity, which in turn is used for air-conditioning. As a result, demand for natural gas is seasonal and dependent on the weather.
Electricity
Electricity is an unusual commodity because it cannot easily be stored.1 The maximum
supply of electricity in a region at any moment is determined by the maximum capacity of all the electricity-producing plants in the region. In the United States there are 140 regions known as control areas. Demand and supply are first matched within a
control area, and any excess power is sold to other control areas. It is this excess power that constitutes the wholesale market for electricity. The ability of one control area to sell power to another control area depends on the transmission capacity of the lines between the two areas. Transmission from one area to another involves a transmission cost, charged by the owner of the line, and there are generally some transmission or energy losses.
A major use of electricity is for air-conditioning systems. As a result the demand for
electricity, and therefore its price, is much greater in the summer months than in the winter months. The nonstorability of electricity causes occasional very large movements in the spot price. Heat waves have been known to increase the spot price by as much as 1,000% for short periods of time.
Like natural gas, electricity has been through a period of deregulation and the
elimination of government monopolies. This has been accompanied by the development
of an electricity derivatives market. The CME Group now trades a futures contract on
the price of electricity, and there is an active over-the-counter market in forward contracts, options, and swaps. A typical contract (exchange-traded or over-the-counter) allows one side to receive a specified number of megawatt hours for a specified price at a specified location during a particular month. In a
5*8 contract, power is received for
five days a week (Monday to Friday) during the off-peak period (11 p.m. to 7 a.m.) for the specified month. In a
5*16 contract, power is received five days a week during the
Electricity and Commodity Derivatives
- The CME Group and over-the-counter markets facilitate electricity trading through specialized contracts like forwards, options, and swaps.
- Standard electricity contracts are categorized by usage periods, such as 58 for off-peak hours and 516 for on-peak weekday power.
- Swing options, also known as take-and-pay options, provide flexibility by allowing holders to vary the amount of energy purchased within set daily and monthly limits.
- Risk-neutral modeling for commodities uses futures prices to estimate expected growth rates, as demonstrated by live cattle price calculations.
- Because electricity is difficult to store, producers sometimes use spare capacity to pump water to hydroelectric reservoirs as a proxy for storage.
The option holder can change (or swing) the rate at which the power is purchased during the month, but usually there is a limit on the total number of changes that can be made.
of an electricity derivatives market. The CME Group now trades a futures contract on
the price of electricity, and there is an active over-the-counter market in forward contracts, options, and swaps. A typical contract (exchange-traded or over-the-counter) allows one side to receive a specified number of megawatt hours for a specified price at a specified location during a particular month. In a
5*8 contract, power is received for
five days a week (Monday to Friday) during the off-peak period (11 p.m. to 7 a.m.) for the specified month. In a
5*16 contract, power is received five days a week during the
on-peak period (7 a.m. to 11 p.m.) for the specified month. In a 7*24 contract, it is
received around the clock every day during the month. Option contracts have either daily exercise or monthly exercise. In the case of daily exercise, the option holder can choose on each day of the month (by giving one dayās notice) whether to receive the specified amount of power at the specified strike price. When there is monthly exercise a
1 Electricity producers with spare capacity sometimes use it to pump water to the top of their hydroelectric
plants so that it can be used to produce electricity at a later time. This is the closest they can get to storing this
commodity.
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Energy and Commodity Derivatives 789
single decision on whether to receive power for the whole month at the specified strike
price is made at the beginning of the month.
An interesting contract in electricity and natural gas markets is what is known as a
swing option or take-and-pay option. In this contract, a minimum and maximum for the amount of power that must be purchased at a certain price by the option holder is specified for each day during a month and for the month in total. The option holder can change (or swing) the rate at which the power is purchased during the month, but usually there is a limit on the total number of changes that can be made.
To value derivatives, we are often interested in modeling the spot price of a commodity
in the traditional risk-neutral world. From Section 18.6, the expected future price of the commodity in this world is the futures price.
A Simple Process
A simple process for a commodity price can be constructed by assuming that the expected growth rate in the commodity price is dependent solely on time and the volatility of the commodity price is constant. The risk-neutral process for the commodity price S then has the form
dS
S=m1t2 dt+s dz (35.1)
and
F1t2=En3S1t24=S102e#t
0m1t2dt
where F1t2 is the futures price for a contract with maturity t and En denotes expected
value in a risk-neutral world. It follows that
ln F1t2=ln S102+3t
0m1t2dt
Differentiating both sides with respect to time gives
m1t2=0
0 t3ln F1t24
Example 35.1
Suppose that the futures prices of live cattle at the end of July 2021 are (in cents
per pound) as follows:
August 2021 62.20
October 2021 60.60
December 2021 62.70
February 2022 63.37
April 2022 64.42
June 2022 64.40
These can be used to estimate the expected growth rate in live cattle prices in a risk-neutral world. For example, when the model in equation (35.1) is used, the 35.4 MODELING COMMODITY PRICES
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790 CHAPTER 35
expected growth rate in live cattle prices between October and December 2021, in
a risk-neutral world is
lna62.70
60.60b=0.034
or 3.4% per 2 months with continuous compounding. On an annualized basis, this is 20.4% per annum.
Example 35.2
Modeling Commodity Price Dynamics
- Futures prices can be utilized to estimate the expected growth rate of commodities like live cattle within a risk-neutral framework.
- Investment valuation in commodity production requires discounting expected future cash flows and sales at the risk-free interest rate.
- Most commodity prices exhibit mean reversion, where they are pulled back toward a central value over time rather than following a simple random walk.
- The trinomial tree methodology, originally designed for interest rates, can be adapted to model the risk-neutral process of mean-reverting commodity prices.
- Mathematical models for commodity prices often incorporate ItĆ“ās lemma to reconcile different stochastic process representations.
As already discussed, most commodity prices follow mean-reverting processes. They tend to get pulled back to a central value.
June 2022 64.40
These can be used to estimate the expected growth rate in live cattle prices in a risk-neutral world. For example, when the model in equation (35.1) is used, the 35.4 MODELING COMMODITY PRICES
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790 CHAPTER 35
expected growth rate in live cattle prices between October and December 2021, in
a risk-neutral world is
lna62.70
60.60b=0.034
or 3.4% per 2 months with continuous compounding. On an annualized basis, this is 20.4% per annum.
Example 35.2
Suppose that the futures prices of live cattle are as in Example 35.1. A certain breeding decision would involve an investment of $100,000 now and expenditures of $20,000 in 3 months, 6 months, and 9 months. The result is expected to be that an extra cattle will be available for sale at the end of the year. There are two major uncertainties: the number of pounds of extra cattle that will be available for sale and the price per pound. The expected number of pounds is 300,000. The expected price of cattle in 1 year in a risk-neutral world is, from Example 35.1, 64.40 cents
per pound. Assuming that the risk-free rate of interest is 10% per annum, the value of the investment (in thousands of dollars) is
-100-20e-0.1*0.25-20e-0.1*0.50-20e-0.1*0.75+300*0.644e-0.1*1=17.729
This assumes that any uncertainty about the extra amount of cattle that will be available for sale has zero systematic risk and that there is no correlation between the amount of cattle that will be available for sale and the price.
Mean Reversion
As already discussed, most commodity prices follow mean-reverting processes. They tend to get pulled back to a central value. A more realistic process than equation (35.1) for the risk-neutral process followed by the commodity price S is
d ln S=3u1t2-a ln S4 dt+s dz (35.2)
This incorporates mean reversion and is analogous to the lognormal process assumed for
the short-term interest rate in Chapter 32. Note that this process is sometimes written
dS
S=3u*1t2-a ln S4 dt+s dz
From ItĆ“ās lemma, this is equivalent to the process in equation (35.2) when u*1t2 =
u1t2+1
2s2.
The trinomial tree methodology in Section 32.5 can be adapted to construct a tree
for S and determine the value of u1t2 in equation (35.2) such that F1t2=En3S1t24. We will
illustrate the procedure by building a three-step tree for the situation where the current spot price is $20 and the 1-year, 2-year, and 3-year futures prices are $22, $23, and $24, respectively. Suppose that
a=0.1 and s=0.2 in equation (35.2). We first define a
variable X that is initially zero and follows the process
dX=-aX dt+s dz (35.3)
Using the procedure in Section 32.5, a trinomial tree can be constructed for X. This is
shown in Figure 35.1.
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Energy and Commodity Derivatives 791
Figure 35.1 Tree for X. Constructing this tree is the first stage in constructing a tree for
the spot price of a commodity, S. Here pu, pm, and pd are the probabilities of āupā,
āmiddleā, and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
0.6928 0.6928
BF K
0.3464 0.3464 0.3464
AC GL
0.0000 0.000 00 .00000 .0000
DH M
20.3464 20.3464 20.3464
IN
20.6928 20.6928
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
Commodity Spot Price Trees
- The process for modeling commodity spot prices involves constructing a tree for a variable X and then converting it to a tree for the natural log of the spot price.
- Nodes in the tree are displaced by a time-dependent drift factor to ensure the expected value of the spot price matches the current futures price.
- Probabilities for reaching specific nodes are calculated iteratively by summing the products of previous node probabilities and their respective transition probabilities.
- The resulting spot price tree can be used to value complex derivatives, such as a 3-year American put option, through a standard rollback procedure.
- When modeling with many time steps, interpolation between futures prices is necessary and must account for seasonal fluctuations in commodity markets.
The amount a2 by which the nodes at time 2 years are displaced must satisfy 0.0203e0.6928+a2+0.2206e0.3464+a2+0.5183ea2 +0.2206e-0.3464+a2+0.0203e-0.6928+a2=23.
Figure 35.1 Tree for X. Constructing this tree is the first stage in constructing a tree for
the spot price of a commodity, S. Here pu, pm, and pd are the probabilities of āupā,
āmiddleā, and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
0.6928 0.6928
BF K
0.3464 0.3464 0.3464
AC GL
0.0000 0.000 00 .00000 .0000
DH M
20.3464 20.3464 20.3464
IN
20.6928 20.6928
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
The variable ln S follows the same process as X except for a time-dependent drift.
Analogously to Section 32.5, the tree for X can be converted to a tree for ln S by
displacing the positions of nodes. This tree is shown in Figure 35.2. The initial node
corresponds to a price of 20, so the displacement for that node is ln 20. Suppose that the
displacement of the nodes at 1 year is a1. The values of the X at the three nodes at the
1-year point are +0.3464, 0, and -0.3464. The corresponding values of ln S are
0.3464+a1, a1, and -0.3464+a1. The values of S are therefore e0.3464+a1, ea1, and
e-0.3464+a1, respectively. We require the expected value of S to equal the futures price.
This means that
0.1667e0.3464+a1+0.6666ea1+0.1667e-0.3464+a1=22
The solution to this is a1=3.071. The values of S at the 1-year point are therefore
30.49, 21.56, and 15.25.
At the 2-year point, we first calculate the probabilities of nodes E, F, G, H, and I being
reached from the probabilities of nodes B, C, and D being reached. The probability of
reaching node F is the probability of reaching node B times the probability of moving
from B to F plus the probability of reaching node C times the probability of moving from C to F. This is
0.1667*0.6566+0.6666*0.1667=0.2206
Similarly the probabilities of reaching nodes E, G, H, and I are 0.0203, 0.5183, 0.2206, and 0.0203, respectively. The amount
a2 by which the nodes at time 2 years are
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792 CHAPTER 35
displaced must satisfy
0.0203e0.6928+a2+0.2206e0.3464+a2+0.5183ea2
+0.2206e-0.3464+a2+0.0203e-0.6928+a2=23
The solution to this is a2=3.099. This means that the values of S at the 2-year point
are 44.35, 31.37, 22.18, 15.69, and 11.10, respectively.
A similar calculation can be carried out at time 3 years. Figure 35.2 shows the
resulting tree for S.
Example 35.3
Suppose that the tree in Figure 35.2 is used to price a 3-year American put option
on the spot price of the commodity with a strike price of 20 when the interest rate (continuously compounded) is 3% per year. Rolling back through the tree in the usual way, we obtain Figure 35.3 showing that the value of the option is $1.48. The option is exercised early at nodes D, H, and I. To obtain a more accurate value, a tree with many more time steps would be used. The futures prices would be interpolated to obtain futures prices for maturities corresponding to the end of every time step on this more detailed tree.
Interpolation and Seasonality
When a large number of time steps are used, it is necessary to interpolate between futures prices to obtain a futures price at the end of each time step. When there is seasonality, the interpolation procedure should reflect this. Suppose there are monthly
Figure 35.2 Tree for spot price of a commodity: pu, pm, and pd are the probabilities of
āupā, āmiddleā, and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
44.35 45.68
BF K
30.49 31.37 32.30
AC GL
20.00 21.56 22.18 22.85
DH M
15.25 15.69 16.16
IN
11.10 11.43
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
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Energy and Commodity Derivatives 793
Commodity Pricing and Seasonality
- Trinomial trees are used to model the spot price of commodities by calculating probabilities for up, middle, and down movements at each node.
- Seasonality is incorporated by calculating moving averages and percentage seasonal factors to deseasonalize and then re-seasonalize futures prices.
- Volatility in commodity markets often fluctuates seasonally, particularly in agricultural sectors where weather uncertainty impacts growing seasons.
- Price jumps caused by sudden supply or demand shocks, such as extreme weather, can be modeled using a Poisson process integrated into the spot price equation.
Some commodities, such as electricity and natural gas, exhibit price jumps because of weather-related demand shocks.
Figure 35.2 Tree for spot price of a commodity: pu, pm, and pd are the probabilities of
āupā, āmiddleā, and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
44.35 45.68
BF K
30.49 31.37 32.30
AC GL
20.00 21.56 22.18 22.85
DH M
15.25 15.69 16.16
IN
11.10 11.43
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
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Energy and Commodity Derivatives 793
time steps. One simple way of incorporating seasonality is to collect monthly historical
data on the spot price and calculate the 12-month moving average of the price.
A percentage seasonal factor can then be estimated as the average of the ratio of the
spot price for the month to the 12-month moving average of spot prices that is centered (approximately) on the month.
The percentage seasonal factors are then used to deseasonalize the futures prices
that are known. Monthly deseasonalized futures are then calculated using interpola-tion. These futures prices are then seasonalized using the percentage seasonal factors and the tree is built. Suppose, for example, that the futures prices are observed in the
market for September and December as 40 and 44, respectively, and we want to
calculate a futures prices for October and November. Suppose further that the percentage seasonality factors for September, October, November, and December are calculated from historical data as 0.95, 0.85, 0.8 and 1.1, respectively. The deseasonalized futures prices are
40>0.95=42.1 for September and 44>1.1=40 for
December. The interpolated deseasonalized futures prices are 41.4 and 40.7 for
October and November, respectively. The seasonalized futures prices that would be
used in tree construction for October and November are 41.4*0.85=35.2 and
40.7*0.8=32.6, respectively.
As has been mentioned, the volatility of a commodity sometimes shows seasonality.
For example, the prices of some agricultural commodities are more volatile during the growing season because of weather uncertainty. Volatility can be monitored using the
methods discussed in Chapter 23, and a percentage seasonal factor for volatility can
be estimated. The parameter
s can then be replaced by s1t2 in equations (35.2)
and (35.3). A procedure that can be used to construct a trinomial tree for the situation Figure 35.3 Valuation of an American put option with a strike price of $20 using the
tree in Figure 35.2.
EJ
0.00 0.00
BF K
0.13 0.00 0.00
AC GL
1.48 1.10 0.62 0.00
DH M
4.75 4.31 3.84
IN
8.90 8.57
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
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794 CHAPTER 35
where the volatility is a function of time is discussed in Technical Notes 9 and 16 at
www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
Jumps
Some commodities, such as electricity and natural gas, exhibit price jumps because of weather-related demand shocks. Other commodities, particularly those that are agri-cultural, are liable to exhibit price jumps because of weather-related supply shocks. Jumps can be incorporated into equation (35.2) so that the process for the spot price becomes
d ln S=3u1t2-a ln S4 dt+s dz+dp
where dp is the Poisson process generating the percentage jumps. This is similar to
Mertonās mixed jumpādiffusion model for stock prices, which is described in Sec-tion 27.1. Once the jump frequency and jump size probability distribution have been
chosen, the average increase in the commodity price at a future time t that is as a result of jumps can be calculated. To determine
u1t2, the trinomial tree method can be used
Commodity Modeling and Weather Risk
- Commodity prices often exhibit sudden jumps due to weather-related supply and demand shocks, requiring the use of Poisson processes in mathematical models.
- Sophisticated models for oil prices incorporate stochastic convenience yields that follow mean-reverting processes to better fit market futures.
- Gas and electricity markets may utilize stochastic volatility models to account for the extreme price fluctuations inherent in energy trading.
- Weather derivatives, introduced in 1997, allow companies to hedge against temperature-related performance risks using Heating and Cooling Degree Days.
- The U.S. Department of Energy estimates that approximately one-seventh of the U.S. economy is subject to weather-related financial risk.
The U.S. Department of Energy has estimated that one-seventh of the U.S. economy is subject to weather risk.
Some commodities, such as electricity and natural gas, exhibit price jumps because of weather-related demand shocks. Other commodities, particularly those that are agri-cultural, are liable to exhibit price jumps because of weather-related supply shocks. Jumps can be incorporated into equation (35.2) so that the process for the spot price becomes
d ln S=3u1t2-a ln S4 dt+s dz+dp
where dp is the Poisson process generating the percentage jumps. This is similar to
Mertonās mixed jumpādiffusion model for stock prices, which is described in Sec-tion 27.1. Once the jump frequency and jump size probability distribution have been
chosen, the average increase in the commodity price at a future time t that is as a result of jumps can be calculated. To determine
u1t2, the trinomial tree method can be used
with the futures prices for maturity t reduced by this increase. Monte Carlo simulation can be used to implement the model, as explained in Sections 21.6 and 27.1.
Other Models
More-sophisticated models are sometimes used for oil prices. If y is the convenience yield, then the proportional drift of the spot price is
r-y, where r is the short-term
risk-free rate and a natural process to assume for the spot price is
dS
S=1r-y2 dt+s1 dz1
Gibson and Schwartz suggest that the convenience yield y be modeled as a mean- reverting process:
2
dy=k1a-y2dt+s2 dz2
where k and a are constants and dz2 is a Wiener process, which is correlated with the
Wiener process dz1. To provide an exact fit to futures prices, a can be made a function
of time.
Eydeland and Geman propose a stochastic volatility for gas and electricity prices.3
This is
dS
S=a1b-ln S2 dt+2V dz1
dV=c1d-V2dt+e2V dz2
where a, b, c, d, and e are constants, and dz1 and dz2 are correlated Wiener processes.
Later Geman proposed a model for oil where the reversion level b is also stochastic.4
2 See R. Gibson and E. S. Schwartz, āStochastic Convenience Yield and the Pricing of Oil Contingent
Claims,ā Journal of Finance, 45 (1990): 959ā76.
3 A. Eydeland and H. Geman, āPricing Power Derivatives,ā Risk, September 1998.
4 H. Geman, āScarcity and Price Volatility in Oil Markets,ā EDF Trading Technical Report, 2000.
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5 The U.S. Department of Energy has estimated that one-seventh of the U.S. economy is subject to weather
risk.Many companies are in the position where their performance is liable to be adversely
affected by the weather.5 It makes sense for these companies to consider hedging their
weather risk in much the same way as they hedge foreign exchange or interest rate risks.
The first over-the-counter weather derivatives were introduced in 1997. To under-
stand how they work, we explain two variables:
HDD: Heating degree days
CDD: Cooling degree days
A dayās HDD is defined as
HDD=max10, 65-A2
and a dayās CDD is defined as
CDD=max10, A-652
where A is the average of the highest and lowest temperature during the day at a
specified weather station, measured in degrees Fahrenheit. For example, if the max-
The Rise of Weather Derivatives
- The U.S. Department of Energy estimates that one-seventh of the national economy is subject to weather risk, prompting companies to hedge these exposures like currency or interest rate risks.
- Weather derivatives are primarily based on Heating Degree Days (HDD) and Cooling Degree Days (CDD), which measure the energy required for heating or cooling relative to a 65-degree Fahrenheit baseline.
- Financial instruments such as forward contracts, call options, and bull spreads allow energy producers and retailers to receive payouts when cumulative temperature metrics exceed specific strike prices.
- The Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME) standardized weather risk management by trading futures and options for various global cities, settling contracts in cash based on observed weather station data.
- The boundary between insurance and derivatives is blurring, though derivatives differ fundamentally because they do not require the holder to have a direct underlying exposure to the risk being traded.
The U.S. Department of Energy has estimated that one-seventh of the U.S. economy is subject to weather risk.
5 The U.S. Department of Energy has estimated that one-seventh of the U.S. economy is subject to weather
risk.Many companies are in the position where their performance is liable to be adversely
affected by the weather.5 It makes sense for these companies to consider hedging their
weather risk in much the same way as they hedge foreign exchange or interest rate risks.
The first over-the-counter weather derivatives were introduced in 1997. To under-
stand how they work, we explain two variables:
HDD: Heating degree days
CDD: Cooling degree days
A dayās HDD is defined as
HDD=max10, 65-A2
and a dayās CDD is defined as
CDD=max10, A-652
where A is the average of the highest and lowest temperature during the day at a
specified weather station, measured in degrees Fahrenheit. For example, if the max-
imum temperature during a day (midnight to midnight) is 68° Fahrenheit and the
minimum temperature is 44° Fahrenheit, A=56. The daily HDD is then 9 and the
daily CDD is 0.
A typical over-the-counter product is a forward or option contract providing a payoff
dependent on the cumulative HDD or CDD during a month. For example, a deriva-tives dealer could in January 2022 sell a client a call option on the cumulative HDD during February 2023 at the Chicago OāHare Airport weather station with a strike price of 700 and a payment rate of $10,000 per degree day. If the actual cumulative HDD is 820, the payoff is $1.2 million. Often contracts include a payment cap. If the payment cap in our example is $1.5 million, the contract is the equivalent of a bull spread (see Chapter 12). The client has a long call option on cumulative HDD with a strike price of 700 and a short call option with a strike price of 850.
A dayās HDD is a measure of the volume of energy required for heating during the
day. A dayās CDD is a measure of the volume of energy required for cooling during the day. Most weather derivative contracts are entered into by energy producers and energy consumers. But retailers, supermarket chains, food and drink manufacturers, health service companies, agriculture companies, and companies in the leisure industry are also potential users of weather derivatives. The Weather Risk Management Association (www.wrma.org) has been formed to serve the interests of the weather risk manage-ment industry.
In September 1999 the Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME) began trading weather
futures and European options on weather futures. The contracts are on the cumulative HDD and CDD for a month observed at a weather station. The contracts are settled in cash just after the end of the month once the HDD and CDD are known. One futures contract is on $20 times the cumulative HDD or CDD for the month. The CME now offers weather futures and options for several cities throughout the world.35.5 WEATHER DERIVATIVES
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6 The difference between a derivatives contract and an insurance contract is as follows. When entering into an
insurance contract, an entity must have an exposure to the underlying risk. For a derivatives contract this is
not necessary. For example, it is not possible for person A to insure person Bās house against being burnt
down. But it is possible to buy a put option on a stock when it is not owned.
7 Reinsurance is also sometimes offered in the form of a lump sum if a certain loss level is reached. The
reinsurer is then writing a cash-or-nothing binary call option on the losses.When derivative contracts are used for hedging purposes, they have many of the same
characteristics as insurance contracts. Both types of contracts are designed to provide protection against adverse events. It is not surprising that many insurance companies have subsidiaries that trade derivatives and that many of the activities of insurance companies are becoming very similar to those of investment banks.
6
Traditionally the insurance industry has hedged its exposure to catastrophic (CAT)
Insurance and Derivatives Convergence
- The primary distinction between insurance and derivatives is that insurance requires an underlying exposure to risk, whereas derivatives allow for speculative positions without ownership.
- Reinsurance structures often mirror complex financial instruments, such as excess-of-loss contracts that function like bull spreads on total losses.
- Catastrophic events like Hurricane Andrew have historically depleted premium reserves, driving the industry to seek alternative risk-transfer mechanisms.
- CAT bonds allow insurance companies to transfer risk to the capital markets by offering investors higher interest rates in exchange for potential principal loss during disasters.
- The increasing use of derivative-like products has caused the activities of insurance companies and investment banks to become increasingly similar.
In the event that the insurance companyās California earthquake losses exceeded $30 million, bondholders would lose some or all of their principal.
6 The difference between a derivatives contract and an insurance contract is as follows. When entering into an
insurance contract, an entity must have an exposure to the underlying risk. For a derivatives contract this is
not necessary. For example, it is not possible for person A to insure person Bās house against being burnt
down. But it is possible to buy a put option on a stock when it is not owned.
7 Reinsurance is also sometimes offered in the form of a lump sum if a certain loss level is reached. The
reinsurer is then writing a cash-or-nothing binary call option on the losses.When derivative contracts are used for hedging purposes, they have many of the same
characteristics as insurance contracts. Both types of contracts are designed to provide protection against adverse events. It is not surprising that many insurance companies have subsidiaries that trade derivatives and that many of the activities of insurance companies are becoming very similar to those of investment banks.
6
Traditionally the insurance industry has hedged its exposure to catastrophic (CAT)
risks such as hurricanes and earthquakes using a practice known as reinsurance. Reinsurance contracts can take a number of forms. Suppose that an insurance company has an exposure of $100 million to earthquakes in California and wants to limit this to $30 million. One alternative is to enter into annual reinsurance contracts that cover on a pro rata basis 70% of its exposure. If California earthquake claims in a particular year total $50 million, the cost to the company would then be only $15 million. Another more popular alternative, involving lower reinsurance premiums, is to buy a series of reinsurance contracts covering what are known as excess cost layers. The first layer might provide indemnification for losses between $30 million and $40 million; the next might cover losses between $40 million and $50 million; and so on. Each reinsurance contract is known as an excess-of-loss reinsurance contract. The reinsurer has written a bull spread on the total losses. It is long a call option with a strike price equal to the lower end of the layer and short a call option with a strike price equal to the upper end of the layer.
7
Some payouts on CAT risks have been very high. Hurricane Andrew in 1992 caused
about $15 billion of insurance costs in Florida. This exceeded the total of relevant insurance premiums received in Florida during the previous seven years. If Hurricane
Andrew had hit Miami, it is estimated that insured losses would have exceeded $40 billion. Hurricane Andrew and other catastrophes have led to increases in insur-ance/reinsurance premiums.
The over-the-counter market has come up with a number of products that are
alternatives to traditional reinsurance. The most popular is a CAT bond. This is a bond issued by a subsidiary of an insurance company that pays a higher-than-normal interest rate. In exchange for the extra interest the holder of the bond agrees to provide an excess-of-loss reinsurance contract. Depending on the terms of the CAT bond, the interest or principal (or both) can be used to meet claims. In the example considered above where an insurance company wants protection for California earthquake losses between $30 million and $40 million, the insurance company could issue CAT bonds
with a total principal of $10 million. In the event that the insurance companyās California earthquake losses exceeded $30 million, bondholders would lose some or all of their principal. As an alternative the insurance company could cover this excess cost layer by making a much bigger bond issue where only the bondholdersā interest is at risk.35.6 INSURANCE DERIVATIVES
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Insurance Derivatives and CAT Bonds
- Catastrophic events like Hurricane Andrew can result in insurance payouts that far exceed years of accumulated premiums, necessitating alternative risk-transfer mechanisms.
- CAT bonds allow insurance companies to transfer risk to the capital markets by offering investors higher interest rates in exchange for potential loss of principal or interest during disasters.
- Unlike traditional financial assets, weather and insurance derivatives lack systematic risk, meaning they can be priced by discounting expected payoffs at the risk-free rate.
- Uncertainty in weather and insurance risks grows much more slowly over time compared to stock or commodity prices, which exhibit significant volatility expansion.
- Valuation of these instruments typically involves fitting historical data to probability distributions and incorporating meteorological trends or forecasts.
In exchange for the extra interest the holder of the bond agrees to provide an excess-of-loss reinsurance contract.
Some payouts on CAT risks have been very high. Hurricane Andrew in 1992 caused
about $15 billion of insurance costs in Florida. This exceeded the total of relevant insurance premiums received in Florida during the previous seven years. If Hurricane
Andrew had hit Miami, it is estimated that insured losses would have exceeded $40 billion. Hurricane Andrew and other catastrophes have led to increases in insur-ance/reinsurance premiums.
The over-the-counter market has come up with a number of products that are
alternatives to traditional reinsurance. The most popular is a CAT bond. This is a bond issued by a subsidiary of an insurance company that pays a higher-than-normal interest rate. In exchange for the extra interest the holder of the bond agrees to provide an excess-of-loss reinsurance contract. Depending on the terms of the CAT bond, the interest or principal (or both) can be used to meet claims. In the example considered above where an insurance company wants protection for California earthquake losses between $30 million and $40 million, the insurance company could issue CAT bonds
with a total principal of $10 million. In the event that the insurance companyās California earthquake losses exceeded $30 million, bondholders would lose some or all of their principal. As an alternative the insurance company could cover this excess cost layer by making a much bigger bond issue where only the bondholdersā interest is at risk.35.6 INSURANCE DERIVATIVES
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One distinctive feature of weather and insurance derivatives is that there is no systematic
risk (i.e., risk that is priced by the market) in their payoffs. This means that estimates made from historical data (real-world estimates) can also be assumed to apply to the risk-neutral world. Weather and insurance derivatives can therefore be priced by
1. Using historical data to estimate the expected payoff
2. Discounting the estimated expected payoff at the risk-free rate.
Another key feature of weather and insurance derivatives is the way uncertainty about the underlying variables grows with time. For a stock price, uncertainty grows roughly as the square root of time. Our uncertainty about a stock price in 4 years (as measured by the standard deviation of the logarithm of the price) is approximately twice that in 1
year. For a commodity price, mean reversion kicks in, but our uncertainty about a
commodityās price in 4 years is still considerably greater than our uncertainty in 1 year. For weather, the growth of uncertainty with time is much less marked. Our uncertainty about the February HDD at a certain location in 4 years is usually only a little greater
than our uncertainty about the February HDD at the same location in 1 year.
Similarly, our uncertainty about earthquake losses for a period starting in 4 years is usually only a little greater than our uncertainty about earthquake losses for a similar period starting in 1 year.
Consider the valuation of an option on the cumulative HDD. We could collect
50 years of historical data and estimate a probability distribution for the HDD. This could be fitted to a lognormal or other probability distribution and the expected payoff on the option calculated. This would then be discounted at the risk-free rate to give the value of the option. The analysis could be refined by analyzing trends in the historical data and incorporating weather forecasts produced by meteorologists.
Example 35.4
Consider a call option on the cumulative HDD in February 2019 at the Chicago
OāHare Airport weather station with a strike price of 700 and a payment rate of $10,000 per degree day. Suppose that the HDD is estimated from 50 years of historical data to have a lognormal distribution with the mean HDD equal to
710 and the standard deviation of the natural logarithm of HDD equal to 0.07. From equation (15A.1), the expected payoff is
10,000*3710N1d12-700N1d224
Pricing Weather and Insurance Derivatives
- Weather and insurance derivatives exhibit unique uncertainty profiles where risk does not grow significantly over time compared to stock or commodity prices.
- While stock price uncertainty grows with the square root of time, weather variables like Heating Degree Days (HDD) remain relatively stable in their long-term predictability.
- Valuation of these derivatives typically involves fitting historical data to probability distributions, such as the lognormal distribution, to calculate expected payoffs.
- Pricing models can be refined by incorporating meteorological forecasts and long-term environmental trends, such as global warming, which may shift the mean HDD.
- The final valuation of a weather option is determined by discounting the expected payoff at the risk-free interest rate.
Our uncertainty about the February HDD at a certain location in 4 years is usually only a little greater than our uncertainty about the February HDD at the same location in 1 year.
Another key feature of weather and insurance derivatives is the way uncertainty about the underlying variables grows with time. For a stock price, uncertainty grows roughly as the square root of time. Our uncertainty about a stock price in 4 years (as measured by the standard deviation of the logarithm of the price) is approximately twice that in 1
year. For a commodity price, mean reversion kicks in, but our uncertainty about a
commodityās price in 4 years is still considerably greater than our uncertainty in 1 year. For weather, the growth of uncertainty with time is much less marked. Our uncertainty about the February HDD at a certain location in 4 years is usually only a little greater
than our uncertainty about the February HDD at the same location in 1 year.
Similarly, our uncertainty about earthquake losses for a period starting in 4 years is usually only a little greater than our uncertainty about earthquake losses for a similar period starting in 1 year.
Consider the valuation of an option on the cumulative HDD. We could collect
50 years of historical data and estimate a probability distribution for the HDD. This could be fitted to a lognormal or other probability distribution and the expected payoff on the option calculated. This would then be discounted at the risk-free rate to give the value of the option. The analysis could be refined by analyzing trends in the historical data and incorporating weather forecasts produced by meteorologists.
Example 35.4
Consider a call option on the cumulative HDD in February 2019 at the Chicago
OāHare Airport weather station with a strike price of 700 and a payment rate of $10,000 per degree day. Suppose that the HDD is estimated from 50 years of historical data to have a lognormal distribution with the mean HDD equal to
710 and the standard deviation of the natural logarithm of HDD equal to 0.07. From equation (15A.1), the expected payoff is
10,000*3710N1d12-700N1d224
where
d1=ln1710>7002+0.072>2
0.07=0.2376
d2=ln1710>7002-0.072>2
0.07=0.1676
or $250,900. If the risk-free interest rate is 3% and the option is being valued in February 2018 (one year from maturity) the value of the option is
250,900*e-0.03*1=243,400
or $243,400.35.7 PRICING WEATHER AND INSURANCE DERIVATIVES
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We might want to adjust the mean of the probability distribution of HDD for
temperature trends. Suppose that a linear regression shows that the cumulative
HDD for February is decreasing at the rate of 0.5 per year (perhaps because of global warming), so that the estimate of the mean HDD in February 2019 is only 697.
8 Keeping the estimate of the standard deviation of the natural logarithm
of the payoff the same, this would reduce the value of the expected payoff to $180,400 and the value of the option to $175,100.
Finally, suppose that long-range weather forecasters consider it likely that
Weather and Catastrophe Derivatives
- Temperature trends and long-range forecasts significantly impact the valuation of weather options by adjusting expected Heating Degree Days (HDD).
- Catastrophe (CAT) bonds offer investors higher expected returns than risk-free investments because their systematic risk is virtually zero.
- Energy producers face dual risks from price fluctuations and volume demand, which can be mitigated through a combination of energy and weather derivatives.
- Linear regression models allow producers to calculate specific hedge positions in forwards or futures to neutralize both price and temperature-related profit volatility.
- The lack of correlation between CAT bonds and the stock market suggests these instruments can effectively improve the risk-return profile of a large portfolio.
The risk in CAT bonds can (at least in theory) be completely diversified away in a large portfolio.
temperature trends. Suppose that a linear regression shows that the cumulative
HDD for February is decreasing at the rate of 0.5 per year (perhaps because of global warming), so that the estimate of the mean HDD in February 2019 is only 697.
8 Keeping the estimate of the standard deviation of the natural logarithm
of the payoff the same, this would reduce the value of the expected payoff to $180,400 and the value of the option to $175,100.
Finally, suppose that long-range weather forecasters consider it likely that
February 2019 will be particularly mild. The estimate of the expected HDD might then be reduced even further making the option even less valuable.
In the insurance area, Litzenberger et al. have shown that there is (as one would expect) no statistically significant correlation between the returns from CAT bonds and stock market returns.
9 This confirms that there is no systematic risk and that valuations can
be based on the actuarial data collected by insurance companies.
CAT bonds typically give a high probability of an above-normal rate of interest and a
low probability of a big loss. Why would investors be interested in such instruments? The answer is that the expected return (taking account of possible losses) is higher than the return that can be earned on risk-free investments. However, the risk in CAT bonds can (at least in theory) be completely diversified away in a large portfolio. CAT bonds therefore have the potential to improve riskāreturn trade-offs.
8 The mean decreased at 0.5 per year over the last 50 years and was 710 on average. This suggests that the
mean was about 722.5 at the beginning of the 50 years and 697.5 at the end of the 50 years. A reasonable
estimate for next year is 697.
9 R. H. Litzenberger, D. R. Beaglehole, and C. E. Reynolds, āAssessing Catastrophe Reinsurance-Linked
Securities as a New Asset Class,ā Journal of Portfolio Management, Winter 1996: 76ā86.There are two components to the risks facing an energy producer. One is the risk
associated with the market price for the energy (the price risk); the other is risk associated with the amount of energy that will be bought (the volume risk). Although prices do adjust to reflect volumes, there is a less-than-perfect relationship between the two, and energy producers have to take both into account when developing a hedging strategy. The price risk can be hedged using the energy derivative contracts. The volume risks can be hedged using the weather derivatives. Define:
Y : Profit for a month
P : Average energy prices for the month
T : Relevant temperature variable (HDD or CDD) for the month.
An energy producer can use historical data to obtain a best-fit linear regression relationship of the form
Y=a+bP+cT+P
where P is the error term. The energy producer can then hedge risks for the month by
taking a position of -b in energy forwards or futures and a position of -c in weather 35.8 HOW AN ENERGY PRODUCER CAN HEDGE RISKS
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Energy and Commodity Derivatives 799
forwards or futures. The relationship can also be used to analyze the effectiveness of
alternative option strategies.
SUMMARY
When there are risks to be managed, derivatives markets have been very innovative in developing products to meet the needs of the market.
There are a number of different types of commodity derivatives. The underlyings
include agricultural products that are grown, livestock, metals, and energy products. The models used to value them usually incorporate mean reversion. Sometimes seasonality is modeled explicitly and jumps are incorporated. Energy derivatives with oil, natural gas, and electricity as the underlying are particularly important and have been the subject of models that are as sophisticated as the most sophisticated models used for stock prices, exchange rates, and interest rates.
In the weather derivatives market, two measures, HDD and CDD, have been
Commodity and Exotic Derivatives
- Commodity models for agriculture and energy often incorporate mean reversion, seasonality, and price jumps to reflect physical market realities.
- Energy derivatives have reached a level of mathematical sophistication comparable to major financial assets like stocks and interest rates.
- Weather derivatives utilize specific measures like Heating Degree Days (HDD) and Cooling Degree Days (CDD) to hedge against temperature fluctuations.
- Insurance derivatives serve as a capital market alternative to traditional reinsurance for managing catastrophic risks like hurricanes.
- Because weather and insurance variables lack systematic risk, they can be valued by discounting expected payoffs at the risk-free rate.
This means that the derivatives can be valued by estimating expected payoffs using historical data and discounting the expected payoff at the risk-free rate.
include agricultural products that are grown, livestock, metals, and energy products. The models used to value them usually incorporate mean reversion. Sometimes seasonality is modeled explicitly and jumps are incorporated. Energy derivatives with oil, natural gas, and electricity as the underlying are particularly important and have been the subject of models that are as sophisticated as the most sophisticated models used for stock prices, exchange rates, and interest rates.
In the weather derivatives market, two measures, HDD and CDD, have been
developed to describe temperature during a month. These are used to define payoffs on both exchange-traded and over-the-counter derivatives. As the weather derivatives market develops, contracts on rainfall, snow, and other weather-related variables may become more widely used.
Insurance derivatives are an alternative to traditional reinsurance as a way for
insurance companies to manage the risk of a catastrophic event such as a hurricane or an earthquake. We may see other sorts of insurance, such as life and automobile insurance, being traded in a similar way in the future.
Weather and insurance derivatives have the property that the underlying variables have
no systematic risk. This means that the derivatives can be valued by estimating expected payoffs using historical data and discounting the expected payoff at the risk-free rate.
FURTHER READING
On Commodity Derivatives
Clewlow, L., and C. Strickland. Energy Derivatives: Pricing and Risk Management. Lacima
Group, 2000.
Edwards, D. W. Energy, Trading, and Investing: Trading, Risk Management and Structuring
Deals in the Energy Markets. Maidenhead: McGraw-Hill, 2010.
Eydeland, A., and K. Wolyniec. Energy and Power Risk Management. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley, 2003.
Geman, H. Commodities and Commodity Derivatives: Modeling and Pricing for Agriculturals,
Metals, and Energy. Chichester: Wiley, 2005.
Gibson, R., and E. S. Schwartz. āStochastic Convenience Yield and the Pricing of Oil Contingent
Claims, ā Journal of Finance, 45 (1990): 959ā76.
Schofield, N. C. Commodity Derivatives: Markets and Applications. Chichester: Wiley, 2011.
On Weather Derivatives
Alexandridis, A. K., and A. D. Zapranis. Weather Derivatives: Modeling and Pricing Weather
Related Risk. New York: Springer, 2013.
Cao, M., and J. Wei. āWeather Derivatives Valuation and the Market Price of Weather Risk, ā
Journal of Futures Markets, 24, 11 (November 2004), 1065ā89.
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800 CHAPTER 35
On Insurance Derivatives
Canter, M. S., J. B. Cole, and R. L. Sandor. āInsurance Derivatives: A New Asset Class for the
Capital Markets and a New Hedging Tool for the Insurance Industry, ā Journal of Applied
Corporate Finance (Autumn 1997): 69ā83.
Froot, K. A. āThe Market for Catastrophe Risk: A Clinical Examination, ā Journal of Financial
Economics, ā 60 (2001): 529ā71.
Litzenberger, R. H., D. R. Beaglehole, and C. E. Reynolds. ā Assessing Catastrophe Reinsurance-
Linked Securities as a New Asset Class, ā Journal of Portfolio Management (Winter 1996): 76ā86.
Practice Questions
Energy Derivatives and Real Options
- The text provides a comprehensive set of practice questions focusing on the mechanics and valuation of energy and commodity derivatives.
- Key concepts explored include Heating Degree Days (HDD) and Cooling Degree Days (CDD), which serve as the basis for weather-related financial contracts.
- The material contrasts historical data approaches with risk-neutral valuation, specifically in the context of catastrophe (CAT) bonds and insurance-linked securities.
- A transition is made from financial assets to 'real options,' which apply option pricing theory to tangible capital investments like land and equipment.
- The section highlights the unique volatility and mean-reversion characteristics of energy sources, particularly electricity, compared to traditional assets.
These options are very difficult to value using traditional capital investment appraisal techniques.
Canter, M. S., J. B. Cole, and R. L. Sandor. āInsurance Derivatives: A New Asset Class for the
Capital Markets and a New Hedging Tool for the Insurance Industry, ā Journal of Applied
Corporate Finance (Autumn 1997): 69ā83.
Froot, K. A. āThe Market for Catastrophe Risk: A Clinical Examination, ā Journal of Financial
Economics, ā 60 (2001): 529ā71.
Litzenberger, R. H., D. R. Beaglehole, and C. E. Reynolds. ā Assessing Catastrophe Reinsurance-
Linked Securities as a New Asset Class, ā Journal of Portfolio Management (Winter 1996): 76ā86.
Practice Questions
35.1. What is meant by HDD and CDD?
35.2. How is a typical natural gas forward contract structured?
35.3. Distinguish between the historical data and the risk-neutral approach to valuing a
derivative. Under what circumstance do they give the same answer?
35.4. Suppose that each day during July the minimum temperature is 68° Fahrenheit and the
maximum temperature is 82° Fahrenheit. What is the payoff from a call option on the
cumulative CDD during July with a strike of 250 and a payment rate of $5,000 per
degree-day?
35.5. Why is the price of electricity more volatile than that of other energy sources?
35.6. Why is the historical data approach appropriate for pricing a weather derivatives contract and a CAT bond?
35.7. āHDD and CDD can be regarded as payoffs from options on temperature.ā Explain this statement.
35.8. Suppose that you have 50 years of temperature data at your disposal. Explain carefully the analyses you would carry out to value a forward contract on the cumulative CDD for a particular month.
35.9. Would you expect the volatility of the 1-year forward price of oil to be greater than or less than the volatility of the spot price? Explain your answer.
35.10. What are the characteristics of an energy source where the price has a very high volatility
and a very high rate of mean reversion? Give an example of such an energy source.
35.11. How can an energy producer use derivatives markets to hedge risks?
35.12. Explain how a
5*8 option contract on electricity with daily exercise works. Explain
how a 5*8 option contract on electricity with monthly exercise works. Which is worth
more?
35.13. Explain how CAT bonds work.
35.14. Consider two bonds that have the same coupon, time to maturity, and price. One is a
B-rated corporate bond. The other is a CAT bond. An analysis based on historical data shows that the expected losses on the two bonds as a function of time are the same. Which bond would you advise a portfolio manager to buy and why?
35.15. Consider a commodity with constant volatility
s and an expected growth rate that is a
function solely of time. Show that, in the traditional risk-neutral world,
ln ST/similar.altf3ln F1T2-1
2s2T, s2T4
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Energy and Commodity Derivatives 801
where ST is the value of the commodity at time T, F1t2 is the futures price at time 0 for a
contract maturing at time t, and f1m, v2 is a normal distribution with mean m and
variance v.
35.16. How is the tree in Figure 35.2 modified if the 1- and 2-year futures prices are $21 and $22
instead of $22 and $23, respectively. How does this affect the value of the American option in Example 35.3.
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802
36 CHAPTER Real Options
Up to now we have been almost entirely concerned with the valuation of financial
assets. In this chapter we explore how the ideas we have developed can be extended to
assess capital investment opportunities in real assets such as land, buildings, plant, and
equipment. Often there are options embedded in these investment opportunities (the
option to expand the investment, the option to abandon the investment, the option to
defer the investment, and so on.) These options are very difficult to value using
traditional capital investment appraisal techniques. The approach known as real options attempts to deal with this problem using option pricing theory.
Real Options and Capital Investment
- The text transitions from valuing financial assets to assessing real assets like land, buildings, and equipment.
- Traditional Net Present Value (NPV) analysis often fails to account for embedded options such as the ability to expand, defer, or abandon a project.
- Real options theory applies option pricing models to these physical investments to better capture their true economic value.
- The standard NPV approach uses a risk-adjusted discount rate, often derived from the Capital Asset Pricing Model and proxy betas from similar companies.
- A negative NPV suggests a project will reduce shareholder value, while a positive NPV indicates the project should proceed.
Often there are options embedded in these investment opportunities (the option to expand the investment, the option to abandon the investment, the option to defer the investment, and so on.)
Up to now we have been almost entirely concerned with the valuation of financial
assets. In this chapter we explore how the ideas we have developed can be extended to
assess capital investment opportunities in real assets such as land, buildings, plant, and
equipment. Often there are options embedded in these investment opportunities (the
option to expand the investment, the option to abandon the investment, the option to
defer the investment, and so on.) These options are very difficult to value using
traditional capital investment appraisal techniques. The approach known as real options attempts to deal with this problem using option pricing theory.
The chapter starts by explaining the traditional approach to evaluating investments in
real assets and shows how difficult it is to correctly value embedded options when this
approach is used. It then explains how the risk-neutral valuation approach can be extended to handle the valuation of real assets and presents a number of examples illustrating the application of the approach in different situations.
The traditional approach to valuing a potential capital investment project is the ānet
present valueā (NPV) approach. The NPV of a project is the present value of its
expected future incremental cash flows. The discount rate used to calculate the present value is a ārisk-adjustedā discount rate, chosen to reflect the risk of the project. As the riskiness of the project increases, the discount rate also increases.
As an example, consider an investment that costs $100 million and will last 5 years.
The expected cash inflow in each year (in the real world) is estimated to be $25 million. If the risk-adjusted discount rate is 12% (with continuous compounding), the net present value of the investment is (in millions of dollars)
-100+25e-0.12*1+25e-0.12*2+25e-0.12*3+25e-0.12*4+25e-0.12*5=-11.53
A negative NPV , such as the one we have just calculated, indicates that the project will reduce the value of the company to its shareholders and should not be undertaken. A positive NPV would indicate that the project should be undertaken because it will increase shareholder wealth.36.1 CAPITAL INVESTMENT APPRAISAL
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The risk-adjusted discount rate should be the return required by the company, or the
companyās shareholders, on the investment. This can be calculated in a number of ways.
One approach often recommended involves the capital asset pricing model (see the appendix to Chapter 3). The steps are as follows:
1. Take a sample of companies whose main line of business is the same as that of the project being contemplated.
2. Calculate the betas of the companies and average them to obtain a proxy beta for
the project.
3. Set the required rate of return equal to the risk-free rate plus the proxy beta times
Limitations of Traditional NPV
- The traditional Net Present Value (NPV) approach relies on the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to determine risk-adjusted discount rates based on industry proxy betas.
- Embedded options within projects, such as the ability to abandon or expand, possess risk profiles that differ significantly from the base project, making a single discount rate inaccurate.
- Estimating discount rates for real options is notoriously difficult, as evidenced by how a simple stock option's required return can swing wildly from 55.96% to -70.4%.
- Risk-neutral valuation offers a solution by adjusting the expected growth rates of variables by their market price of risk and discounting at the risk-free rate.
There is no easy way of estimating these discount rates. (We know them only because we are able to value the options another way.)
The risk-adjusted discount rate should be the return required by the company, or the
companyās shareholders, on the investment. This can be calculated in a number of ways.
One approach often recommended involves the capital asset pricing model (see the appendix to Chapter 3). The steps are as follows:
1. Take a sample of companies whose main line of business is the same as that of the project being contemplated.
2. Calculate the betas of the companies and average them to obtain a proxy beta for
the project.
3. Set the required rate of return equal to the risk-free rate plus the proxy beta times
the excess return of the market portfolio over the risk-free rate.
One problem with the traditional NPV approach is that many projects contain embedded options. Consider, for example, a company that is considering building a plant to manufacture a new product. Often the company has the option to abandon the project if things do not work out well. It may also have the option to expand the plant if demand for the output exceeds expectations. These options usually have quite different risk characteristics from the base project and require different discount rates.
To understand the problem here, return to the example at the beginning of Chapter 13.
This involved a stock whose current price is $20. In three months the price will be either $22 or $18. Risk-neutral valuation shows that the value of a three-month call option on the stock with a strike price of 21 is 0.545. Footnote 1 of Chapter 13 shows that if the expected return required by investors on the stock in the real world is 10% then the expected return required on the call option is 55.96%. A similar analysis shows that if the option is a put rather than a call the expected return required on the option is
-70.4%.
These analyses mean that if the traditional NPV approach were used to value the call option the correct discount rate would be 55.96%, and if it were used to value a put option the correct discount rate would be
-70.4%. There is no easy way of estimating
these discount rates. (We know them only because we are able to value the options another way.) Similarly, there is no easy way of estimating the risk-adjusted discount rates appropriate for cash flows when they arise from abandonment, expansion, and other options. This is the motivation for exploring whether the risk-neutral valuation principle can be applied to options on real assets as well as to options on financial assets.
Another problem with the traditional NPV approach lies in the estimation of the
appropriate risk-adjusted discount rate for the base project (i.e., the project without embedded options). The companies that are used to estimate a proxy beta for the project in the three-step procedure above have expansion options and abandonment options of their own. Their betas reflect these options and may not therefore be appropriate for estimating a beta for the base project.
In Section 28.1 the market price of risk for a variable
u was defined as
l=m-r
s (36.1)
where r is the risk-free rate, m is the return on a traded security dependent only on u, 36.2 EXTENSION OF THE RISK-NEUTRAL VALUATION FRAMEWORK
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804 CHAPTER 36
and s is its volatility. As shown in Section 28.1, the market price of risk, l, does not
depend on the particular traded security chosen.
Suppose that a real asset depends on several variables ui 1i=1, 2, c 2. Let mi and si
be the expected growth rate and volatility of ui so that
dui>ui=mi dt+si dzi
where zi is a Wiener process. Define li as the market price of risk of ui. Risk-neutral
valuation can be extended to show that any asset dependent on the ui can be valued by1
1. Reducing the expected growth rate of each ui from mi to mi-lisi
2. Discounting cash flows at the risk-free rate.
Example 36.1
Real Options and Risk-Neutral Valuation
- Risk-neutral valuation can be extended to real assets by adjusting the expected growth rate of stochastic variables based on their market price of risk.
- The valuation process involves reducing the real-world growth rate by the product of the market price of risk and the variable's volatility.
- Once growth rates are adjusted to a risk-neutral state, cash flows can be discounted using the risk-free rate rather than complex risk-adjusted rates.
- The real-options approach is demonstrated through a commercial real estate example, proving an option's value by modeling rent as a stochastic variable.
- Market price of risk parameters can be estimated using historical data and the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) by correlating variables with market indices.
The real-options approach to evaluating an investment avoids the need to estimate risk-adjusted discount rates in the way described in Section 36.1, but it does require market price of risk parameters for all stochastic variables.
and s is its volatility. As shown in Section 28.1, the market price of risk, l, does not
depend on the particular traded security chosen.
Suppose that a real asset depends on several variables ui 1i=1, 2, c 2. Let mi and si
be the expected growth rate and volatility of ui so that
dui>ui=mi dt+si dzi
where zi is a Wiener process. Define li as the market price of risk of ui. Risk-neutral
valuation can be extended to show that any asset dependent on the ui can be valued by1
1. Reducing the expected growth rate of each ui from mi to mi-lisi
2. Discounting cash flows at the risk-free rate.
Example 36.1
The cost of renting commercial real estate in a certain city is quoted as the
amount that would be paid per square foot per year in a new 5-year rental agreement. The current cost is $30 per square foot. The expected growth rate of the cost is 12% per annum, the volatility of the cost is 20% per annum, and its market price of risk is 0.3. A company has the opportunity to pay $1 million now for the option to rent 100,000 square feet at $35 per square foot for a 5-year
period starting in 2 years. The risk-free rate is 5% per annum (assumed constant). Define V as the quoted cost per square foot of office space in 2 years. Assume that
rent is paid annually in advance. The payoff from the option is
100,000A max1V-35, 02
where A is an annuity factor given by
A=1+1*e-0.05*1+1*e-0.05*2+1*e-0.05*3+1*e-0.05*4=4.5355
The expected payoff in a risk-neutral world is therefore
100,000*4.5355*En3max1V-35, 024=453,550*En3max1V-35, 024
where En denotes expectations in a risk-neutral world. Using the result in equa-
tion (15A. 1), this is
453,5503En1V2N1d12-35N1d224
where
d1=ln3En1V2>354+0.22*2>2
0.222 and d2=ln3En1V2>354-0.22*2>2
0.222
The expected growth rate in the cost of commercial real estate in a risk-neutral world is
m-ls, where m is the real-world growth rate, s is the volatility, and l is
the market price of risk. In this case, m=0.12, s=0.2, and l=0.3, so that the
expected risk-neutral growth rate is 0.06, or 6%, per year. It follows that
En1V2=30e0.06*2=33.82. Substituting this in the expression above gives the
expected payoff in a risk-neutral world as $1.5015 million. Discounting at the
1 To see that this is consistent with risk-neutral valuation for an investment asset, suppose that ui is the price
of a non-dividend-paying stock. Since this is the price of a traded security, equation (36.1) implies that
1mi-r2>si=li, or mi-lisi=r. The expected growth-rate adjustment is therefore the same as setting the
return on the stock equal to the risk-free rate. For a proof of the more general result, see Technical Note 20
at: www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/TechnicalNotes.
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risk-free rate the value of the option is 1.5015e-0.05*2=$1.3586 million. This
shows that it is worth paying $1 million for the option.
The real-options approach to evaluating an investment avoids the need to estimate risk-
adjusted discount rates in the way described in Section 36.1, but it does require market
price of risk parameters for all stochastic variables. When historical data are available for a particular variable, its market price of risk can be estimated using the capital asset pricing model. To show how this is done, we consider an investment asset dependent solely on the variable and define:
m : Expected return of the investment asset
s : Volatility of the return of the investment asset
l : Market price of risk of the variable
r : Instantaneous correlation between the percentage changes in the variable and
returns on a broad index of stock market prices
mm : Expected return on broad index of stock market prices
sm : Volatility of return on the broad index of stock market prices
r : Short-term risk-free rate
Estimating Market Price of Risk
- The real-options approach to investment evaluation bypasses the need for risk-adjusted discount rates by utilizing market price of risk parameters for stochastic variables.
- When historical data is available, the market price of risk can be calculated using a continuous-time version of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).
- In the absence of direct historical data, analysts can use proxy variables from similar products or apply subjective judgment to estimate correlation with market indices.
- If a variable is determined to be entirely unrelated to the performance of a market index, its market price of risk is effectively set to zero.
- Certain variables, such as investment asset prices or interest rates, allow for the direct estimation of risk-neutral processes without calculating the market price of risk separately.
If an analyst is convinced that a particular variable is unrelated to the performance of a market index, its market price of risk should be set to zero.
shows that it is worth paying $1 million for the option.
The real-options approach to evaluating an investment avoids the need to estimate risk-
adjusted discount rates in the way described in Section 36.1, but it does require market
price of risk parameters for all stochastic variables. When historical data are available for a particular variable, its market price of risk can be estimated using the capital asset pricing model. To show how this is done, we consider an investment asset dependent solely on the variable and define:
m : Expected return of the investment asset
s : Volatility of the return of the investment asset
l : Market price of risk of the variable
r : Instantaneous correlation between the percentage changes in the variable and
returns on a broad index of stock market prices
mm : Expected return on broad index of stock market prices
sm : Volatility of return on the broad index of stock market prices
r : Short-term risk-free rate
Because the investment asset is dependent solely on the market variable, the instant-
aneous correlation between its return and the broad index of stock market prices is also
r. From a continuous-time version of the capital asset pricing model, which is
presented in the appendix to Chapter 3,2
m-r=rs
sm1mm-r2
From equation (36.1), another expression for m-r is
m-r=ls
It follows that
l=r
sm1mm-r2 (36.2)
This equation can be used to estimate l.
Example 36.2
A historical analysis of companyās sales, quarter by quarter, show that percentage
changes in sales have a correlation of 0.3 with returns on the S&P 500 index. The volatility of the S&P 500 is 20% per annum and based on historical data the expected excess return of the S&P 500 over the risk-free rate is 5%. Equation (36.2) estimates the market price of risk for the companyās sales as
0.3
0.2*0.05=0.07536.3 ESTIMATING THE MARKET PRICE OF RISK
2 When the excess return on the asset is regressed against the excess on the market index, the slope of the
regression, beta, is rs>sm.
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When no historical data are available for the particular variable under consideration,
other similar variables can sometimes be used as proxies. For example, if a plant is being constructed to manufacture a new product, data can be collected on the sales of other similar products. The correlation of the new productās price with the market index can then be assumed to be the same as that of these other products. In some cases, the estimate of
r in equation (36.2) must be based on subjective judgment. If an analyst is
convinced that a particular variable is unrelated to the performance of a market index, its market price of risk should be set to zero.
For some variables, it is not necessary to estimate the market price of risk because
the process followed by a variable in a risk-neutral world can be estimated directly. For example, if the variable is the price of an investment asset, its total return in a risk- neutral world is the risk-free rate. If the variable is the short-term interest rate r,
Chapter 31 shows how a risk-neutral process can be estimated from the initial term structure of interest rates.
For commodities, futures prices can be used to estimate the risk-neutral process, as
discussed in Chapter 35. Example 35.2 provides a simple application of the real options approach by using futures prices to evaluate an investment involving the breeding of cattle.
Traditional methods of business valuation, such as applying a price/earnings multiplier
Real Options and Business Valuation
- Analysts can use proxy data from similar products or subjective judgment to estimate the market price of risk for new manufacturing ventures.
- For certain variables like investment assets or interest rates, the risk-neutral process can be derived directly from market data without estimating risk prices.
- Traditional valuation methods like P/E multipliers fail for startups with negative earnings, making real options and Monte Carlo simulations more effective.
- The value of a business is determined by discounting the expected risk-neutral cash flows at the risk-free rate, accounting for potential bankruptcy scenarios.
- Embedded options, such as the American put option to abandon a project, significantly increase a project's initial valuation by mitigating downside risk.
It is likely that under some of these scenarios the company does very well and under others it becomes bankrupt and ceases operations.
other similar variables can sometimes be used as proxies. For example, if a plant is being constructed to manufacture a new product, data can be collected on the sales of other similar products. The correlation of the new productās price with the market index can then be assumed to be the same as that of these other products. In some cases, the estimate of
r in equation (36.2) must be based on subjective judgment. If an analyst is
convinced that a particular variable is unrelated to the performance of a market index, its market price of risk should be set to zero.
For some variables, it is not necessary to estimate the market price of risk because
the process followed by a variable in a risk-neutral world can be estimated directly. For example, if the variable is the price of an investment asset, its total return in a risk- neutral world is the risk-free rate. If the variable is the short-term interest rate r,
Chapter 31 shows how a risk-neutral process can be estimated from the initial term structure of interest rates.
For commodities, futures prices can be used to estimate the risk-neutral process, as
discussed in Chapter 35. Example 35.2 provides a simple application of the real options approach by using futures prices to evaluate an investment involving the breeding of cattle.
Traditional methods of business valuation, such as applying a price/earnings multiplier
to current earnings, do not work well for new businesses. Typically a companyās earnings are negative during its early years as it attempts to gain market share and establish relationships with customers. The company must be valued by estimating future earnings and cash flows under different scenarios.
The real options approach can be useful in this situation. A model relating the
companyās future cash flows to variables such as the sales growth rates, variable costs as a percent of sales, fixed costs, and so on, is developed. For key variables, a risk-neutral stochastic process is estimated as outlined in the previous two sections. A Monte Carlo simulation is then carried out to generate alternative scenarios for the net cash flows per year in a risk-neutral world. It is likely that under some of these scenarios the company does very well and under others it becomes bankrupt and ceases operations. (The simulation must have a built in rule for determining when bankruptcy happens.) The value of the company is the present value of the expected cash flow in each year using the risk-free rate for discounting. Business Snapshot 36.1 gives an example of the application of the approach to Amazon.com in its early days.36.4 APPLICATION TO THE VALUATION OF A BUSINESS
As already mentioned, most investment projects involve options. These options can add
considerable value to the project and are often either ignored or valued incorrectly. Examples of the options embedded in projects are:
1. Abandonment options. This is an option to sell or close down a project. It is an American put option on the projectās value. The strike price of the option is the 36.5 EVALUATING OPTIONS IN AN INVESTMENT OPPORTUNITY
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liquidation (or resale) value of the project less any closing-down costs. When the
liquidation value is low, the strike price can be negative. Abandonment options mitigate the impact of very poor investment outcomes and increase the initial valuation of a project.
2. Expansion options. This is the option to make further investments and increase the
Real Options in Investment
- Abandonment options function as American put options, allowing a firm to liquidate a project to mitigate losses when outcomes are poor.
- Expansion and contraction options provide managers the flexibility to scale operations up or down based on favorable or unfavorable market conditions.
- The real-options approach was famously used to value Amazon.com in 1999, revealing a massive discrepancy between calculated value and market price.
- The valuation of high-growth companies like Amazon is extremely sensitive to the volatility of the growth rate, which acts as a significant source of optionality.
- Strategic flexibility, such as the option to defer a project or extend its life, adds measurable value to an initial investment opportunity.
Schwartz and Moon provided an estimate of the value of Amazon. comās shares at the end of 1999 equal to $12.42. The market price at the time was $76.125.
1. Abandonment options. This is an option to sell or close down a project. It is an American put option on the projectās value. The strike price of the option is the 36.5 EVALUATING OPTIONS IN AN INVESTMENT OPPORTUNITY
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liquidation (or resale) value of the project less any closing-down costs. When the
liquidation value is low, the strike price can be negative. Abandonment options mitigate the impact of very poor investment outcomes and increase the initial valuation of a project.
2. Expansion options. This is the option to make further investments and increase the
output if conditions are favorable. It is an American call option on the value of
additional capacity. The strike price of the call option is the cost of creating this additional capacity discounted to the time of option exercise. The strike price often depends on the initial investment. If management initially choose to build capacity in excess of the expected level of output, the strike price can be relatively small.Business Snapshot 36.1 Valuing Amazon.com
One of the earliest published attempts to value a company using the real options
approach was Schwartz and Moon (2000), who considered Amazon.com at the end of 1999. They assumed the following stochastic processes for the companyās sales revenue R and its revenue growth rate
m:
dR
R=m dt+s1t2 dz1
dm=k1m-m2 dt+h1t2 dz2
They assumed that the two Wiener processes dz1 and dz2 were uncorrelated and made
reasonable assumptions about s1t2, h1t2, k, and m based on available data.
They assumed the cost of goods sold would be 75% of sales, other variable
expenses would be 19% of sales, and fixed expenses would be $75 million per quarter. The initial sales level was $356 million, the initial tax loss carry forward was $559 million, and the tax rate was assumed to be 35%. The market price of risk for R was estimated from historical data using the approach described in the previous
section. The market price of risk for
m was assumed to be zero.
The time horizon for the analysis was 25 years and the terminal value of the
company was assumed to be ten times pretax operating profit. The initial cash position was $906 million and the company was assumed to go bankrupt if the cash balance became negative.
Different future scenarios were generated in a risk-neutral world using Monte
Carlo simulation. The evaluation of the scenarios involved taking account of the possible exercise of convertible bonds and the possible exercise of employee stock options. The value of the company to the share holders was calculated as the present value of the net cash flows discounted at the risk-free rate.
Using these assumptions, Schwartz and Moon provided an estimate of the value
of Amazon. comās shares at the end of 1999 equal to $12.42. The market price at the time was $76.125 (although it declined sharply in 2000). One of the key advantages of the real-options approach is that it identifies the key assumptions. Schwartz and Moon found that the estimated share value was very sensitive to
h1t2, the volatility of
the growth rate. This was an important source of optionality. A small increase
in h1t2 leads to more optionality and a big increase in the value of Amazon.com
shares. No doubt Amazon has benefited from this optionality.
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808 CHAPTER 36
3. Contraction options. This is the option to reduce the scale of a projectās operation.
It is an American put option on the value of the lost capacity. The strike price is the present value of the future expenditures saved as seen at the time of exercise of the option.
4. Options to defer. One of the most important options open to a manager is the option to defer a project. This is an American call option on the value of the project.
5. Options to extend life. Sometimes it is possible to extend the life of an asset by
Real Options and Project Valuation
- Real options such as contraction, deferral, and life extension allow managers to adjust project scales or timelines based on market conditions.
- A contraction option acts as an American put option, where the strike price is the present value of future expenditures saved by reducing operations.
- Standard net present value analysis may suggest rejecting a project that appears to reduce shareholder wealth when embedded options are ignored.
- Binomial trees and risk-neutral valuation provide a framework for modeling commodity price movements and calculating the value of projects with complex flexibilities.
- The example demonstrates that a project with a negative base value of -0.54 million requires further analysis of its embedded options to determine its true worth.
This analysis indicates that the project should not be undertaken because it would reduce shareholder wealth by 0.54 million.
3. Contraction options. This is the option to reduce the scale of a projectās operation.
It is an American put option on the value of the lost capacity. The strike price is the present value of the future expenditures saved as seen at the time of exercise of the option.
4. Options to defer. One of the most important options open to a manager is the option to defer a project. This is an American call option on the value of the project.
5. Options to extend life. Sometimes it is possible to extend the life of an asset by
paying a fixed amount. This is a European call option on the assetās future value.
Illustration
As an example of the evaluation of an investment with embedded options, consider a company that has to decide whether to invest $15 million to extract 6 million units of a commodity from a certain source at the rate of 2 million units per year for 3 years. The fixed costs of operating the equipment are $6 million per year and the variable costs are $17 per unit of the commodity extracted. We assume that the risk-free interest rate is 10% per annum for all maturities, that the spot price of the commodity is $20, and that the 1 -, 2-, and 3-year futures prices are $22, $23, and $24, respectively.
Evaluation with No Embedded Options
First consider the case where the project has no embedded options. The expected prices of the commodity in 1, 2, and 3 yearsā time in a risk-neutral world are $22, $23, and $24, respectively. The expected payoff from the project (in millions of dollars) in a risk-neutral
world can be calculated from the cost data as 4.0, 6.0, and 8.0 in years 1, 2, and 3, respectively. The value of the project is therefore
-15.0+4.0e-0.1*1+6.0e-0.1*2+8.0e-0.1*3=-0.54
This analysis indicates that the project should not be undertaken because it would reduce shareholder wealth by 0.54 million.
Use of a Tree
We now assume that the spot price of the commodity follows the process
d ln S=3u1t2-a ln S4 dt+s dz (36.3)
where a=0.1 and s=0.2. In Section 35.4, we showed how a tree can be constructed
for commodity prices using the same example as the one considered here. The tree is
shown in Figure 36.1 (which is the same as Figure 35.2). The process represented by the
tree is consistent with the process assumed for S, the assumed values of a and s, and the
assumed 1 -, 2-, and 3-year futures prices.
We do not need to use a tree to value the project when there are no embedded
options. (We have already shown that the base value of the project without options is
-0.54.) However, before we move on to consider options, it will be instructive, as well
as useful for future calculations, for us to use the tree to value the project in the absence of embedded options and verify that we get the same answer as that obtained earlier.
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Figure 36.1 Tree for spot price of a commodity: pu, pm, and pd are the probabilities of
āupā , āmiddleā , and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
44.35 45.68
BF K
30.49 31.37 32.30
AC GL
20.00 21.56 22.18 22.85
DH M
15.25 15.69 16.16
IN
11.10 11.43
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
Figure 36.2 shows the value of the project at each node of Figure 36.1. Consider, for
example, node H. There is a 0.2217 probability that the commodity price at the end of
the third year is 22.85, so that the third-year profit is 2*22.85-2*17-6=5.70.
Similarly, there is a 0.6566 probability that the commodity price at the end of the third year is 16.16, so that the profit is
-7.68 and there is a 0.1217 probability that the
commodity price at the end of the third year is 11.43, so that the profit is -17.14. The
value of the project at node H in Figure 36.2 is therefore
30.2217*5.70+0.6566*1-7.682+0.1217*1-17.1424e-0.1*1=-5.31
Valuing the Option to Abandon
- The text demonstrates how to calculate the value of a project by analyzing commodity price probabilities across a decision tree.
- Without embedded options, the base project is shown to have a negative net present value of -$0.54 million, making it financially unattractive.
- The 'Option to Abandon' is modeled as an American put option with a strike price of zero, allowing the company to cease operations if project value turns negative.
- By rolling back through the tree and identifying nodes where abandonment is optimal, the value of this flexibility is calculated at $1.94 million.
- The inclusion of the abandonment option transforms the project's total value from a loss to a positive $1.40 million gain for shareholders.
A project that was previously unattractive now has a positive value to shareholders.
Figure 36.2 shows the value of the project at each node of Figure 36.1. Consider, for
example, node H. There is a 0.2217 probability that the commodity price at the end of
the third year is 22.85, so that the third-year profit is 2*22.85-2*17-6=5.70.
Similarly, there is a 0.6566 probability that the commodity price at the end of the third year is 16.16, so that the profit is
-7.68 and there is a 0.1217 probability that the
commodity price at the end of the third year is 11.43, so that the profit is -17.14. The
value of the project at node H in Figure 36.2 is therefore
30.2217*5.70+0.6566*1-7.682+0.1217*1-17.1424e-0.1*1=-5.31
As another example, consider node C. There is a 0.1667 chance of moving to node F where the commodity price is 31.37. The second year cash flow is then
2*31.37-2*17-6=22.74
The value of subsequent cash flows at node F is 21.42. The total value of the project if we move to node F is therefore
21.42+22.74=44.16. Similarly the total value of the
project if we move to nodes G and H are 10.35 and -13.93, respectively. The value of
the project at node C is therefore
30.1667*44.16+0.6666*10.35+0.1667*1-13.9324e-0.1*1=10.80
Figure 36.2 shows that the value of the project at the initial node A is 14.46. When the
initial investment is taken into account the value of the project is therefore -0.54. This
is in agreement with our earlier calculations.
M36_HULL0654_11_GE_C36.indd 809 30/04/2021 17:54
810 CHAPTER 36
Figure 36.2 Valuation of base project with no embedded options: pu, pm, and pd are
the probabilities of āupā , āmiddleā , and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
42.24 0.00
BF K
38.32 21.42 0.00
AC GL
14.46 10.80 5.99 0.00
DH M
29.65 25.31 0.00
IN
213.49 0.00
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
Option to Abandon
Suppose now that the company has the option to abandon the project at any time. We
suppose that there is no salvage value and no further payments are required once the project has been abandoned. Abandonment is an American put option with a strike price of zero and is valued in Figure 36.3. The put option should not be exercised at nodes E, F, and G because the value of the project is positive at these nodes. It should be exercised at nodes H and I. The value of the put option is 5.31 and 13.49 at nodes H and I, respectively. Rolling back through the tree, the value of the abandonment put option at node D if it is not exercised is
10.1217*13.49+0.6566*5.31+0.2217*02e-0.1*1=4.64
The value of exercising the put option at node D is 9.65. This is greater than 4.64, and so the put should be exercised at node D. The value of the put option at node C is
30.1667*0+0.6666*0+0.1667*5.314e-0.1*1=0.80
and the value at node A is
10.1667*0+0.6666*0.80+0.1667*9.652e-0.1*1=1.94
The abandonment option is therefore worth $1.94 million. It increases the value of the project from
-$0.54 million to +$1.40 million. A project that was previously unattractive
now has a positive value to shareholders.
M36_HULL0654_11_GE_C36.indd 810 30/04/2021 17:54
Real Options 811
Figure 36.3 Valuation of option to abandon the project: pu, pm, and pd are the
probabilities of āupā , āmiddleā , and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
0.00 0.00
BF K
0.00 0.00 0.00
AC GL
1.94 0.80 0.00 0.00
DH M
9.65 5.31 0.00
IN
13.49 0.00
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
Option to Expand
Valuing Real Options in Projects
- The text demonstrates how an option to expand a project by 20% can be modeled as an American call option using a trinomial tree.
- Calculations show that incorporating an expansion option can turn a project with a negative net present value into one with a positive value.
- Valuing expansion options becomes more complex if fixed costs do not scale proportionally with production increases, requiring separate tracking of revenues and costs.
- Multiple real options, such as abandonment and expansion, are typically interdependent and cannot be valued by simply summing their individual parts.
- To account for interacting options, analysts must define multiple states at each node to track whether a project has already been abandoned or expanded.
Again we find that a project that previously had a negative value now has a positive value.
M36_HULL0654_11_GE_C36.indd 810 30/04/2021 17:54
Real Options 811
Figure 36.3 Valuation of option to abandon the project: pu, pm, and pd are the
probabilities of āupā , āmiddleā , and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
0.00 0.00
BF K
0.00 0.00 0.00
AC GL
1.94 0.80 0.00 0.00
DH M
9.65 5.31 0.00
IN
13.49 0.00
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
Option to Expand
Suppose next that the company has no abandonment option. Instead it has the option at
any time to increase the scale of the project by 20%. The cost of doing this is $2 million.
Production increases from 2.0 to 2.4 million units per year. Variable costs remain $17 per
unit and fixed costs increase by 20% from $6.0 million to $7.2 million. This is an American call option to buy 20% of the base project in Figure 36.2 for $2 million. The option is valued in Figure 36.4. At node E, the option should be exercised. The
payoff is
0.2*42.24-2=6.45. At node F, it should also be exercised for a payoff of
0.2*21.42-2=2.28. At nodes G, H, and I, the option should not be exercised. At
node B, exercising is worth more than waiting and the option is worth 0.2*38.32-2 =
5.66. At node C, if the option is not exercised, it is worth
10.1667*2.28+0.6666*0.00+0.1667*0.002e-0.1*1=0.34
If the option is exercised, it is worth 0.2*10.80-2=0.16. The option should there-
fore not be exercised at node C. At node A, if not exercised, the option is worth
10.1667*5.66+0.6666*0.34+0.1667*0.002e-0.1*1=1.06
If the option is exercised it is worth 0.2*14.46-2=0.89. Early exercise is therefore
not optimal at node A. In this case, the option increases the value of the project from
-0.54 to +0.52. Again we find that a project that previously had a negative value now
has a positive value.
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812 CHAPTER 36
Figure 36.4 Valuation of option to expand the project: pu, pm, and pd are the
probabilities of āupā , āmiddleā , and ādownā movements from a node.
EJ
6.45 0.00
BF K
5.66 2.28 0.00
AC GL
1.06 0.34 0.00 0.00
DH M
0.00 0.00 0.00
IN
0.00 0.00
Node: A B C D E F G H I
pu : 0.1667 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.8867 0.1217 0.1667 0.2217 0.0867
pm : 0.6666 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266 0.6566 0.6666 0.6566 0.0266
pd : 0.1667 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.0867 0.2217 0.1667 0.1217 0.8867
The expansion option in Figure 36.4 is relatively easy to value because, once the
option has been exercised, all subsequent cash inflows and outflows increase by 20%. In
the case where fixed costs remain the same or increase by less than 20%, it is necessary to keep track of more information at the nodes of Figure 36.4. Specifically, we need to record the following in order to calculate the payoff from exercising the option:
1. The present value of subsequent fixed costs
2. The present value of subsequent revenues net of variable costs.
Multiple Options
When a project has two or more options, they are typically not independent. The value of
having both option A and option B, for example, is generally not the sum of the values of the two options. To illustrate this, suppose that the company we have been considering has both abandonment and expansion options. The project cannot be expanded if it has already been abandoned. Moreover, the value of the put option to abandon depends on whether the project has been expanded.
3
These interactions between the options in our example can be handled by defining
four states at each node:
1. Not already abandoned; not already expanded
2. Not already abandoned; already expanded
3 As it happens, the two options do not interact in Figures 36.3 and 36.4. However, the interactions between
the options would become an issue if a larger tree with smaller time steps were built.
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Interactions and Stochastic Real Options
- Real options within a project are rarely independent, as the value of one option often depends on whether another has already been exercised.
- To value interacting options like abandonment and expansion, analysts must track multiple states at each node of a decision tree to account for path dependency.
- When projects involve several stochastic variables, Monte Carlo simulation is typically used to determine the base project value.
- Valuing embedded American-style options in simulations requires advanced techniques like the Longstaff and Schwartz least-squares approach to estimate future cash flows.
- Risk-neutral valuation provides a consistent framework for capital investment by adjusting growth rates for risk and discounting at the risk-free rate.
The project cannot be expanded if it has already been abandoned.
When a project has two or more options, they are typically not independent. The value of
having both option A and option B, for example, is generally not the sum of the values of the two options. To illustrate this, suppose that the company we have been considering has both abandonment and expansion options. The project cannot be expanded if it has already been abandoned. Moreover, the value of the put option to abandon depends on whether the project has been expanded.
3
These interactions between the options in our example can be handled by defining
four states at each node:
1. Not already abandoned; not already expanded
2. Not already abandoned; already expanded
3 As it happens, the two options do not interact in Figures 36.3 and 36.4. However, the interactions between
the options would become an issue if a larger tree with smaller time steps were built.
M36_HULL0654_11_GE_C36.indd 812 30/04/2021 17:54
Real Options 813
3. Already abandoned; not already expanded
4. Already abandoned; already expanded.
When we roll back through the tree we calculate the combined value of the options at
each node for all four alternatives. This approach to valuing path-dependent options is discussed in more detail in Section 27. 5.
Several Stochastic Variables
When there are several stochastic variables, the value of the base project is usually determined by Monte Carlo simulation. The valuation of the projectās embedded options is then more difficult because a Monte Carlo simulation works from the beginning to the end of a project. When we reach a certain point, we do not have information on the present value of the projectās future cash flows. However, the techniques mentioned in Section 27. 8 for valuing American options using Monte Carlo
simulation can sometimes be used.
As an illustration of this point, Schwartz and Moon (2000) explain how their
Amazon.com analysis outlined in Business Snapshot 36.1 could be extended to take
account of the option to abandon (i.e. the option to declare bankruptcy) when the value
of future cash flows is negative.
4 At each time step, a polynomial relationship between the
value of not abandoning and variables such as the current revenue, revenue growth rate, volatilities, cash balances, and loss carry forwards is assumed. Each simulation trial
provides an observation for obtaining a least-squares estimate of the relationship at each
time. This is the Longstaff and Schwartz approach of Section 27. 8.
5
SUMMARY
This chapter has investigated how the ideas developed earlier in the book can be applied to the valuation of real assets and options on real assets. It has shown how
the risk-neutral valuation principle can be used to value a project dependent on any set of variables. The expected growth rate of each variable is adjusted to reflect its market price of risk. The value of the asset is then the present value of its expected cash flows discounted at the risk-free rate.
Risk-neutral valuation provides an internally consistent approach to capital invest-
ment appraisal. It also makes it possible to value the options that are embedded in many of the projects that are encountered in practice. This chapter has illustrated the approach by applying it to the valuation of Amazon.com at the end of 1999 and the valuation of a project involving the extraction of a commodity.
FURTHER READING
Amran, M., and N. Kulatilaka, Real Options, Boston, MA: Harvard Business School Press,
1999.
5 F. A. Longstaff and E. S. Schwartz, āValuing American Options by Simulation: A Simple Least-Squares
Approach, ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 1 (Spring 2001): 113ā47.4 The analysis in Section 36.4 assumed that bankruptcy occurs when the cash balance falls below zero, but
this is not necessarily optimal for Amazon.com.
M36_HULL0654_11_GE_C36.indd 813 30/04/2021 17:54
814 CHAPTER 36
Real Options and Valuation
- The text concludes a chapter on real options, emphasizing their utility in valuing managerial flexibility and embedded project options.
- Risk-neutral valuation is presented as a superior alternative to traditional net present value for complex capital investment opportunities.
- Practical applications discussed include the valuation of high-growth internet companies like Amazon.com and commodity extraction projects.
- The material provides mathematical frameworks for calculating the market price of risk and the impact of convenience yields on commodity growth.
- A series of practice questions explores the valuation of abandonment options, car leases, and commodity futures using Wiener processes.
The analysis in Section 36.4 assumed that bankruptcy occurs when the cash balance falls below zero, but this is not necessarily optimal for Amazon.com.
ment appraisal. It also makes it possible to value the options that are embedded in many of the projects that are encountered in practice. This chapter has illustrated the approach by applying it to the valuation of Amazon.com at the end of 1999 and the valuation of a project involving the extraction of a commodity.
FURTHER READING
Amran, M., and N. Kulatilaka, Real Options, Boston, MA: Harvard Business School Press,
1999.
5 F. A. Longstaff and E. S. Schwartz, āValuing American Options by Simulation: A Simple Least-Squares
Approach, ā Review of Financial Studies, 14, 1 (Spring 2001): 113ā47.4 The analysis in Section 36.4 assumed that bankruptcy occurs when the cash balance falls below zero, but
this is not necessarily optimal for Amazon.com.
M36_HULL0654_11_GE_C36.indd 813 30/04/2021 17:54
814 CHAPTER 36
Copeland, T., and V . Antikarov, Real Options: A Practitioners Guide, New York: Texere, 2003.
Koller, T., M. Goedhart, and D. Wessels, Valuation: Measuring and Managing the Value of
Companies, 5th edn. New York: Wiley, 2010.
Mun, J., Real Options Analysis, Hoboken, NJ: Wiley, 2006.
Schwartz, E. S., and M. Moon, āRational Pricing of Internet Companies, ā Financial Analysts
Journal, May/June (2000): 62ā75.
Trigeorgis, L., Real Options: Managerial Flexibility and Strategy in Resource Allocation,
Cambridge, MA: MIT Press, 1996.
Practice Questions
36.1. Explain the difference between the net present value approach and the risk-neutral
valuation approach for valuing a new capital investment opportunity. What are the
advantages of the risk-neutral valuation approach for valuing real options?
36.2. The market price of risk for copper is 0.5, the volatility of copper prices is 20% per annum, the spot price is 80 cents per pound, and the 6-month futures price is 75 cents per
pound. What is the expected percentage growth rate in copper prices over the next 6 months?
36.3. Show that if y is a commodityās convenience yield and u is its storage cost, the
commodityās growth rate in the traditional risk-neutral world is
r-y+u, where r is
the risk-free rate. Deduce the relationship between the market price of risk of the
commodity, its real-world growth rate, its volatility, y, and u.
36.4. The correlation between a companyās gross revenue and the market index is 0.2. The excess return of the market over the risk-free rate is 6% and the volatility of the market index is 18%. What is the market price of risk for the companyās revenue?
36.5. A company can buy an option for the delivery of 1 million units of a commodity in 3 years at $25 per unit. The 3-year futures price is $24. The risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum with continuous compounding and the volatility of the futures price is 20% per annum. How much is the option worth?
36.6. A driver entering into a car lease agreement can obtain the right to buy the car in 4 years for $10,000. The current value of the car is $30,000. The value of the car, S, is expected to
follow the process
dS=mS dt+sS dz, where m=-0.25, s=0.15, and dz is a Wiener
process. The market price of risk for the car price is estimated to be -0.1. What is the
value of the option? Assume that the risk-free rate for all maturities is 6%.
36.7. Suppose that the spot price, 6-month futures price, and 12-month futures price for wheat are 250, 260, and 270 cents per bushel, respectively. Suppose that the price of wheat follows the process in equation (36.3) with
a=0.05 and s=0.15. Construct a two-time-
step tree for the price of wheat in a risk-neutral world.
A farmer has a project that involves an expenditure of $10,000 and a further
expenditure of $90,000 in 6 months. It will increase wheat that is harvested and sold by 40,000 bushels in 1 year. What is the value of the project? Suppose that the farmer can abandon the project in 6 months and avoid paying the $90,000 cost at that time. What is the value of the abandonment option? Assume a risk-free rate of 5% with continuous compounding.
Derivatives Mishaps and Lessons
- The derivatives market has experienced spectacular losses since the mid-1980s, often stemming from subprime mortgages or individual rogue traders.
- A recurring theme in financial history is the destruction of large institutions, such as Barings Bank, by the unauthorized activities of a single employee.
- Major losses like those at Allied Irish Bank and Kidder Peabody were often facilitated by fictitious trades or errors in computer profit calculations.
- Despite these high-profile failures, the multitrillion-dollar derivatives market is considered largely successful and essential for global finance.
- The text emphasizes that these disasters offer critical risk management lessons for both financial and nonfinancial organizations.
In 1995, Nick Leesonās trading brought a 200-year-old British bank, Barings, to its knees.
a=0.05 and s=0.15. Construct a two-time-
step tree for the price of wheat in a risk-neutral world.
A farmer has a project that involves an expenditure of $10,000 and a further
expenditure of $90,000 in 6 months. It will increase wheat that is harvested and sold by 40,000 bushels in 1 year. What is the value of the project? Suppose that the farmer can abandon the project in 6 months and avoid paying the $90,000 cost at that time. What is the value of the abandonment option? Assume a risk-free rate of 5% with continuous compounding.
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815
Derivatives
Mishaps and What
We Can Learn
from Them
Since the mid-1980s there have been some spectacular losses in derivatives markets. The
biggest losses have come from the trading of products created from subprime residential mortgages in the United States and were discussed in Chapter 8. Some of the other losses made by financial institutions are listed in Business Snapshot 37.1, and some of
those made by nonfinancial organizations in Business Snapshot 37. 2. What is remark-
able about these lists is the number of situations where huge losses arose from the activities of a single employee. In 1995, Nick Leesonās trading brought a 200-year-old British bank, Barings, to its knees; in 1994, Robert Citronās trading led to Orange County, a municipality in California, losing about $2 billion. Joseph Jettās trading for Kidder Peabody lost $350 million. John Rusnakās losses of $700 million for Allied Irish Bank came to light in 2002. In 2006 the hedge fund Amaranth lost $6 billion because of trading risks taken by Brian Hunter. In 2008, JĆ©rĆ“me Kerviel lost over $7 billion trading equity index futures for SociĆ©tĆ© GĆ©nĆ©rale. The huge losses at UBS, Shell, and Sumitomo were also each the result of the activities of a single individual.
The losses should not be viewed as an indictment of the whole derivatives industry.
The derivatives market is a vast multitrillion dollar market that by most measures has been outstandingly successful and has served the needs of its users well. The events listed in Business Snapshots 37. 1 and 37. 2 represent a tiny proportion of the total trades
(both in number and value). Nevertheless, it is worth considering carefully the lessons that can be learned from them.37 CHAPTER
First, we consider the lessons appropriate to all users of derivatives, whether they are financial or nonfinancial companies.37.1 LESSONS FOR ALL USERS OF DERIVATIVES
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816 CHAPTER 37
Business Snapshot 37.1 Big Losses by Financial Institutions
Allied Irish Bank
This bank lost about $700 million from speculative activities of one of its foreign
exchange traders, John Rusnak, that lasted a number of years. Rusnak managed to cover up his losses by creating fictitious option trades.
Amaranth
This hedge fund lost $6 billion in 2006 betting on the future direction of natural gas
prices.
Barings
This 200-year-old British bank was destroyed in 1995 by the activities of one trader,
Nick Leeson, in Singapore, who made big bets on the future direction of the Nikkei 225 using futures and options. The total loss was close to $1 billion.
Enronās counterparties
Enron managed to conceal its true situation from its shareholders with some creative
contracts. Several financial institutions that allegedly helped Enron do this have settled shareholder lawsuits for over $1 billion.
Kidder Peabody (see Business Snapshot 5.1)
The activities of a single trader, Joseph Jett, led to this New York investment dealer
losing $350 million trading U.S. government securities. The loss arose because of a mistake in the way the companyās computer system calculated profits.
Long-Term Capital Management (see Business Snapshot 2.2)
Major Financial Losses and Risk
- A series of high-profile financial disasters illustrates how rogue trading and market volatility can lead to losses totaling billions of dollars.
- Both financial institutions and nonfinancial organizations have suffered catastrophic hits due to unauthorized speculation and flawed computer systems.
- The 2007 subprime mortgage crisis triggered a global credit crunch, demonstrating the systemic danger of complex structured products.
- Effective risk management requires boards to set unambiguous limits and perform daily checks against actual market movements.
- Derivatives are identified as particularly high-risk tools that require intense monitoring because they can be used for both hedging and speculation.
All its contracts were later declared null and void by the British courts, much to the annoyance of the banks on the other side of the transactions.
Enron managed to conceal its true situation from its shareholders with some creative
contracts. Several financial institutions that allegedly helped Enron do this have settled shareholder lawsuits for over $1 billion.
Kidder Peabody (see Business Snapshot 5.1)
The activities of a single trader, Joseph Jett, led to this New York investment dealer
losing $350 million trading U.S. government securities. The loss arose because of a mistake in the way the companyās computer system calculated profits.
Long-Term Capital Management (see Business Snapshot 2.2)
This hedge fund lost about $4 billion in 1998 as a result of Russiaās default on its debt
and the resultant flight to quality. The New York Federal Reserve organized an
orderly liquidation of the fund by arranging for 14 banks to invest in the fund.
Midland Bank
This British bank lost $500 million in the early 1990s largely because of a wrong bet
on the direction of interest rates. It was later taken over by the Hong Kong and
Shanghai Banking Corporation (HSBC).
SociƩtƩ GƩnƩrale (see Business Snapshot 1.4)
JƩrƓme Kerviel lost over $7 billion speculating on the future direction of equity
indices in January 2008.
Subprime Mortgage Losses (see Chapter 8)
In 2007 investors lost confidence in the structured products created from U.S.
subprime mortgages. This led to a ācredit crunchā and losses of tens of billions of dollars by financial institutions such as UBS, Merrill Lynch, and Citigroup.
UBS
In 2011, Kweku Adoboli lost $2.3 billion by taking unauthorized speculative positions
in stock market indices.
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Derivatives Mishaps and What We Can Learn from Them 817
Define Risk Limits
It is essential that all companies define in a clear and unambiguous way limits to the
financial risks that can be taken. They should then set up procedures for ensuring that
the limits are obeyed. Ideally, overall risk limits should be set at board level. These should then be converted to limits applicable to the individuals responsible for
managing particular risks. Daily reports should indicate the gain or loss that will be experienced for particular movements in market variables. These should be checked against the actual gains and losses that are experienced to ensure that the valuation procedures underlying the reports are accurate.
It is particularly important that companies monitor risks carefully when derivatives
are used. This is because, as we saw in Chapter 1, derivatives can be used for hedging, Business Snapshot 37.2 Big Losses by Nonfinancial Organizations
Allied LyonsThe treasury department of this drinks and food company lost $150 million in 1991 selling call options on the U.S. dollarāsterling exchange rate.
Gibson Greetings
The treasury department of this greeting card manufacturer lost about $20 million in
1994 trading highly exotic interest rate derivatives contracts with Bankers Trust. It later sued Bankers Trust and settled out of court.
Hammersmith and Fulham (see Business Snapshot 7.2)
This British Local Authority lost about $600 million on sterling interest rate swaps and options in 1988. All its contracts were later declared null and void by the British courts, much to the annoyance of the banks on the other side of the transactions.
Metallgesellschaft (see Business Snapshot 3.2)
This German company entered into long-term contracts to supply oil and gasoline and hedged them by rolling over short-term futures contracts. It lost $1.3 billion when it was forced to discontinue this activity.
Orange County (see Business Snapshot 4.1)
The activities of the treasurer, Robert Citron, led to this California municipality losing about $2 billion in 1994. The treasurer was using derivatives to speculate that interest rates would not rise.
Procter & Gamble (see Business Snapshot 34.4)
Derivatives Disasters and Risk Management
- Major corporations and municipalities like Metallgesellschaft and Orange County suffered billion-dollar losses due to failed hedging and speculative derivative strategies.
- Traders often shift from low-risk arbitrage or hedging to high-stakes speculation without supervisor knowledge due to inadequate monitoring systems.
- Complacency occurs when organizations ignore risk limit violations because the unauthorized positions are currently generating profits.
- Effective risk management requires that penalties for exceeding limits remain strict regardless of whether the outcome is a profit or a loss.
- The failure to punish profitable risk-taking encourages traders to hide losses and increase bets in hopes of a future recovery.
The penalties for exceeding risk limits should be just as great when profits result as when losses result.
Metallgesellschaft (see Business Snapshot 3.2)
This German company entered into long-term contracts to supply oil and gasoline and hedged them by rolling over short-term futures contracts. It lost $1.3 billion when it was forced to discontinue this activity.
Orange County (see Business Snapshot 4.1)
The activities of the treasurer, Robert Citron, led to this California municipality losing about $2 billion in 1994. The treasurer was using derivatives to speculate that interest rates would not rise.
Procter & Gamble (see Business Snapshot 34.4)
The treasury department of this large U.S. company lost about $90 million in 1994 trading highly exotic interest rate derivatives contracts with Bankers Trust. It later sued Bankers Trust and settled out of court.
Shell
A single employee working in the Japanese subsidiary of this company lost $1 billion dollars in unauthorized trading of currency futures.
Sumitomo
A single trader working for this Japanese company lost about $2 billion in the copper spot, futures, and options market in the 1990s.
M37_HULL0654_11_GE_C37.indd 817 30/04/2021 17:55
818 CHAPTER 37
speculation, and arbitrage. Without close monitoring, it is impossible to know whether
a derivatives trader has switched from being a hedger to a speculator or switched from being an arbitrageur to being a speculator. The Barings, SociĆ©tĆ© GĆ©nĆ©rale, and UBS losses are classic examples of what can go wrong. In each case, the traderās mandate was to carry out low-risk arbitrage or hedging. Unknown to their supervisors, the traders switched from being arbitrageurs or hedgers to taking huge bets on the future direction of market variables. Systems at their banks were so inadequate that nobody knew the full extent of what they were doing.
The argument here is not that no risks should be taken. A trader in a financial
institution or a fund manager should be allowed to take positions on the future direction of relevant market variables. But the sizes of the positions that can be taken should be limited and the systems in place should accurately report the risks being taken.
Take the Risk Limits Seriously
What happens if an individual exceeds risk limits and makes a profit? This is a tricky issue for senior management. It is tempting to ignore violations of risk limits when profits result. However, this is shortsighted. It leads to a culture where risk limits are not taken seriously, and it paves the way for a disaster. In some of the situations listed in Business Snapshots 37. 1 and 37. 2, the companies had become complacent about
the risks they were taking because they had taken similar risks in previous years and made profits.
A classic example here is Orange County. Robert Citronās activities in 1991 ā93 had
been very profitable for Orange County, and the municipality had come to rely on his trading for additional funding. People chose to ignore the risks he was taking because he had produced profits. Unfortunately, the losses made in 1994 far exceeded the profits from previous years.
The penalties for exceeding risk limits should be just as great when profits result as
when losses result. Otherwise, traders who make losses are liable to find a way of temporarily hiding their losses so that they can increase their bets in the hope that eventually a profit will result and all will be forgiven.
Do Not Assume You Can Outguess the Market
Risk Management and Trading Luck
- Ignoring risk limit violations when they result in profit creates a dangerous culture of complacency that often leads to future disasters.
- The penalties for exceeding risk limits should be identical regardless of whether the outcome is a profit or a loss to prevent traders from hiding losses.
- Statistical probability suggests that in a group of traders, some will appear highly skilled due to pure luck rather than superior market insight.
- Financial institutions should resist increasing risk limits for 'star' traders because the benefits of diversification usually outweigh the gains from concentrated speculation.
- The case of Orange County illustrates how relying on a single trader's profitable streak can result in losses that far exceed previous gains.
The chance of making a profit in four consecutive quarters from random trading is 0.54 or 1 in 16.
What happens if an individual exceeds risk limits and makes a profit? This is a tricky issue for senior management. It is tempting to ignore violations of risk limits when profits result. However, this is shortsighted. It leads to a culture where risk limits are not taken seriously, and it paves the way for a disaster. In some of the situations listed in Business Snapshots 37. 1 and 37. 2, the companies had become complacent about
the risks they were taking because they had taken similar risks in previous years and made profits.
A classic example here is Orange County. Robert Citronās activities in 1991 ā93 had
been very profitable for Orange County, and the municipality had come to rely on his trading for additional funding. People chose to ignore the risks he was taking because he had produced profits. Unfortunately, the losses made in 1994 far exceeded the profits from previous years.
The penalties for exceeding risk limits should be just as great when profits result as
when losses result. Otherwise, traders who make losses are liable to find a way of temporarily hiding their losses so that they can increase their bets in the hope that eventually a profit will result and all will be forgiven.
Do Not Assume You Can Outguess the Market
Some traders are quite possibly better than others. But no trader gets it right all the time. A trader who correctly predicts the direction in which market variables will move 60% of the time is doing well. If a trader has an outstanding track record (as Robert Citron did in the early 1990s), it is likely to be a result of luck rather than superior trading skill.
Suppose that a financial institution employs 16 traders and one of those traders
makes profits in every quarter of a year. Should the trader receive a good bonus?
Should the traderās risk limits be increased? The answer to the first question is that inevitably the trader will receive a good bonus. The answer to the second question
should be no. The chance of making a profit in four consecutive quarters from random trading is
0.54 or 1 in 16. This means that just by chance one of the
16 traders will āget it rightā every single quarter of the year. It should not be
assumed that the traderās luck will continue and the traderās risk limits should not
be increased.
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Do Not Underestimate the Benefits of Diversification
When a trader appears good at predicting a particular market variable, there is a
tendency to increase the traderās limits. We have just argued that this is a bad idea because it is quite likely that the trader has been lucky rather than clever. However, let
us suppose that a fund is really convinced that the trader has special talents. How
undiversified should it allow itself to become in order to take advantage of the traderās special skills? The answer is that the benefits from diversification are huge, and it may not be the best strategy to forego these benefits to speculate heavily on just one market variable.
An example will illustrate the point here. Suppose that there are 20 stocks, each of
which have an expected return of 10% per annum and a standard deviation of returns of 30%. The correlation between the returns from any two of the stocks is 0.2. By
dividing an investment equally among the 20 stocks, an investor has an expected return of 10% per annum and standard deviation of returns of 14.7%. Diversification enables the investor to reduce risks by over half. Another way of expressing this is that diversification enables an investor to double the expected return per unit of risk taken. The investor would have to be very good at stock picking to consistently get a better riskā
return trade-off by investing in just one stock.
Carry out Scenario Analyses and Stress Tests
Risk Management and Trader Accountability
- Increasing a trader's limits based on past performance is often a mistake, as success is frequently the result of luck rather than unique skill.
- Diversification remains a superior strategy to concentrated speculation, as it can reduce risk by over half while maintaining expected returns.
- Financial institutions must use scenario analysis and stress testing to overcome the human tendency to anchor on a single, favorable economic outcome.
- High-performing traders should never be treated as untouchable; they require rigorous oversight to ensure profits aren't masking excessive risk or system manipulation.
- Effective risk management requires the creative generation of extreme scenarios and the strict separation of front, middle, and back-office functions.
In trading rooms there is a tendency to regard high-performing traders as āuntouchableā and to not subject their activities to the same scrutiny as other traders.
When a trader appears good at predicting a particular market variable, there is a
tendency to increase the traderās limits. We have just argued that this is a bad idea because it is quite likely that the trader has been lucky rather than clever. However, let
us suppose that a fund is really convinced that the trader has special talents. How
undiversified should it allow itself to become in order to take advantage of the traderās special skills? The answer is that the benefits from diversification are huge, and it may not be the best strategy to forego these benefits to speculate heavily on just one market variable.
An example will illustrate the point here. Suppose that there are 20 stocks, each of
which have an expected return of 10% per annum and a standard deviation of returns of 30%. The correlation between the returns from any two of the stocks is 0.2. By
dividing an investment equally among the 20 stocks, an investor has an expected return of 10% per annum and standard deviation of returns of 14.7%. Diversification enables the investor to reduce risks by over half. Another way of expressing this is that diversification enables an investor to double the expected return per unit of risk taken. The investor would have to be very good at stock picking to consistently get a better riskā
return trade-off by investing in just one stock.
Carry out Scenario Analyses and Stress Tests
The calculation of risk measures such as value at risk and expected shortfall should always be accompanied by scenario analyses and stress testing to obtain an under -
standing of what can go wrong. They are very important. Human beings have an unfortunate tendency to anchor on one or two scenarios when evaluating decisions. In 1993 and 1994, for example, Procter & Gamble and Gibson Greetings may have been so
convinced that interest rates would remain low that they ignored the possibility of a 100-basis-point increase in their decision making.
It is important to be creative in the way scenarios are generated and to use the
judgment of experienced managers. One approach is to look at 20 or 30 years of data and choose the most extreme events as scenarios. Sometimes there is a shortage of
data on a key variable. It is then sensible to choose a similar variable for which much more data is available and use historical daily percentage changes in that variable as a proxy for possible daily percentage changes in the key variable. For example, if there is little data on the prices of bonds issued by a particular country, historical data on prices of bonds issued by other similar countries can be used to develop possible
scenarios.
We now move on to consider lessons that are primarily relevant to financial institutions.
Monitor Traders Carefully
In trading rooms there is a tendency to regard high-performing traders as āuntouch-
ableā and to not subject their activities to the same scrutiny as other traders. Apparently Joseph Jett, Kidder Peabodyās star trader of Treasury instruments, was 37.2 LESSONS FOR FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS
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often ātoo busyā to answer questions and discuss his positions with the companyās risk
managers.
All tradersāparticularly those making high profitsāshould be fully accountable. It
is important for the financial institution to know whether the high profits are being made by taking unreasonably high risks. It is also important to check that the financial institutionās computer systems and pricing models are correct and are not being manipulated in some way.
Separate the Front, Middle, and Back Office
Managing Financial Risk
- Traders must remain fully accountable to risk managers to ensure high profits are not the result of excessive risk or model manipulation.
- Maintaining a strict separation between front, middle, and back office functions is essential to prevent traders from concealing disastrous losses.
- Financial institutions should be wary of models that consistently report large profits from simple strategies or produce quotes that are outliers in the market.
- Recognizing inception profits immediately is dangerous as it incentivizes traders to use aggressive models and exit before the true value of a deal is scrutinized.
- A high volume of business in a specific niche can be a warning sign that a firm's internal pricing models are out of sync with the rest of the market.
Recognizing model-based inception profits immediately is very dangerous; it encourages traders to use aggressive models, take their bonuses, and leave before the model and the value of the deal come under close scrutiny.
often ātoo busyā to answer questions and discuss his positions with the companyās risk
managers.
All tradersāparticularly those making high profitsāshould be fully accountable. It
is important for the financial institution to know whether the high profits are being made by taking unreasonably high risks. It is also important to check that the financial institutionās computer systems and pricing models are correct and are not being manipulated in some way.
Separate the Front, Middle, and Back Office
The front office in a financial institution consists of the traders who are executing trades,
taking positions, and so forth. The middle office consists of risk managers who are monitoring the risks being taken. The back office is where the record keeping and accounting takes place. Some of the worst derivatives disasters have occurred because these functions were not kept separate. Nick Leeson controlled both the front and back office for Barings in Singapore and was, as a result, able to conceal the disastrous
nature of his trades from his superiors in London for some time. JĆ©rĆ“me Kerviel had worked in SociĆ©tĆ© GĆ©nĆ©raleās back office before becoming a trader and took advantage of his knowledge of its systems to hide his positions.
Do Not Blindly Trust Models
Some of the large losses incurred by financial institutions arose because of the models and computer systems being used. We discussed how Kidder Peabody was misled by its own systems in Business Snapshot 5.1.
If large profits are always reported when relatively simple trading strategies are
followed, there is a good chance that the models underlying the calculation of the profits are wrong. Similarly, if a financial institution appears to be particularly competitive on its quotes for a particular type of deal, there is a good chance that it is using a different model from other market participants, and it should analyze what is
going on carefully. To the head of a trading room, getting too much business of a certain type can be just as worrisome as getting too little business of that type.
Be Conservative in Recognizing Inception Profits
When a financial institution sells a highly exotic instrument to a nonfinancial corpora-tion, the valuation can be highly dependent on the underlying model. For example, instruments with long-dated embedded interest rate options can be highly dependent on the interest rate model used. In these circumstances, a phrase used to describe the daily marking to market of the deal is marking to model. This is because there are no market prices for similar deals that can be used as a benchmark.
Suppose that a financial institution manages to sell an instrument to a client for
$10 million more than it is worthāor at least $10 million more than its model says it
is worth. The $10 million is known as an inception profit. When should it be recog-nized? There appears to be quite a variation in what different financial institutions do. Some recognize the $10 million immediately, whereas others are much more conserva-tive and take reserves so that the profit (if it materializes) is recognized over the life of the deal.
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Recognizing model-based inception profits immediately is very dangerous. It en-
courages traders to use aggressive models, take their bonuses, and leave before the
model and the value of the deal come under close scrutiny. It is much better to
recognize inception profits slowly, so that traders have the motivation to investigate
the impact of several different models and several different sets of assumptions before committing themselves to a deal.
Do Not Sell Clients Inappropriate Products
Derivatives Mishaps and Lessons
- Recognizing model-based inception profits immediately is dangerous because it incentivizes traders to use aggressive models and exit before scrutiny.
- Selling inappropriate products to clients for short-term gain can destroy a firm's reputation and lead to catastrophic legal settlements, as seen with Bankers Trust.
- High-profit opportunities that seem easy, such as Enron deals or subprime ABS CDOs, often mask hidden risks that rating agencies and banks fail to account for.
- Financial engineers must be cautious when using the prices of actively traded instruments to value illiquid, exotic instruments.
- The downfall of Bankers Trust and its eventual takeover by Deutsche Bank illustrates how the aggression of a few salesmen can erase years of built-up trust.
It encourages traders to use aggressive models, take their bonuses, and leave before the model and the value of the deal come under close scrutiny.
Derivatives Mishaps and What We Can Learn from Them 821
Recognizing model-based inception profits immediately is very dangerous. It en-
courages traders to use aggressive models, take their bonuses, and leave before the
model and the value of the deal come under close scrutiny. It is much better to
recognize inception profits slowly, so that traders have the motivation to investigate
the impact of several different models and several different sets of assumptions before committing themselves to a deal.
Do Not Sell Clients Inappropriate Products
It is tempting to sell corporate clients inappropriate products, particularly when they appear to have an appetite for the underlying risks. But this is shortsighted. The most dramatic example of this is the activities of Bankers Trust (BT) in the period leading up to the spring of 1994. Many of BTās clients were persuaded to buy high-risk and totally inappropriate products. A typical product (e.g., the
5>30 swap discussed in Business
Snapshot 34.4) would give the client a good chance of saving a few basis points on its
borrowings and a small chance of costing a large amount of money. The products worked well for BTās clients in 1992 and 1993, but blew up in 1994 when interest rates rose sharply. The bad publicity that followed hurt BT greatly. The years it had spent building up trust among corporate clients and developing an enviable reputation for innovation in derivatives were largely lost as a result of the activities of a few overly aggressive salesmen. BT was forced to pay large amounts of money to its clients to settle lawsuits out of court. It was taken over by Deutsche Bank in 1999.
Beware of Easy Profits
Enron provides an example of how overly aggressive deal makers can cost the banks they work for billions of dollars. Doing business with Enron seemed very profitable and banks competed with each other for this business. But the fact that many banks push
hard to get a certain type of business should not be taken as an indication that the
business will ultimately be profitable. The business that Enron did with banks resulted in shareholder lawsuits that were very expensive for the banks. In general, transactions where high profits seem easy to achieve should be looked at closely for hidden risks.
Investing in the AAA-rated tranches of the ABS CDOs that were created from
subprime mortgages (see Chapter 8) seemed like a fantastic opportunity. The promised returns were much higher than the returns normally earned on AAA-rated instruments. Many investors did not stop to ask whether the extra returns reflected risks not taken into account by the rating agencies.
Do Not Ignore Liquidity Risk
Financial engineers usually base the pricing of exotic instruments and other instru-ments that trade relatively infrequently on the prices of actively traded instruments. For example:
1. A financial engineer often calculates a zero curve from actively traded government bonds (known as on-the-run bonds) and uses it to price government bonds that trade less frequently (off-the-run bonds).
2. A financial engineer often implies the volatility of an asset from actively traded
options and uses it to price less actively traded options.
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3. A financial engineer often implies information about the behavior of interest rates
Liquidity Risk and Market Shocks
- Financial engineers often use liquid, actively traded instruments to determine the theoretical prices of less liquid assets.
- Market shocks frequently trigger a 'flight to quality,' where investors prioritize liquidity and cause illiquid instruments to trade at massive discounts.
- Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) suffered catastrophic losses by betting on the convergence of liquid and illiquid security prices.
- The 1998 Russian debt default caused spreads to widen rather than converge, leading to margin calls that the highly leveraged LTCM could not meet.
- The failures of LTCM and the 2007-2009 credit crisis highlight the necessity of stress testing for extreme liquidity scenarios.
The LTCM story reinforces the importance of carrying out scenario analyses and stress testing to look at what can happen in the worst of all worlds.
1. A financial engineer often calculates a zero curve from actively traded government bonds (known as on-the-run bonds) and uses it to price government bonds that trade less frequently (off-the-run bonds).
2. A financial engineer often implies the volatility of an asset from actively traded
options and uses it to price less actively traded options.
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3. A financial engineer often implies information about the behavior of interest rates
from actively traded interest rate caps and swap options and uses it to price nonstandard interest rate derivatives that are less actively traded.
These practices are not unreasonable. However, it is dangerous to assume that less actively traded instruments can always be traded at close to their theoretical price. When financial markets experience a shock of one sort or another there is often a āflight to quality. ā Liquidity becomes very important to investors, and illiquid instru-ments often sell at a big discount to their theoretical values. This happened in 2007ā9 following the jolt to credit markets caused by lack of confidence in securities backed by subprime mortgages.
Another example of losses arising from liquidity risk is provided by Long-Term
Capital Management (LTCM), which was discussed in Business Snapshot 2.2. This
hedge fund followed a strategy known as convergence arbitrage. It attempted to identify two securities (or portfolios of securities) that should in theory sell for the same price. If the market price of one security was less that of the other, it would buy that security and sell the other. The strategy is based on the idea that if two securities have the same theoretical price their market prices should eventually be the same.
In the summer of 1998 LTCM made a huge loss. This was largely because a default
by Russia on its debt caused a flight to quality. LTCM tended to be long illiquid instruments and short the corresponding liquid instruments (for example, it was long off-the-run bonds and short on-the-run bonds). The spreads between the prices of illiquid instruments and the corresponding liquid instruments widened sharply after the Russian default. LTCM was highly leveraged. It experienced huge losses and there were margin calls on its positions that it found difficult to meet.
The LTCM story reinforces the importance of carrying out scenario analyses and
stress testing to look at what can happen in the worst of all worlds. LTCM could have tried to examine other times in history when there had been extreme flights to quality to quantify the liquidity risks it was facing.
Beware When Everyone Is Following the Same Trading Strategy
LTCM and Systemic Trading Risks
- Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM) utilized convergence arbitrage to exploit price discrepancies between theoretically identical securities.
- The 1998 Russian debt default triggered a flight to quality that caused spreads to widen rather than converge, resulting in massive losses for the highly leveraged fund.
- The disaster highlights the necessity of stress testing and scenario analysis to prepare for extreme liquidity risks and market shocks.
- Market stability is severely compromised when multiple participants follow identical strategies, as seen in both the 1987 crash and the LTCM collapse.
- Simultaneous attempts by various funds to liquidate similar portfolios during a crisis create a feedback loop of falling prices and further margin calls.
This creates a dangerous environment where there are liable to be big market moves, unstable markets, and large losses for the market participants.
hedge fund followed a strategy known as convergence arbitrage. It attempted to identify two securities (or portfolios of securities) that should in theory sell for the same price. If the market price of one security was less that of the other, it would buy that security and sell the other. The strategy is based on the idea that if two securities have the same theoretical price their market prices should eventually be the same.
In the summer of 1998 LTCM made a huge loss. This was largely because a default
by Russia on its debt caused a flight to quality. LTCM tended to be long illiquid instruments and short the corresponding liquid instruments (for example, it was long off-the-run bonds and short on-the-run bonds). The spreads between the prices of illiquid instruments and the corresponding liquid instruments widened sharply after the Russian default. LTCM was highly leveraged. It experienced huge losses and there were margin calls on its positions that it found difficult to meet.
The LTCM story reinforces the importance of carrying out scenario analyses and
stress testing to look at what can happen in the worst of all worlds. LTCM could have tried to examine other times in history when there had been extreme flights to quality to quantify the liquidity risks it was facing.
Beware When Everyone Is Following the Same Trading Strategy
It sometimes happens that many market participants are following essentially the same trading strategy. This creates a dangerous environment where there are liable to be big market moves, unstable markets, and large losses for the market participants.
We gave one example of this in Chapter 19 when discussing portfolio insurance and
the market crash of October 1987. In the months leading up to the crash, increasing numbers of portfolio managers were attempting to insure their portfolios by creating synthetic put options. They bought stocks or stock index futures after a rise in the market and sold them after a fall. This created an unstable market. A relatively small decline in stock prices could lead to a wave of selling by portfolio insurers. The latter would lead to a further decline in the market, which could give rise to another wave of selling, and so on. There is little doubt that without portfolio insurance the crash of October 1987 would have been much less severe.
Another example is provided by LTCM in 1998. Its position was made more difficult
by the fact that many other hedge funds were following similar convergence arbitrage strategies to its own. After the Russian default and the flight to quality, LTCM tried to liquidate part of its portfolio to meet margin calls. Unfortunately, other hedge funds were facing similar problems to LTCM and trying to do similar trades. This exacerbated
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Risks of Uniform Trading Strategies
- Market instability increases significantly when many participants follow identical trading strategies simultaneously.
- The 1987 market crash was exacerbated by portfolio managers using synthetic put options, creating a feedback loop of selling.
- LTCM's collapse in 1998 was worsened because other hedge funds were attempting to liquidate the same convergence arbitrage positions at once.
- British insurance companies in the late 1990s triggered a downward spiral in interest rates by hedging similar annuity risks at the same time.
- Relying excessively on short-term funding for long-term needs creates dangerous liquidity risks for financial institutions.
A relatively small decline in stock prices could lead to a wave of selling by portfolio insurers.
It sometimes happens that many market participants are following essentially the same trading strategy. This creates a dangerous environment where there are liable to be big market moves, unstable markets, and large losses for the market participants.
We gave one example of this in Chapter 19 when discussing portfolio insurance and
the market crash of October 1987. In the months leading up to the crash, increasing numbers of portfolio managers were attempting to insure their portfolios by creating synthetic put options. They bought stocks or stock index futures after a rise in the market and sold them after a fall. This created an unstable market. A relatively small decline in stock prices could lead to a wave of selling by portfolio insurers. The latter would lead to a further decline in the market, which could give rise to another wave of selling, and so on. There is little doubt that without portfolio insurance the crash of October 1987 would have been much less severe.
Another example is provided by LTCM in 1998. Its position was made more difficult
by the fact that many other hedge funds were following similar convergence arbitrage strategies to its own. After the Russian default and the flight to quality, LTCM tried to liquidate part of its portfolio to meet margin calls. Unfortunately, other hedge funds were facing similar problems to LTCM and trying to do similar trades. This exacerbated
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the situation, causing liquidity spreads to be even higher than they would otherwise have
been and reinforcing the flight to quality. Consider, for example, LTCMās position in U.S. Treasury bonds. It was long the illiquid off-the-run bonds and short the liquid on- the-run bonds. When a flight to quality caused spreads between yields on the two types of
bonds to widen, LTCM had to liquidate its positions by selling off-the-run bonds and buying on-the-run bonds. Other large hedge funds were doing the same. As a result, the price of on-the-run bonds rose relative to off-the-run bonds and the spread between the two yields widened even more than it had done already.
A further example is provided by the activities of British insurance companies in the
late 1990s. These insurance companies had entered into many contracts promising that the rate of interest applicable to annuities would be the greater of the market rate and a guaranteed rate. The insurance companies stood to lose money if long-term interest rates fell below the guaranteed rate. For various reasons, they all entered into deriva-tives transactions to partially hedge their risks at about the same time. The financial institutions on the other side of the derivatives transactions hedged their risks by buying huge numbers of long-dated sterling bonds. As a result, bond prices rose and sterling
long-term interest rates declined. More bonds had to be bought to maintain the
dynamic hedge, sterling long-term interest rates declined further, and so on. The financial institutions lost money and insurance companies found themselves in a worse position on the risks that they had chosen not to hedge.
The key lesson to be learned from these stories is that there can be big risks in
situations where many market participants are following the same trading strategy.
Do Not Make Excessive Use of Short-Term Funding for
Long-Term Needs
All financial institutions finance long-term needs with short-term sources of funds to some extent. But a financial institution that relies too heavily on short-term funds is likely to expose itself to unacceptable liquidity risks.
Suppose that a financial institution funds long-term needs by rolling over commercial
Liquidity Risks and Market Transparency
- Crowded trading strategies can create feedback loops where liquidations further widen spreads and exacerbate losses.
- The activities of British insurance companies in the late 1990s demonstrate how simultaneous hedging can drive interest rates down and worsen risk positions.
- Relying excessively on short-term funding for long-term needs exposes institutions to catastrophic liquidity failure if investor confidence wavers.
- The 2007 credit crunch highlighted the dangers of trading complex structured products without transparency regarding the underlying assets.
- Regulatory bodies like the Basel Committee have introduced liquidity ratios to prevent the types of failures seen at Lehman Brothers and Northern Rock.
The key lesson to be learned from these stories is that there can be big risks in situations where many market participants are following the same trading strategy.
the situation, causing liquidity spreads to be even higher than they would otherwise have
been and reinforcing the flight to quality. Consider, for example, LTCMās position in U.S. Treasury bonds. It was long the illiquid off-the-run bonds and short the liquid on- the-run bonds. When a flight to quality caused spreads between yields on the two types of
bonds to widen, LTCM had to liquidate its positions by selling off-the-run bonds and buying on-the-run bonds. Other large hedge funds were doing the same. As a result, the price of on-the-run bonds rose relative to off-the-run bonds and the spread between the two yields widened even more than it had done already.
A further example is provided by the activities of British insurance companies in the
late 1990s. These insurance companies had entered into many contracts promising that the rate of interest applicable to annuities would be the greater of the market rate and a guaranteed rate. The insurance companies stood to lose money if long-term interest rates fell below the guaranteed rate. For various reasons, they all entered into deriva-tives transactions to partially hedge their risks at about the same time. The financial institutions on the other side of the derivatives transactions hedged their risks by buying huge numbers of long-dated sterling bonds. As a result, bond prices rose and sterling
long-term interest rates declined. More bonds had to be bought to maintain the
dynamic hedge, sterling long-term interest rates declined further, and so on. The financial institutions lost money and insurance companies found themselves in a worse position on the risks that they had chosen not to hedge.
The key lesson to be learned from these stories is that there can be big risks in
situations where many market participants are following the same trading strategy.
Do Not Make Excessive Use of Short-Term Funding for
Long-Term Needs
All financial institutions finance long-term needs with short-term sources of funds to some extent. But a financial institution that relies too heavily on short-term funds is likely to expose itself to unacceptable liquidity risks.
Suppose that a financial institution funds long-term needs by rolling over commercial
paper every month. Commercial paper issued on April 1 would be redeemed with the proceeds of a new commercial paper issue on May 1; this new commercial paper issue would be redeemed with the proceeds of a commercial paper issue on June 1; and so on.
Provided that the financial institution is perceived as healthy, there should be no problem. But if investors lose confidence in the financial institution (rightly or wrongly), it becomes impossible to roll over commercial paper and the financial institution experiences severe liquidity problems.
Many of the failures of financial institutions during the financial crisis (e.g., Lehman
Brothers and Northern Rock) were largely caused by excessive reliance on short-term
funding. It is not surprising that the Basel Committee, which is responsible for
regulating banks internationally, has introduced liquidity ratios which banks must satisfy.
Market Transparency Is Important
One of the lessons from the credit crunch of 2007 is that market transparency is important. During the period leading up to 2007, investors traded highly structured products without any real knowledge of the underlying assets. All they knew was the credit rating of the security being traded. With hindsight, we can say that investors should
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have demanded more information about the underlying assets and should have more
Lessons from Financial Crises
- Market transparency is essential to prevent investors from trading complex structured products based solely on credit ratings without knowing the underlying assets.
- The 2007 subprime meltdown demonstrated that a lack of transparency leads to market breakdowns and a 'flight to quality' that drives prices below theoretical values.
- Bank incentive structures should be redesigned to emphasize long-term performance through bonus clawbacks and deferred payments to prevent short-term risk-taking.
- Securitization requires aligning the interests of loan originators and risk-bearers, often by requiring originators to retain a stake in the portfolio tranches.
- Risk management must never be ignored during prosperous times, as leadership often dismisses stress tests and warnings when markets appear to be performing well.
But as long as the music is playing, youāve got to get up and dance.
Market Transparency Is Important
One of the lessons from the credit crunch of 2007 is that market transparency is important. During the period leading up to 2007, investors traded highly structured products without any real knowledge of the underlying assets. All they knew was the credit rating of the security being traded. With hindsight, we can say that investors should
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have demanded more information about the underlying assets and should have more
carefully assessed the risks they were takingābut it is easy to be wise after the event!
The subprime meltdown of August 2007 caused investors to lose confidence in all
structured products and withdraw from that market. This led to a market breakdown where tranches of structured products could only be sold at prices well below their theoretical values. There was a flight to quality and credit spreads increased. If there had been market transparency so that investors understood the asset-backed securities they were buying, there would still have been subprime losses, but the flight to quality and disruptions to the market would have been less pronounced.
Manage Incentives
A key lesson from the financial crisis of 2007 and 2008 is the importance of incentives. The bonus systems in banks tend to emphasize short-term performance. Some financial institutions have switched to systems where the payment for performance in a year is spread out over a number of future years and part of the bonus may be āclawed backā if it turns out that performance was not as good as originally thought. This has obvious advantages. It discourages traders from doing trades that will look good in the short run, but may āblow upā in a few years.
When loans are securitized, it is important to try and align the interests of the party
originating the loan with the party who bears the ultimate risk so that agency costs are minimized. One way of doing this is for regulators to require the originator of a loan portfolio to keep a stake in all the tranches and other instruments that are created from the portfolio.
Never Ignore Risk Management
When times are good (or appear to be good), there is a tendency to assume that nothing can go wrong and ignore the output from stress tests and other analyses carried out by the risk management group. There are many stories of risk managers not being listened to in the period leading up to the financial crisis of 2007. Chuck Prince, CEO of
Citigroup, said in a much quoted interview with the Financial Times in July 2007 (just before the financial crisis):
When the music stops, in terms of liquidity, things will be complicated. But as long as the
music is playing, youāve got to get up and dance. Weāre still dancing.
No doubt he regretted the comment later. As it turned out, Citigroupās losses from the
financial crisis were over $50 billion. Mr. Prince lost his job later in 2007.
We now consider lessons primarily applicable to nonfinancial corporations.
Make Sure You Fully Understand the Trades You Are Doing
Corporations should never undertake a trade or a trading strategy that they do not
fully understand. This is a somewhat obvious point, but it is surprising how often a trader working for a nonfinancial corporation will, after a big loss, admit to not 37.3 LESSONS FOR NONFINANCIAL CORPORATIONS
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Derivatives Mishaps and What We Can Learn from Them 825
Risk Management and Trading Lessons
- Complacency during economic booms often leads executives to ignore risk management warnings and stress test results.
- Nonfinancial corporations frequently enter complex derivative trades they do not fully understand, leading to catastrophic losses.
- A critical rule for senior management is to veto any trade or strategy that is too complicated to be clearly explained or valued in-house.
- Hedging roles can dangerously evolve into speculative ones when traders begin to believe they can outguess the market.
- Effective corporate risk control requires setting strict limits and ensuring trading strategies are directly derived from actual business exposures.
But as long as the music is playing, youāve got to get up and dance.
When times are good (or appear to be good), there is a tendency to assume that nothing can go wrong and ignore the output from stress tests and other analyses carried out by the risk management group. There are many stories of risk managers not being listened to in the period leading up to the financial crisis of 2007. Chuck Prince, CEO of
Citigroup, said in a much quoted interview with the Financial Times in July 2007 (just before the financial crisis):
When the music stops, in terms of liquidity, things will be complicated. But as long as the
music is playing, youāve got to get up and dance. Weāre still dancing.
No doubt he regretted the comment later. As it turned out, Citigroupās losses from the
financial crisis were over $50 billion. Mr. Prince lost his job later in 2007.
We now consider lessons primarily applicable to nonfinancial corporations.
Make Sure You Fully Understand the Trades You Are Doing
Corporations should never undertake a trade or a trading strategy that they do not
fully understand. This is a somewhat obvious point, but it is surprising how often a trader working for a nonfinancial corporation will, after a big loss, admit to not 37.3 LESSONS FOR NONFINANCIAL CORPORATIONS
M37_HULL0654_11_GE_C37.indd 824 30/04/2021 17:55
Derivatives Mishaps and What We Can Learn from Them 825
knowing what was really going on and claim to have been misled by investment
bankers. Robert Citron, the treasurer of Orange County did this. So did the traders working for Hammersmith and Fulham, who in spite of their huge positions were surprisingly uninformed about how the swaps and other interest rate derivatives they traded really worked.
If a senior manager in a corporation does not understand a trade proposed by a
subordinate, the trade should not be approved. A simple rule of thumb is that if a trade and the rationale for entering into it are so complicated that they cannot be understood by the manager, it is almost certainly inappropriate for the corporation. The trades undertaken by Procter & Gamble and Gibson Greetings would have been vetoed using this criterion.
One way of ensuring that you fully understand a financial instrument is to value it. If a
corporation does not have the in-house capability to value an instrument, it should not trade it. In practice, corporations often rely on their derivatives dealers for valuation information. This is dangerous, as Procter & Gamble and Gibson Greetings found out. When they wanted to unwind their deals, they found they were facing prices produced by
Bankers Trustās proprietary models, which they had no way of checking.
Make Sure a Hedger Does Not Become a Speculator
One of the unfortunate facts of life is that hedging is relatively dull, whereas speculation is exciting. When a company hires a trader to manage the risks in exchange rates,
commodity prices, or interest rates, there is a danger that the following might happen. At first, the trader does the job diligently and earns the confidence of top management. The trader assesses the companyās exposures and hedges them. As time goes by, the trader becomes convinced that he or she can outguess the market. Slowly the trader becomes a speculator. At first things go well, but then a loss is made. To recover the
loss, the trader doubles up the bets. Further losses might then be made, and so on. The result is liable to be a disaster.
As mentioned earlier, clear limits to the risks that can be taken should be set by
senior management. Controls should be put in place to ensure that the limits are
obeyed. The trading strategy for a corporation should start with an analysis of the
risks facing the corporation in foreign exchange, interest rate, commodity markets, etc. A decision should then be taken on how the risks are to be reduced to acceptable levels. It is a clear sign that something is wrong within a corporation if the trading strategy is not derived in a very direct way from the companyās exposures.
Hedging Versus Speculation Risks
- Hedging is often perceived as dull compared to the excitement of speculation, leading some traders to abandon risk management for market gambling.
- Traders who suffer initial losses may 'double up' their bets to recover, a behavior that frequently results in corporate financial disasters.
- Transforming a corporate treasury department into a profit center is dangerous because it incentivizes treasurers to take excessive risks in efficient markets.
- Effective risk management requires senior management to set unambiguous limits and ensure trading strategies are directly derived from actual company exposures.
- While derivatives are efficient tools for risk reduction, their misuse as speculative instruments has led to high-profile losses for major organizations.
One of the unfortunate facts of life is that hedging is relatively dull, whereas speculation is exciting.
One of the unfortunate facts of life is that hedging is relatively dull, whereas speculation is exciting. When a company hires a trader to manage the risks in exchange rates,
commodity prices, or interest rates, there is a danger that the following might happen. At first, the trader does the job diligently and earns the confidence of top management. The trader assesses the companyās exposures and hedges them. As time goes by, the trader becomes convinced that he or she can outguess the market. Slowly the trader becomes a speculator. At first things go well, but then a loss is made. To recover the
loss, the trader doubles up the bets. Further losses might then be made, and so on. The result is liable to be a disaster.
As mentioned earlier, clear limits to the risks that can be taken should be set by
senior management. Controls should be put in place to ensure that the limits are
obeyed. The trading strategy for a corporation should start with an analysis of the
risks facing the corporation in foreign exchange, interest rate, commodity markets, etc. A decision should then be taken on how the risks are to be reduced to acceptable levels. It is a clear sign that something is wrong within a corporation if the trading strategy is not derived in a very direct way from the companyās exposures.
Be Cautious about Making the Treasury Department a
Profit Center
In the last 20 years there has been a tendency to make the treasury department within a corporation a profit center. This appears to have much to recommend it. The treasurer is motivated to reduce financing costs and manage risks as profitably as possible. The problem is that the potential for the treasurer to make profits is limited. When raising funds and investing surplus cash, the treasurer is facing an efficient market. The treasurer can usually improve the bottom line only by taking additional risks. The
companyās hedging program gives the treasurer some scope for making shrewd decisions that increase profits. But it should be remembered that the goal of a hedging program is
M37_HULL0654_11_GE_C37.indd 825 30/04/2021 17:55
826 CHAPTER 37
to reduce risks, not to increase expected profits. As pointed out in Chapter 3, the
decision to hedge will lead to a worse outcome than the decision not to hedge roughly
50% of the time. The danger of making the treasury department a profit center is that the treasurer is motivated to become a speculator. This is liable to lead to the type of outcome experienced by Orange County, Procter & Gamble, or Gibson Greetings.
SUMMARY
The huge losses experienced from the use of derivatives have made many treasurers very wary. Following some of the losses, some nonfinancial corporations have announced plans to reduce or even eliminate their use of derivatives. This is unfortunate because derivatives provide treasurers with very efficient ways to manage risks.
The stories behind the losses emphasize the point, made as early as Chapter 1, that
derivatives can be used for either hedging or speculation; that is, they can be used either to reduce risks or to take risks. Most losses occurred because derivatives were used inappropriately. Employees who had an implicit or explicit mandate to hedge their companyās risks decided instead to speculate.
The key lesson to be learned from the losses is the importance of internal controls.
Senior management within a company should issue a clear and unambiguous policy statement about how derivatives are to be used and the extent to which it is permissible for employees to take positions on movements in market variables. Management should then institute controls to ensure that the policy is carried out. It is a recipe for disaster to give individuals authority to trade derivatives without a close monitoring of the risks being taken.
FURTHER READING
Derivatives Risk and Control
- Significant financial losses have led many corporate treasurers to abandon derivatives, despite their efficiency in risk management.
- The primary cause of these losses is the misuse of derivatives for speculation rather than their intended purpose of hedging.
- Internal controls and clear policy statements from senior management are essential to prevent unauthorized market positions.
- A lack of close monitoring regarding individual trading authority is described as a recipe for disaster in financial environments.
- The text provides a glossary of complex financial terms and a reading list of historical market failures to illustrate these risks.
It is a recipe for disaster to give individuals authority to trade derivatives without a close monitoring of the risks being taken.
The huge losses experienced from the use of derivatives have made many treasurers very wary. Following some of the losses, some nonfinancial corporations have announced plans to reduce or even eliminate their use of derivatives. This is unfortunate because derivatives provide treasurers with very efficient ways to manage risks.
The stories behind the losses emphasize the point, made as early as Chapter 1, that
derivatives can be used for either hedging or speculation; that is, they can be used either to reduce risks or to take risks. Most losses occurred because derivatives were used inappropriately. Employees who had an implicit or explicit mandate to hedge their companyās risks decided instead to speculate.
The key lesson to be learned from the losses is the importance of internal controls.
Senior management within a company should issue a clear and unambiguous policy statement about how derivatives are to be used and the extent to which it is permissible for employees to take positions on movements in market variables. Management should then institute controls to ensure that the policy is carried out. It is a recipe for disaster to give individuals authority to trade derivatives without a close monitoring of the risks being taken.
FURTHER READING
Dunbar, N. Inventing Money: The Story of Long-Term Capital Management and the Legends
Behind It. Chichester, U.K.: Wiley, 2000.
Jorion, P . āHow Long-Term Lost Its Capital, ā Risk, 12 (September 1999).
Jorion, P ., and R. Roper. Big Bets Gone Bad: Derivatives and Bankruptcy in Orange County. New
York: Academic Press, 1995.
Persaud, A. D. (ed.) Liquidity Black Holes: Understanding, Quantifying and Managing Financial
Liquidity Risk. London, Risk Books, 2003.
Sorkin, A. R., Too Big to Fail. New York: Penguin, 2010.
Tett, G. Foolās Gold: How the Bold Dream of a Small Tribe at J. P. Morgan Was Corrupted by
Wall Street Greed and Unleashed a Catastrophe. New York: Free Press, 2009.
M37_HULL0654_11_GE_C37.indd 826 30/04/2021 17:55
827 Glossary of Terms
ABS See Asset-Backed Security.
ABS CDO Instrument where tranches are created from the tranches of ABSs.
Accrual Swap An interest rate swap where interest on one side accrues only when a
certain condition is met.
Accrued Interest The interest earned on a bond since the last coupon payment date.
Adaptive Mesh Model A model developed by Figlewski and Gao that grafts a high-
resolution tree on to a low-resolution tree so that there is more detailed modeling of
the asset price in critical regions.
Agency Costs Costs arising from a situation where the agent (e.g., manager) is not
motivated to act in the best interests of the principal (e.g., shareholder).
Agency Mortgage-Backed Security Mortgage-backed security where payments are
backed by a government agency.
American Option An option that can be exercised at any time during its life.
Amortizing Swap A swap where the notional principal decreases in a predetermined
way as time passes.
Analytic Result Result in the form of an equation.
Arbitrage A trading strategy that takes advantage of two or more securities being
mispriced relative to each other.
Arbitrageur An individual engaging in arbitrage.
Asian Option An option with a payoff dependent on the average price of the under-
lying asset during a specified period.
Ask Price The price that a dealer is offering to sell an asset.
Asked Price See Ask Price.
Asset-Backed Security Security created from a portfolio of loans, bonds, credit card
receivables, or other assets.
Asset-or-Nothing Call Option An option that provides a payoff equal to the asset
price if the asset price is above the strike price and zero otherwise.
Asset-or-Nothing Put Option An option that provides a payoff equal to the asset
price if the asset price is below the strike price and zero otherwise.
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828 Glossary of Terms
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text provides technical definitions for various financial instruments, ranging from standard options to exotic 'Asian' and 'Barrier' options.
- It details specific trading strategies like arbitrage, which exploits mispricing between securities, and bear spreads, which utilize multiple strike prices.
- The glossary covers risk management concepts such as 'Basis Risk' and 'Back Testing' to evaluate the effectiveness of value-at-risk models.
- Regulatory and procedural terms are defined, including the role of the Basel Committee and the illegal practice of backdating documents.
- It explains the mechanics of market pricing through terms like bid-ask spreads and the distinction between spot and futures prices.
Backdating Practice (often illegal) of marking a document with a date that precedes the current date.
way as time passes.
Analytic Result Result in the form of an equation.
Arbitrage A trading strategy that takes advantage of two or more securities being
mispriced relative to each other.
Arbitrageur An individual engaging in arbitrage.
Asian Option An option with a payoff dependent on the average price of the under-
lying asset during a specified period.
Ask Price The price that a dealer is offering to sell an asset.
Asked Price See Ask Price.
Asset-Backed Security Security created from a portfolio of loans, bonds, credit card
receivables, or other assets.
Asset-or-Nothing Call Option An option that provides a payoff equal to the asset
price if the asset price is above the strike price and zero otherwise.
Asset-or-Nothing Put Option An option that provides a payoff equal to the asset
price if the asset price is below the strike price and zero otherwise.
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828 Glossary of Terms
Asset Swap Exchanges the coupon on a bond for LIBOR plus a spread.
As-You-Like-It Option See Chooser Option.
At-the-Money Option An option in which the strike price equals the price of the
underlying asset.
Average Price Call Option An option giving a payoff equal to the greater of zero and
the amount by which the average price of the asset exceeds the strike price.
Average Price Put Option An option giving a payoff equal to the greater of zero and
the amount by which the strike price exceeds the average price of the asset.
Average Strike Option An option that provides a payoff dependent on the difference
between the final asset price and the average asset price.
Bachelier Normal Model Model where a future interest rate is normally distributed.
Backdating Practice (often illegal) of marking a document with a date that precedes
the current date.
Back Testing Testing a value-at-risk or other model using historical data.
Backward Induction A procedure for working from the end of a tree to its beginning
in order to value an option.
Barrier Option An option whose payoff depends on whether the path of the under-
lying asset has reached a barrier (i.e., a certain predetermined level).
Base Correlation Correlation that leads to the price of a 0% to X% CDO tranche
being consistent with the market for a particular value of X.
Basel Committee Committee responsible for regulation of banks internationally.
Basis The difference between the spot price and the futures price of a commodity.
Basis Point When used to describe an interest rate, a basis point is one hundredth of
one percent 1= 0:01,2
Basis Risk The risk to a hedger arising from uncertainty about the basis at a future
time.
Basis Swap A swap where cash flows determined by one floating reference rate are
exchanged for cash flows determined by another floating reference rate.
Basket Credit Default Swap Credit default swap where there are several reference
entities.
Basket Option An option that provides a payoff dependent on the value of a portfolio
of assets.
Bear Spread A short position in a put option with strike price K1 combined with a
long position in a put option with strike price K2 where K27K1. (A bear spread can
also be created with call options.)
Bermudan Option An option that can be exercised on specified dates during its life.
Beta A measure of the systematic risk of an asset.
BidāAsk Spread The amount by which the ask price exceeds the bid price.
BidāOffer Spread See BidāAsk Spread.
Bid Price The price that a dealer is prepared to pay for an asset.
Bilateral Clearing Arrangement between two parties to handle transactions in the
OTC market, often involving an ISDA Master Agreement.
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Glossary of Terms 829
Binary Credit Default Swap Instrument where there is a fixed dollar payoff in the
event of a default by a particular company.
Binary Option Option with a discontinuous payoff, e.g., a cash-or-nothing option or
Financial Derivatives and Models
- The text defines various option types, including Bermudan options which allow exercise on specific dates and binary options which offer discontinuous payoffs.
- It outlines foundational financial models such as the Black-Scholes-Merton model for pricing European options and the Binomial Model for tracking asset price evolution.
- Complex trading strategies like bull, butterfly, and calendar spreads are detailed, illustrating how traders combine long and short positions to manage risk.
- The glossary explains essential market mechanics including the bid-ask spread, bilateral clearing arrangements, and the bootstrap method for calculating rates.
- Valuation adjustments and risk measures, such as Beta and Capital Valuation Adjustment (KVA), are defined to reflect asset sensitivity and capital costs.
In each short period it is assumed that only two price movements are possible.
Bermudan Option An option that can be exercised on specified dates during its life.
Beta A measure of the systematic risk of an asset.
BidāAsk Spread The amount by which the ask price exceeds the bid price.
BidāOffer Spread See BidāAsk Spread.
Bid Price The price that a dealer is prepared to pay for an asset.
Bilateral Clearing Arrangement between two parties to handle transactions in the
OTC market, often involving an ISDA Master Agreement.
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Glossary of Terms 829
Binary Credit Default Swap Instrument where there is a fixed dollar payoff in the
event of a default by a particular company.
Binary Option Option with a discontinuous payoff, e.g., a cash-or-nothing option or
an asset-or-nothing option.
Binomial Model A model where the price of an asset is monitored over successive
short periods of time. In each short period it is assumed that only two price
movements are possible.
Binomial Tree A tree that represents how an asset price can evolve under the binomial
model.
Bivariate Normal Distribution A distribution for two correlated variables, each of
which is normal.
Blackās Approximation An approximate procedure developed by Fischer Black for
valuing a call option on a dividend-paying stock.
Blackās Model An extension of the BlackāScholesāMerton model for valuing Euro-
pean options on futures contracts. As described in Chapter 18, it is used extensively
in practice to value European options when the distribution of the asset price at maturity is assumed to be lognormal.
BlackāScholesāMerton Model A model for pricing European options on stocks,
developed by Fischer Black, Myron Scholes, and Robert Merton.
Bond Option An option where a bond is the underlying asset.
Bond Yield Discount rate which, when applied to all the cash flows of a bond, causes
the present value of the cash flows to equal the bondās market price.
Bootstrap Method A procedure for calculating zero rates or forward rates from
market data. It involves using progressively longer maturity instruments.
Boston Option See Deferred Payment Option.
Box Spread A combination of a bull spread created from calls and a bear spread
created from puts.
Break Forward See Deferred Payment Option.
Brownian Motion See Wiener Process.
Bull Spread A long position in a call with strike price
K1 combined with a short
position in a call with strike price K2, where K27K1. (A bull spread can also be
created with put options.)
Butterfly Spread A position that is created by taking a long position in a call with
strike price K1, a long position in a call with strike price K3, and a short position in
two calls with strike price K2, where K37K27K1 and K2=0.51K1+K32.
(A butterfly spread can also be created with put options.)
Calendar Spread A position that is created by taking a long position in a call option
that matures at one time and a short position in a similar call option that matures at a
different time. (A calendar spread can also be created using put options.)
Calibration Method for implying a modelās parameters from the prices of actively
traded options.
Callable Bond A bond containing provisions that allow the issuer to buy it back at a
predetermined price at certain times during its life.
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830 Glossary of Terms
Call Option An option to buy an asset at a certain price by a certain date.
Cancelable Swap Swap that can be canceled by one side on prespecified dates.
Cap See Interest Rate Cap.
Cap Rate The rate determining payoffs in an interest rate cap.
Capital Asset Pricing Model A model relating the expected return on an asset to its
beta.
Capital Valuation Adjustment (KVA) Valuation adjustment to reflect the cost of
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines various types of options, including chooser options that allow holders to decide between calls and puts during the contract's life.
- It details specialized debt instruments like CAT bonds, which link interest and principal payments to the occurrence of catastrophic insurance claims.
- The glossary explains the mechanics of collateralization and clearing houses, which serve to guarantee performance and protect against counterparty default.
- Complex credit structures such as Collateralized Debt Obligations (CDOs) are described as methods for packaging and allocating default risks into different tranches.
- Specific environmental and weather-related metrics, such as Cooling Degree Days (CDD), are defined for use in specialized financial contracts.
CAT Bond Bond where the interest and, possibly, the principal paid are reduced if a particular category of ācatastrophicā insurance claims exceed a certain amount.
traded options.
Callable Bond A bond containing provisions that allow the issuer to buy it back at a
predetermined price at certain times during its life.
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830 Glossary of Terms
Call Option An option to buy an asset at a certain price by a certain date.
Cancelable Swap Swap that can be canceled by one side on prespecified dates.
Cap See Interest Rate Cap.
Cap Rate The rate determining payoffs in an interest rate cap.
Capital Asset Pricing Model A model relating the expected return on an asset to its
beta.
Capital Valuation Adjustment (KVA) Valuation adjustment to reflect the cost of
capital requirements.
Caplet One component of an interest rate cap.
CaseāShiller Index Index of house prices in the United States.
Cash Flow Mapping A procedure for representing an instrument as a portfolio of
zero-coupon bonds for the purpose of calculating value at risk.
Cash-or-Nothing Call Option An option that provides a fixed predetermined payoff if
the final asset price is above the strike price and zero otherwise.
Cash-or-Nothing Put Option An option that provides a fixed predetermined payoff if
the final asset price is below the strike price and zero otherwise.
Cash Settlement Procedure for settling a futures contract in cash rather than by
delivering the underlying asset.
CAT Bond Bond where the interest and, possibly, the principal paid are reduced if a
particular category of ācatastrophicā insurance claims exceed a certain amount.
CCP See Central Counterparty.
CDD Cooling degree days. The maximum of zero and the amount by which the daily
average temperature is greater than 65° Fahrenheit. The average temperature is the
average of the highest and lowest temperatures (midnight to midnight).
CDO See Collateralized Debt Obligation.
CDO Squared An instrument in which the default risks in a portfolio of CDO
tranches are allocated to new securities.
CDS See Credit Default Swap.
CDS Spread Basis points that must be paid each year for protection in a CDS.
CDX NA IG Portfolio of 125 North American companies.
CEBO See Credit Event Binary Option.
Central Clearing The use of a clearing house for over-the-counter derivatives.
Central Counterparty A clearing house for over-the-counter derivatives.
Cheapest-to-Deliver Bond The bond that is cheapest to deliver in the CME Group
bond futures contract.
Cholesky Decomposition A method of sampling from a multivariate normal dis-
tribution.
Chooser Option An option where the holder has the right to choose whether it is a
call or a put at some point during its life.
Class of Options See Option Class.
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Glossary of Terms 831
Clean Price of Bond The quoted price of a bond. The cash price paid for the bond
(or dirty price) is calculated by adding the accrued interest to the clean price.
Clearing House A firm that guarantees the performance of the parties in a derivatives
transaction (also referred to as a clearing corporation).
Clearing Margin A margin posted by a member of a clearinghouse.
Cliquet Option A series of call or put options with rules for determining strike prices.
Typically, one option starts when the previous one terminates.
CMO Collateralized Mortgage Obligation.
Collar See Interest Rate Collar.
Collateral Cash or securities posted by a company to provide its counterparty with
protection against a default by the company.
Collateralization A system for posting collateral by one or both parties in a derivatives
transaction.
Collateralized Debt Obligation A way of packaging credit risk. Several classes of
securities (known as tranches) are created from a portfolio of bonds and there are
rules for determining how the cost of defaults are allocated to classes.
Collateralized Mortgage Obligation (CMO) A mortgage-backed security where in-
Financial Derivatives and Instruments
- The text defines various bond pricing mechanisms, distinguishing between the quoted clean price and the cash-inclusive dirty price.
- It outlines complex structured products like Collateralized Debt Obligations (CDOs) and Mortgage Obligations (CMOs) which redistribute credit risk through tranches.
- Regulatory and operational procedures such as clearing houses, margin requirements, and compression are explained as methods to mitigate counterparty risk.
- The glossary covers specialized swap types and option structures, including cliquets, compound options, and constant maturity swaps.
- Market conditions like contango and convenience yield are defined to explain the relationship between futures prices and spot prices.
Contango A situation where the futures price is above the expected future spot price (also often used to refer to the situation where the futures price is above the current spot price).
Clean Price of Bond The quoted price of a bond. The cash price paid for the bond
(or dirty price) is calculated by adding the accrued interest to the clean price.
Clearing House A firm that guarantees the performance of the parties in a derivatives
transaction (also referred to as a clearing corporation).
Clearing Margin A margin posted by a member of a clearinghouse.
Cliquet Option A series of call or put options with rules for determining strike prices.
Typically, one option starts when the previous one terminates.
CMO Collateralized Mortgage Obligation.
Collar See Interest Rate Collar.
Collateral Cash or securities posted by a company to provide its counterparty with
protection against a default by the company.
Collateralization A system for posting collateral by one or both parties in a derivatives
transaction.
Collateralized Debt Obligation A way of packaging credit risk. Several classes of
securities (known as tranches) are created from a portfolio of bonds and there are
rules for determining how the cost of defaults are allocated to classes.
Collateralized Mortgage Obligation (CMO) A mortgage-backed security where in-
vestors are divided into classes and there are rules for determining how interest and
principal repayments are channeled to the classes.
Combination A position involving both calls and puts on the same underlying asset.
Commodity Futures Trading Commission A body that regulates trading in futures
contracts and swaps in the United States.
Commodity Swap A swap where cash flows depend on the price of a commodity.
Compound Correlation Correlation implied from the market price of a CDO tranche.
Compound Option An option on an option.
Compounding Frequency This defines how an interest rate is measured.
Compounding Swap Swap where interest compounds instead of being paid.
Compression Procedure where two or more derivatives counterparties restructure
outstanding transactions to reduce principal amounts and capital requirements.
Conditional Value at Risk (C-VaR) See Expected Shortfall.
Confirmation Contract confirming verbal agreement between two parties to a trade in
the over-the-counter market.
Constant Elasticity of Variance (CEV) Model Model where the variance of the change
in a variable in a short period of time is proportional to the value of the variable.
Constant Maturity Swap (CMS) A swap where a swap rate is exchanged for either a
fixed rate or a floating rate on each payment date.
Constant Maturity Treasury Swap A swap where the yield on a Treasury bond is
exchanged for either a fixed rate or a floating rate on each payment date.
Consumption Asset An asset held for consumption rather than investment.
Contango A situation where the futures price is above the expected future spot price
(also often used to refer to the situation where the futures price is above the current spot price).
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832 Glossary of Terms
Continuous Compounding A way of quoting interest rates. It is the limit as the
assumed compounding interval is made smaller and smaller.
Control Variate Technique A technique that can sometimes be used for improving the
accuracy of a numerical procedure.
Convenience Yield A measure of the benefits from ownership of an asset that are not
obtained by the holder of a long futures contract on the asset.
Conversion Factor A factor used to determine the number of bonds that must be
delivered in the CME Group bond futures contract.
Convertible Bond A corporate bond that can be converted into a predetermined
Financial Glossary and Credit Terms
- The text provides technical definitions for bond valuation concepts such as convexity, coupons, and conversion factors.
- It outlines various credit-related instruments including Credit Default Swaps, Credit Event Binary Options, and Credit Indices.
- Risk management tools like the CornishāFisher Expansion and Control Variate Techniques are defined for improving numerical accuracy.
- The glossary introduces behavioral finance concepts like 'Crashophobia,' which explains pricing anomalies in deep-out-of-the-money put options.
- Operational frameworks for derivatives are mentioned, specifically the Credit Support Annex (CSA) within ISDA Master Agreements.
Crashophobia Fear of a stock market crash that some people claim causes the market to increase the price of deep-out-of-the-money put options.
Continuous Compounding A way of quoting interest rates. It is the limit as the
assumed compounding interval is made smaller and smaller.
Control Variate Technique A technique that can sometimes be used for improving the
accuracy of a numerical procedure.
Convenience Yield A measure of the benefits from ownership of an asset that are not
obtained by the holder of a long futures contract on the asset.
Conversion Factor A factor used to determine the number of bonds that must be
delivered in the CME Group bond futures contract.
Convertible Bond A corporate bond that can be converted into a predetermined
amount of the companyās equity at certain times during its life.
Convexity A measure of the curvature in the relationship between bond prices and
bond yields.
Convexity Adjustment An overworked term. For example, it can refer to the adjust-
ment necessary to convert a futures interest rate to a forward interest rate. It can also
refer to the adjustment to a forward rate that is sometimes necessary when Blackās model is used.
Copula A way of defining the correlation between variables with known distributions.
CornishāFisher Expansion An approximate relationship between the fractiles of a
probability distribution and its moments.
Cost of Carry The storage costs plus the cost of financing an asset minus the income
earned on the asset.
Counterparty The opposite side in a financial transaction.
Coupon Interest payment made on a bond.
Covariance Measure of the linear relationship between two variables (equals the
correlation between the variables times the product of their standard deviations).
Covariance Matrix See VarianceāCovariance Matrix.
Covered Call A short position in a call option on an asset combined with a long
position in the asset.
Crashophobia Fear of a stock market crash that some people claim causes the market
to increase the price of deep-out-of-the-money put options.
Credit Contagion The tendency of a default by one company to lead to defaults by
other companies.
Credit Default Swap An instrument that gives the holder the right to sell a bond for
its face value in the event of a default by the issuer.
Credit Derivative A derivative whose payoff depends on the creditworthiness of one
or more companies or countries.
Credit Event Event, such as a default or reorganization, triggering a payout on a
credit derivative.
Credit Event Binary Option Exchange-traded option that provides a fixed payoff if a
reference entity suffers a credit event.
Credit Index Index that tracks the cost of buying protection for each company in a
portfolio (e.g., CDX NA IG and iTraxx Europe).
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Glossary of Terms 833
Credit Rating A measure of the creditworthiness of a bond issue.
Credit Ratings Transition Matrix A table showing the probability that a bond will
move from one credit rating to another during a certain period of time.
Credit Risk The risk that a loss will be experienced because of a default by a
counterparty.
Credit Spread Option Option whose payoff depends on the spread between the yields
earned on two assets.
Credit Support Annex (CSA) Part of ISDA Master Agreement dealing with collateral
requirements.
Credit Valuation Adjustment Adjustment to value of derivatives outstanding with a
Financial Glossary and Definitions
- The text defines various credit-related terms, including Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) and Credit Value at Risk, which quantify the potential losses from counterparty defaults.
- It outlines several hedging and trading strategies, such as Delta Hedging and Cross Hedging, aimed at minimizing portfolio sensitivity to market fluctuations.
- The glossary explains complex derivative structures like Currency Swaps, Differential Swaps, and Diagonal Spreads that involve multiple currencies or strike prices.
- Regulatory and operational concepts are introduced, including the DoddāFrank Act for market monitoring and the Credit Support Annex for collateral requirements.
- Fundamental mathematical and pricing concepts are clarified, such as the Delta of a derivative and the distinction between Dirty and Clean bond prices.
Delta-Neutral Portfolio A portfolio with a delta of zero so that there is no sensitivity to small changes in the price of the underlying asset.
Credit Rating A measure of the creditworthiness of a bond issue.
Credit Ratings Transition Matrix A table showing the probability that a bond will
move from one credit rating to another during a certain period of time.
Credit Risk The risk that a loss will be experienced because of a default by a
counterparty.
Credit Spread Option Option whose payoff depends on the spread between the yields
earned on two assets.
Credit Support Annex (CSA) Part of ISDA Master Agreement dealing with collateral
requirements.
Credit Valuation Adjustment Adjustment to value of derivatives outstanding with a
counterparty to reflect the counterpartyās default risk.
Credit Value at Risk The credit loss that will not be exceeded at some specified
confidence level.
CreditMetrics A procedure for calculating credit value at risk.
Cross Hedging Hedging an exposure to the price of one asset with a contract on
another asset.
Cumulative Distribution Function The probability that a variable will be less than x
as a function of x.
Currency Swap A swap where interest and principal in one currency are exchanged
for interest and principal in another currency.
CVA See Credit Valuation Adjustment.
Day Count A convention for quoting interest rates.
Day Trade A trade that is entered into and closed out on the same day.
Debt (or Debit) Valuation Adjustment Value to a company of the fact that it might
default on outstanding derivatives transactions.
Default Correlation Measures the tendency of two companies to default at about the
same time.
Default Intensity See Hazard Rate.
Deferred Swap An agreement to enter into a swap at some time in the future (also
called a forward swap).
Delivery Price Price agreed to in a forward contract.
Delta The rate of change of the price of a derivative with the price of the underlying
asset.
Delta Hedging A hedging scheme that is designed to make the price of a portfolio of
derivatives insensitive to small changes in the price of the underlying asset.
Delta-Neutral Portfolio A portfolio with a delta of zero so that there is no sensitivity
to small changes in the price of the underlying asset.
DerivaGem The software accompanying this book.
Derivative An instrument whose price depends on, or is derived from, the price of
another asset.
Deterministic Variable A variable whose future value is known.
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834 Glossary of Terms
Diagonal Spread A position in two calls where both the strike prices and times to
maturity are different. (A diagonal spread can also be created with put options.)
Differential Swap A swap where a floating interest rate in one currency is applied to a
principal in another currency.
Diffusion Process Model where value of asset changes continuously (no jumps).
Dirty Price of Bond Cash price of bond.
Discount Bond See Zero-Coupon Bond.
Discount Instrument An instrument, such as a Treasury bill, that provides no
coupons.
Diversification Reducing risk by dividing a portfolio between many different assets.
Dividend A cash payment made to the owner of a stock.
Dividend Yield The dividend as a percentage of the stock price.
DoddāFrank Act An act introduced in the United States in 2010 designed to protect
consumers and investors, avoid future bailouts, and monitor the functioning of the
Financial Glossary D to E
- The text defines various complex financial instruments including diagonal spreads, differential swaps, and DOOM options.
- Regulatory and risk management concepts are introduced, such as the DoddāFrank Act and diversification strategies.
- Technical measures of bond sensitivity and life are detailed through definitions of duration, dollar duration, and DV01.
- The glossary covers option-specific behaviors like early exercise, dynamic hedging, and barrier conditions such as down-and-in or down-and-out options.
- Market theories and research methods are touched upon, including the Efficient Market Hypothesis and empirical research based on historical data.
DOOM Option Deep-out-of-the-money put option.
Diagonal Spread A position in two calls where both the strike prices and times to
maturity are different. (A diagonal spread can also be created with put options.)
Differential Swap A swap where a floating interest rate in one currency is applied to a
principal in another currency.
Diffusion Process Model where value of asset changes continuously (no jumps).
Dirty Price of Bond Cash price of bond.
Discount Bond See Zero-Coupon Bond.
Discount Instrument An instrument, such as a Treasury bill, that provides no
coupons.
Diversification Reducing risk by dividing a portfolio between many different assets.
Dividend A cash payment made to the owner of a stock.
Dividend Yield The dividend as a percentage of the stock price.
DoddāFrank Act An act introduced in the United States in 2010 designed to protect
consumers and investors, avoid future bailouts, and monitor the functioning of the
financial system more carefully.
Dollar Duration The product of a bondās modified duration and the bond price.
DOOM Option Deep-out-of-the-money put option.
Down-and-In Option An option that comes into existence when the price of the
underlying asset declines to a prespecified level.
Down-and-Out Option An option that ceases to exist when the price of the under-
lying asset declines to a prespecified level.
Downgrade Trigger A clause in a contract that states that collateral will be required or
that the contract will be terminated if the credit rating of one side falls below a certain
level.
Drift Rate The average increase per unit of time in a stochastic variable.
Duration A measure of the average life a bond. It is also an approximation to the ratio
of the proportional change in the bond price to the absolute change in its yield.
Duration Matching A procedure for matching the durations of assets and liabilities in
a financial institution.
DV01 The dollar value of a 1 -basis-point increase in all interest rates.
DVA See Debt (or Debit) Valuation Adjustment.
Dynamic Hedging A procedure for hedging an option position by periodically
changing the position held in the underlying asset. The objective is usually to
maintain a delta-neutral position.
Early Exercise Exercise prior to the maturity date.
Effective Federal Funds Rate Weighted average federal funds rate for brokered
transactions.
Efficient Market Hypothesis A hypothesis that asset prices reflect relevant information.
Electronic Trading System of trading where a computer is used to match buyers and
sellers.
Embedded Option An option that is an inseparable part of another instrument.
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Glossary of Terms 835
Empirical Research Research based on historical market data.
Employee Stock Option A stock option issued by company on its own stock and
given to its employees as part of their remuneration.
Equilibrium Model A model for the behavior of interest rates derived from a model of
the economy.
Equity Swap A swap where the return on an equity portfolio is exchanged for either a
fixed or a floating rate of interest.
Equity Tranche The tranche that first absorbs losses.
Equivalent Annual Interest Rate Interest rate with annual compounding.
Equivalent Martingale Measure Result Result that the processes for security prices
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines various financial instruments including equity swaps, exotic options, and exchange-traded products.
- It outlines key valuation methodologies such as the Explicit Finite Difference Method and the Equivalent Martingale Measure Result.
- Risk management concepts are introduced, specifically Expected Shortfall and the Exponentially Weighted Moving Average model for forecasting.
- The glossary distinguishes between different types of options, such as European options which can only be exercised at the end of their life.
- It provides technical definitions for interest rate benchmarks like Euribor and the Euro overnight rate (ESTER).
European Option An option that can be exercised only at the end of its life.
Empirical Research Research based on historical market data.
Employee Stock Option A stock option issued by company on its own stock and
given to its employees as part of their remuneration.
Equilibrium Model A model for the behavior of interest rates derived from a model of
the economy.
Equity Swap A swap where the return on an equity portfolio is exchanged for either a
fixed or a floating rate of interest.
Equity Tranche The tranche that first absorbs losses.
Equivalent Annual Interest Rate Interest rate with annual compounding.
Equivalent Martingale Measure Result Result that the processes for security prices
are martingales when (a) they are measured in terms of a numeraire security and
(b) the market price of risk is the volatility of the numeraire security.
ESTER Euro overnight rate.
ETP Exchange-traded product such as an exchange-traded fund (ETF).
Euribor Euro rate of interest at which banks in the Eurozone borrow from each other.
Eurocurrency A currency that is outside the formal control of the issuing countryās
monetary authorities.
Eurodollar A dollar held in a bank outside the United States.
Eurodollar Futures Contract A futures contract written on a Eurodollar deposit.
Euro LIBOR London interbank offered rate for euros.
European Option An option that can be exercised only at the end of its life.
EWMA Exponentially weighted moving average.
Exchange Option An option to exchange one asset for another.
Ex-dividend Date When a dividend is declared, an ex-dividend date is specified.
Investors who own shares of the stock just before the ex-dividend date receive the
dividend.
Exercise Limit Maximum number of option contracts that can be exercised within a
five-day period.
Exercise Multiple Ratio of stock price to strike price at time of exercise for employee
stock option.
Exercise Price The price at which the underlying asset may be bought or sold in an
option contract (also called the strike price).
Exotic Option A nonstandard option.
Expectations Theory The theory that forward interest rates equal expected future spot
interest rates.
Expected Shortfall Expected loss during N days conditional on being in the
1100-X2, tail of the distribution of profits/losses. The variable N is the time
horizon and X% is the confidence level.
Expected Value of a Variable The average value of the variable obtained by weighting
the alternative values by their probabilities.
Expiration Date The end of life of a contract.
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836 Glossary of Terms
Explicit Finite Difference Method A method for valuing a derivative by solving the
underlying differential equation. The value of the derivative at time t is related to
three values at time t+āt. It is essentially the same as the trinomial tree method.
Exponentially Weighted Moving Average Model A model where exponential weight-
ing is used to provide forecasts for a variable from historical data. It is sometimes
applied to variances and covariances in value at risk calculations.
Exponential Weighting A weighting scheme where the weight given to an observation
depends on how recent it is. The weight given to an observation i time periods ago is
l times the weight given to an observation i-1 time periods ago where l61.
Exposure The maximum loss from default by a counterparty.
Extendable Bond A bond whose life can be extended at the option of the holder.
Extendable Swap A swap whose life can be extended at the option of one side to the
contract.
Factor Source of uncertainty.
Factor analysis An analysis aimed at finding a small number of factors that describe
most of the variation in a large number of correlated variables (similar to a principal components analysis).
FAS 123 Accounting standard in United States relating to employee stock options.
FAS 133 Accounting standard in United States relating to instruments used for
Financial Glossary and Definitions
- The text provides technical definitions for various financial instruments, including extendable bonds, swaps, and flex options.
- It outlines key accounting standards such as FAS 123 and FAS 133 which govern employee stock options and hedging instruments.
- The glossary distinguishes between forward and futures contracts, noting their obligations for asset delivery at predetermined prices.
- Regulatory frameworks like the Fundamental Review of the Trading Book (FRTB) are identified as critical for future market risk capital calculations.
- Mathematical and statistical methods, such as factor analysis and the finite difference method, are defined in the context of financial modeling.
Forward Start Option An option designed so that it will be at-the-money at some time in the future.
depends on how recent it is. The weight given to an observation i time periods ago is
l times the weight given to an observation i-1 time periods ago where l61.
Exposure The maximum loss from default by a counterparty.
Extendable Bond A bond whose life can be extended at the option of the holder.
Extendable Swap A swap whose life can be extended at the option of one side to the
contract.
Factor Source of uncertainty.
Factor analysis An analysis aimed at finding a small number of factors that describe
most of the variation in a large number of correlated variables (similar to a principal components analysis).
FAS 123 Accounting standard in United States relating to employee stock options.
FAS 133 Accounting standard in United States relating to instruments used for
hedging.
FASB Financial Accounting Standards Board.
Federal Funds Rate Overnight interbank borrowing rate.
FICO A credit score developed by Fair Isaac Corporation.
Financial Intermediary A bank or other financial institution that facilitates the flow of
funds between different entities in the economy.
Finite Difference Method A method for solving a differential equation.
Flat Volatility The name given to volatility used to price a cap when the same volatility
is used for each caplet.
Flex Option An option traded on an exchange with terms that are different from the
standard options traded by the exchange.
Flexi Cap Interest rate cap where there is a limit on the total number of caplets that
can be exercised.
Floor See Interest Rate Floor.
FloorāCeiling Agreement See Collar.
Floorlet One component of a floor.
Floor Rate The rate in an interest rate floor agreement.
Foreign Currency Option An option on a foreign exchange rate.
Forward Contract A contract that obligates the holder to buy or sell an asset for a
predetermined delivery price at a predetermined future time.
Forward Exchange Rate The forward price of one unit of a foreign currency.
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Glossary of Terms 837
Forward Interest Rate The interest rate for a future period of time implied by the rates
prevailing in the market today.
Forward Price The delivery price in a forward contract that causes the contract to be
worth zero.
Forward Rate Rate of interest for a period of time in the future implied by todayās
zero rates.
Forward Rate Agreement (FRA) Agreement that a certain interest rate will apply to a
certain principal amount for a certain time period in the future.
Forward Start Option An option designed so that it will be at-the-money at some
time in the future.
Forward Swap See Deferred Swap.
Fractional Brownian Motion An extension of Brownian motion where changes in
consecutive periods are not independent.
FRTB See Fundamental Review of the Trading Book.
Fundamental Review of the Trading Book (FRTB) New rules for calculating capital
for market risk, due to be implemented in 2022.
Funding Valuation Adjustment (FVA) Adjustment made to the price of a derivative
for funding costs.
Futures Commission Merchants Futures traders who are following instructions from
clients.
Futures Contract A contract that obligates the holder to buy or sell an asset at a
predetermined delivery price during a specified future time period. The contract is
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text provides technical definitions for regulatory frameworks like the Fundamental Review of the Trading Book (FRTB) and valuation adjustments like FVA.
- It details various types of futures contracts and options, including futures-style options and gap options with dual strike prices.
- Mathematical models for risk and volatility are defined, such as GARCH for mean-reverting variance and Girsanovās Theorem regarding risk-neutral measures.
- The glossary covers risk management terminology including 'Greeks' for hedging parameters and 'Haircuts' for collateral valuation.
- Specific environmental and statistical metrics are included, such as Heating Degree Days (HDD) for weather derivatives and the Hurst Exponent for Brownian motion.
Girsanovās Theorem Result showing that when we change the measure (e.g., move from real world to risk-neutral world) the expected return of a variable changes but the volatility remains the same.
consecutive periods are not independent.
FRTB See Fundamental Review of the Trading Book.
Fundamental Review of the Trading Book (FRTB) New rules for calculating capital
for market risk, due to be implemented in 2022.
Funding Valuation Adjustment (FVA) Adjustment made to the price of a derivative
for funding costs.
Futures Commission Merchants Futures traders who are following instructions from
clients.
Futures Contract A contract that obligates the holder to buy or sell an asset at a
predetermined delivery price during a specified future time period. The contract is
settled daily.
Futures Option An option on a futures contract.
Futures Price The delivery price currently applicable to a futures contract.
Futures-Style Option Futures contract on the payoff from an option.
FVA See Funding Valuation Adjustment.
Gamma The rate of change of delta with respect to the asset price.
Gamma-Neutral Portfolio A portfolio with a gamma of zero.
GAP Management Procedure for matching the maturities of assets and liabilities.
Gap Option European call or put option where there are two strike prices. One
determines whether the option is exercised. The other determines the payoff.
GARCH Model A model for forecasting volatility where the variance rate follows a
mean-reverting process.
Gaussian Copula Model A model for defining a correlation structure between two or
more variables. In some credit derivatives models, it is used to define a correlation
structure for times to default.
Gaussian Quadrature Procedure for integrating over a normal distribution.
Generalized Wiener Process A stochastic process where the change in a variable in
time t has a normal distribution with mean and variance both proportional to t.
Geometric Average The nth root of the product of n numbers.
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838 Glossary of Terms
Geometric Brownian Motion A stochastic process often assumed for asset prices
where the logarithm of the underlying variable follows a generalized Wiener process.
Girsanovās Theorem Result showing that when we change the measure (e.g., move
from real world to risk-neutral world) the expected return of a variable changes but
the volatility remains the same.
Greeks Hedge parameters such as delta, gamma, vega, theta, and rho.
Guaranty Fund Fund to which members of an exchange or CCP contribute. It may be
used to cover losses in the event of a default.
Haircut Discount applied to the value of an asset for collateral purposes.
Hazard Rate Measures probability of default in a short period of time conditional on
no earlier default.
HDD Heating degree days. The maximum of zero and the amount by which the daily
average temperature is less than 65° Fahrenheit. The average temperature is the
average of the highest and lowest temperatures (midnight to midnight).
Hedge A trade designed to reduce risk.
Hedge Funds Funds that are subject to less regulation and fewer restrictions than
mutual funds. But they cannot publicly offer their securities.
Hedger An individual who enters into hedging trades.
Hedge Ratio The ratio of the size of a position in a hedging instrument to the size of
the position being hedged.
Historical Simulation A simulation based on historical data.
Historical Volatility A volatility estimated from historical data.
Holiday Calendar Calendar defining which days are holidays for the purposes of
determining payment dates in a swap.
Hurst Exponent A parameter in fractional Brownian motion. When it equals 0.5,
fractional Brownian motion become regular Brownian motion. When it is greater
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text provides technical definitions for hedging strategies and the specific roles of hedge funds and hedgers in financial markets.
- It explains complex mathematical parameters like the Hurst Exponent, which determines correlation patterns in fractional Brownian motion.
- Various 'implied' metrics are defined, showing how market prices for options can be used to back-calculate volatility, dividends, and correlations.
- The glossary details specific interest rate instruments, including caps, floors, collars, and swaps used to manage floating rate risks.
- Operational terms such as IMM dates, initial margin requirements, and the role of the International Swaps and Derivatives Association are established.
When the Hurst Exponent is greater than 0.5, changes in successive time periods are positively correlated; when it is less than 0.5, changes in successive times periods are negatively correlated.
average of the highest and lowest temperatures (midnight to midnight).
Hedge A trade designed to reduce risk.
Hedge Funds Funds that are subject to less regulation and fewer restrictions than
mutual funds. But they cannot publicly offer their securities.
Hedger An individual who enters into hedging trades.
Hedge Ratio The ratio of the size of a position in a hedging instrument to the size of
the position being hedged.
Historical Simulation A simulation based on historical data.
Historical Volatility A volatility estimated from historical data.
Holiday Calendar Calendar defining which days are holidays for the purposes of
determining payment dates in a swap.
Hurst Exponent A parameter in fractional Brownian motion. When it equals 0.5,
fractional Brownian motion become regular Brownian motion. When it is greater
than 0.5, changes in successive time periods are positively correlated; when it is less
than 0.5, changes in successive times periods are negatively correlated.
IMM Dates Third Wednesday in March, June, September, and December.
Implicit Finite Difference Method A method for valuing a derivative by solving the
underlying differential equation. The value of the derivative at time t+āt is related
to three values at time t.
Implied Correlation Correlation number implied from the price of a credit derivative
using the Gaussian copula or similar model.
Implied Distribution A distribution for a future asset price implied from option
prices.
Implied Dividend Yield Dividend yield estimated using putācall parity from the prices
of calls and puts with the same strike price and time to maturity.
Implied Tree A tree describing the movements of an asset price that is constructed to
be consistent with observed option prices.
Implied Volatility Volatility implied from an option price using the BlackāScholes or
a similar model.
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Glossary of Terms 839
Implied Volatility Function (IVF) Model Model designed so that it matches the market
prices of all European options.
Inception Profit Profit created by selling a derivative for more than its theoretical
value.
Index Amortizing Swap See indexed principal swap.
Index Arbitrage An arbitrage involving a position in the stocks comprising a stock
index and a position in a futures contract on the stock index.
Index Futures A futures contract on a stock index or other index.
Index Option An option contract on a stock index or other index.
Indexed Principal Swap A swap where the principal declines over time. The reduction
in the principal on a payment date depends on the level of interest rates.
Initial Margin Collateral required from a trader at the time of the trade.
Instantaneous Forward Rate Forward rate for a very short period of time in the
future.
Interest Rate Cap An option that provides a payoff when a specified interest rate is
above a certain level. The interest rate is a floating rate that is reset periodically.
Interest Rate Collar A combination of an interest-rate cap and an interest rate floor.
Interest Rate Derivative A derivative whose payoffs are dependent on future interest
rates.
Interest Rate Floor An option that provides a payoff when an interest rate is below a
certain level. The interest rate is a floating rate that is reset periodically.
Interest Rate Option An option where the payoff is dependent on the level of interest
rates.
Interest Rate Swap An exchange of a fixed rate of interest on a certain notional
principal for a floating rate of interest on the same notional principal.
International Swaps and Derivatives Association Trade Association for over-the-
counter derivatives and developer of master agreements used in over-the-counter
Financial Derivatives and Stochastic Processes
- The text defines various interest rate instruments, including floors, options, and swaps that manage floating versus fixed rate risks.
- It outlines key mathematical concepts like ItĆ“ās Lemma and the JumpāDiffusion Model used to calculate stochastic processes for asset prices.
- Market mechanics are detailed through terms like inverted markets, limit moves, and the distinction between investment assets and liquidity risk.
- The glossary covers industry standards and benchmarks such as the ISDA master agreements and the LIBOR-OIS spread.
ItĆ“ās Lemma A result that enables the stochastic process for a function of a variable to be calculated from the stochastic process for the variable itself.
rates.
Interest Rate Floor An option that provides a payoff when an interest rate is below a
certain level. The interest rate is a floating rate that is reset periodically.
Interest Rate Option An option where the payoff is dependent on the level of interest
rates.
Interest Rate Swap An exchange of a fixed rate of interest on a certain notional
principal for a floating rate of interest on the same notional principal.
International Swaps and Derivatives Association Trade Association for over-the-
counter derivatives and developer of master agreements used in over-the-counter
contracts.
In-the-Money Option Either (a) a call option where the asset price is greater than the
strike price or (b) a put option where the asset price is less than the strike price.
Intrinsic Value For a call option, this is the greater of the excess of the asset price over
the strike price and zero. For a put option, it is the greater of the excess of the strike
price over the asset price and zero.
Inverted Market A market where futures prices decrease with maturity.
Investment Asset An asset held by at least some individuals for investment purposes.
IO Interest Only. A mortgage-backed security where the holder receives only interest
cash flows on the underlying mortgage pool.
ISDA See International Swaps and Derivatives Association.
ItƓ Process A stochastic process where the change in a variable during each short
period of time of length āt has a normal distribution. The mean and variance of the
distribution are proportional to āt and are not necessarily constant.
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840 Glossary of Terms
ItĆ“ās Lemma A result that enables the stochastic process for a function of a variable to
be calculated from the stochastic process for the variable itself.
ITraxx Europe Portfolio of 125 investment-grade European companies.
JumpāDiffusion Model Model where asset price has jumps superimposed on a dif-
fusion process such as geometric Brownian motion.
Jump Process Stochastic process for a variable involving jumps in the value of the
variable.
Kurtosis A measure of the fatness of the tails of a distribution.
KVA See Capital Valuation Adjustment.
LEAPS Long-term equity anticipation securities. These are relatively long-term options
on individual stocks or stock indices.
LIBOR London Interbank Offered Rate. The rate offered by banks on Eurocurrency
deposits (i.e., the rate at which a bank is willing to lend to other banks).
LIBOR Discounting Use of LIBOR rates as proxies for the risk-free rate when
derivatives are valued.
LIBOR-in-Arrears Swap Swap where the interest paid on a date is determined by the
interest rate observed on that date (not by the interest rate observed on the previous
payment date).
LIBORāOIS Spread Difference between LIBOR rate and OIS rate for a certain
maturity.
Limit Move The maximum price move permitted by the exchange in a single trading
session.
Limit Order An order that can be executed only at a specified price or one more
favorable to the investor.
Liquidity Preference Theory A theory leading to the conclusion that forward interest
rates are above expected future spot interest rates.
Liquidity Risk Risk that it will not be possible to sell a holding of a particular
instrument at its theoretical price. Also, the risk that a company will not be able
to borrow money to fund its assets.
Locals Individuals on the floor of an exchange who trade for their own account rather
than for someone else.
Lognormal Distribution A variable has a lognormal distribution when the logarithm
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines various types of financial risk, including liquidity risk where an instrument cannot be sold at its theoretical price.
- Margin requirements and maintenance levels are explained as essential collateral mechanisms for futures and options trading.
- The Markov Process is introduced as a stochastic model where future behavior depends only on the current state rather than historical data.
- Valuation techniques such as Monte Carlo Simulation and the Maximum Likelihood Method are described for assessing derivatives and parameters.
- The text distinguishes between different market theories, such as Liquidity Preference and Market Segmentation, regarding interest rate behavior.
A Markov process is a stochastic process where the behavior of the variable over a short period of time depends solely on the value of the variable at the beginning of the period, not on its past history.
Liquidity Preference Theory A theory leading to the conclusion that forward interest
rates are above expected future spot interest rates.
Liquidity Risk Risk that it will not be possible to sell a holding of a particular
instrument at its theoretical price. Also, the risk that a company will not be able
to borrow money to fund its assets.
Locals Individuals on the floor of an exchange who trade for their own account rather
than for someone else.
Lognormal Distribution A variable has a lognormal distribution when the logarithm
of the variable has a normal distribution.
Long Hedge A hedge involving a long futures position.
Long Position A position involving the purchase of an asset.
Lookback Option An option whose payoff is dependent on the maximum or min-
imum of the asset price achieved during a certain period.
Low-Discrepancy Sequence See Quasi-random Sequence.
Maintenance Margin When the balance in a traderās margin account falls below the
maintenance margin level, the trader receives a margin call requiring the account to
be topped up to the initial margin level.
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Glossary of Terms 841
Margin The cash balance (or security deposit) required from a futures or options
trader.
Margin Call A request for extra collateral when the balance in the margin account
falls below a certain level.
Margin Valuation Adjustment (MVA) Adjustment to the value of a derivative to reflect
the cost of funds tied up in margin accounts.
Market-Leveraged Stock Unit (MSU) A unit entitling the holder to receive shares of a
stock at a future time. The number of shares received depends on the stock price.
Market Maker A trader who is willing to quote both bid and offer prices for an asset.
Market Model A model most commonly used by traders.
Market Price of Risk A measure of the trade-offs investors make between risk and
return.
Market Segmentation Theory A theory that short interest rates are determined
independently of long interest rates by the market.
Marking to Market The practice of revaluing an instrument to reflect the current
values of the relevant market variables.
Markov Process A stochastic process where the behavior of the variable over a short
period of time depends solely on the value of the variable at the beginning of the
period, not on its past history.
Martingale A zero drift stochastic process.
Maturity Date The end of the life of a contract.
Maximum Likelihood Method A method for choosing the values of parameters by
maximizing the probability of a set of observations occurring.
Mean Reversion The tendency of a market variable (such as an interest rate) to revert
back to some long-run average level.
Measure Sometimes also called a probability measure, it defines the market price
of risk.
Mezzanine Tranche Tranche which experiences losses after equity tranche but before
senior tranches.
Minimum Variance Delta Delta that takes the (usually negative) correlation between
volatility and asset price into account.
Modified Duration A modification to the standard duration measure so that it more
accurately describes the relationship between proportional changes in a bond price
and actual changes in its yield. The modification takes account of the compounding frequency with which the yield is quoted.
Money Market Account An investment that is initially equal to $1 and, at time t,
increases at the very short-term risk-free interest rate prevailing at that time.
Monte Carlo Simulation A procedure for randomly sampling changes in market
variables in order to value a derivative.
Mortgage-Backed Security A security that entitles the owner to a share in the cash
flows realized from a pool of mortgages.
MVA See Margin Valuation Adjustment.
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842 Glossary of Terms
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines various financial instruments and concepts, ranging from money market accounts to complex mortgage-backed securities.
- It outlines technical valuation methods such as Monte Carlo simulations and the NewtonāRaphson iterative procedure for nonlinear equations.
- Market risk and positioning are categorized through terms like naked positions, nonsystematic risk, and the no-arbitrage assumption.
- The glossary highlights specific industry jargon, such as the 'NINJA' acronym used to describe high-risk borrowers during credit assessments.
- Operational mechanics of trading are explained, including the role of the Options Clearing Corporation and the 'open outcry' system of floor trading.
NINJA Term used to describe a person with a poor credit risk: no income, no job, no assets.
and actual changes in its yield. The modification takes account of the compounding frequency with which the yield is quoted.
Money Market Account An investment that is initially equal to $1 and, at time t,
increases at the very short-term risk-free interest rate prevailing at that time.
Monte Carlo Simulation A procedure for randomly sampling changes in market
variables in order to value a derivative.
Mortgage-Backed Security A security that entitles the owner to a share in the cash
flows realized from a pool of mortgages.
MVA See Margin Valuation Adjustment.
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842 Glossary of Terms
Naked Position An unhedged position, e.g., a short position in a call option that is
not combined with a long position in the underlying asset.
Netting The ability to offset contracts with positive and negative values in the event of
a default by a counterparty or for the purpose of determining collateral requirements.
NewtonāRaphson Method An iterative procedure for solving nonlinear equations.
NINJA Term used to describe a person with a poor credit risk: no income, no job, no
assets.
No-Arbitrage Assumption The assumption that there are no arbitrage opportunities
in market prices.
No-Arbitrage Interest Rate Model A model for the behavior of interest rates that is
exactly consistent with the initial term structure of interest rates.
Nonstationary Model A model where the parameters are a function of time.
Nonsystematic Risk Risk that can be diversified away.
Normal Backwardation A situation where the futures price is below the expected
future spot price.
Normal Distribution The standard bell-shaped distribution of statistics.
Normal Market A market where futures prices increase with maturity.
Notional Principal The principal used to calculate payments in a swap. The principal
is ānotionalā because it is neither paid nor received.
Numeraire Defines the units in which security prices are measured. For example, if
the price of IBM is the numeraire, all security prices are measured relative to IBM. If
IBM is $80 and a particular security price is $50, the security price is 0.625 when
IBM is the numeraire.
Numerical Procedure A method of valuing an option when no formula is available.
OCC Options Clearing Corporation. See Clearinghouse.
Offer Price See Ask Price.
OIS See Overnight Indexed Swap.
OIS Discounting Use of OIS rates as proxies for the risk-free rate when derivatives are
valued.
OIS Rate Rate swapped for geometric average of overnight rates in an OIS.
Open Interest The total number of long positions outstanding in a futures contract
(equals the total number of short positions).
Open Outcry System of trading where traders meet on the floor of the exchange
Option The right to buy or sell an asset.
Option-Adjusted Spread The spread over the Treasury curve that makes the theoret-
ical price of an interest rate derivative equal to the market price.
Option Class All options of the same type (call or put) on a particular stock.
Option Series All options of a certain class with the same strike price and expiration
date.
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Glossary of Terms 843
Out-of-the-Money Option Either (a) a call option where the asset price is less than
the strike price or (b) a put option where the asset price is greater than the strike
price.
Overnight Indexed Swap Swap where a fixed rate for a period (e.g., 1 month) is
exchanged for the geometric average of the overnight rates during the period.
Overnight Rate One-day rate.
Over-the-Counter Market A market where traders deal directly with each other or
through an interdealer broker. The traders are usually financial institutions, corpora-
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines various financial instruments including path-dependent options, where payoffs rely on the asset's historical trajectory rather than just its final price.
- It distinguishes between market structures, such as the over-the-counter market where traders deal directly, and specific trading strategies like portfolio insurance.
- Complex exotic derivatives are introduced, such as Parisian options that require an asset to stay beyond a barrier for a specific duration to activate.
- The glossary covers risk management concepts including portfolio immunization and the use of principal components analysis to manage correlated variables.
- Standardized terminology like 'plain vanilla' is used to describe basic deals, while 'quanto' refers to derivatives settled in a different currency than the underlying asset.
Parisian Option Barrier option where the asset has to be above or below the barrier for a period of time for the option to be knocked in or out.
Out-of-the-Money Option Either (a) a call option where the asset price is less than
the strike price or (b) a put option where the asset price is greater than the strike
price.
Overnight Indexed Swap Swap where a fixed rate for a period (e.g., 1 month) is
exchanged for the geometric average of the overnight rates during the period.
Overnight Rate One-day rate.
Over-the-Counter Market A market where traders deal directly with each other or
through an interdealer broker. The traders are usually financial institutions, corpora-
tions, and fund managers.
Package A derivative that is a portfolio of standard calls and puts, possibly combined
with a position in forward contracts and the asset itself.
Par Value The principal amount of a bond.
Par Yield The coupon on a bond that makes its price equal the principal.
Parallel Shift A movement in the yield curve where each point on the curve changes by
the same amount.
Parisian Option Barrier option where the asset has to be above or below the barrier
for a period of time for the option to be knocked in or out.
Path-Dependent Option An option whose payoff depends on the path followed by the
underlying variableānot just its final value.
Payoff The cash realized by the holder of an option or other derivative at the end of its
life.
PD Probability of default.
Perpetual Derivative A derivative that lasts forever.
Plain Vanilla A term used to describe a standard deal.
P-Measure Real-world measure.
PO Principal Only. A mortgage-backed security where the holder receives only
principal cash flows on the underlying mortgage pool.
Poisson Process A process describing a situation where events happen at random. The
probability of an event in time āt is lāt, where l is the intensity of the process.
Portfolio Immunization Making a portfolio relatively insensitive to interest rates.
Portfolio Insurance Entering into trades to ensure that the value of a portfolio will
not fall below a certain level.
Position Limit The maximum position a trader (or group of traders acting together) is
allowed to hold.
Practitioner BlackāScholes Model Model using implied volatilities and the Blackā
ScholesāMerton pricing formula.
Premium The price of an option.
Prepayment function A function estimating the prepayment of principal on a port-
folio of mortgages in terms of other variables.
Principal The amount of a debt instrument that has to be repaid at maturity.
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844 Glossary of Terms
Principal Components Analysis An analysis aimed at finding a small number of
factors that describe most of the variation in a large number of correlated variables
(similar to a factor analysis).
Principal Protected Note A product where the return earned depends on the perfor-
mance of a risky asset but is guaranteed to be nonnegative, so that the investorās
principal is preserved.
Program Trading A procedure where trades are automatically generated by a com-
puter and transmitted to the trading floor of an exchange.
Protective Put A put option combined with a long position in the underlying asset.
Pull-to-Par The reversion of a bondās price to its par value at maturity.
PutāCall Parity The relationship between the price of a European call option and the
price of a European put option when they have the same strike price and maturity
date.
Put Option An option to sell an asset for a certain price by a certain date.
Puttable Bond A bond where the holder has the right to sell it back to the issuer at
certain predetermined times for a predetermined price.
Puttable Swap A swap where one side has the right to terminate early.
Q-Measure Risk-neutral measure.
Quanto A derivative where the payoff is defined by variables associated with one
currency but is paid in another currency.
Quasi-random Sequences A sequences of numbers used in a Monte Carlo simulation
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines various option strategies and bond characteristics, such as protective puts and puttable bonds.
- It explains complex derivative structures like Quantos, where payoffs are calculated in one currency but paid in another.
- The glossary covers risk management concepts including risk-neutral valuation, which provides correct pricing across all market conditions.
- It details market mechanisms like repurchase agreements (repos) and the role of scalpers who trade over very short durations.
- Mathematical modeling terms are introduced, including quasi-random sequences for Monte Carlo simulations and the SABR stochastic volatility model.
Risk-neutral valuation gives the correct price for a derivative in all worlds, not just in a risk-neutral world.
puter and transmitted to the trading floor of an exchange.
Protective Put A put option combined with a long position in the underlying asset.
Pull-to-Par The reversion of a bondās price to its par value at maturity.
PutāCall Parity The relationship between the price of a European call option and the
price of a European put option when they have the same strike price and maturity
date.
Put Option An option to sell an asset for a certain price by a certain date.
Puttable Bond A bond where the holder has the right to sell it back to the issuer at
certain predetermined times for a predetermined price.
Puttable Swap A swap where one side has the right to terminate early.
Q-Measure Risk-neutral measure.
Quanto A derivative where the payoff is defined by variables associated with one
currency but is paid in another currency.
Quasi-random Sequences A sequences of numbers used in a Monte Carlo simulation
that are representative of alternative outcomes rather than random.
Rainbow Option An option whose payoff is dependent on two or more underlying
variables.
Range Forward Contract The combination of a long call and short put or the
combination of a short call and long put.
Ratchet Cap Interest rate cap where the cap rate applicable to an accrual period
equals the rate for the previous accrual period plus a spread.
Real Option Option involving real (as opposed to financial) assets. Real assets include
land, plant, and machinery.
Rebalancing The process of adjusting a trading position periodically. Usually the
purpose is to maintain delta neutrality.
Recovery Rate Amount recovered in the event of a default as a percent of the face
value.
Reference Entity Company for which default protection is bought in a credit default
swap.
Repo Repurchase agreement. A procedure for borrowing money by selling securities
to a counterparty and agreeing to buy them back later at a slightly higher price.
Repo Rate The rate of interest in a repo transaction.
Reset Date The date in a swap or cap or floor when the floating rate for the next
period is set.
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Glossary of Terms 845
Restricted Stock Unit (RSU) A unit entitling the holder to receive one share of a stock
at a future time.
Reversion Level The level to which the value of a market variable (e.g., an interest
rate) tends to revert.
Reversion Rate Rate at which the value of a market variable is pulled to the reversion
level when there is mean reversion.
Rho Rate of change of the price of a derivative with the interest rate.
Rights Issue An issue to existing shareholders of a security giving them the right to
buy new shares at a certain price.
Risk-Free Rate The rate of interest that can be earned without assuming any risks.
Risk-Neutral Valuation The valuation of an option or other derivative assuming the
world is risk neutral. Risk-neutral valuation gives the correct price for a derivative in
all worlds, not just in a risk-neutral world.
Risk-Neutral World A world where investors are assumed to require no extra return
on average for bearing risks.
Roll Back See Backward Induction.
Rough Volatility Model Model where the volatility process involves fractional Brown-
ian motion.
SABR Model A stochastic volatility model designed to be consistent with the volatility
smile for options with a particular maturity
SARON Swiss average overnight rate.
Scalper A trader who holds positions for a very short period of time.
Scenario Analysis An analysis of the effects of possible alternative future movements
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines fundamental financial concepts including risk-neutral valuation, which provides correct derivative pricing across all market conditions.
- It details various market participants such as scalpers, who hold short-term positions, and specialists, who manage limit orders on exchanges.
- Several interest rate benchmarks are identified, including SOFR for the United States, SONIA for sterling, and SARON for the Swiss market.
- The glossary explains hedging strategies like 'stack and roll' and 'static options replication' used to manage long-term portfolio risks.
- Specific financial instruments are described, such as shout options that allow holders to lock in minimum payoffs during the contract's life.
Risk-neutral valuation gives the correct price for a derivative in all worlds, not just in a risk-neutral world.
world is risk neutral. Risk-neutral valuation gives the correct price for a derivative in
all worlds, not just in a risk-neutral world.
Risk-Neutral World A world where investors are assumed to require no extra return
on average for bearing risks.
Roll Back See Backward Induction.
Rough Volatility Model Model where the volatility process involves fractional Brown-
ian motion.
SABR Model A stochastic volatility model designed to be consistent with the volatility
smile for options with a particular maturity
SARON Swiss average overnight rate.
Scalper A trader who holds positions for a very short period of time.
Scenario Analysis An analysis of the effects of possible alternative future movements
in market variables on the value of a portfolio.
SEC Securities and Exchange Commission.
Securitization Procedure for distributing the risks in a portfolio of assets.
SEF See Swap Execution Facility.
Self-financing Portfolio Portfolio where there is no infusion or withdrawal of money.
Settlement Price The average of the prices that a contract trades for immediately
before the bell signaling the close of trading for a day. It is used in mark-to-market calculations.
Sharpe Ratio Ratio of excess return over risk-free rate to standard deviation of the
excess return.
Shifted Lognormal Model Model where an interest rate plus a spread is lognormally
distributed.
Short Hedge A hedge where a short futures position is taken.
Short Position A position assumed when traders sell shares they do not own.
Short Rate The interest rate applying for a very short period of time.
Short Selling Selling in the market shares that have been borrowed from another
investor.
Short-Term Risk-Free Rate See Short Rate.
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846 Glossary of Terms
Shout Option An option where the holder has the right to lock in a minimum value
for the payoff at one time during its life.
Simulation See Monte Carlo Simulation.
SOFR Secured overnight financing rate. This is a repo rate used to create a reference
interest rate in the United States.
SONIA Overnight rate in sterling.
Specialist An individual responsible for managing limit orders on some exchanges.
The specialist does not make the information on outstanding limit orders available to
other traders.
Speculator An individual who is taking a position in the market. Usually the
individual is betting that the price of an asset will go up or that the price of an
asset will go down.
Spot Interest Rate See Zero-Coupon Interest Rate.
Spot Price The price for immediate delivery.
Spot Volatilities The volatilities used to price a cap when a different volatility is used
for each caplet.
Spread Option An option where the payoff is dependent on the difference between
two market variables.
Spread Transaction A position in two or more options of the same type.
Stack and Roll Procedure where short-term futures contracts are rolled forward to
create long-term hedges.
Static Hedge A hedge that does not have to be changed once it is initiated.
Static Options Replication A procedure for hedging a portfolio that involves finding
another portfolio of approximately equal value on some boundary.
Step-up Swap A swap where the principal increases over time in a predetermined way.
Sticky Cap Interest rate cap where the cap rate applicable to an accrual period equals
the capped rate for the previous accrual period plus a spread.
Stochastic Process An equation describing the probabilistic behavior of a stochastic
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines various hedging strategies, including static options replication and tailing the hedge to manage portfolio risk.
- It outlines complex option structures such as straddles, strangles, straps, and strips that utilize different combinations of calls and puts.
- Risk assessment terminology is detailed through concepts like Stressed VaR, Systematic Risk, and Systemic Risk which impacts entire markets.
- The glossary explains specialized financial instruments including synthetic CDOs, swaptions, and swing options used in energy markets.
- Key mathematical and temporal concepts like Theta, time decay, and the term structure of interest rates are defined for derivative pricing.
Systemic Risk Risk of the collapse of an entire financial system or market.
create long-term hedges.
Static Hedge A hedge that does not have to be changed once it is initiated.
Static Options Replication A procedure for hedging a portfolio that involves finding
another portfolio of approximately equal value on some boundary.
Step-up Swap A swap where the principal increases over time in a predetermined way.
Sticky Cap Interest rate cap where the cap rate applicable to an accrual period equals
the capped rate for the previous accrual period plus a spread.
Stochastic Process An equation describing the probabilistic behavior of a stochastic
variable.
Stochastic Variable A variable whose future value is uncertain.
Stock Dividend A dividend paid in the form of additional shares.
Stock Index An index monitoring the value of a portfolio of stocks.
Stock Index Futures Futures on a stock index.
Stock Index Option An option on a stock index.
Stock Option Option on a stock.
Stock Split The conversion of each existing share into more than one new share.
Storage Costs The costs of storing a commodity.
Straddle A long position in a call and a put with the same strike price.
Strangle A long position in a call and a put with different strike prices.
Strap A long position in two call options and one put option with the same strike
price.
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Glossary of Terms 847
Stressed ES Expected shortfall using data from a period of stressed market conditions.
Stressed VaR Value at risk calculated using data from a period of stressed market
conditions.
Stress Test Test of the impact of extreme market moves on the value of a portfolio.
Strike Price The price at which the asset may be bought or sold in an option contract
(also called the exercise price).
Strip A long position in one call option and two put options with the same strike
price.
Strip Bonds Zero-coupon bonds created by selling the coupons on Treasury bonds
separately from the principal.
Subprime Mortgage Mortgage granted to borrower with a poor credit history or no
credit history.
Swap An agreement to exchange cash flows in the future according to a prearranged
formula.
Swap Execution Facility Electronic platform for trading over-the-counter derivatives.
Swap Rate The fixed rate in an interest rate swap that causes the swap to have a value
of zero.
Swaption An option to enter into an interest rate swap where a specified fixed rate is
exchanged for floating.
Swing Option Energy option in which the rate of consumption must be between a
minimum and maximum level. There is usually a limit on the number of times the
option holder can change the rate at which the energy is consumed.
Synthetic CDO A CDO created by selling credit default swaps.
Synthetic Option An option created by trading the underlying asset.
Systematic Risk Risk that cannot be diversified away.
Systemic Risk Risk of the collapse of an entire financial system or market.
Tailing the Hedge A procedure for adjusting the number of futures contracts used for
hedging to reflect the time to maturity of the hedge.
Tail Loss See Expected Shortfall.
Take-and-Pay Option See Swing Option.
TED Spread The difference between 3-month LIBOR and the 3-month T-Bill rate.
Tenor Frequency of payments.
Term Structure of Interest Rates The relationship between interest rates and their
maturities.
Terminal Value The value at maturity.
Theta The rate of change of the price of an option or other derivative with the passage
of time.
Time Decay See Theta.
Time Value The value of an option arising from the time left to maturity (equals an
optionās price minus its intrinsic value).
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848 Glossary of Terms
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines various complex financial instruments, including synthetic CDOs, swaptions, and swing options used in energy markets.
- It distinguishes between systematic risk, which is inherent to the market, and systemic risk, which threatens the entire financial infrastructure.
- Key Greek risk measures like Theta are explained, representing the rate of change in a derivative's price over time.
- The glossary details the mechanics of swaps, including total return swaps where asset income and value changes are exchanged for floating rates.
- Specific market phenomena are identified, such as the Triple Witching Hour when multiple types of contracts expire simultaneously.
Triple Witching Hour A term given to the time when stock index futures, stock index options, and options on stock index futures all expire together.
separately from the principal.
Subprime Mortgage Mortgage granted to borrower with a poor credit history or no
credit history.
Swap An agreement to exchange cash flows in the future according to a prearranged
formula.
Swap Execution Facility Electronic platform for trading over-the-counter derivatives.
Swap Rate The fixed rate in an interest rate swap that causes the swap to have a value
of zero.
Swaption An option to enter into an interest rate swap where a specified fixed rate is
exchanged for floating.
Swing Option Energy option in which the rate of consumption must be between a
minimum and maximum level. There is usually a limit on the number of times the
option holder can change the rate at which the energy is consumed.
Synthetic CDO A CDO created by selling credit default swaps.
Synthetic Option An option created by trading the underlying asset.
Systematic Risk Risk that cannot be diversified away.
Systemic Risk Risk of the collapse of an entire financial system or market.
Tailing the Hedge A procedure for adjusting the number of futures contracts used for
hedging to reflect the time to maturity of the hedge.
Tail Loss See Expected Shortfall.
Take-and-Pay Option See Swing Option.
TED Spread The difference between 3-month LIBOR and the 3-month T-Bill rate.
Tenor Frequency of payments.
Term Structure of Interest Rates The relationship between interest rates and their
maturities.
Terminal Value The value at maturity.
Theta The rate of change of the price of an option or other derivative with the passage
of time.
Time Decay See Theta.
Time Value The value of an option arising from the time left to maturity (equals an
optionās price minus its intrinsic value).
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848 Glossary of Terms
Timing Adjustment Adjustment made to the forward value of a variable to allow for
the timing of a payoff from a derivative.
TONAR Tokyo overnight average rate.
Total Return Swap A swap where the return on an asset such as a bond is exchanged
for a floating rate plus a spread. The return on the asset includes income such as
coupons and the change in value of the asset.
Traditional Risk-Neutral World Authorās terminology for a world where the market
price of risk is zero. Equivalently, it is a world defined by a numeraire equal to the
money market account.
Tranche One of several securities that have different risk attributes. Examples are the
tranches of a CDO or CMO.
Transaction Costs The cost of carrying out a trade (commissions plus the difference
between the price obtained and the midpoint of the bidāoffer spread).
Treasury Bill A short-term non-coupon-bearing instrument issued by the government
to finance its debt.
Treasury Bond A long-term coupon-bearing instrument issued by the government to
finance it debt.
Treasury Bond Futures A futures contract on Treasury bonds.
Treasury Note See Treasury Bond. (Treasury notes have maturities of less than
10 years.)
Treasury Note Futures A futures contract on Treasury notes.
Tree Representation of the evolution of the value of a market variable for the
purposes of valuing an option or other derivative.
Trinomial Tree A tree where there are three branches emanating from each node. It is
used in the same way as a binomial tree for valuing derivatives.
Triple Witching Hour A term given to the time when stock index futures, stock index
options, and options on stock index futures all expire together.
Underlying Variable A variable on which the price of an option or other derivative
depends.
Unsystematic Risk See Nonsystematic Risk.
Up-and-In Option An option that comes into existence when the price of the under-
lying asset increases to a prespecified level.
Up-and-Out Option An option that ceases to exist when the price of the underlying
asset increases to a prespecified level.
Uptick An increase in price.
Value at Risk A loss that will not be exceeded at some specified confidence level.
Financial Derivatives Glossary
- The text defines specialized financial instruments including barrier options like Up-and-In and Up-and-Out options.
- It details various volatility measures and structures, such as the VIX Index, volatility smiles, and volatility surfaces.
- Complex mathematical models for valuation are introduced, including the Wiener Process and Variance-Gamma models.
- The glossary covers regulatory and operational terms like the Volcker Rule and Triple Witching Hour.
- It explains risk management concepts such as Value at Risk and various valuation adjustments known as XVAs.
Triple Witching Hour A term given to the time when stock index futures, stock index options, and options on stock index futures all expire together.
Treasury Note Futures A futures contract on Treasury notes.
Tree Representation of the evolution of the value of a market variable for the
purposes of valuing an option or other derivative.
Trinomial Tree A tree where there are three branches emanating from each node. It is
used in the same way as a binomial tree for valuing derivatives.
Triple Witching Hour A term given to the time when stock index futures, stock index
options, and options on stock index futures all expire together.
Underlying Variable A variable on which the price of an option or other derivative
depends.
Unsystematic Risk See Nonsystematic Risk.
Up-and-In Option An option that comes into existence when the price of the under-
lying asset increases to a prespecified level.
Up-and-Out Option An option that ceases to exist when the price of the underlying
asset increases to a prespecified level.
Uptick An increase in price.
Value at Risk A loss that will not be exceeded at some specified confidence level.
VarianceāCovariance Matrix A matrix showing variances of, and covariances be-
tween, a number of different market variables.
Variance-Gamma Model A pure jump model where small jumps occur often and
large jumps occur infrequently.
Variance Rate The square of volatility.
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Glossary of Terms 849
Variance Reduction Procedures Procedures for reducing the error in a Monte Carlo
simulation.
Variance Swap Swap where the realized variance rate during a period is exchanged
for a fixed variance rate. Both are applied to a notional principal.
Variation Margin Margin paid by one side to the other to reflect changes in the value
of outstanding contracts.
Vega The rate of change in the price of an option or other derivative with volatility.
Vega-Neutral Portfolio A portfolio with a vega of zero.
Vesting Period Period during which an option cannot be exercised.
VIX Index Index of the volatility of the S&P 500.
Volatility A measure of the uncertainty of the return realized on an asset.
Volatility Skew A term used to describe the volatility smile when it is nonsymmetrical.
Volatility Smile The variation of implied volatility with strike price.
Volatility Surface A table showing the variation of implied volatilities with strike price
and time to maturity.
Volatility Swap Swap where the realized volatility during a period is exchanged for a
fixed volatility. Both percentage volatilities are applied to a notional principal.
Volatility Term Structure The variation of implied volatility with time to maturity.
Volcker Rule A rule in the DoddāFrank Act restricting the speculative activities of
banks, proposed by former Federal Reserve Chairman, Paul Volcker.
Warrant An option issued by a company or a financial institution. Call warrants are
frequently issued by companies on their own stock.
Waterfall Rules determining how cash flows from the underlying portfolio are dis-
tributed to tranches.
Weather Derivative Derivative where the payoff depends on the weather.
Weeklys Option created on a Thursday that expires on Friday of the following week.
Wiener Process A stochastic process where the change in a variable during each short
period of time of length āt has a normal distribution with a mean equal to zero and
a variance equal to āt.
Wild Card Play The right to deliver on a futures contract at the closing price for a
period of time after the close of trading.
World Defined by Numeraire X World where market price of risk equals the volatility
of X.
Writing an Option Selling an option.
XVA Valuation adjustments such as FVA, CVA, DVA, MVA, and KVA are collectively
known as XVAs.
Yield A return provided by an instrument.
Yield Curve See Term Structure.
Zero-Coupon Bond A bond that provides no coupons.
Zero-Coupon Interest Rate The interest rate that would be earned on a bond that
provides no coupons.
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850 Glossary of Terms
Financial Definitions and DerivaGem Software
- The text concludes a financial glossary with definitions for complex terms like Wiener processes, XVAs, and zero-coupon yield curves.
- A 'Wild Card Play' is defined as the strategic right to deliver on a futures contract at the closing price after trading has officially ended.
- The DerivaGem 4.00 software is introduced as a tool for readers to value various financial products discussed throughout the book.
- A step-by-step guide explains how to calculate the price and 'Greeks' of an American put option on a currency using a binomial tree.
- The software allows users to perform 'implied volatility' calculations by inputting an option price to solve for the underlying volatility.
The most difficult part of using any software is getting started.
tributed to tranches.
Weather Derivative Derivative where the payoff depends on the weather.
Weeklys Option created on a Thursday that expires on Friday of the following week.
Wiener Process A stochastic process where the change in a variable during each short
period of time of length āt has a normal distribution with a mean equal to zero and
a variance equal to āt.
Wild Card Play The right to deliver on a futures contract at the closing price for a
period of time after the close of trading.
World Defined by Numeraire X World where market price of risk equals the volatility
of X.
Writing an Option Selling an option.
XVA Valuation adjustments such as FVA, CVA, DVA, MVA, and KVA are collectively
known as XVAs.
Yield A return provided by an instrument.
Yield Curve See Term Structure.
Zero-Coupon Bond A bond that provides no coupons.
Zero-Coupon Interest Rate The interest rate that would be earned on a bond that
provides no coupons.
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850 Glossary of Terms
Zero-Coupon Yield Curve A plot of the zero-coupon interest rate against time to
maturity.
Zero Curve See Zero-Coupon Yield Curve.
Zero Rate See Zero-Coupon Interest Rate.
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DerivaGem Software
DerivaGem 4.00 accompanies this book. It enables readers to value many of the
products that are discussed.
Getting Started
The most difficult part of using any software is getting started. Here is a step-by-step
guide to using DerivaGem 4.00 for the first time.
1. Go to www-2.rotman.utoronto.ca/~hull/software and download DerivaGem 4.00. Unzip the file to obtain DG400a.xls, DG400 functions.xls, and DG400 Applica-tions.xls. Open Excel file DG400a.xls.
2. You will need to make sure that macros are enabled. If Enable Content, Enable
Editing or Enable Macros appear at the top of the worksheet click on them. For some versions of Windows and Office, you may need to make sure that security for macros is set at medium or low.
3. Click on the Equity_FX_Indx_Fut_Opts_Calc worksheet at the bottom of the page.
4. Choose Currency as the Underlying Type and Binomial: American as the Option
Type. Click on the Put button. Leave Imply Volatility unchecked.
5. You are now all set to value an American put option on a currency. There are seven inputs: exchange rate, volatility, domestic risk-free rate, foreign risk-free rate, time to expiration (years), exercise price, and time steps. Input these in cells D5, D6, D7 , D8, D13, D14, and D15 as 1.61, 12%, 8%, 9%, 1.0, 1.60, and 4, respectively.
6. Hit Enter on your keyboard and click on Calculate. You will see the price of the
option in cell D20 as 0.07099 and the Greek letters in cells D21 to D25. Part of your screen display should now be as shown on the following page.
7. Click on Display Tree. You will see the binomial tree used to calculate the option. This is Figure 21.6 in Chapter 21 (but with more decimal places).
Next Steps
You should now have no difficulty valuing other types of option on other underlyings with the Equity_FX_Indx_Fut_Opts_Calc worksheet. To imply a volatility, check the
Imply Volatility box and input the option price in cell D20. Hit Enter and click on
Calculate . The implied volatility is displayed in cell D6.
851
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852 DerivaGem Software
Many different charts can be displayed below the results. To display a chart, you
must first choose the variable you require on the vertical (Y) axis, the variable you
require on the horizontal (X) axis, the range of X-values to be considered, and the number of X-values to be considered. Following that, you should click on Draw Graph.
Other points to note about the Equity_FX_Indx_Fut_Opts_Calc worksheet are:
1. For European and American equity options, up to 7 dividends on the underlying
DerivaGem Software Functionality
- The software provides specialized worksheets for valuing equity, FX, index, and future options using various mathematical models.
- Users can generate custom charts by defining X and Y variables, such as plotting implied volatility against strike prices to visualize volatility smiles.
- Greek letters for non-standard options are calculated through input perturbation rather than analytic formulas.
- The Monte Carlo worksheet supports up to 10,000 simulation trials and includes an antithetic variate option to reduce variance.
- Dedicated worksheets for Zero Curves and Swaps allow for OIS discounting and continuous compounding calculations using Actual/Actual day counts.
Greek letters for all options other than standard calls and puts are calculated by perturbing the inputs, not by using analytic formulas.
852 DerivaGem Software
Many different charts can be displayed below the results. To display a chart, you
must first choose the variable you require on the vertical (Y) axis, the variable you
require on the horizontal (X) axis, the range of X-values to be considered, and the number of X-values to be considered. Following that, you should click on Draw Graph.
Other points to note about the Equity_FX_Indx_Fut_Opts_Calc worksheet are:
1. For European and American equity options, up to 7 dividends on the underlying
stock can be input in a table that pops up. Enter the time of each dividend
(measured in years from today) in the first column and the amount of the
dividend in the second column.
2. Up to 500 time steps can be used for the valuation of American options, but only a maximum of 10 time steps can be displayed.
3. Greek letters for all options other than standard calls and puts are calculated by perturbing the inputs, not by using analytic formulas.
4. For an Asian option the Current Average is the average price since inception. For a new deal (with zero time since inception), the current average is irrelevant.
5. In the case of a lookback option, Minimum to Date is used when a call is valued and Maximum to Date is used when a put is valued. For a new deal, these should
be set equal to the current price of the underlying asset.
6. Interest rates are continuously compounded with an Actual/Actual day count.
The Alternative Models worksheet operates like the Equity_FX_Indx_Fut_Opts_Calc
worksheet. Options can be valued using lognormal, CEV , Merton mixed jumpādiffusion,
variance-gamma, Heston, and SABR models. Choose chart where implied volatility is Y-axis and strike price is X-axis to display volatility smiles.
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DerivaGem Software 853
Monte Carlo Simulation
In the Monte Carlo worksheet, users can see how a number of different types of options
are valued using the lognormal, Merton mixed jumpādiffusion, and variance-gamma
models. Up to 10,000 simulation trials can be used. Full results from ten trials are
displayed. When the Do AntiThetic box is checked, these are averaged in pairs to
produce five sample values. When it is not checked, there are ten sample values.
Standard errors from both the full simulation and the ten displayed trials are shown.
Zero Curve
The Zero_Curve worksheet allows you to calculate OIS and Treasury zero curves as
described in Sections 4.7 and 7.2. Bond yields and OIS rates are input with a compound -
ing frequency corresponding to the frequency of payments as in Tables 4.3 and 7.3. The calculated zero rates are continuously compounded. Accrual periods are assumed to be exact fractions of a year and day counts are Actual/Actual.
Swaps
The Swap_Price worksheet allows standard fixed-for-floating interest rate swaps to be
valued using OIS discounting. Points on the OIS zero curve are input with continuous
compounding. (The points could be transferred from the Zero_Curve worksheet.)
DerivaGem Software Functionality
- The Zero_Curve worksheet calculates OIS and Treasury zero curves using continuously compounded rates and Actual/Actual day counts.
- Standard fixed-for-floating interest rate swaps are valued using OIS discounting with inputs for forward rates and settlement frequencies.
- Bond options can be priced using Blackās model, the normal model, or the lognormal model, supporting both European and American styles.
- The software handles complex interest rate derivatives like caps, floors, and swaptions using shifted lognormal and Bachelier models.
- Calculations for bond prices and strikes are performed per $100 of principal, allowing for both clean and dirty price quotes.
The software uses linear interpolation to determine any required zero rates and forward rates that have not been specified.
The Zero_Curve worksheet allows you to calculate OIS and Treasury zero curves as
described in Sections 4.7 and 7.2. Bond yields and OIS rates are input with a compound -
ing frequency corresponding to the frequency of payments as in Tables 4.3 and 7.3. The calculated zero rates are continuously compounded. Accrual periods are assumed to be exact fractions of a year and day counts are Actual/Actual.
Swaps
The Swap_Price worksheet allows standard fixed-for-floating interest rate swaps to be
valued using OIS discounting. Points on the OIS zero curve are input with continuous
compounding. (The points could be transferred from the Zero_Curve worksheet.)
Forward rates for the floating reference rate must also be input. These are forward rates for periods beginning at the specified time and ending one period later, with the length of the period corresponding to the settlement frequency. The forward rates are expressed with a compounding frequency corresponding to the settlement frequency. For a swap where the floating rate is set at the beginning of an accrual period and paid at the end, the Next Floating (%) is the rate per annum that was set on the last reset date. For a swap based on overnight rates, the Next Floating (%) should reflect the overnight rates already observed and the forward rate corresponding to the overnight rates that are still to be observed. Thus, in Example 7.1, the Next Floating (%) would
be input as 2.516% and forward rates for times 0.2 and 0.7 years would be input as 3.388% and 3.714%, respectively. The OIS zeros for maturities 0.2, 0.7, and 1.2 years would be input as 2.8%, 3.2%, and 3.4%, respectively. The Swap End (Years) would be 1.2 and the Swap Rate (%), which is input with a compounding frequency correspond -
ing to the settlement frequency, would be 3%. The software uses linear interpolation to
determine any required zero rates and forward rates that have not been specified.
Bond Options
The general operation of the Bond_Options worksheet is similar to that of earlier
worksheets. The alternative models are Blackās model (see Section 29.1), the normal model of the short rate (see equation (32.4)), and the lognormal model of the short rate
(see equation (32.9)). The first model can be applied only to European options. The other two can be applied to European or American options. The coupon is the rate paid per year and the frequency of payments can be selected as Quarterly, Semi-Annual or Annual. The zero-coupon yield curve is entered in the table labeled Term Structure. Enter maturities (measured in years) in the first column and the corresponding con -
tinuously compounded rates in the second column. DerivaGem assumes a piecewise
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854 DerivaGem Software
linear zero curve similar to that in Figures 4.1 and 7.2. The strike price can be quoted
(clean) or cash (dirty) (see Section 29.1). The quoted bond price, which is calculated by the software, and the strike price, which is input, are per $100 of principal.
Caps and Swaptions
The general operation of the Caps_and Swap_Options worksheet is similar to that of
other worksheets. The worksheet is used to value interest rate caps/floors and swap options. Blackās model for caps and floors is explained in Section 29.2. (The software values caps and floors where the interest rate is observed at the beginning of an accrual period and paid at the end of the accrual period.) Blackās model for European swap options is explained in Section 29.3. The shifted lognormal model and the Bachelier (normal) model are also described in these sections. The frequency of payments can be
selected as Monthly, Quarterly, Semi-Annual, or Annual. The software calculates
DerivaGem Software Functionality
- The software utilizes Black's model, the shifted lognormal model, and the Bachelier model to value interest rate caps, floors, and European swap options.
- The CDS worksheet facilitates the conversion between hazard rates and credit default swap spreads, assuming defaults occur midway between payment dates.
- CDO tranche calculations allow for the determination of spreads and upfront payments based on user-defined attachment points and correlations.
- Greek letters are specifically defined for different asset classes, distinguishing between price sensitivity for equity-based instruments and interest-rate-dependent products.
- The system employs OIS discounting and supports flexible payment frequencies ranging from monthly to annual schedules.
The calculations are carried out assuming that default can occur only at points midway between payment dates.
The general operation of the Caps_and Swap_Options worksheet is similar to that of
other worksheets. The worksheet is used to value interest rate caps/floors and swap options. Blackās model for caps and floors is explained in Section 29.2. (The software values caps and floors where the interest rate is observed at the beginning of an accrual period and paid at the end of the accrual period.) Blackās model for European swap options is explained in Section 29.3. The shifted lognormal model and the Bachelier (normal) model are also described in these sections. The frequency of payments can be
selected as Monthly, Quarterly, Semi-Annual, or Annual. The software calculates
payment dates by working backward from the end of the life of the instrument. The initial accrual period for a cap/floor may be a nonstandard length between 0.5 and 1.5 times a normal accrual period. OIS discounting is used. Data on forward rates for the floating reference rate and OIS zero rates are input in the same way as for the Swaps
worksheet. In the case of swap options, the forward rates are used only to determine the
forward swap rate. If the forward swap rate is known, it is sufficient to input a single forward rate and set it as this rate.
CDSs
The CDS worksheet is used to calculate hazard rates from CDS spreads, and vice versa. Users must input a term structure of interest rates (continuously compounded) and either a term structure of CDS spreads or a term structure of hazard rates. The initial hazard rate applies from time zero to the time specified; the second hazard rate applies from the time corresponding to the first hazard rate to the time corresponding to the second hazard rate; and so on. The calculations are carried out assuming that default can occur only at points midway between payment dates. This corresponds to the
calculations for the example in Section 25.2.
CDOs
The CDO worksheet calculates quotes for the tranches of CDOs from tranche correla -
tions input by the user. The attachment points and detachment points for tranches are input by the user. The quotes can be in basis points or involve an upfront payment. In the latter case, the spread in basis points is fixed and the upfront payment, as a percent of the tranche principal, is either input or implied. (For example, the fixed spread for the equity tranche of iTraxx Europe or CDX NA IG is 500 basis points.) The number of integration points (see equation (25.12)) defines the accuracy of calculations and can be left as 10 for
most purposes (the maximum is 30). The software displays the expected loss as a percent of the tranche principal (ExpLoss) and the present value of expected payments (PVPmts)
at the rate of 10,000 basis points per year. The spread and upfront payment are
ExpLoss * 10,000/PVPmts and ExpLoss ā (Spread * PVPmts/10,000)
respectively. The worksheet can be used to imply either tranche (compound) correla-tions or base correlations from quotes input by the user. For base correlations to be
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DerivaGem Software 855
calculated, it is necessary for the first attachment point to be 0% and the detachment
point for one tranche to be the attachment point for the next tranche.
How Greek Letters Are Defined
In the Equity_FX_Index_Futures worksheet, the Greek letters are defined as follows:
Delta: Change in option price per dollar increase in underlying asset
Gamma: Change in delta per dollar increase in underlying asset
Vega: Change in option price per 1% increase in volatility (e.g., volatility increases from 20% to 21%)
Rho: Change in option price per 1% increase in interest rate (e.g., interest
increases from 5% to 6%)
Theta: Change in option price per calendar day passing.
For instruments dependent on interest rates, the Greek letters are defined as follows:
DV01: Change in option price per 1 -basis-point upward parallel shift in the zero
curve
Options Greeks and Resources
- The text defines the 'Greeks'āDelta, Gamma, Vega, Rho, and Thetaāwhich measure how option prices react to changes in underlying assets, volatility, interest rates, and time.
- Specific risk metrics like DV01 are introduced for interest-rate-dependent instruments to measure sensitivity to shifts in the zero curve.
- The DerivaGem Application Builder software is highlighted as a tool for modeling binomial convergence, delta hedging performance, and Value at Risk.
- A comprehensive directory of global futures and options exchanges is provided, spanning markets from Australia and Brazil to India and China.
- The section includes a mathematical reference table for the cumulative normal distribution function, essential for calculating option probabilities and pricing.
This investigations the performance of delta plus gamma hedging for a position in a binary option.
Delta: Change in option price per dollar increase in underlying asset
Gamma: Change in delta per dollar increase in underlying asset
Vega: Change in option price per 1% increase in volatility (e.g., volatility increases from 20% to 21%)
Rho: Change in option price per 1% increase in interest rate (e.g., interest
increases from 5% to 6%)
Theta: Change in option price per calendar day passing.
For instruments dependent on interest rates, the Greek letters are defined as follows:
DV01: Change in option price per 1 -basis-point upward parallel shift in the zero
curve
Gamma: Change in DV01 for an upward parallel shift in the zero curve (Gamma is per % per %)
Vega: Change in option price when volatility parameter increases by 1% (e.g.,
volatility increases from 20% to 21%).
The Applications Builder
Once you are familiar with the Options calculator (DG400a.xls), you may want to start using the Application Builder (DG400 applications.xls). You can also develop your own
applications with DG400 functions.xls. This contains the functions underlying Deriva -
Gem with VBA source code. The applications included with the software are:
A. Binomial Convergence. This investigates the convergence of the binomial model in Chapters 13 and 21.
B. Greek Letters. This provides charts showing the Greek letters in Chapter 19.
C. Delta Hedge. This investigates the performance of delta hedging as in Tables 19.2 and 19.3.
D. Delta and Gamma Hedge. This investigates the performance of delta plus gamma hedging for a position in a binary option.
E. Value and Risk. This calculates Value at Risk for a portfolio using three different approaches.
F. Barrier Replication. This carries out calculations for static options replication (see Section 26.17).
G. Trinomial Convergence. This investigates the convergence of a trinomial tree model.
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856Exchanges Trading
Futures and Options
Australian Securities Exchange (ASX) www.asx.com.au
B3, Brazil www.b3.com.br
Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) www.bseindia.com
Boston Options Exchange (BOX) www.bostonoptions.com
Bursa Malaysia (BM) www.bursamalaysia.com
Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE) www.cboe.comChina Financial Futures Exchange (CFFEX) www.cffex.com.cn
CME Group www.cmegroup.com
Dalian Commodity Exchange (DCE) www.dce.com.cnEurex www.eurexchange.com
Hong Kong Futures Exchange (HKFE) www.hkex.com.hk
Intercontinental Exchange (ICE) www.theice.com
Japan Exchange Group www.jpx.co.jp
London Metal Exchange (LME) www.lme.co.uk
MEFF Renta Fija and Variable, Spain www.meff.es
Mexican Derivatives Exchange (MEXDER) www.mexder.com.mxMinneapolis Grain Exchange (MGE) www.mgex.com
Montreal Exchange (ME) www.m-x.ca
Nasdaq International Securities Exchange (ISE) www.nasdaq.comNational Stock Exchange of India (NSE) www.nseindia.com
NYSE Euronext www.nyse.com
Shanghai Futures Exchange (SHFE) www.shfe.com.cn
Singapore Exchange (SGX) www.sgx.com
Tokyo Financial Exchange (TFX) www.tfx.co.jp
Zhengzhou Commodity Exchange (ZCE) www.zce.cn
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857Table for N1x2 When xā¦0
This table shows values of N1x2 for xā¦0. The table should be used with interpolation. For example,
N1-0.12342=N1-0.122-0.343N1-0.122-N1-0.1324
=0.4522-0.34*10.4522-0.44832
=0.4509
x .00 .01 .02 .03 .04 .05 .06 .07 .08 .09
-0.0 0.5000 0.4960 0.4920 0.4880 0.4840 0.4801 0.4761 0.4721 0.4681 0.4641
-0.1 0.4602 0.4562 0.4522 0.4483 0.4443 0.4404 0.4364 0.4325 0.4286 0.4247
-0.2 0.4207 0.4168 0.4129 0.4090 0.4052 0.4013 0.3974 0.3936 0.3897 0.3859
-0.3 0.3821 0.3783 0.3745 0.3707 0.3669 0.3632 0.3594 0.3557 0.3520 0.3483
-0.4 0.3446 0.3409 0.3372 0.3336 0.3300 0.3264 0.3228 0.3192 0.3156 0.3121
-0.5 0.3085 0.3050 0.3015 0.2981 0.2946 0.2912 0.2877 0.2843 0.2810 0.2776
-0.6 0.2743 0.2709 0.2676 0.2643 0.2611 0.2578 0.2546 0.2514 0.2483 0.2451
-0.7 0.2420 0.2389 0.2358 0.2327 0.2296 0.2266 0.2236 0.2206 0.2177 0.2148
Standard Normal Distribution Tables
- The text provides a comprehensive cumulative probability table for the standard normal distribution, covering both negative and positive z-scores.
- The first section details probabilities for negative values of x, ranging from -0.1 down to -4.0, where the probability approaches zero.
- The second section provides values for positive x, starting at 0.5000 for x=0 and increasing as x moves further from the mean.
- A specific mathematical example demonstrates how to use linear interpolation to find precise values between the provided table entries.
- The data is formatted for high-precision statistical analysis, typically used in fields like finance, engineering, or social sciences.
The table should be used with interpolation.
-0.1 0.4602 0.4562 0.4522 0.4483 0.4443 0.4404 0.4364 0.4325 0.4286 0.4247
-0.2 0.4207 0.4168 0.4129 0.4090 0.4052 0.4013 0.3974 0.3936 0.3897 0.3859
-0.3 0.3821 0.3783 0.3745 0.3707 0.3669 0.3632 0.3594 0.3557 0.3520 0.3483
-0.4 0.3446 0.3409 0.3372 0.3336 0.3300 0.3264 0.3228 0.3192 0.3156 0.3121
-0.5 0.3085 0.3050 0.3015 0.2981 0.2946 0.2912 0.2877 0.2843 0.2810 0.2776
-0.6 0.2743 0.2709 0.2676 0.2643 0.2611 0.2578 0.2546 0.2514 0.2483 0.2451
-0.7 0.2420 0.2389 0.2358 0.2327 0.2296 0.2266 0.2236 0.2206 0.2177 0.2148
-0.8 0.2119 0.2090 0.2061 0.2033 0.2005 0.1977 0.1949 0.1922 0.1894 0.1867
-0.9 0.1841 0.1814 0.1788 0.1762 0.1736 0.1711 0.1685 0.1660 0.1635 0.1611
-1.0 0.1587 0.1562 0.1539 0.1515 0.1492 0.1469 0.1446 0.1423 0.1401 0.1379
-1.1 0.1357 0.1335 0.1314 0.1292 0.1271 0.1251 0.1230 0.1210 0.1190 0.1170
-1.2 0.1151 0.1131 0.1112 0.1093 0.1075 0.1056 0.1038 0.1020 0.1003 0.0985
-1.3 0.0968 0.0951 0.0934 0.0918 0.0901 0.0885 0.0869 0.0853 0.0838 0.0823
-1.4 0.0808 0.0793 0.0778 0.0764 0.0749 0.0735 0.0721 0.0708 0.0694 0.0681
-1.5 0.0668 0.0655 0.0643 0.0630 0.0618 0.0606 0.0594 0.0582 0.0571 0.0559
-1.6 0.0548 0.0537 0.0526 0.0516 0.0505 0.0495 0.0485 0.0475 0.0465 0.0455
-1.7 0.0446 0.0436 0.0427 0.0418 0.0409 0.0401 0.0392 0.0384 0.0375 0.0367
-1.8 0.0359 0.0351 0.0344 0.0336 0.0329 0.0322 0.0314 0.0307 0.0301 0.0294
-1.9 0.0287 0.0281 0.0274 0.0268 0.0262 0.0256 0.0250 0.0244 0.0239 0.0233
-2.0 0.0228 0.0222 0.0217 0.0212 0.0207 0.0202 0.0197 0.0192 0.0188 0.0183
-2.1 0.0179 0.0174 0.0170 0.0166 0.0162 0.0158 0.0154 0.0150 0.0146 0.0143
-2.2 0.0139 0.0136 0.0132 0.0129 0.0125 0.0122 0.0119 0.0116 0.0113 0.0110
-2.3 0.0107 0.0104 0.0102 0.0099 0.0096 0.0094 0.0091 0.0089 0.0087 0.0084
-2.4 0.0082 0.0080 0.0078 0.0075 0.0073 0.0071 0.0069 0.0068 0.0066 0.0064
-2.5 0.0062 0.0060 0.0059 0.0057 0.0055 0.0054 0.0052 0.0051 0.0049 0.0048
-2.6 0.0047 0.0045 0.0044 0.0043 0.0041 0.0040 0.0039 0.0038 0.0037 0.0036
-2.7 0.0035 0.0034 0.0033 0.0032 0.0031 0.0030 0.0029 0.0028 0.0027 0.0026
-2.8 0.0026 0.0025 0.0024 0.0023 0.0023 0.0022 0.0021 0.0021 0.0020 0.0019
-2.9 0.0019 0.0018 0.0018 0.0017 0.0016 0.0016 0.0015 0.0015 0.0014 0.0014
-3.0 0.0014 0.0013 0.0013 0.0012 0.0012 0.0011 0.0011 0.0011 0.0010 0.0010
-3.1 0.0010 0.0009 0.0009 0.0009 0.0008 0.0008 0.0008 0.0008 0.0007 0.0007
-3.2 0.0007 0.0007 0.0006 0.0006 0.0006 0.0006 0.0006 0.0005 0.0005 0.0005
-3.3 0.0005 0.0005 0.0005 0.0004 0.0004 0.0004 0.0004 0.0004 0.0004 0.0003
-3.4 0.0003 0.0003 0.0003 0.0003 0.0003 0.0003 0.0003 0.0003 0.0003 0.0002
-3.5 0.0002 0.0002 0.0002 0.0002 0.0002 0.0002 0.0002 0.0002 0.0002 0.0002
-3.6 0.0002 0.0002 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001
-3.7 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001
-3.8 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001 0.0001
-3.9 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000
-4.0 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000 0.0000
Z04_HULL0654_11_GE_TBLS.indd 857 30/04/2021 17:58
858Table for N1x2 When xĆ0
This table shows values of N1x2 for xĆ0. The table should be used with interpolation. For example,
N10.62782=N10.622+0.783N10.632-N10.6224
=0.7324+0.78*10.7357-0.73242
=0.7350
x .00 .01 .02 .03 .04 .05 .06 .07 .08 .09
0.0 0.5000 0.5040 0.5080 0.5120 0.5160 0.5199 0.5239 0.5279 0.5319 0.5359
0.1 0.5398 0.5438 0.5478 0.5517 0.5557 0.5596 0.5636 0.5675 0.5714 0.5753
0.2 0.5793 0.5832 0.5871 0.5910 0.5948 0.5987 0.6026 0.6064 0.6103 0.6141
0.3 0.6179 0.6217 0.6255 0.6293 0.6331 0.6368 0.6406 0.6443 0.6480 0.6517
0.4 0.6554 0.6591 0.6628 0.6664 0.6700 0.6736 0.6772 0.6808 0.6844 0.6879
0.5 0.6915 0.6950 0.6985 0.7019 0.7054 0.7088 0.7123 0.7157 0.7190 0.7224
0.6 0.7257 0.7291 0.7324 0.7357 0.7389 0.7422 0.7454 0.7486 0.7517 0.7549
0.7 0.7580 0.7611 0.7642 0.7673 0.7704 0.7734 0.7764 0.7794 0.7823 0.7852
Statistical Tables and Author Index
- The text provides a standard normal distribution table, mapping Z-scores from 0.1 to 4.0 to their cumulative probabilities.
- The data shows the asymptotic approach to a probability of 1.0000 as the Z-score reaches 3.9 and 4.0.
- Following the statistical data is a partial author index, listing prominent researchers in finance and mathematics.
- Notable figures included in the index are Fischer Black, known for the Black-Scholes model, and other contributors to derivative pricing and risk management.
Black, F., 258, 338, 363, 364, 401, 408, 414, 704, 735, 736, 752
0.1 0.5398 0.5438 0.5478 0.5517 0.5557 0.5596 0.5636 0.5675 0.5714 0.5753
0.2 0.5793 0.5832 0.5871 0.5910 0.5948 0.5987 0.6026 0.6064 0.6103 0.6141
0.3 0.6179 0.6217 0.6255 0.6293 0.6331 0.6368 0.6406 0.6443 0.6480 0.6517
0.4 0.6554 0.6591 0.6628 0.6664 0.6700 0.6736 0.6772 0.6808 0.6844 0.6879
0.5 0.6915 0.6950 0.6985 0.7019 0.7054 0.7088 0.7123 0.7157 0.7190 0.7224
0.6 0.7257 0.7291 0.7324 0.7357 0.7389 0.7422 0.7454 0.7486 0.7517 0.7549
0.7 0.7580 0.7611 0.7642 0.7673 0.7704 0.7734 0.7764 0.7794 0.7823 0.7852
0.8 0.7881 0.7910 0.7939 0.7967 0.7995 0.8023 0.8051 0.8078 0.8106 0.8133
0.9 0.8159 0.8186 0.8212 0.8238 0.8264 0.8289 0.8315 0.8340 0.8365 0.8389
1.0 0.8413 0.8438 0.8461 0.8485 0.8508 0.8531 0.8554 0.8577 0.8599 0.8621
1.1 0.8643 0.8665 0.8686 0.8708 0.8729 0.8749 0.8770 0.8790 0.8810 0.8830
1.2 0.8849 0.8869 0.8888 0.8907 0.8925 0.8944 0.8962 0.8980 0.8997 0.9015
1.3 0.9032 0.9049 0.9066 0.9082 0.9099 0.9115 0.9131 0.9147 0.9162 0.9177
1.4 0.9192 0.9207 0.9222 0.9236 0.9251 0.9265 0.9279 0.9292 0.9306 0.9319
1.5 0.9332 0.9345 0.9357 0.9370 0.9382 0.9394 0.9406 0.9418 0.9429 0.9441
1.6 0.9452 0.9463 0.9474 0.9484 0.9495 0.9505 0.9515 0.9525 0.9535 0.9545
1.7 0.9554 0.9564 0.9573 0.9582 0.9591 0.9599 0.9608 0.9616 0.9625 0.9633
1.8 0.9641 0.9649 0.9656 0.9664 0.9671 0.9678 0.9686 0.9693 0.9699 0.9706
1.9 0.9713 0.9719 0.9726 0.9732 0.9738 0.9744 0.9750 0.9756 0.9761 0.9767
2.0 0.9772 0.9778 0.9783 0.9788 0.9793 0.9798 0.9803 0.9808 0.9812 0.9817
2.1 0.9821 0.9826 0.9830 0.9834 0.9838 0.9842 0.9846 0.9850 0.9854 0.9857
2.2 0.9861 0.9864 0.9868 0.9871 0.9875 0.9878 0.9881 0.9884 0.9887 0.9890
2.3 0.9893 0.9896 0.9898 0.9901 0.9904 0.9906 0.9909 0.9911 0.9913 0.9916
2.4 0.9918 0.9920 0.9922 0.9925 0.9927 0.9929 0.9931 0.9932 0.9934 0.9936
2.5 0.9938 0.9940 0.9941 0.9943 0.9945 0.9946 0.9948 0.9949 0.9951 0.9952
2.6 0.9953 0.9955 0.9956 0.9957 0.9959 0.9960 0.9961 0.9962 0.9963 0.9964
2.7 0.9965 0.9966 0.9967 0.9968 0.9969 0.9970 0.9971 0.9972 0.9973 0.9974
2.8 0.9974 0.9975 0.9976 0.9977 0.9977 0.9978 0.9979 0.9979 0.9980 0.9981
2.9 0.9981 0.9982 0.9982 0.9983 0.9984 0.9984 0.9985 0.9985 0.9986 0.9986
3.0 0.9986 0.9987 0.9987 0.9988 0.9988 0.9989 0.9989 0.9989 0.9990 0.9990
3.1 0.9990 0.9991 0.9991 0.9991 0.9992 0.9992 0.9992 0.9992 0.9993 0.9993
3.2 0.9993 0.9993 0.9994 0.9994 0.9994 0.9994 0.9994 0.9995 0.9995 0.9995
3.3 0.9995 0.9995 0.9995 0.9996 0.9996 0.9996 0.9996 0.9996 0.9996 0.9997
3.4 0.9997 0.9997 0.9997 0.9997 0.9997 0.9997 0.9997 0.9997 0.9997 0.9998
3.5 0.9998 0.9998 0.9998 0.9998 0.9998 0.9998 0.9998 0.9998 0.9998 0.9998
3.6 0.9998 0.9998 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999
3.7 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999
3.8 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999 0.9999
3.9 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000
4.0 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000 1 .0000
Z04_HULL0654_11_GE_TBLS.indd 858 30/04/2021 17:58
859 Author Index
Adam, T., 92
Aitchison, J., 340
Alexandris, A. K., 799
Allayannis, G., 92
Alm, J., 196
Altman, E. I., 564, 583
Amato, J. D., 569
Amran, M., 813
Andersen, L. B. G., 221, 225, 608, 609, 610,
650, 653, 664, 665, 666, 764, 767 , 768, 770
Andreasen, J., 764, 767 , 768, 770
Ang, A., 609
Antikarov, V ., 814
Areal, N., 361
Artzner, P ., 516, 538
Bakshi, G., 463
Bartter, B., 308, 509, 721
Basak, S., 538
Basu, S., 608, 610
Bates, D. S., 463Baxter, M., 685
Beaglehole, D. R., 798, 800
Berndt, A., 120
Bharadwaj, A., 285
Biger, N., 397
Black, F., 258, 338, 363, 364, 401, 408, 414, 704,
735, 736, 752
Blattberg, R., 364
Bodie, Z., 397
Bodurtha, J. N., 666
Bollerslev, T., 546, 559
Boudoukh, J., 538
Box, G. E. P ., 552
Boyd, M. E., 48
Boyle, P . P ., 509, 656, 666
Brace, A., 758, 764, 770
Brady, B., 564, 583Brealey, R. A., 332Breeden, D. T., 467
Brigo, D., 752
Quantitative Finance Author Index
- This section serves as a comprehensive author index for a technical textbook on derivatives and risk management.
- Prominent figures in financial economics such as Fischer Black, John Hull, and Robert Engle are cited across numerous chapters.
- The index tracks foundational research in volatility modeling, option pricing, and interest rate theory.
- Multiple entries for specific authors like John Hull suggest a self-referential academic structure or a synthesis of his own extensive research.
Black, F., 258, 338, 363, 364, 401, 408, 414, 704, 735, 736, 752
Artzner, P ., 516, 538
Bakshi, G., 463
Bartter, B., 308, 509, 721
Basak, S., 538
Basu, S., 608, 610
Bates, D. S., 463Baxter, M., 685
Beaglehole, D. R., 798, 800
Berndt, A., 120
Bharadwaj, A., 285
Biger, N., 397
Black, F., 258, 338, 363, 364, 401, 408, 414, 704,
735, 736, 752
Blattberg, R., 364
Bodie, Z., 397
Bodurtha, J. N., 666
Bollerslev, T., 546, 559
Boudoukh, J., 538
Box, G. E. P ., 552
Boyd, M. E., 48
Boyle, P . P ., 509, 656, 666
Brace, A., 758, 764, 770
Brady, B., 564, 583Brealey, R. A., 332Breeden, D. T., 467
Brigo, D., 752
Broadie, M., 264, 510, 622, 625, 665
Brotherton-Ratcliffe, R., 498, 650, 666, 715
Brown, G. W., 92
Brown, J. A. C., 340
Buehler, H. 443
Buffum, D., 653
Burghardt, G., 168
Campbell, J. Y., 92
Campello, M., 92
Canter, M. S., 92, 800
Cao, C., 463
Cao, J., 443, 445, 457
Cao, M., 799
Carpenter, J., 381
Carr, P ., 630, 635, 644, 667
Chance, D., 783
Chancellor, E., 41Chang, E. C., 644, 667
Chaput, J. S., 285
Chen, J., 443, 445, 457 , 609
Chen, R.-R., 413
Chen, Z., 463
Chesney, M., 622
Chicago Board Options Exchange, 243
Clewlow, L., 509, 635, 799
Cole, J. B., 800
Cootner, P . H., 332
Copeland, T., 814
Corb, H., 196
Core, J. E., 381
Cornwall, J., 622
Cotter, J., 92
Coval, J. D., 308
Cox, D. R., 332
Z05_HULL0654_11_GE_AIDX.indd 859 30/04/2021 17:59
860 Author Index
Cox, J. C., 148, 308, 364, 472, 509, 641, 666,
685, 723, 729, 745
Crescenzi, A., 120
Culp, C., 92
Cumby, R., 559
Daglish, T., 463
Das, S., 609, 610
Dasgupta, S., 92
Delbaen, F., 516, 538
Demeterfi, K., 630, 635
Derman, E., 458, 463, 630, 632, 635, 649, 650,
666, 735, 752
Detemple, J., 264
Dick-Nielsen, J., 569
Dowd, K., 538
Duan, J.-C., 647 , 666
Dufey, G., 397
Duffie, D., 57 , 66, 120, 221, 225, 538, 583, 685,
771
Dunbar, N., 826Dupire, B., 649, 650, 666
Eber, J.-M., 516, 538
Ederington, L. H., 285, 463
Edwards, D. W., 799
Edwards, F. R., 92
El Euch, O., 649, 666
Embrechts, P ., 538
Engle, R. F., 544, 546, 550, 558, 559
Ergener, D., 632, 635
Eydeland, A., 794, 799
Fabozzi, F. J., 120, 667
Fama, E. F., 346, 364, 364
Feldhütter, P ., 569
Feller, W., 332
Fernando, C. S., 92
Figlewski, S., 488, 509, 559, 658, 666
Finger, C. C., 583
Flannery, B. P ., 498, 509, 549, 750
Flavell, R., 196Freed, L., 609
French, K. R., 346, 364
Froot, K. A., 800
Fuller, M. J., 48
Gao, B., 488, 509, 658, 666
Garman, M. B., 397 , 623
Gastineau, G. L., 66
Gatarek, D., 758, 764, 770
Gatheral, J., 648, 649, 666
Gatto, M. A., 623, 635
Geman, H., 794, 799
Geng, G., 609
Geske, R., 363, 619, 635
Gibson, R., 794, 799
Giddy, I. H., 397
Glasserman, P ., 510, 622, 625Glau, K., 747
Goedhard, M., 814
Goldman, B., 623, 635
Gonedes, N., 364
Gonon, L., 443
Gorton, G., 213
Grabbe, J. O., 397
Graham, J. R., 92
Grbac, Z., 747
Green, A.D., 225
Gregory, J., 225, 583, 611
Grinblatt, M., 120, 168
Guan, W., 463
Guay, W. R., 381
Hagan, P ., 647 , 666
Hanly, J., 92
Harrison, J. M., 685
Hasbrook, J., 559
Haushalter, G. D., 92
Heath, D., 516, 538, 755, 771Henrard, M.P .A., 164, 168
Heron, R., 380, 381
Heston, S. L., 647 , 666, 722
Hicks, J. R., 145
Ho, T. S. Y., 732, 752
Hoskins, W., 168
Huddart, S., 381
Hull, J. C., 41, 66, 96, 210, 212, 213, 374,
375, 378, 381, 397 , 436, 443, 445, 457 , 460, 463, 483, 496, 507 , 509, 510, 516, 534, 538,
566, 567 , 581, 583, 597 , 608, 609, 610, 611,
647 , 650, 654, 659, 660, 666, 704, 727 , 728,
734, 736, 740, 745, 747 , 752, 762, 764, 767 ,
771, 221, 225
Iben, B., 715Ingersoll, J. E., 148, 651, 685, 723, 729, 745
ItƓ, K., 327
Jackson, P ., 538
Jackwerth, J. C., 463Jain, G., 510
Jaisson, T., 648, 666
Jamshidian, F., 533, 538, 715, 758, 771
Jarrow, R. A., 148, 755, 771
Jeanblanc-Picque, M., 622
Jegadeesh, N., 168
Jermakyan, M., 666
Jin, Y., 92
Jorion, P ., 66, 92, 120, 538, 826
Johannes, M., 196
Kamal, E., 630, 635
Kan, R., 771
Kane, A., 559
Kani, I., 632, 635, 649, 650, 666
Kapadia, N., 609
Quantitative Finance Author Index
- The text provides a comprehensive index of authors and researchers who have contributed to the field of quantitative finance and derivatives.
- Prominent figures such as Robert Merton, Myron Scholes, and Fischer Black are represented through their foundational work in option pricing and risk management.
- The index tracks specific page references for complex topics including the Black-Scholes-Merton model, interest rate modeling, and credit risk.
- A significant number of citations are dedicated to contemporary researchers like Alan White and John Hull, reflecting their extensive contributions to financial engineering textbooks.
Merton, R. C., 41, 258, 264, 338, 364, 390, 397 , 570, 583, 642, 667
647 , 650, 654, 659, 660, 666, 704, 727 , 728,
734, 736, 740, 745, 747 , 752, 762, 764, 767 ,
771, 221, 225
Iben, B., 715Ingersoll, J. E., 148, 651, 685, 723, 729, 745
ItƓ, K., 327
Jackson, P ., 538
Jackwerth, J. C., 463Jain, G., 510
Jaisson, T., 648, 666
Jamshidian, F., 533, 538, 715, 758, 771
Jarrow, R. A., 148, 755, 771
Jeanblanc-Picque, M., 622
Jegadeesh, N., 168
Jermakyan, M., 666
Jin, Y., 92
Jorion, P ., 66, 92, 120, 538, 826
Johannes, M., 196
Kamal, E., 630, 635
Kan, R., 771
Kane, A., 559
Kani, I., 632, 635, 649, 650, 666
Kapadia, N., 609
Karasinski, P ., 736, 752
Z05_HULL0654_11_GE_AIDX.indd 860 30/04/2021 17:59
Author Index 861
Karlin, S., 332
Kealhofer, S., 583
Kentwell, G., 622
Kenyon, C., 225
Keynes, J. M., 145
Keys, B. J., 207 , 213
Kim, S., 667
Kleinman, G., 66
Kluppelberg, C., 538
Kohlhagen, S. W., 397
Koller, T., 814
Kolm, P .N., 443
Kon, S. J., 364
Kou, S. G., 622, 625
Kounchev, O., 667
Kreps, D. M., 685
Krinsman, A. N., 214
Kulatilaka, N., 813
Kumar, D., 647 , 666
Kwok, Y. K., 625Lando, D., 569
Lang, M., 381
Lau, S. H., 656, 666
Laurent, J.-P ., 611
Lee, R., 630, 635
Lee, S.-B., 732, 752
Lesniewski, A., 647 , 666
Li, D. X., 583, 611
Lie, E., 380, 381
Lieu, D., 413
Lin, C., 92
Lindskog, F., 196
Litzenberger, R. H., 196, 467 , 798, 800
Ljung, G. M., 552
Longin, F. M., 538
Longstaff, F. A., 120, 662, 666, 728, 729, 767 ,
768, 813
Lowenstein, R., 66
Lyashenko, A., 771Ma, Y., 92
MacCaulay, F., 113
Madan, D. B., 644, 646, 667
Mandelbrot, B., 332
Margrabe, W., 628, 635
Markowitz, H., 524
Marshall, C., 539
Maude, D. J., 538
McMillan, L. G., 285
Melick, W. R., 463
Mello, A. S., 92
Memmel, C., 196
Mercurio, F. 752, 771
Merton, R. C., 41, 258, 264, 338, 364, 390, 397 ,
570, 583, 642, 667
Mezrich, J., 550, 558, 559Mian, A., 214
Mikosch, T., 538
Milanov, K., 667
Miller, H. D., 332Miller, M. H., 41, 92, 226Miltersen, K. R., 758, 771
Mintz, D., 494
Modigliani, F. 226Moon, M., 816, 814Morton, A., 755, 771
Mukherjee, T., 207 , 213
Mun, J., 814
Musiela, M., 758, 764, 770
Neftci, S., 539Nelson, D., 546Neuberger, A. J., 92Newsome, J. E., 48
Ng, V ., 546, 559
Noh, J., 559Oldfield, G. S., 148Pan, J., 538
Panaretou, A., 66
Parsons, J. E., 92Passarelli, D., 446Perraudin, W., 538
Persaud, A. D., 826
Petersen, M. A., 92Piterbarg, V ., 770
Pliska, S. R., 685
Poulos, Z., 443, 445Predescu, M., 566, 567 , 583, 609Press, W. H., 498, 509, 549, 750Purnanandan, A., 196
Rachev, S.T., 667
Rebonato, R., 667 , 752, 771
Reiner, E., 635, 715
Reiswich, D., 463Remolona, E. M., 569Renault, O., 609Rendleman, R. J., 92, 166, 285, 308, 509, 721
Rennie, A., 685
Resti, A., 564, 583Reynolds, C. E., 798, 800
Rich, D., 539, 783
Richard, S., 148Richardson, M., 364, 538Ritchken, P ., 667
Ritter, G., 443
Rodrigues, A., 361Roll, R., 346, 363, 364Ronn, A. G., 285Ronn, E. I., 285
Roper, R., 826
Rosenbaum, M., 648, 649, 666
Z05_HULL0654_11_GE_AIDX.indd 861 30/04/2021 17:59
862 Author Index
Tavakoli, J. M., 611
Taylor, H. M., 332
Taylor, P . A., 66
Teichmann, J., 443
Tett, G., 214, 826
Teukolsky, S. A., 498, 509, 549, 750
Thiagarajan, S. R., 92
Thomas, C. P ., 463
Tilley, J. A., 661, 667
Titman, S., 92
Todd, R., 66
Toy, W., 735, 752
Trevor, R., 667
Trigeorgis, L., 814
Tufano, P ., 92
Turnbull, S. M., 626, 635, 771
Vasicek, O. A., 581, 583, 722, 729
Vetterling, W. T., 498, 509, 549, 750
Viciera, L. M., 92
Vig, V ., 207 , 213Wakeman, L. M., 626, 635
Wang, G. H. F., 48
Wei, J., 799
Wessels, D., 814
Weston, J., 92
Whaley, R., 363
White, A., 210, 213, 221, 225, 374, 375, 378,
381, 436, 460, 463, 483, 496, 507 , 509, 510, 534, 538, 566, 567 , 583, 597 , 608, 609, 610,
611, 647 , 654, 659, 660, 666, 704, 727 , 728,
734, 736, 740, 745, 747 , 752, 762, 764, 767 ,
771
Whitelaw, R., 538Wiggins, J. B., 285
Wilmott, P ., 510
Wolyniec, K., 799
Wong, H.Y., 625
Wood, B., 443
Woodward, D., 647 , 666Wystup, U., 463
Xie, Z., 771
Financial Index and Glossary
- The text provides an extensive author index citing prominent financial researchers such as Myron Scholes and Robert Merton.
- A comprehensive subject index covers complex financial instruments including American options, Asian options, and asset-backed securities.
- The document includes references to significant historical financial failures and scandals, such as Amaranth and Allied Irish Bank.
- Technical valuation methods like the Monte Carlo simulation, binomial trees, and the Black-Scholes approximation are detailed for various derivatives.
References to items in the Glossary of Terms are bolded .
Viciera, L. M., 92
Vig, V ., 207 , 213Wakeman, L. M., 626, 635
Wang, G. H. F., 48
Wei, J., 799
Wessels, D., 814
Weston, J., 92
Whaley, R., 363
White, A., 210, 213, 221, 225, 374, 375, 378,
381, 436, 460, 463, 483, 496, 507 , 509, 510, 534, 538, 566, 567 , 583, 597 , 608, 609, 610,
611, 647 , 654, 659, 660, 666, 704, 727 , 728,
734, 736, 740, 745, 747 , 752, 762, 764, 767 ,
771
Whitelaw, R., 538Wiggins, J. B., 285
Wilmott, P ., 510
Wolyniec, K., 799
Wong, H.Y., 625
Wood, B., 443
Woodward, D., 647 , 666Wystup, U., 463
Xie, Z., 771
Yermack, D., 380, 381
Yor, M., 622
Zagst, R. 747
Zapranis, A. D., 799
Zhu, H., 57 , 66
Zhu, Y., 120, 533, 538
Zimmerman, T., 214
Zingales, L., 41
Zou, H. 92
Zou, J., 630, 635Ross, S. A., 148, 308, 364, 472, 509, 641, 666,
675, 685, 723, 729, 745
Routledge, B. R., 148
Rubinstein, M., 308, 463, 472, 509, 619, 628,
635, 649, 650, 660, 667
Sandmann, K., 758, 771
Sandor, R. L., 800
Santa-Clara, P ., 768
Scherer, M., 747
Schertler, A., 196
Schofield, N. C., 799
Scholes, M., 258, 338, 364
Schoenbucher, P . J., 611
Schrimpf, A. 120
Schwartz, E. S., 662, 666, 728, 729, 767 , 768,
794, 799, 807 , 813, 814
Scott, L., 413
Seppi, D. J., 148
Serfaty-de Medeiros, K., 92
Seru, A., 207 , 213Sevigny, A., 609
Shackleton, M. B., 66
Shapiro, A., 538
Shreve, S. E, 308, 332
Shumway, T., 308
Sidenius, J., 608, 609, 610
Siegel, J.J., 715
Siegel, M., 539
Singleton, K., 583
Sironi, A., 564, 583
Smith, C. W., 92, 364
Smith, D. J., 66, 782, 783
Smith, T., 364
Sobolā , I. M., 498
Sokol, A., 727
Sondermann, D., 758, 771
Song, Y., 221, 225
Sorkin, A. R., 214, 826
Sosin, H., 623, 635Spatt, C. S., 148
Stanton, R., 727
Stigum, M., 120
Stoll, H. R., 264
Strickland, C., 509, 635, 799
Stulz, R. M., 92, 635
Stutzer, M., 667
Sufi, A., 214
Sundaresan, S., 148, 196
Suo, W., 463, 650, 666
Sushko, V ., 120
Taleb, N. N., 446
Z05_HULL0654_11_GE_AIDX.indd 862 30/04/2021 17:59
863 Subject Index
Abandonment option, 806ā807, 808
ABS, 202ā204, 599, 827
ABS CDO, 204ā205, 827
ABX index, 208
Accounting, 63, 374ā375
Accrual fraction, 697, 702
Accrual swap, 195, 779, 827
Accrued interest, 154ā155, 827
Adaptive mesh model, 488, 827
valuing barrier option, 658
Add-up basket credit default swap, 597
Adjustable rate mortgages (ARMS), 206
Agency costs, 210ā211, 373, 827
Agency mortgage-backed security, 768ā770,
827
Agricultural products, 785ā786
AIG, 575, 590
Allied Irish Bank, 815ā816
Allied Lyons, 817
Amaranth, 815ā816Amazon.com, 807
American option, 31, 227, 827
analytic approximation to prices, 470binomial tree, 470ā489
Blackās approximation, 363
early exercise, 229, 257ā259, 360ā362
effect of dividends, 262ā263, 360ā362
future options compared to spot options,
412
Monte Carlo simulation and, 660ā665
nonstandard, 616
option on a dividend-paying stock, 262ā263,
360ā362
option on a non-dividend-paying stock,
257ā260
putācall relationship, 255ā257, 263
Amortizing swap, 195, 773, 827References to items in the Glossary of Terms are bolded .
Analy tic result, 827
Antithetic variable technique, 496
Apple, 32ā33
Arbitrage, 827
Arbitrage pricing theory (APT), 675Arbitrageur, 39, 827ARCH model, 544ASC, 63
Asian option, 626ā627, 653ā656, 827
Ask price, 25, 236, 827Asked price, 827Asset-backed security, 202ā204, 599, 827Asset-liability management (ALM), 118ā119,
167
Asset-or-nothing call option, 623, 827Asset-or-nothing put option, 623, 827Asset swap, 828Assigned investor, 239Asymmetric information, 590
As-you-like-it option, 619, 828
Attachment point, 603At-the-money option, 234, 828
alternative definitions, 458
delta, 423
gamma, 433theta, 429
Average price call option, 626 828Average price put option, 626, 828
Average strike option, 627, 828
B3, 46
Bache lier normal model, 698, 828
Backdating, 380ā381, 828
Back office, 820Back testing, 534, 828Backward difference approximation, 499
Backward inductio n, 472ā475, 828
Financial Derivatives Index
- The index catalogs a vast array of complex financial instruments, including exotic options like 'as-you-like-it' and 'asset-or-nothing' contracts.
- Extensive references are provided for the Black-Scholes-Merton model, covering its derivation, pricing formulas, and application to volatility smiles.
- The text highlights historical financial crises and institutional failures, specifically mentioning Black Monday and the collapse of Barings Bank.
- Technical methodologies for risk management and valuation are indexed, such as Monte Carlo simulations, binomial trees, and back testing.
- Regulatory frameworks and international standards are addressed through entries for the Basel Committee and the Bank for International Settlements.
Barings Bank, 40, 815ā816, 818, 820
Asset-or-nothing call option, 623, 827Asset-or-nothing put option, 623, 827Asset swap, 828Assigned investor, 239Asymmetric information, 590
As-you-like-it option, 619, 828
Attachment point, 603At-the-money option, 234, 828
alternative definitions, 458
delta, 423
gamma, 433theta, 429
Average price call option, 626 828Average price put option, 626, 828
Average strike option, 627, 828
B3, 46
Bache lier normal model, 698, 828
Backdating, 380ā381, 828
Back office, 820Back testing, 534, 828Backward difference approximation, 499
Backward inductio n, 472ā475, 828
Bank for International Settlements, 27
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 863 30/04/2021 17:59
864 Subject Index
no-arbitrage argument, 288ā292
non-dividend-paying stock, 470ā477
one-step, 288ā294
options on currency, 306, 478ā480
options on futures, 307, 478ā480
options on index, 305, 478ā480
risk-neutral valuation and, 292ā294
stock paying a known dividend yield, 304,
480
time dependent volatility and, 488
time-dependent interest rates and, 488ā489
two-step, 294ā299
Bitcoin futures, 139ā140Bivariate normal distribution, 829
Black Monday, 137
Blackās approximation, 829
Blackās model, 408ā410, 680ā681, 699ā702,
829
and stochastic interest rates, 680ā681
bond options and, 688ā692caps and floors and, 694ā699
pricing European options on spot, 409ā410,
680ā681
swaptions and, 699ā702
BlackāDermanāToy model, 735BlackāKarasinski model, 736
using HullāWhite tree-building procedure
for, 745ā747
American call option, 363
BlackāScholesāMerton and volatility smile,
equity option, 456ā458
foreign currency options, 453ā456
BlackāScholesāMerton model, 338ā364, 829
and Monte Carlo simulation, 489ā491
cumulative normal distribution function,
353
delta and, 421ā423
deriving from binomial trees, 312ā315
deriving using risk-neutral valuation,
369ā370
differential equation, 346ā350dividend, 360ā362
European option on non-dividend-paying
stock, 352ā356
expected return, 341ā342
implied volatility, 358ā359, 451ā452
intuition, 354
known dividend yield, 389ā391
pricing formulas, 352ā356
risk-neutral valuation and, 351ā352, 353
volatility, 342
Board order, 61Bond option, 688ā692, 829
embedded, 688ā689European, 689ā692Bankers Trust (BT), 782, 821
Barings Bank, 40, 815ā816, 818, 820
Barrier options, 620ā622, 632ā634, 656ā658,
828
inner barrier, 656ā657
outer barrier, 656ā657
using adaptive mesh model, 658
Base correlation, 606, 828Basel I, II, III, and IV, 515
Basel Committee, 212, 515, 828
Basis, 75ā79, 828
Basis point, 98, 113, 828
Basis risk, 828
hedging and, 75ā79
Basis swap, 775, 828
Basket credit default swap, 597, 828
add-up basket credit default swap, 597first-to-default basket credit default swap,
597
kth-to-default basket credit default swap,
597
role of correlation, 601valuation, 605
Basket option, 629, 828Bear spread, 274ā275, 828
Bear Stearns, 119
Bearish calendar spread, 280
Bermudan option, 616, 828
Bermudan swap option, 767ā768
Beta, 85ā89, 96ā97, 384ā386, 828
changing, 88
BGM model, 758ā768
Bid, 25, 236
Bid price, 828
Bidāask spread, 236ā237, 828
Bidāoffer spread, 828
Bilateral clearing, 25, 55ā57, 828
Binary credit default swap, 594, 829
Binary option, 622ā623, 829Binomial correlation measure, 578
Binomial model, 288ā308, 470ā489, 829
Binomial tree, 288ā308, 470ā489, 829
alternative procedures for constructing,
485ā488
American options, 298ā299, 470ā477control variate technique, 483ā485
defined, 288ā289
delta and, 299ā300
deriving the BlackāScholesāMerton
formula from, 312ā315
dividend-paying stocks, 480ā483
employee stock options, 376ā378
European options examples, 288ā298
futures option, 410ā412
matching volatility, 300ā301
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 864 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 865
Capital asset pricing model (CAPM), 85ā89,
96ā97, 145, 675, 830
relation to capital investment appraisal, 803
relation to market price of risk, 675, 805ā806
Financial Derivatives Subject Index
- The index provides a comprehensive catalog of financial instruments, ranging from standard American and European options to complex exotic structures like cliquet and chooser options.
- It details various valuation models and mathematical techniques, including the BlackāScholesāMerton formula, Cholesky decomposition, and the CoxāIngersollāRoss model.
- Market infrastructure and regulatory components are highlighted through entries on central clearing parties (CCPs), clearing houses, and margin requirements.
- The text covers specialized risk management concepts such as the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), convexity adjustments, and the use of control variates in simulations.
NPV vs. real options approach, 803
American options, 298ā299, 470ā477control variate technique, 483ā485
defined, 288ā289
delta and, 299ā300
deriving the BlackāScholesāMerton
formula from, 312ā315
dividend-paying stocks, 480ā483
employee stock options, 376ā378
European options examples, 288ā298
futures option, 410ā412
matching volatility, 300ā301
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 864 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 865
Capital asset pricing model (CAPM), 85ā89,
96ā97, 145, 675, 830
relation to capital investment appraisal, 803
relation to market price of risk, 675, 805ā806
Capital investment appraisal, 802ā803
NPV vs. real options approach, 803
Capital valuation adjustment (KVA), 222ā223,
830
Caplet, interest rate, 694, 830CaseāShiller index, 205ā206, 830
Cash CDO, 599
Cash price, bond and Treasury bill, 154, 690
Cash settlement, 60, 830
Cash-flow mapping, 528, 534, 830
Cash-or-nothing call option, 622, 830
Cash-or-nothing put option, 623, 830
CAT bond, catastrophic bond, 796, 830
CCP, 179, 219ā220, 830
CDD, 830
CDO, 204, 830CDO squared, 830
CDS, 830
CDS spread, 199, 830
CDS-bond basis, 591
CDX NA IG, 595, 600, 830
CEBO, 830
Central clearing, 55ā57, 179, 830
Central clearing party (CCP), 25ā26, 55ā57
Central counterparty, 55ā57 830
CFFEX, 85
Changing the measure/numeraire, 302, 682ā684
Cheapest-to-deliver bond, 830
credit default swap, 591futures contract, 157ā158
Chicago Board of Trade (CBOT), 24, 30Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE),
24, 31, 232, 384
Chicago Mercantile Exchange (CME), 24,
30, 795
China Financial Futures Exchange, 46Cholesky decomposition, 493, 830
Chooser option, 619ā620, 830
Citigroup, 824
Claim in event of default, 564
Clean price, bond, 154, 690, 831
Clearing house, 53ā54, 831
CCP, 25 ā26exchange, 24ā25
futures, 54
options, 239
OTC markets, 54
swaps, 179
Clearing margin, 53, 831Clearing, bilateral, 25
Cliquet options, 618, 831on coupon bearing bonds, 737
on zero-coupon bond, 736ā737
tree for American bond options, 749ā750
yield volatilities, 692
Bond price process,
BGM, 758ā759
CoxāIngersollāRoss model, 725ā726
HJM, 756ā757
Vasicek, 725ā726
Bond pricing, 105ā106Bond valuation,
CoxāRossāRubinstein model, 723ā728general short rate model, 720
Vasicek model, 722ā728
Bond yield volatilities, 692Bond yield, 105, 829
Bonus, 211
Bootstrap method, 106ā108, 829
Bootstrap with futures, 164
Boston option, 615, 829Boston Options Exchange, 232
Bottom straddle, 281
Bottom vertical combination, 281
Boundary conditions, 349
Bounds for options, 252ā254, 259ā262,
389ā390, 406ā407
Box spread, 276, 829
BraceāGatarekāMusiela (BGM) model,
758ā768
Break forward, 615, 829
Broker, options, 237
Brownian motion, 318, 829
fractional, 329ā330, 648ā649
Bull spread, 272ā273, 829
Bullish calendar spread, 280
Business day conventions, 180
Business valuation, 806
Butterfly spread, 276ā279, 284, 467, 829
Buying on margin, 237
Calendar days vs. trading days, 345ā346
Calendar spread, 279ā280, 829
Calibrating instruments, 749ā751Calibration, 749ā751, 766ā767, 829
Call option, 31, 227ā228, 830Callable bond, 688ā689, 829
Cancelable compounding swaps, 780ā781
Cancelable forward, 615
Cancelable swap, 780, 830
Cap,
flexi, 763, 836
interest rate, 693ā699, 830
ratchet, 762ā763, 844
sticky, 762ā763, 846
Cap rate, 693, 830
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 865 30/04/2021 17:59
866 Subject Index
Control areas, electricity-producing region,
788
Control variate technique, 483ā485, 832
Convenience yield, 143, 832
Convergence arbitrage, 56, 822
Conversion factor, 155ā158, 832
Conversion ratio, 650
Convertible bond, 242, 650ā653, 832
Convexity adjustment, 707ā710, 718, 832
Eurodollar futures, 163ā164swap rates, 709ā710
Convexity, bonds, 116ā117, 832Cooling degree days (CDD), 795, 830
Copula, 578ā580, 832
Corner the market, 62
CornishāFisher expansion, 532, 832
Correlated stochastic processes, 326ā327
Correlation,
Financial Derivatives Index
- The index covers a vast array of complex financial instruments including credit default swaps, collateralized debt obligations, and convertible bonds.
- Mathematical modeling techniques such as the CoxāIngersollāRoss model and the Gaussian copula are referenced for valuing interest rates and default correlations.
- Risk management concepts like Delta hedging, Value at Risk, and convexity adjustments are detailed to address market volatility and counterparty risk.
- The text includes specific references to commodity markets, covering the modeling of price seasonality and mean reversion for energy and agricultural products.
Crashophobia, 458, 832Credit contagion, 569, 832
Control areas, electricity-producing region,
788
Control variate technique, 483ā485, 832
Convenience yield, 143, 832
Convergence arbitrage, 56, 822
Conversion factor, 155ā158, 832
Conversion ratio, 650
Convertible bond, 242, 650ā653, 832
Convexity adjustment, 707ā710, 718, 832
Eurodollar futures, 163ā164swap rates, 709ā710
Convexity, bonds, 116ā117, 832Cooling degree days (CDD), 795, 830
Copula, 578ā580, 832
Corner the market, 62
CornishāFisher expansion, 532, 832
Correlated stochastic processes, 326ā327
Correlation,
default, 577ā580, 601monitoring, 556ā558price-volatility, 460
Correlation matrix, 526Correlation smiles, 607
Cost of carry, 143ā144, 832
Counterparty, 832
default risk, 571ā577
Coupon, 832
Covariance, 556, 832
Covariance matrix, 526, 558, 832
consistency condition, 558
Covered call, 238, 270, 832
Covered position, 418
CoxāIngersollāRoss (CIR) interest rate
model, 723ā728
compared with Vasicek, 724
CoxāRossāRubinstein model, 301, 470ā477CrankāNicolson procedure, 508
Crash of 2,009, 54, 444, 458, 822
Crashophobia, 458, 832Credit contagion, 569, 832
Credit crisis, 201ā212
Credit default swap (CDS), 588ā595, 832
basket CDS, 597bond yields and, 590ā591
cheapest-to-deliver bond, 591
fixed coupons, 596
forwards and options on, 597
recovery rate and, 595
spread, 589
valuation of, 591ā595
Credit default swap, 193ā194Credit derivatives, 587ā610, 832
alternative models, 608ā610upfront payment, 602, 603
Credit event, 589, 832CME Group, 24, 30, 46
Collar, interest rate, 694, 831
Collateral agreements, 56, 575Collateral, 218, 831Collateralization, 55, 831Collateralized debt obligation (CDO), 204,
599ā610, 831
cash, 599synthetic, 599
Collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO),
768ā769, 831
Combination, option trading strategy,
280ā283, 831
Commodity,
agricultural, 785ā786crude oil, 787electricity, 788ā789
metals, 786ā787
natural gas, 787ā788recycling, 786
Commodity Futures Trading Commission
(CFTC), 62, 831
Commodity price, 806
mean reversion, 786, 790ā792modeling, 789ā794
seasonality, 786, 792ā794
trinomial tree, 790ā794
Commodity swap, 195, 781, 831
Comparative-advantage argument,
currency swap, 188ā189
interest rate swap, 181ā183
Compound correlation, 606, 831Compound option, 618ā619, 831
Compounding frequency, 101ā104, 831
Compounding swap, 195, 775ā776, 831
Compression, 28, 831
Conditional default probabilities, 563Conditional Value at Risk (C-VaR), 831
Confidence level (VaR), 514Confirmation, 180, 774, 775, 778, 831
Constant elasticity of variance (CEV) model,
641ā642, 831
Constant maturity swap (CMS), 831
Constant maturity Treasury swap (CMT), 831
Constructive sale, 240ā241
Consumption asset, 124, 831
Contango, 147, 831
Continental Illinois, 119
Continuous compounding, 103ā104, 832Continuous-time stochastic process, 316,
317ā322
Continuous variable, 316
Contract size, 49
Contraction opt ion, 808
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 866 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 867
Daily settlement, 51
Day count conventions, 152ā153, 179ā180,
833
Day trade, 833
Day trader, 61
Debit valuation adjustment (DVA), 216ā218,
572ā575, 833
Default correlation, 209, 577ā580, 833
binomial correlation measure, 578factors to define correlation structure, 580
Gaussian copula model for time to default,
578ā580
implied, 606ā607
reduced form models, 578
structural models, 578
Default intensity, 564, 833Default probabilities, historical, 563ā564
Default risk, 562ā583
and derivativesā valuation, 571ā577
Deferred payment option, 615Deferred swap, 699, 833
Delivery of futures, 47ā48, 60, 144
months, 49ā50
Delivery price, 833
Delta, 299ā300, 420ā421, 439, 460, 833
estimating using binomial tree, 476ā477European options, 422ā423
for a portfolio, 426ā427
forward contract, 439ā440
futures contract, 440
interest rate derivatives, 703
minimum variance, 460
relationship with theta and gamma, 433
Delta hedging, 299ā300, 421ā427, 833
Financial Derivatives Index
- The text provides a comprehensive index of financial instruments, focusing heavily on credit risk management and default probability estimation.
- Detailed references are included for 'Greeks' such as Delta, Gamma, and Theta, which are essential for managing the sensitivities of derivative portfolios.
- The index covers various swap structures, including currency, equity, and differential swaps, alongside their valuation methodologies.
- Specific attention is given to employee stock options, detailing their accounting, valuation through binomial trees, and historical issues like backdating.
- Risk mitigation techniques such as Credit Valuation Adjustment (CVA) and Delta hedging are cross-referenced with their practical performance measures.
Employee stock option, 241, 356ā357, 371ā381, 835 accounting for, 374ā375 agency costs, 373, 827 backdating, 380ā381, 828.
Default intensity, 564, 833Default probabilities, historical, 563ā564
Default risk, 562ā583
and derivativesā valuation, 571ā577
Deferred payment option, 615Deferred swap, 699, 833
Delivery of futures, 47ā48, 60, 144
months, 49ā50
Delivery price, 833
Delta, 299ā300, 420ā421, 439, 460, 833
estimating using binomial tree, 476ā477European options, 422ā423
for a portfolio, 426ā427
forward contract, 439ā440
futures contract, 440
interest rate derivatives, 703
minimum variance, 460
relationship with theta and gamma, 433
Delta hedging, 299ā300, 421ā427, 833
dynamic aspects, 424ā427
exotic options, 632
performance measure, 420, 426
transaction cost, 427
Delta-neutral portfolio, 426ā427, 833
DerivaGem, 303ā304, 697, 833 , 851ā855
Derivative, defined, 23, 833Detachment point, 603
Deterministic variable, 833
Deutsche Bank, 821
Diagonal spread, 280, 834
Differential equation for derivative,
constant dividend yield, 391no dividends, 346ā350
on futures, 407ā408
Differential swap (diff swap), 195, 777, 834Diffusion model, 641
Diffusion process, 834
Dilution, 356ā357, 379
Dirty price, bond, 154, 690, 834
Discount bond, 834Credit event binary option, 832
Credi t index, 595, 600, 832
Credit rating, 100, 562, 833Credit ratings transition matrix, 582, 833
Credit risk, 54, 562ā583, 833
comparison of default probability estimates,
567ā569
credit ratings and, 562credit value at risk, 580ā582default correlation and, 577ā580
derivatives transactions and, 571ā577
estimating default probabilities from bond
prices and, 564ā566
estimating default probabilities from equity
prices and, 570ā571
historical default probabilities and, 563ā564interest rate and, 98
mitigation, 574ā575
recovery rates and, 564swaps and, 193
Credit spread option, 597, 833
Credit support annex (CSA), 55, 218, 833
Credit valuation adjustment (CVA), 216ā218,
572ā577, 833
Credit value at risk, 580ā582, 833
CreditMetrics, 581ā582, 833
Cross gamma, 532Cross hedging, 79ā83, 833
Cross-currency derivative, 711
Cross-currency swap, 777Crude oil derivatives, 787CSI index, 85Cumulative distribution function, 833
Cumulative normal distribution function, 353,
355ā356
Cure period, 218, 571ā572
Currency forward and futures, 137ā141Currency option, 232, 386ā389, 395ā396
binomial tree, 306, 478ā480BlackāScholes, 395ā396
early exercise, 396
implied distribution, 454volatility smile, 453ā456
Currency swap, 186ā193, 776ā777, 833
comparative advantage argument, 188ā189fixed-for-fixed, 186ā192fixed-for-floating, 192
floating-for-floating, 192ā193
to transform liabilities and assets, 187valuation of, 190ā193
Curvature, 429CVA, 216ā218, 833
C-VaR, 516
Cylinder o ption, 615
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 867 30/04/2021 17:59
868 Subject Index
Embedded option, 779ā781, 834
Empirical research, 835
Employee stock option, 241, 356ā357, 371ā381,
835
accounting for, 374ā375
agency costs, 373, 827
backdating, 380ā381, 828
binomial tree, 376ā378
contractual arrangements, 371ā372
early exercise of, 372
exercise multiple, 378ā379
expected life, 376
repricing, 373
valuation of, 375ā379
vesting, 372
Zions Bancorp, 379
Energy derivatives, 787ā789
hedge risks, 798ā799
modeling energy prices, 789ā794
Enronās bankruptcy, 816
Equilibrium model,
estimating parameters, 727ā728interest rates, 719ā729, 835
real-world vs. risk-neutral processes, 726ā727
Equity swap, 195, 777ā778, 835Equity tranche, 202ā204, 599, 835
Equivalent annual interest rate, 102, 835
Equivalent martingale measure result, 670,
675ā676
Equivalent martingale measure, 835
ESTER, 99, 100, 835
ET P, 835
ETP options, 232
Eurex, 46
Euribor, 835
Euro LIBOR, 835
Euro short-term rate (ESTER), 99, 100
Eurocurrency, 835
Eurodollar, 160, 835Eurodollar futures, 160ā165, 835
convexity adjustment, 163ā164quote, 161
vs. forward, 163
Eurodollar futures options, 403Euronext, 232
European option, 31, 227, 835
Financial Derivatives Index
- The text provides a comprehensive index of financial instruments, covering equity swaps, Eurodollar futures, and various European and American option models.
- Detailed references are included for the BlackāScholes model, specifically regarding its application to both dividend-paying and non-dividend-paying stocks.
- Risk management concepts such as Expected Shortfall, Value at Risk (VaR), and the Exponentially Weighted Moving Average (EWMA) are cataloged for volatility estimation.
- The index highlights specialized exotic options, including barrier options like 'down-and-in' and 'down-and-out' calls and puts.
- Regulatory and institutional frameworks are referenced, including the DoddāFrank Act, FASB standards, and major exchanges like Eurex and Euronext.
Doom options, 834
Equity swap, 195, 777ā778, 835Equity tranche, 202ā204, 599, 835
Equivalent annual interest rate, 102, 835
Equivalent martingale measure result, 670,
675ā676
Equivalent martingale measure, 835
ESTER, 99, 100, 835
ET P, 835
ETP options, 232
Eurex, 46
Euribor, 835
Euro LIBOR, 835
Euro short-term rate (ESTER), 99, 100
Eurocurrency, 835
Eurodollar, 160, 835Eurodollar futures, 160ā165, 835
convexity adjustment, 163ā164quote, 161
vs. forward, 163
Eurodollar futures options, 403Euronext, 232
European option, 31, 227, 835
binomial trees, 288ā298BlackāScholes model for a non-dividend-
paying stock, 352ā356
BlackāScholes model for a dividend-paying
stock, 390ā391
delta, 422ā423
dividend-paying stock, 262ā263, 360ā362
futures option compared to spot option,
401, 404ā405Discount instrument, 834Discount rate, Treasury bill, 154
Discrete-time stochastic process, 316, 323ā325
Discrete variable, 316
Discretionary order, 61
Diversification, 524, 819, 834
Dividend, 360ā362, 480ā483, 834
American call option valuation using
BlackāScholes model, 360ā362
binomial model for stocks paying
dividends, 480ā483
bounds of option prices, 263effect on option price, 251
European option valuation using Blackā
Scholes model, 360ā362
stock option and, 234ā235, 251, 360ā362
stock prices and, 234ā235, 251
stock splits and, 234ā235
Dividend yield, 834
binomial tree and, 304, 480implied, 392ā394
DoddāFrank act, 62, 212, 834Dollar duration, 115, 834
Doom options, 834
Double t copula, 608
Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJX), 84, 232
options, 384
Down-and-in call, 620
Down-and-in option, 834
Down-and-in put, 621
Down-and-out call, 620
Down-and-out option, 834
Down-and-out put, 621
Downgrade trigger, 575, 834
Drift rate, 319, 834
Duration, 112ā115, 725, 834
bond, 112ā115bond portfolio, 115
credit default swaps, 596modified, 114ā115
Vasicek and CIR models, 725
Duration-based hedge ratio, 165ā167Duration-based hedging strategies, 165ā167
Duration matching, 167, 834
DV01, 834
DVA, 216ā218, 834
DVA 2 , 2 21
Dynamic hedging, 422, 424ā427, 437, 834
Dynamic models, credit derivatives, 609ā610
Early exercise, 229, 257ā259, 372, 834
Effective federal funds rate, 99, 834
Efficient market hypothesis, 834
Electricity derivatives, 23, 788ā789
Electronic trading, 25, 46, 236, 834
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 868 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 869
Expected shortfall, 514ā538, 835
back testing, 534
historical simulation, 520
normal distribution, 524
Expected spot price, 144ā147Expected tail loss, 516
Expected value of a variable, 835
Expiration date, 31, 227, 835
effect on option price, 248
Explicit finite difference method, 502ā507,
836
relation to trinomial tree approach, 506ā507
Exponential weighting, 836Exponentially weighted moving average
(EWMA), 544ā545, 836
application, 559ā560
compared with GARCH, 546
estimating parameters with maximum
likelihood methods, 549ā551
Exposure,
credit, 193, 571ā572, 836
peak, 573
Extendable bond, 836Extendable swap, 195, 836
Factor, 534ā537, 836
Factor analysis, 534ā537, 836
Factor loading, 535
Factor score, 535
FAS 145, 374, 836
FAS 155, 63, 836
FASB, 836
Federal funds rate, 99, 836
effective 99
Federal National Mortgage Association
(FNMA), 768
Federal Reserve, 99
FICO, 207, 836
Fill-or-kill order, 62Financial Accounting Standards Board
(FASB), 63, 374, 836
Financial intermediary, 836
Finite difference method, 498ā509, 836
applications of, 508explicit, 502ā507
implicit, 499ā502
other, 507ā508
relation to trinomial tree approach, 506ā507
First notice day, 60First-to-default basket credit default swap, 597
Fitch, 562
Fixed-for-floating swap, 172ā174
Fixed lookback, 624
Flat volatility, 696, 836
Flex option, 234, 836non-dividend-paying stock, 352ā356
pricing using Blackās model, 409ā410,
680ā681
putācall parity, 255ā257, 262ā263, 270ā272,
390, 451ā452
risk-neutral valuation, 351ā352stock paying a known dividend yield,
Financial Derivatives Index
- The text provides a comprehensive index of financial modeling techniques, specifically highlighting the finite difference method for pricing derivatives.
- A significant portion of the entries focuses on exotic options, including Asian, barrier, binary, and lookback options, which offer more complex payoff structures than standard contracts.
- The index details the operational mechanics of futures and forward contracts, such as daily settlement, margin requirements, and the convergence of futures prices to spot prices.
- Risk management parameters, known as 'Greeks' like Delta and Gamma, are cataloged alongside volatility models such as GARCH and EWMA to illustrate how portfolios are monitored and hedged.
Convergence to spot price, 50ā51
Finite difference method, 498ā509, 836
applications of, 508explicit, 502ā507
implicit, 499ā502
other, 507ā508
relation to trinomial tree approach, 506ā507
First notice day, 60First-to-default basket credit default swap, 597
Fitch, 562
Fixed-for-floating swap, 172ā174
Fixed lookback, 624
Flat volatility, 696, 836
Flex option, 234, 836non-dividend-paying stock, 352ā356
pricing using Blackās model, 409ā410,
680ā681
putācall parity, 255ā257, 262ā263, 270ā272,
390, 451ā452
risk-neutral valuation, 351ā352stock paying a known dividend yield,
390ā391
Event of default, 571
EWMA, 835
Excess cost layer, reinsurance, 796Excess-of-loss reinsurance contract, 796Exchange clearing house, 25Exchange option, 627ā628, 681ā682, 835
Exchange rates,
BlackāScholes and, 395ā396empirical data, 454ā455
Exchange-traded vehicle (ETV), 232
Exchange-traded fund (ETF), 232
Exchange-traded market, 24
difference between over-the-counter market
and, 24ā26
for options, 234ā235
Ex-dividend date, 263, 361, 835
Exercise boundary parameterization approach,
664ā665
Exercise limit, 235ā236, 835
Exercise multiple, 378ā379, 835
Exercise price, 31, 835
Exotic options, 242, 614ā635, 821, 835
Asian options, 626ā627, 653ā656, 827
barrier options, 620ā622, 632ā634, 656ā658,
828
basket options, 629, 828
binary options, 622ā623, 829
chooser options, 619ā620, 830
cliquet options, 618
compound options, 618ā619forward start options, 618, 837
gap options, 617
lookback options, 623ā625, 653, 840
nonstandard American option, 616options to exchange one asset for another,
627ā628
packages, 614ā615, 843Parisian options, 622
shout options, 625ā626, 846
Expansion option, 807
Expectations theory, shape of zero curve, 117,
835
Expected life, 376Expected return,
stock option price and, 292ā293
stockās, 325ā326, 341ā342
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 869 30/04/2021 17:59
870 Subject Index
closing out positions, 47ā48
commodities, 141ā144
contract size, 49
currencies, 137ā141
daily settlement, 51
delivery month, 49
delivery, 47ā48, 60, 144
delta, 440
foreign exchange quotes, 65
forward contracts vs., 29ā30, 46, 64ā65, 135
index, 84ā89, 839
long position, 47
margins and, 51ā54
marking to market, 51
options vs., 31, 227
price quotes, 50
risk and return, 145
short position, 47
specification of, 48ā50
Treasury Bond and Treasury Note futures,
49, 155ā160
Futures market, regulation of, 62ā63Futures option, 232ā233, 401ā414, 837
futures-style option, 413interest rate futures option, 403ā404
popularity of, 404
putācall parity, 405ā406
spot options compared to, 401
valuation, using binomial trees, 307,
410ā412, 478ā480
valuation, using Blackās model, 408ā410
Futures price, 47, 135ā147, 837
convergence to spot price, 50ā51
cost of carry, 143ā144
expected future spot prices and, 144ā147
expected growth rate, 407
patterns of, 58ā59
relationship to forward prices, 135
stock indices, 135ā137
Futures, interest rate, 152ā168
Futures-style option, 413, 837
FV A, 219ā222
Gamma, 429ā433, 439, 837
cross gamma, 532
effect on VaR estimates, 530ā532
estimating, using binomial tree, 476ā477
interest rate derivatives, 703
relationship with delta and theta, 433
Gamma-neutral portfolio, 431, 837GAP management, 167, 837
Gap option, 617, 837
application to insurance, 617
GARCH model, 546ā556, 837
autocorrelation and, 552Flexi cap, 763, 836Flexible forwards, 615
Flight to quality, 119, 822
Floating lookback, 623
Floor, 694, 836
Floor rate, 836
Floorlet, 836
interest rate, 694, 836
Force of interest, 103
Forward band, 615
Forward contract, 28ā30, 836
credit default swap, 597delivery price, 29
delta, 439ā440
foreign exchange quotes, 28, 65
futures vs., 30, 46, 64, 135
hedging, using, 34ā35
option vs., 31, 227
valuing, 133ā134, 352
VaR and, 528
Forward difference approximation, 499
Forward exchange rate, 836
Forward interest rate, 109ā110, 184, 707, 837
instantaneous, 110
Financial Derivatives Index
- The text provides a comprehensive index of financial instruments, including forward contracts, futures, and various interest rate derivatives.
- It details technical modeling concepts such as ItĆ“ās lemma, the HullāWhite interest rate model, and the Heath, Jarrow, and Morton (HJM) framework.
- Risk management strategies are highlighted through the 'Greek letters' (delta, theta, vega, rho) and methods like historical simulation for Value at Risk (VaR).
- The index references significant historical financial events and entities, such as the Hunt brothers, Metallgesellschaft, and the Fundamental Review of the Trading Book (FRTB).
Hammersmith and Fulham, 194, 817, 825
autocorrelation and, 552Flexi cap, 763, 836Flexible forwards, 615
Flight to quality, 119, 822
Floating lookback, 623
Floor, 694, 836
Floor rate, 836
Floorlet, 836
interest rate, 694, 836
Force of interest, 103
Forward band, 615
Forward contract, 28ā30, 836
credit default swap, 597delivery price, 29
delta, 439ā440
foreign exchange quotes, 28, 65
futures vs., 30, 46, 64, 135
hedging, using, 34ā35
option vs., 31, 227
valuing, 133ā134, 352
VaR and, 528
Forward difference approximation, 499
Forward exchange rate, 836
Forward interest rate, 109ā110, 184, 707, 837
instantaneous, 110
Forward price, 29ā30, 127ā133, 837
for an investment asset that provides known
cash income, 130ā132
for an investment asset that provides known
yield, 132
for an investment asset that provides no
income, 127ā129
ItĆ“ās lemma, applied to, 328relation to futures price, 135
Forward rate, 837Forward rate agreement (FRA), 110ā112,
184ā185, 837
Forward rate volatilities, 760ā761
Forward rates modeling, 755ā770
Forward risk-neutral, 708, 759Forward start option, 618, 837
Forward swap, 195, 699, 837
Forward with optional exit, 615Fractional Brownian Motion, 329ā330,
648ā649, 837
Front office, 820
FRTB. See Fundamental Review of the
Trading Book
Fundamental Review of the Trading Book,
515, 837
Funding valuation adjustment (FVA), 219ā222,
837
Futures commission merchants (FCMs), 61,
837
Futures contract, 30ā31, 46ā65, 837
asset underlying, 48ā49
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 870 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 871
in practice, 438
interest rate derivatives, 703, 751ā752
long hedge, 71ā72
machine learning applications to, 443ā444
Metallgesellschaft (MG) and, 91
naked and covered position, 418
perfect hedge, 70
performance measure, 426
rho, 436ā437
rolling forward, 89ā90
shareholders and, 73
short hedge, 71
stack and roll, 89ā90
static options replication, 632ā634, 846
stop-loss strategy, 418ā420
theta, 427ā429
using index futures, 84ā88
vega, 434ā436
Heston model, 647Heterogeneous model, 608High-frequency trading, 25
Historical simulation,
compared with model building approach,
533
expected shortfall, 520value at risk, 517ā520, 838
Historical volatility, 343ā346, 838History-dependent derivative, 653
HoāLee model, 732ā734, 757
Holiday calendar, 180, 838
Homogeneous model, 608
Hopscotch method, 507
HullāWhite interest rate model,
one-factor, 734ā735, 757two-factor, 736
Hunt brothers, 62Hurricane Andrew, 796
Hurst exponent, 329ā331, 838
IAS 24, 374
IAS 61, 63
IASB. See International Accounting Standard
Board, 63
IFRS 31, 63
IMM dates, 838
Implicit finite difference method, 499ā502,
838
Implied copula, 609
Implied correlation, 606ā607, 838
Implied distribution, 838
currency options, 453ā456determining, 467ā469
stock options, 456ā457
Implied dividend yield, 392ā394, 838Implied tree model, 650, 838compared with EWMA, 546ā548
estimating parameters using maximum
likelihood methods, 549ā551
forecasting future volatility, 553ā555
LjungāBox statistic, 552ā553
Gaussian copula model, 578ā580, 837Gaussian quadrature, 603, 837
Generalized Wiener Process, 319ā321, 837
Geometric average, 837
Geometric Brownian motion, 323, 838
Gibson Greetings, 817, 819, 825
Girsanovās theorem, 301, 838
GNMA, 201ā202
Good-till-cancelled order, 62
Government National Mortgage Association
(GNMA), 768
Greek letters, 417ā445, 838
estimating using binomial tree, 476ā477estimating using finite difference method, 508
estimating using Monte Carlo simulation,
494ā495
interest rate derivatives, 703Taylor series expansions and, 450
volatility smile and, 460
Gross basis, 54Growth factor, 472
Guaranty fund, 54, 55, 838
Haircut, 57, 575, 838
Hammersmith and Fulham, 194, 817, 825
Hazard rate, 563ā564, 838
Heath, Jarrow, and Morton model (HJM),
755ā758
Heating degree days (HDD), 795, 838
Hedge accounting, 63
Hedge funds, 34, 838
Hedge ratio, 838
Hedge-and-forget, 70, 422
Financial Derivatives Index
- The text provides a comprehensive index of financial instruments, focusing heavily on interest rate derivatives such as swaps, caps, floors, and futures.
- It outlines various mathematical models for interest rate valuation, including the Black-Karasinski, Hull-White, and Heath-Jarrow-Morton (HJM) models.
- Hedging strategies are categorized by risk type, covering delta, gamma, and duration-based approaches to manage equity and interest rate exposure.
- The index highlights the mechanics of market operations, including margin requirements, day count conventions, and the role of clearinghouses like the Intercontinental Exchange.
Hedge-and-forget, 70, 422
estimating using binomial tree, 476ā477estimating using finite difference method, 508
estimating using Monte Carlo simulation,
494ā495
interest rate derivatives, 703Taylor series expansions and, 450
volatility smile and, 460
Gross basis, 54Growth factor, 472
Guaranty fund, 54, 55, 838
Haircut, 57, 575, 838
Hammersmith and Fulham, 194, 817, 825
Hazard rate, 563ā564, 838
Heath, Jarrow, and Morton model (HJM),
755ā758
Heating degree days (HDD), 795, 838
Hedge accounting, 63
Hedge funds, 34, 838
Hedge ratio, 838
Hedge-and-forget, 70, 422
Hedgers, 34ā36, 825, 838Hedging, 70ā91, 838
and stock picking, 88arguments for and against, 72ā75
basic principles, 70ā72
basis risk, 75ā79
competitors and, 73ā74
cross, 79ā83
delta hedging, 299ā300, 421ā427
duration-based hedging strategies, 165ā167
equity portfolio, 85ā88
exotic options, 632ā634
gamma, 429ā433
gold mining companies and, 75
hedge and forget, 70, 422
hedge effectiveness, 81
hedge ratio, 79
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 871 30/04/2021 17:59
872 Subject Index
swap option, 699ā702, 764ā766, 767ā768
trees for, 738ā749
volatility skews, 767
volatility structures, 737ā738, 760ā761, 767
Interest rate floor, 694, 839Interest rate futures, 152ā168
Eurodollar futures, 160ā165Treasury bond futures, 155ā160
Interest rate futures option, 403ā404Interest rate model,
Black, 680ā681, 688ā704BlackāKarasinski, 736
BraceāGatarekāMusiela (BGM) model,
758ā768
calibration, 749ā751
CoxāIngersollāRoss, 723ā728
HeathāJarrowāMorton, 755ā758
HoāLee, 732ā734
HullāWhite (one-factor), 734ā735
HullāWhite (two-factor), 736LIBOR market model, 758
RendlemanāBartter, 721ā722
Vasicek, 722ā728
Interest rate options, 688ā782, 839Interest rate parity, 138
Interest rate swap, 172ā196, 773ā783, 839
comparative-advantage argument, 181ā183confirmation, 180
day count conventions, 179
mechanics of, 172ā174
organization of trading, 178ā180
to transform a liability, 176ā177
to transform an asset, 177ā178
valuation, 183ā186
Interest rate trees, 738ā749
multiple yield curves, 747
negative rates, 747
Interest rates, 98ā120
continuous compounding, 103ā104convexity adjustment, 707ā710
day count conventions, 152ā153, 179ā180
equilibrium models, 719ā729
forward, 109ā110
forward-rate agreements (FRA), 110ā112
LongstaffāSchwartz model, 728
reference, 99
spot, 104
term structure theories, 117ā119
two-factor models, 728
types of, 98ā101
zero-coupon yield curve, 106ā108
Internal controls, 826International Accounting Standards Board,
63, 374
International Securities Exchange, 232Implied volatility, 358ā359, 451ā452, 838
Implied volatility function (IVF) model,
649ā650, 839
Importance sampling, variance reduction
procedure, 496ā497
Incentives, 210ā211
Inception profit, 820ā821, 839
Index amortizing swap, 781, 839
Index arbitrage, 137, 839
Index currency option note (ICON), 43
Index futures, 84ā89, 839
changing portfolio beta, 88hedging, using index futures, 84ā89
portfolio insurance, 442ā443
pricing, 135ā137
quotations, 84
stock, 846
Index option, 232, 384ā386, 839
implied dividend yield, 392ā394
portfolio insurance, 442ā443stock, 846
valuation, binomial tree, 305, 478ā480
valuation, BlackāScholes, 391ā394
Indexed principal swap, 781, 839Initial margin, 51, 238, 839
Initial public offering, 371
Inner barrier, 656ā657
Instantaneous forward rate, 110, 839
Instantaneous short rate, 719
Insurance, 617
Insurance derivatives, 23, 796
pricing, 797ā798
Intercontinental Exchange (ICE), 46, 49, 787
Interest only (IO), 769, 839
Interest rate caps and floors, 693ā699, 839
cap as a portfolio of bond options, 694cap as a portfolio of interest rate options,
693ā697
floors and collars, 694impact of day count conventions, 697
putācall parity, 695
spot volatilities vs. flat volatilities, 696
theoretical justification of Blackās model,
696ā697
valuation of cap and floors, 694ā699
Financial Derivatives Subject Index
- The index covers a wide range of interest rate derivatives, including caps, floors, collars, and mortgage-backed securities.
- Key mathematical concepts such as ItĆ“ās lemma, jump-diffusion models, and lognormal distributions are listed as foundational to pricing.
- Regulatory and institutional frameworks are highlighted through entries for the ISDA Master Agreement, LIBOR, and the Intercontinental Exchange.
- Historical financial crises and failures, such as Long-Term Capital Management and the Lehman Brothers bankruptcy, serve as critical reference points.
- Modern computational techniques like machine learning and the Levenberg-Marquardt procedure are indexed for their applications in hedging and volatility.
Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM), 56, 816, 822ā823
Instantaneous short rate, 719
Insurance, 617
Insurance derivatives, 23, 796
pricing, 797ā798
Intercontinental Exchange (ICE), 46, 49, 787
Interest only (IO), 769, 839
Interest rate caps and floors, 693ā699, 839
cap as a portfolio of bond options, 694cap as a portfolio of interest rate options,
693ā697
floors and collars, 694impact of day count conventions, 697
putācall parity, 695
spot volatilities vs. flat volatilities, 696
theoretical justification of Blackās model,
696ā697
valuation of cap and floors, 694ā699
Interest rate collar, 694, 839Interest rate derivatives, 688ā782, 839
American bond options, 689, 749ā750calibration, 749ā751
general tree-building procedure, 740ā749
hedging, 703, 751ā752
interest rate caps and floors, 693ā699
mortgage-backed securities, 768
no-arbitrage models, 732ā752
spot volatilities vs. flat volatilities, 696
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 872 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 873
Local volatility model, 649
Locals, 61, 840
Lock-out period, 616, 689
Lognormal distribution, 329, 339, 840
Lognormal property, 328ā329, 339ā340
London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR),
100, 840
zero curve, 164ā165
London Stock Exchange, 39Long hedge, 71ā72, 840
Long position, 28, 840
option, 33
Long-Term Capital Management (LTCM), 56,
816, 822ā823
Long-term equity anticipation securities
(LEAPS), 233, 840
Lookback option, 623ā625, 653, 840
fixed, 624floating, 623
Low-discrepancy sequence, 498, 840
Machine learning, 24
application to hedging, 443ā444
application to volatility, 457
application to XVA, 224
Maintenance margin, 52, 238, 840Margin, 51ā54, 237ā238, 841
buying on margin, 237clearing margin, 53
futures contracts, 51ā54
gross margining, 54
initial margin, 51, 238
maintenance margin, 52, 238
margin call, 52, 237ā238, 841
margin requirements, 237ā238
net margining, 54
stock options, 237ā238
variation margin, 52
Margin account, 37, 51, 126, 238
Margin period of risk, 218, 573
Margin valuation adjustment (MVA), 219ā220,
841
Market leveraged stock unit (MSU), 841
Market maker, 178ā179, 236, 841
Market model, 841
Market order, 61
Market price of risk, 671ā674, 805ā806, 841
several state variables, 674ā675, 679ā680
Market segmentation theory, 117, 841
Market transparency, 823ā824
Market-if-touched (MIT) order, 61
Market-leveraged stock unit, 375
Market-not-held order, 61
Marking to market, 133, 841
Marking to model, 820International Swaps and Derivatives
Association (ISDA), 180, 589, 591, 839
Master Agreement, 180
In-the-money option, 234, 839
delta, 423
gamma, 433
theta, 429
Intrinsic value, 234, 839Inverse floaters, 111
Inverted market, 58, 839
Investment asset, 124, 839
forward price, 127ā129
market price of risk, 672
Investment grade, 562ISDA Master Agreement, 571
ItĆ“ process, 321ā323, 839
ItĆ“ās lemma, 327ā329, 674, 676, 840
extensions, 337proof, 336ā337
ITraxx Europe, 595, 600, 840
JP Morgan, 545
Jump process, 642ā644, 840
Jumpādiffusion model, 642ā643, 840
Jumps, 460ā462
implied volatility 460ā462
Kidder Peabody, 129, 815ā816, 820
Knock-in and knock-out options, 620
Kurtosis, 453, 840
KVA, 222ā223, 840
Last notice day, 60
Last trading day, 60
LEAPS (long-term equity anticipation
securities), 233, 384, 840
Least-squares approach, 661ā664
Lehman bankruptcy, 26, 590, 823
Lehman Brothers, 26, 119
Levenberg-Marquardt procedure, 750Levy processes, 641
LIBOR, 100, 840
LIBOR discounting, 840
LIBOR-for-fixed swap, 173
LIBOR-in-Arrears swap, 840
LIBOR market model, 758
LIBORāOIS spread, 840
LIBOR zero curve, 164ā165
Liikanen report, 212
Limit move, 50, 840
limit down, 50limit up, 50
Limit order, 61, 840Linear model, value at risk, 524ā530
Liquidity preference theory, 117ā119, 840
Liquidity risk, 119, 821ā822, 840
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 873 30/04/2021 17:59
874 Subject Index
Moodyās, 562
Mortgage-backed security (MBS), 201ā202,
768ā770, 841
collateralized mortgage obligations, 768ā769
Financial Derivatives and Risk Index
- The index covers a wide range of interest rate models including the HullāWhite, HoāLee, and HeathāJarrowāMorton frameworks.
- Significant attention is given to Monte Carlo simulation techniques for valuing complex derivatives and calculating Greek letters.
- The text references historical financial crises and institutions such as Northern Rock, Metallgesellschaft, and the Liikanen report.
- Key market concepts like liquidity risk, mean reversion, and the transition to negative interest rate modeling are cataloged.
- Mortgage-backed securities and collateralized mortgage obligations are detailed alongside valuation methods like option-adjusted spreads.
Mertonās model (debt as option on assets of firm), 570ā571
LIBOR discounting, 840
LIBOR-for-fixed swap, 173
LIBOR-in-Arrears swap, 840
LIBOR market model, 758
LIBORāOIS spread, 840
LIBOR zero curve, 164ā165
Liikanen report, 212
Limit move, 50, 840
limit down, 50limit up, 50
Limit order, 61, 840Linear model, value at risk, 524ā530
Liquidity preference theory, 117ā119, 840
Liquidity risk, 119, 821ā822, 840
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 873 30/04/2021 17:59
874 Subject Index
Moodyās, 562
Mortgage-backed security (MBS), 201ā202,
768ā770, 841
collateralized mortgage obligations, 768ā769
option-adjusted spread (OAS), 770
stripped mortgage-backed security, 769
valuing mortgage-backed securities, 769ā770
Mortgage-backed security, agency, 768ā770Multiple yield curves, 747
Mutual fundās return, 343
M VA , 219 ā2 2 0
Naked option, 237ā238
Naked position, 418, 842
Nasdaq 122 index (NDX), 85, 232
index options, 232mini Nasdaq 122 index futures, 85
Nasdaq OMX, 232, 386National Futures Association (NFA), 62
National Stock Exchange of India, 46Natural gas derivatives, 787ā788
Negative interest rates, 252, 747
Bachelier normal model, 698cap valuation, 698
SABR model, 698
shifted lognormal model, 698
Net basis, 54Net interest income, 117
Netting, 216, 574, 842
Neutral calendar spread, 280
New York Federal Reserve, 816
NewtonāRaphson method, 105, 358, 746, 842
Nikkei futures, 136, 711, 816
NINJA, 207, 842
No-arbitrage assumption, 842
No-arbitrage interest rate model, 732ā752, 842
BlackāKarasinski model, 736BraceāGatarekāMusiela (BGM) model,
758ā768
HeathāJarrowāMorton model (HJM),
755ā758
HoāLee model, 732ā734HullāWhite (one-factor) model, 734ā735
HullāWhite (two-factor) model, 736
Noncentral
x2 distribution, 642
Nonstandard American options, 616
Nonstationary volatility structure, 751, 842
Nonsystematic risk, 96, 145, 675, 842Normal backwardation, 147, 842
Normal distribution, 842
expected shortfall, 524
Normal market, 58, 842
Northern Rock, 119, 823
Notice of intention to deliver, 48
Notional principal, 173ā174, 589, 842Markov process, 316ā317, 841Martingale, 670, 675ā676, 841
equivalent martingale measure result, 670,
675ā676
Maturity date, 31, 227, 841Maximum likelihood method, 548ā549, 727,
841
Mean reversion, 547, 722, 841
commodity, 786, 790ā792
Measure, 670, 841Mertonās mixed jumpādiffusion model,
642ā643
Mertonās model (debt as option on assets of
firm), 570ā571
Metallgesellschaft (MG), 91, 817
Metals, 786ā787
Mezzanine tranche, 202ā204, 599, 841
Mid-curve Eurodollar futures option, 402
Mid-curve three-month SOFR contract, 402
Middle office, 820
Midland Bank, 816
Minimum variance delta, 460, 841
Minimum variance hedge ratio, 80ā81
Mināmax, 615
Mixed jumpādiffusion model, 642ā643
Model building approach,
compared with historical simulation, 533
value at risk, 521ā532
Modified duration, 114ā115, 841Moment matching, variance reduction
procedure, 497ā498
Moments,
Asian options, 626basket options, 629
Money market account, 677, 841Monte Carlo simulation, 324ā325, 420, 470,
489ā498, 533, 660ā665, 841
American options and, 660ā665
BlackāScholesāMerton model and, 489ā491
BraceāGatarekāMusiela (BGM) model,
761ā762, 767
calculating Ļ with, 489ā490
exercise boundary parameterization
approach, 664ā665
generating random samples, 493Greek letters and, 494ā495
jumps, 643ā644
least-squares approach, 661ā664
number of trials, 493ā494
partial simulation approach (VaR), 533
valuing derivatives on more than one
market variable, 491ā493
valuing mortgage-backed securities, 769ā770
valuing new business, 806, 813
VaR measure, 533
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 874 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 875
Out-of-the-money option, 234, 843
delta, 423
gamma, 433
theta, 429
Outside model hedging, 752Overcollateralization, 204
Overnight rate, 99, 843
Overnight repo, 99
Overnight indexed swap (OIS), 173, 843
rate, 175value at risk and, 528
Over-the-counter market, 25ā28, 54ā57, 843
options, 242
Financial Derivatives Subject Index
- The index outlines complex valuation methods for derivatives, including Monte Carlo simulations and principal components analysis for assessing Value at Risk (VaR).
- It categorizes various market instruments such as overnight indexed swaps (OIS), mortgage-backed securities, and exotic Parisian options.
- A significant portion of the text focuses on risk management concepts, specifically the 'Greeks' like delta, gamma, theta, and rho which measure price sensitivity.
- The document references historical financial events and regulatory frameworks, including the Orange County bankruptcy and the role of the Options Clearing Corporation.
- It details specialized trading mechanics such as open outcry systems, position limits, and the distinction between physical and risk-neutral default probabilities.
Orange County, 111, 815, 817, 818, 825
partial simulation approach (VaR), 533
valuing derivatives on more than one
market variable, 491ā493
valuing mortgage-backed securities, 769ā770
valuing new business, 806, 813
VaR measure, 533
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 874 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 875
Out-of-the-money option, 234, 843
delta, 423
gamma, 433
theta, 429
Outside model hedging, 752Overcollateralization, 204
Overnight rate, 99, 843
Overnight repo, 99
Overnight indexed swap (OIS), 173, 843
rate, 175value at risk and, 528
Over-the-counter market, 25ā28, 54ā57, 843
options, 242
Packages, 614ā615, 843
Par value, 843Par yield, 106, 843
Parallel shift, 843
Parisian options, 622, 843
Partial simulation approach, Monte Carlo
simulation, 533
Pass-throughs, 768Path-dependent derivative, 653ā656, 843
Payoff, 843
PD, 843
Peak exposure, 573
Perpetual call, 615ā616
Perpetual derivative, 350, 615ā616, 843
Perpetual put, 616
Philadelphia Stock Exchange (PHLX), 232
Physical default probabilities, 568
Plain vanilla product, 614, 843
P-measure, 302, 843
Poisson Process, 642ā643, 843
Portfolio immunization, 167, 843
Portfolio insurance, 384ā386, 441ā443, 822,
843
stock market volatility and, 443
Position limit, 50, 235ā236, 843
Position traders, 61
Positive-semidefinite matrix, 558
Practitioner BlackāScholes model, 420, 450,
843
Premium, 843
Prepayment function, 768, 843
Price sensitivity hedge ratio, 165ā167
Prices, settlement price, 58, 845
Principal, 843
Principal components analysis, 534ā537, 844
Principal only (PO), 769, 843
Principal protected note, 268ā270, 844
Probability measure, 674
Probability of default, 563ā564
comparison of default probability estimates,
567ā569Numeraire, 675ā680, 842
annuity factor as the numeraire, 679impact of a change in numeraire, 682ā684
interest rates when a bond price is the
numeraire, 677ā678
money market account as the numeraire, 677
numeraire ratio, 683
zero-coupon bond price as the numeraire,
677ā678
Numerical procedure, 470ā509, 842
NYSE Euronext, 232
Offer, 842
Off-the-run bond, 821
OIS discounting, 842
OIS rate, 842
On-the-run bond, 821
Open interest, 58, 236, 842
Open order, 62
Open outcry trading system, 25, 46, 842Option, 31ā33, 842
class, 234, 842credit default swap, 597
difference between futures (or forward)
contracts and, 31, 227
exercise limits, 235ā236
exercising, 239
exotic, 242, 614ā635
fence, 615
hedging using, 35ā36
intrinsic value, 234
position limits, 235ā236
positions, 229ā231
regulation of, 239ā240
series, 234, 842
taxation, 240ā241
time value, 234
trading, 236ā242
trading costs, 237two correlated assets, 658ā660
types of, 31, 227
Option-adjusted spread (OAS), 770, 842Options Clearing Corporation (OCC), 239,
842
Options in an investment opportunity, 806ā813
Options involving several assets, 628ā629
Options on bonds, 736ā737, 749ā750
Options to defer, 808
Options to exchange one asset for another,
627ā628, 681ā682
Options to extend life, 808
Orange County, 111, 815, 817, 818, 825
Order, types of, 61ā62
Organization of swaps trading, 178ā180
Outer barrier, 656ā657
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 875 30/04/2021 17:59
876 Subject Index
Regulatory arbitrage, 210
Reinsurance, against catastrophic risks (CAT
reinsurance), 796
RendlemanāBartter interest rate model,
721ā722
Repo, 99, 844
Repo rate, 99, 844
overnight repo, 99term repo, 99
Repricing (employee stock options), 373Repurchase agreement, 99
Reset date, 844
Restricted stock unit, 373, 375, 845
Retractable bond, 689
Reverse calendar spreads, 280
Reversion level, 722, 845
Reversion rate, 722, 845
Rho, 436ā437, 439, 845
estimating, using binomial tree, 477
Right-way risk, 574Rights issue, 845
Risk,
back testing, 534basis, 75ā79
credit, 193, 562ā583
nonsystematic, 96, 145, 675, 842
stress test, 819
systematic, 96, 145ā146, 675, 847
Risk and return, relationship between for
futures, 145ā146
Financial Derivatives and Risk Index
- The text provides a comprehensive index of financial instruments, including exotic options like quantos, rainbow options, and ratchet caps.
- It details various risk management frameworks such as Value at Risk (VaR), stress testing, and the distinction between systematic and nonsystematic risk.
- The index highlights the transition in reference rates, specifically mentioning the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR) and the Sterling Overnight Index Average (SONIA).
- Valuation methodologies are categorized through risk-neutral worlds, stochastic processes, and specific models like SABR and rough volatility.
Risk-neutral world, 292ā294, 845 interest rate process, 727ā728 interest rates, 719 real world vs., 294
overnight repo, 99term repo, 99
Repricing (employee stock options), 373Repurchase agreement, 99
Reset date, 844
Restricted stock unit, 373, 375, 845
Retractable bond, 689
Reverse calendar spreads, 280
Reversion level, 722, 845
Reversion rate, 722, 845
Rho, 436ā437, 439, 845
estimating, using binomial tree, 477
Right-way risk, 574Rights issue, 845
Risk,
back testing, 534basis, 75ā79
credit, 193, 562ā583
nonsystematic, 96, 145, 675, 842
stress test, 819
systematic, 96, 145ā146, 675, 847
Risk and return, relationship between for
futures, 145ā146
Risk limits, 817ā818Risk-free interest rate, 101, 566, 845
effect on option price, 250
RiskMetrics, 545
Risk-neutral valuation, 292ā294, 351ā352,
391, 471, 568, 570, 803ā805, 845
Risk-neutral world, 292ā294, 845
interest rate process, 727ā728interest rates, 719real world vs., 294
rolling forward risk-neutral, 759
traditional, 670, 673
Roll back, 845Rolling forward risk-neutral, 759
Rolling risk-neutral world, 759
Rough volatility models, 329, 648ā649, 845
SABR model, 647ā648, 698, 845
SARON, 99, 100, 845
Savings and Loans, 119
Scalper, 61, 845
Scenario analysis, 437ā438, 819, 845
Seasonality, 786, 792ā794
Secured overnight financing rate (SOFR), 99,
100, 846estimating, using bond prices, 564ā566estimating, using equity prices, 570ā571
historical default probabilities, 563ā564
implied from bond data, 564ā566
implied from credit default swaps, 594
risk-neutral vs. real-world, 568ā569
Procter and Gamble, 782, 817, 819, 825Profit center, 825
Program trading, 137, 844
Protective put, 270, 844
Pull-to-par, 844
Pure jump model, 641
Put option, 31, 227ā231, 844
Putācall parity, 255ā257, 262ā263, 270ā272,
390, 394, 405ā406, 451ā452, 844
caps and floors, 695
Puttable bond, 689, 844Puttable swap, 195, 844
Q-measure, 302, 844
Quadratic model, value at risk, 530ā532
Quadratic resampling, variance reduction
procedure, 497
Quanto, 195, 711, 844
Quasi-random sequence, variance reduction
procedure, 498, 844
Quotations,
commodity futures, 57ā59currency futures, 65, 140
foreign exchange rate, 65
interest rate futures, 155ā156
quoted price, bond and Treasury bill, 154,
690
stock index futures, 84
Treasury bills, 154
Treasury bond and note futures, 155
Treasury bonds, 154
USD/GBP exchange rate, 28ā29
Rainbow option, 628, 844Random factor loadings model, 609
Random walk, 288
Range forward contract, 387ā389, 615, 844
Ratchet cap, 762ā763, 844
Rating agencies, 562
Real options, 23, 802ā813, 844
Real world,
interest rate process, 727ā728interest rates, 719
Rebalancing, 347, 422, 844Recovery rate, 564, 595, 844
Reference entity, 589, 844Reference interest rates, 99
Reference rates, 99ā101
and credit risk, 101
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 876 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 877
Spread trading strategy, 272ā280
Spread transaction, 846
Stack and roll, 89ā90, 846
Standard and Poorās (S&P), 562
Standard and Poorās (S&P) Index, 60, 85
122 Index (OEX and XEO) 232, 384522 Index (SPX) 85, 232, 384
Mini S&P 522 futures, 85
options, 232, 384
Static hedge, 422, 632ā634, 846Static options replication, 632ā634, 846
Step-up swap, 195, 773, 846
Sterling overnight index average (SONIA), 99,
100
Sticky cap, 762ā763, 846
Stochastic process, 316ā330, 846
correlated, 326ā327
Stochastic variable, 846
Stochastic volatility models, 646ā649
Stock dividend, 235, 846Stock index/indices, 84ā85, 846
Stock option, 233ā236, 846
dividend and stock split, 234ā235employee, 242, 371ā381
expiration dates, 227, 233
flex option, 234, 384
long-term equity anticipation securities
(LEAPS), 233, 384
margins, 237ā238
naked, 237ā238
position and exercise limits, 235ā236
regulations of, 239ā240
specification of, 233ā236
strike price, 233ā234
taxation, 240ā241
terminology, 234
trading, 236ā242
Stock option valuation,
American options on dividend paying
stock, 360ā362
American options on non-dividend paying
stock, 470ā477
Financial Derivatives Index
- The text provides a comprehensive index of stock option mechanics, covering everything from strike prices and expiration dates to complex employee stock option regulations.
- Detailed methodologies for stock option valuation are listed, including binomial trees, Blackās approximation, and specific models for dividend-paying versus non-dividend-paying stocks.
- A wide variety of swap instruments are categorized, ranging from standard currency and equity swaps to more exotic variance and volatility swaps.
- The index highlights advanced risk management and interest rate modeling concepts such as short rate calibration, no-arbitrage models, and the Greeks like Theta and Gamma.
- Market participants and structures are identified, including the roles of speculators, specialists, and the regulatory oversight of the Securities and Exchange Commission.
Siegelās paradox, 714. Simulation, 846. Single tranche trading, 600ā601. SociĆ©tĆ© GĆ©nĆ©rale, 40, 815ā816, 820.
Stock dividend, 235, 846Stock index/indices, 84ā85, 846
Stock option, 233ā236, 846
dividend and stock split, 234ā235employee, 242, 371ā381
expiration dates, 227, 233
flex option, 234, 384
long-term equity anticipation securities
(LEAPS), 233, 384
margins, 237ā238
naked, 237ā238
position and exercise limits, 235ā236
regulations of, 239ā240
specification of, 233ā236
strike price, 233ā234
taxation, 240ā241
terminology, 234
trading, 236ā242
Stock option valuation,
American options on dividend paying
stock, 360ā362
American options on non-dividend paying
stock, 470ā477
assumptions, 251binomial tree, 288ā304, 470ā489
Blackās approximation, 363
bounds for dividend-paying stocks, 262ā263
bounds for non-dividend-paying stocks,
252ā254
dividend yield, 390ā391
dividends, 251, 360ā362
employee stock options, 376ā379
European options on a dividend-paying
stock, 360ā362, 390ā391
European options on a non-dividend-paying
stock, 352ā356Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC),
240, 379, 845
Securitization, 201ā205, 845Segmentation theory, shape of zero curve, 117
Self-financing portfolio, 349, 845
Settlement amount, 216
Settlement price, 58, 845
Sharpe ratio, 672, 845
Shell, 817
Shifted lognormal model, 698, 845
Short hedge, 71, 845
Short position, 28, 33, 845
Short rate, 719, 845
calibration, 749ā751equilibrium models, 719ā729
general tree-building procedure, 740ā749
hedging using one-factor models, 751ā752
interest rate trees, 738ā749
no-arbitrage models, 732ā752
options on bonds, 736ā737volatility structures, 737ā738
Short rate models, 719ā752Short selling, 125ā126, 845
Shorting, 125ā126
Short-term funding, 823
Short-term risk-free rate, 845
Shout option, 625ā626, 846
Siegelās paradox, 714
Simulation, 846
Single tranche trading, 600ā601
SociĆ©tĆ© GĆ©nĆ©rale, 40, 815ā816, 820
SOFR, 99, 100, 846
SOFR Futures, 160, 162ā163
SONIA, 99, 100, 846
SPDR S&P 522, 232
Special purpose vehicle, 202
Specialist, 846
Speculation,
using futures, 36ā37
using options, 37ā38
Speculators, 36ā38, 825, 846Spline function, 108
Spot,
contract, 28convergence of futures price to spot price,
50ā51
forward prices and spot prices, 28, 127ā134
futures option compared to spot option,
404ā405
futures prices and expected future spot
prices, 144ā147
interest rate, 104, 846
price, 846
volatility, 696, 846
Spread option, 846
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 877 30/04/2021 17:59
878 Subject Index
credit risk and, 193
cross currency, 777
currency, 186ā193, 776ā777, 833
deferred, 699
differential (diff swap), 777
embedded options, 779ā781
equity, 195, 777ā778
forward swaps, 195, 699
index amortizing, 781
indexed principal, 781
organization of trading, 178ā180
risk-free rates, 175ā176
step-up, 195, 773
total return, 597ā598, 848
variance, 629ā631
volatility, 195, 629ā631
Swaption, 195, 699ā702, 847
Bermudan swaptions, 767ā768
European swaption, 699ā702, 764ā766
relation to bond options, 700theoretical justification for Blackās model,
701ā702
Swing option, electricity and natural gas
market, 789, 847
Swiss average rate overnight (SARON), 99, 100
Synthetic CDO, 599, 847
valuation, 601ā610
Synthetic option, 441ā443, 847
Systematic risk, 96, 145ā146, 569, 675, 847
Systemic risk, 55ā57, 847
TABX index, 208
Tail loss, 847
Tailing the hedge, 83, 847
Take-and-pay option, electricity and natural
gas market, 789, 847
Tax, 63
planning strategy, 241
Taxpayer Relief Act of 2,019, 241Taylor series expansion, 451
Teaser rate, 206
TED spread, 209, 847
Tenor, 847
Term repo, 99
Term structure model of interest rates, 719ā752
Term structure of interest rates, 847
Term structure theories, shape of zero curve,
117
Terminal value, 847
Theta, 427ā429, 439, 847
estimating, using binomial tree, 477relationship with delta and gamma, 433
Time decay, 427, 847Time value, 234, 847
Time-dependent parameters, 488ā489European options on stocks paying known
dividend yields, 390ā391
Financial Derivatives Index and Glossary
- The text serves as a comprehensive index for financial instruments, covering complex derivatives such as swaps, options, and subprime mortgages.
- It details various risk management metrics including Value at Risk (VaR), expected shortfall, and the 'Greeks' like Theta and Vega.
- The index highlights the mathematical foundations of finance, referencing Taylor series expansions, binomial trees, and the Vasicek interest rate model.
- Market mechanics and trading strategies are categorized, ranging from stop-loss orders to sophisticated variance reduction procedures in Monte Carlo simulations.
Theta, 427ā429, 439, 847 estimating, using binomial tree, 477 relationship with delta and gamma, 433
Taxpayer Relief Act of 2,019, 241Taylor series expansion, 451
Teaser rate, 206
TED spread, 209, 847
Tenor, 847
Term repo, 99
Term structure model of interest rates, 719ā752
Term structure of interest rates, 847
Term structure theories, shape of zero curve,
117
Terminal value, 847
Theta, 427ā429, 439, 847
estimating, using binomial tree, 477relationship with delta and gamma, 433
Time decay, 427, 847Time value, 234, 847
Time-dependent parameters, 488ā489European options on stocks paying known
dividend yields, 390ā391
factors affecting prices, 247ā251
implied distribution, 457
putācall parity, 255ā257, 262ā263, 451ā452
risk-neutral valuation, 391
stockās expected return and, 292ā293
volatility smile (skew), 456ā457
Stock prices,
distribution of rate of return, 340ā341
expected return, 341ā342
lognormal property, 328ā329, 339ā340
process for, 322ā326
volatility, 342, 456ā457
Stock split, 234ā235, 846Stockās expected return, 341ā342
irrelevance of, 292ā293, 351
Stocks-to-use ratio, 786
Stop order, 61
Stop-and-limit order, 61Stopālimit order, 61
Stop-loss order, 61
Stop-loss strategy, 418ā420
Storage cost, 141, 846
Straddle, 281ā282, 846
Strangle, 283, 846
Strap, 282, 846
Stratified sampling, 497
Strengthening of the basis, 76
Stress testing, 819, 847
Stressed expected shortfall (ES), 521, 847
Stressed VaR, 521, 847
Strike price, 31, 227, 847
Strip, 282, 847
Strip bonds, 129, 847
Stripped mortgage-backed securities, 769
Subprime mortgage, 816, 847
Subprime mortgages, 205ā208
Sumitomo, 817Swap execution facility (SEF), 26, 847
Swap rate, 179, 699, 847
convexity adjustment, 709
Swaps, 172ā196, 847
accrual, 195, 779amortizing, 195, 773
basis, 775
cancelable, 780
cancelable compounding, 780ā781
clearing house, 179
commercial paper (CP) rate, 194
commodity, 195, 781
comparative-advantage argument, 181ā183,
188ā189
compounding, 195, 775ā776
confirmations, 180
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 878 30/04/2021 17:59
Subject Index 879
Up-and-in calls, 621
Up-and-in option, 621, 848
Up-and-in puts, 621
Up-and-out calls, 621
Up-and-out option, 621, 848
Up-and-out puts, 621
Upfront payment, 602, 603
Uptick, 126, 848
U.S. Department of Agriculture, 785
Valuation of a business, 806
Value at risk (VaR), 514ā538, 848
and bank regulation, 515and expected shortfall, 516
cash-flow mapping and, 528
comparison of approaches, 533ā534
confidence level, 514
C-VaR, 516
diversification benefits and, 524
expected shortfall, 835historical simulation, 517ā521
interest rates and, 527ā528
linear model, 524ā530
model-building approach, 521ā532
Monte Carlo simulation, 533
principal components analysis, 534ā537
quadratic model, 530ā532
RiskMetrics and, 545
time horizon, 516ā517
volatilities and, 522
Variance rate, 542, 848
estimating using maximum likelihood
methods, 548ā549
Variance reduction procedures, 495ā498, 849
antithetic variable technique, 496control variate technique, 496
importance sampling, 496ā497
moment matching, 497ā498
quadratic resampling, 497quasi-random sequences, 498
stratified sampling, 497
Variance swap, 629ā631, 849Variance targeting, 550
Varianceācovariance matrix, 526, 558, 848
Variance-gamma model, 644ā646, 848
Variation margin, 52, 849
Vasicek credit model, 580ā581
Vasicek interest rate model, 722ā728
compared with CoxāIngersollāRoss, 724
Vega, 434ā436, 439, 555ā556, 849
Vega neutral portfolio, 434, 849
estimating using binomial tree, 477interest rate derivatives, 703
Vesting period, 372, 849Vickers, Sir John, 212Time-of-day order, 62
Timing adjustment, 710ā711, 848
accrual swap, 779
To-arrive contract, 24
Tokyo Financial Exchange (TFX), 46
Tokyo overnight average rate (TONAR), 99, 100
TONAR, 99, 100, 848
Top straddles, 281
Top vertical combination, 281
Total return indices, 518
Total return swap, 597ā598, 848
Tradeable derivatives, prices of, 351
Traders, types of, 33ā39, 61
Trading costs, options, 237
Financial Derivatives Index
- The index covers a vast array of complex financial instruments including weather derivatives, total return swaps, and interest rate products.
- Significant attention is given to volatility modeling, encompassing implied volatility, smiles, skews, and the VIX index.
- Technical valuation methods such as trinomial trees, binomial trees, and the Wiener process are cross-referenced for various asset classes.
- The text includes regulatory and historical contexts, referencing the Volcker rule, the Orange County yield curve crisis, and Sir John Vickers.
- Trading strategies are categorized into spreads, combinations, and single option-stock interactions to manage risk-neutral portfolios.
Wild card play, 159, 849
Vega neutral portfolio, 434, 849
estimating using binomial tree, 477interest rate derivatives, 703
Vesting period, 372, 849Vickers, Sir John, 212Time-of-day order, 62
Timing adjustment, 710ā711, 848
accrual swap, 779
To-arrive contract, 24
Tokyo Financial Exchange (TFX), 46
Tokyo overnight average rate (TONAR), 99, 100
TONAR, 99, 100, 848
Top straddles, 281
Top vertical combination, 281
Total return indices, 518
Total return swap, 597ā598, 848
Tradeable derivatives, prices of, 351
Traders, types of, 33ā39, 61
Trading costs, options, 237
Trading days vs. calendar days, 345ā346
Trading strategies,
combinations, 280ā283involving options, 268ā285
single option and stock, 270ā272
spreads, 272ā280
Trading volume, 58
Traditional risk-neutral world, 670, 673,
713ā714, 720, 848
Tranche, 202ā204, 599, 848
Transaction cost, 427, 848
Treasury bill, 848
Treasury bond, 848
Treasury bond futures, 155ā160, 848
cheapest-to-deliver bond, 157ā158conversion factors, 155ā158
quotations, 155
wild card play, 159
Treasury bond futures option, 403ā404Treasury note, 848
Treasury note futures, 155ā160, 848
Treasury rate, 98ā99
zero rate, 104, 106ā108
Tree, 848
Trinomial tree, 487ā488, 738ā749, 848
analytic results, 747ā748
calibration, 749ā751
commodity, 790ā794
construction for BlackāKarasinski, 745ā747
construction for HullāWhite, 740ā745
illustration, 738ā739
nonstandard branching, 739ā740
relation to finite difference method, 506ā507
valuation of American bond option, 749ā750
Triple witching hour, 848
U.S. Department of Energy, 795
Ultra Treasury bond, 156
Unconditional default probability, 563
Underlying variable, 848
Unsystematic risk, 145, 675, 848
Z06_HULL0654_11_GE_SIDX.indd 879 30/04/2021 17:59
880 Subject Index
Warrant, 241ā242, 356ā357, 849
Wash sale rule, 240
Waterfall, 203, 599, 849
Weakening of the basis, 76
Weather derivatives, 23, 795, 849
pricing, 797ā798
Weather Risk Management Association
(WRMA), 795
Weeklys, 233, 849
Weighted average cost of capital (WACC),
223
Wiener Process, 318ā322, 329, 849
Wild card play, 159, 849
World defined by numeraire, 849
Writing a covered call, 270
Writing an option, 33, 849
Wrong-way risk, 574
XVA, 216ā224, 849
Yield, 849
Yield curve, 849
Orange County and, 111
Yield volatilities, 692
Zero curve, 106ā108, 850
buckets and, 167
expectations theory, 117
liquidity preference theory, 117ā119
market segmentation theory, 117
theories for shape, 117
Zero rate, 104, 850Zero-cost collar, 615
Zero-coupon bond, 849
Zero-coupon interest rate, 104, 849
Zero-coupon yield curve, 850VIX index, 359, 631ā632, 849Volatility, 849
and portfolio insurance, 443ā444BlackāScholes model and, 342, 451ā463
causes of, 346
defined, 326, 342
effect on option price, 249ā250
estimating from historical data, 343ā346,
542ā556
forecast, 553ā555
implied, 358ā359, 451ā452
interest rate derivatives and flat volatility, 696
interest rate derivatives and forward rate
volatility, 760ā761
interest rate derivatives and spot volatility,
696
interest rate derivatives and volatility
structures, 737ā738
matching volatility with u and d , 300ā301
skew, 849
surface, 458ā459
swap, 849
term structure, 458ā459, 554ā555
time dependent in binomial tree, 488
vega, 434, 849
Volatility skew, 456, 767, 849
Volatility smile, 451ā463, 849
determining the implied asset price
distribution, 467ā469
equity options, 456ā457foreign currency options, 453ā456
Greek letters and, 460
Volatility surfaces, 451ā463, 849Volatility swap, 195, 629ā631, 849
Volatility term structure, 458ā459, 554ā555,
849
Volcker rule, 212, 849
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